#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 17 of 1
closed
I still kinda need help with this, any tips would be appreciated
Oh I see you want a closed subset hmm
what if it were true 
Yeah this might just be true since you require both closed and it’s a codim 0 Submanifold-with-boundary. Obvious examples occur if you drop either condition
Both at the same time seems strong
I'm sorry I just read that it's true for closed sets too lol, it's just that the guy gave a proof for compact sets
apparently this is necessarily true even when the covering is disconnected:
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3796928/633238
first consider a metric space
you can show that the open sets of a metric space form a topology
Do you know what an open ball is?
no
welp, in that case jumping into point-set topology will be a bit tricky. You can pretend T is just this weird set satisfying these properties without thinking too much about 'what the definition means'
it should make sense the further you go
or, alternatively, you can think of T as the space of "neighborhoods of X", whatever that means
a metric space is a set equipped with a notion of distance. Intuitively, distance should take in two points and give you a number measuring the distance between two points.
oh no like i dont know the fine details of it
ive just heard of it and that basic definiton, nothing else
formally a metric space is a set X with a function d: X x X -> R such that d(x,y)>=0, d(x,y) <=> x=y, d(x,y)=<d(x,z)+d(z,y), d(x,y)=d(y,x)
an open ball is a set of the form {x:d(x,y)<r}
where y and r are fixed
well i doubt these symbols will mean anything to them, given they don't have any experience with the metric topology on R^n
really @novel ember i would suggest you first take a look into the topology of R^n, iirc Rubin and Apostol have nice chapters on it
makes sense
if i were in your spot I'd be stubborn and learn point set topology first. so just try to 'learn' the above definition without trying to internalize it too much
it'll make sense after you see some examples
You canimagine a topology as the following : say you have a set (such as R) and you study a sequence (u_n). In order to have interesting properties of the sequence (for example convergence) you want to add something to your set : a topology. You can imagine a topology as a set of subset of R that you are able to use to "measure" how each term of the sequence gets close to each other as n goes to infinity (if you want to study convergence) -> Those sets are rulers that enables you to get a sense of how points or near or not near to each others. If you have just a few sets (so a few rulers) then it sucks cause if the terms of the sequence gets too close your rulers are too big to really quantifiate this -> This is not an approriate toplogy. Now you can use a lot of sets (a lot of rulers) smartly : some are infinitly small so you can "capture" how close 2 points are -> This would be an apporopriate toplogy, the one associated to a metric is one of those
I hope that it helped you, this is how I imagine a toplogy and sometimes it help me to think of it has a "set of rulers" that you are authorized to use on a set
I'm trying to prove that a covering space of a triangulable space X is triangulable. Triangulable means there's a homeomorphism |K|->X for a simplicial complex K, where |K| is the complex embedded into R^n
I've shown that for each simplex in K, its preimage is exactly n disjoint copies of that simplex, where n is the number of the sheets
but I do not know how to embed those simplices into R^n
any help?
how to prove zariski topology is non hausdorff?
well you might start by proving that the field is not finite.
well
are you assuming this is compact or like
imo you don't necessarily want to require that a simplicial complex can be embedded in finite dimensional euclidean space
this makes your life harder
hello, how can I start proving that if A and B are manifolds of R^m and R^n with dimension a and b then AxB is a manifold with dimension a+b? Isn't it just the fact that R^m + R^n = R^m+n?
given two manifolds you can construct charts on their product by taking products of the charts
charts?
okay, give your definition of a manifold
M is a subset of Rn. and there are open subsets in which union M is contained and there exists a diffeomorphism phi(x_m+1 = ... = x_n = 0) = M \cap U
just take products
cartesian products
if M is in R^m and N is in R^n and if (p, q) is in M x N then p is in one of these opens covering M and q is in one of these opens covering N
so there are diffeos...
start there
Could somebody give me some help on this?
think what's the one point compactification of S¹ \disjoint_union IR
Think this works?
well I am not
I know, but that's the defn we used in class
i thought about it a little and still have no idea how one would construct that
Think of N as {1/n} in R
There's no connected example - closure of connected space is also connected
use the lifting property, say Δⁿ be one of the faces, it's contractible so you can lift the map Δⁿ → X to the cover
thanks for the reply
each lift should give you a distinct face,
that part I could figure out, but how do we extend these to a homeomorphism to a simplicial complex embedded in R^k is my question
so I think where the simplices intersect, you use those map-lifts to attach each pieces
Is your simplex finite?
you can maybe give an inductive argument
nope, not necessarily sadly
i have no clue how one would even begin to approach this problem rigorously
there's a similar argument to show (finite sheeted) covering of a CW complex is CW, maybe you can try to replicate that
I'll send the proof for reference
thank you!
still, much appreciated
"Homology of wedge sums is the direct sum of homologies" obviously doesn't include the zeroth homology, right?
No, take S^1 v S^1 for example

This is true for reduced homology, which agrees with homology for n > 0
ahh right
For (ordinary) nonreduced homology the corresponding statement holds for disjoint unions instead (you can kinda view reduced homology as being a pointed analogue of homology in the sense that tilde H_n(X) = H_n(X, pt) and correspondingly you replace disjoint unions with wedge sums)
so I'm assuming the wedge product and the disjoint unions are coproducts in some categories
well yeah, Top and Top*?
Yeah
alright, many thanks potato
Np!
i have 0 intuition bc my professor follows Hatcher and it seems A. Hatcher has not heard about the concept of a category
The point being that given any maps X,X' -> Y there's exactly one way produce a map X disjoint union X'-> Y compatible w the inclusions etc, and if both maps are pointed then the map factors through the wedge sum of X and X'
Well it gets introduced further along right but yeah he could use them more
Oof
yeah, figured
thanks a lot
np
Hi, why in a locally compact space, we can chose a countable neighborhood system of compacts for every point? I mean why can it be countable? Is it in the definition?
I'm struggling a bit to understand the definition of relative homotopy groups pi_n(X,A,x_0). Is it that every face of I^n except one must be mapped to x_0 and the exempted face must remain in A, and the interior of I^n can anywhere in X, then you just take homotopy classes relative to these restrictions?
that looks correct, yeah
Yeah I mean another way that perhaps fits better into general theory is that more generally you can consider pointed maps of pairs $(X,A) \to (Y,B)$ (i.e. maps $X \to Y$ sending basepoint to basepoint and $A \to B$) and have a notion of pointed homotopies of the form $H: (X \times I, A x I) \to (Y,B)$; this allows us to form homotopy classes (denoted e.g. $[X,A;Y,B]$ in Spanier) of maps of pairs. Then the set underlying $\pi_n(X,A,x_0)$ can be defined as $[D^n,S^{n-1};X,A]$, or equivalently by what you said (since it's fairly easy to see that if you collapse all but one of the faces of $I^n$ to a point you'll get something homeomorphic to a disk with the exempted face becoming the boundary of that disk)
potato
But modelling them cubically makes it easier to define the operations I guess, just like with the non-relative case
$B$ a closed manifold and $f \colon S^2 \to B$ continuous. the fundamental class $[S^2] \in H_2(S^2;\mathbb{Z})$ pushes to $f_*[S^2] \in H_2(B,\mathbb{Z})$. if $E \to B$ is a vector bundle, under what conditions do we have
[\langle c(f^E),[S^2] \rangle = \langle c(E), f^[S^2] \rangle]
for a characteristic class $c$? (I'm considering the first chern class)
(m+p)akka
wait what does f*[S^2] mean?
sorry typo, should be f_*[S^2] as above
yeah oops I see. But yeah I have no idea lol sorry
this is the Kronecker pairing i assume?
But yeah not sure either oop this seems pretty general
for this am i finding a homotopy between a path from a to b and the composition of paths from a to c together with from c to b?
it's for my essay, in a book they implicitly treat these things as equal but I don't see how
Oh okay
yeah
sweeet ok thanks
Sure, I mean
The first thing I'd do is use functorality of chern classes to basically just turn this the LHS into f^* c(E), so it turns into like a question when can you move f_* over to the other side (well, turning it into f^* ofc)
And then I assume you can just always do that lol
Yeah that just follows from the definitions of the Kronecker pairing i'm p sure
Because like $(f^* \phi)(\psi) = \phi(f \circ \psi) = \phi(f_* \psi)$ on the level of chains and cochains
potato
@golden gust
ah yeah sure
coming in clutch
Watchu using them for? this is cool stuff
Oh yeah I need to look lol cause something I'm doing allows you to prove (non)existence of almost complex strcutures, which i imagine migth be related to what you're doing?
So like i think this is the integrality theorem or somethign
they (the first one) appear in the index of a differential operator I'm using
integrality, like newlander nirenberg?
oh ho ho
that is cool
related to the dolbeault complex if you've seen it
Okay so the theorem I was thinking of says that the top chern class of a complex bundle over S^{2n} is divisible by (n-1)!, corollary being that S^2, S^6 are the only spheres admitting a.c. structures
nice
But yeah that sounds much too closed
idk this bad boy
integrable case in S^6 is still open, which seems crazy
no, mcduff-salamon
but they reference a lot of things I don't know so then a bit of other things
indeed
based
Oh lol
I do wonder how/if the kronecker pairing generalises though
since like idk we're using both singular homology and cohomology and it comes from something on the level of (co)chains
For spectra level it would probably be some composite I assume
Whereas at least multiplicative cohomology theories exist more generally for example
Yeah
hm
need to learn about spectra better lol
just scares me how there are different models for them etc
👉 👈
What stuff are you reading lol
rn I'm doing HTT stuff and otherwise mostly old stuff ont he level of spaces
Rn I’m reading EKMM but I’m willing to read other stuff too
And Riehls categorical homotopy but I’m willing to pause one of them and read something else
if I define a manifold M with dim d and M in R^m. there exists open sets U in R^n and PHI in R^d (or R^m because M is in R^m?) with a diffeomorphism phi: PHI -> U. and can't I write PHI -> U \cap M because that's the only thing it maps to really? and is phi then the parameterization? because in a lot of books i always see it the other way around
That's what I have for now. Let $M\subseteq\mathbb{R}^m, N\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$ be manifolds with dimension d and e. Let $(a,b)\in M\cross N$ where $a\in M, b\in N$. So there are diffeomorphisms $\phi:\Phi\to U,\phi({\textbf{x}\in \Phi:x_{d+1}=\dots=x_m=0})=M\cap U$ with $\Phi\subseteq \mathbb{R}^d, U\subseteq \mathbb{R}^m$ and $\psi:\Psi\to V,\psi({\textbf{x}\in\Psi:x_{e+1}=\dots=x_n=0})=N\cap V$ with $\Psi\subseteq \mathbb{R}^e, V\subseteq\mathbb{R}^n$. So $U\cross V\in \mathbb{R}^m\cross\mathbb{R}^n$ and $\Phi\cross\Psi\in\mathbb{R}^d\cross\mathbb{R}^e$. So $\alpha:\Phi\cross\Psi\to U\cross V, \alpha(p,q)=(\phi(p),\psi(q))$ with $p\in\Phi, q\in\Psi$.
b3s4d
don't worry about what other books do, worry about what definition you need to work with
the open set \Phi should be in R^m
you posted the definition yourself
this was genuinely painful to read oh my god use double dollar signs here and there
not everything has to be inline
anyways \Phi and \Psi need to be contained in R^m and R^n respectively, not R^d and R^e. you can't have a diffeomorphism between open subsets of euclidean spaces of different dimensions (proof: the derivative anywhere is an isomorphism)
otherwise the map at the end looks good and now you just have to see if it works
well the map at the end is a diffeomorphism because phi and psi are, is what I thought
you're checking a bit more than just it being a diffeomorphism
Hello everyone, I would like to learn more about the construction of the classifying space of a discrete group. Does anyone know a good reference for this ? If possible with a proof that the classifying space of a discrete groupe G is a K(G,1) space. Thank you for your help.
Well if BG is the classifying space then we have associated with it a fibration G-> EG -> BG with EG contractible and then looking at the LES on homotopy groups associated to a fibration + using the hypotheses on G,EG you can see BG is a K(G,1)
As for constructions, well, I think tom Dieck's book (which is available online for free I think) has a nice construction of them (due to Milnor) but there are also ways to construct them as geometric realisations of simplicial sets (I think May covers them in his Simplicial Objects in Algebraic Topology)
Ok thank you for the references, I will see this.
np
Honestly https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/classifying+space is good too imo but I bet potatos stuff are better amd more detailed and stuff
Yeah the first bit of the examples section is the simplicial method i was referring to owo
question
in showing the product of fundamental groups is the fundamental group of the product , the associated mapping is not only an isomorphism but continuous as well, right? since $f_a:Y \to X_a$ is continuous iff $f: Y \to \prod_{a \in A} X_a$ is continuous.
since we're producting basically the induced homomorphisms of the projection mappings
MyMathYourMath
when you say "isomorphism" it's like you're thinking of a map of groups, but then you write something between topological spaces
thats jsut a general fact
I don't think this question makes sense as stated
in stating the isomorphism is continuous as well
but idk if that makes sense
since an iso like u mentioned is between groups
Yeah that doesn't make sense
groups don't come with topologies
topological groups tho
does the fundamental group come with a topoloyy tho
No
so we only need to show the mapping is 1-1 , onto and a homomorphism then
the mapping between fund group of prod and prod of fund group
sorry, im new to alg top
yes you need to write down a group isomorphism
and this group isomorphism is given as the product of the induced homomorphisms of the projections, right?
hey man! theres no such thing as a stupid question lol
i tell my students that all the time lol
oh you meant it to the topological grop comment
ahh ok sorry misunderstood
ur good
damn showing this mapping is a homomorphism seems tricky i think i can do it though, thanks!!
yeah it should be, if i read you correctly
thanks!
sorry but ahem every statement has to acknowledge even the smallest of exceptions 🤓
i think that drawing the picture for a concactenated path in X x Y definitely helps with this
Doesn't change the fact that groups don't come with a topology
So it's not an exception at all
Topological groups are analysis
no this is why analysis is just algebra
Can someone remind me why we can think of the quotient map of complex projective space as either $q:\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\to \mathbb{CP}^n$ or $q: \mathbb{S}^{2n+1}\to \mathbb{CP}^n$. I understand that the restriction to the sphere is still surjective, but is that all I need to explain this? I was thinking perhaps the sphere is saturated and that's why we can do this but I'm not sure if the sphere is saturated or not.
Or perhaps it is because subjectivity, continuity, and openness mapping properties of $\pi$
fajitas
the equivalence classes are related by scalar multiplication so you can always choose representatives with norm 1
if that's what you're asking?
hm on a second read i think i might be missing the point
Actually I think terra is just right that it's just fitting the def of a quotient map on CPn
but why must \Phi and \Psi be in R^m and R^n? I thought it only maps to a space R^d which is a subset in R^m
Oh i just read the next line my bad
the definition with the diffeomorphism is describing rigorously what it means for a d-dimensional submanifold of R^m to sit inside R^m as R^d does
R^d sits inside R^m as the set R^d x {0}; d-dimensional submanifolds of R^m are precisely those sets which are locally diffeomorphic to this
Ok yes
but what is missing?
i just wrote it
also the diffeomorphism maps from \Phi to U only not U \cap M
you're right
it needs to map \Phi cap {last m - d coordinates zero} to U cap M.
but in general it will map \Phi to U. i'll correct it
it's the same thing though if I write \Phi to U \cap M because these are the only relevant points in the image
I think...
Ok
it just maps the special subset \Phi cap {last m - d coordinates zero} to U cap M
which is this
i get it
I don't
.
.
you have not checked this part yet
that is what you're missing
but I did no?
Oh the actual alpha map
Ok I see I have to prove that the alpha map maps to M x N \cap U x V
XD
Ok let me try again
you need to check it
Can I set $\phi:\Phi\to U\cap M, \psi:\Psi\to V\cap N$ and create a new map $\alpha$ which satisfies this condition?
b3s4d
$\alpha: \Phi\cross\Psi\to U\cap M\cross V\cap N, \alpha(p,q)=(\phi(p),\psi(q))$
b3s4d
why are you redefining \alpha? i told you that you just have to check one condition on the map \alpha you already defined
because it doesn't have to map to U but U \cap M
right??
right
it maps \Phi to U and \Phi intersect (the set where some coordinate functions vanish) to U intersect M
as in
although the \Phi cap {last m-d coordinates zero} is a bit different from my definition
it is defined as a map from \Phi to U and the image of the subset \Phi intersect (the set where some coordinate functions vanish) = U intersect M
$\varphi\colon\Phi\to U$ and
$$
\varphi(\Phi \cap {\text{ some $x_i$'s = 0}}) = U \cap M
$$
TTerra
i don't see what you mean "a bit different from my definition"
although the way you wrote it there is really bad
i filled in the right one in my head
$\varphi({\textbf{x}\in\Phi: x_{m+1}=\dots=0})=M\cap U$
b3s4d
this is not the same
it's not the same because it's wrong
but that's my definition
yeah and it's wrong
and/or imprecise
it's just not precise. where is the diffeomorphism defined?
i assumed this whole time you had the correct precise definition in mind
these are submanifolds in Rn right?
this makes sense for me
i'm losing my mind
and/or imprecise
i'm trying to find a certain message but this reply chain has gone on so long discord is just breaking lol
no, it's not wrong. you're just not being very precise. the only place in which what i'm writing is different from your definition is the letters
i'm getting confused because i have to keep jumping between a million different replies
and by this i mean the dimensions
you said here M is in R^m and of dimension d
your definition says M is in R^n and of dimension m
this is the only difference
sorry for insisting it was wrong.
the smallest set containing T1 and T2 is { 0, X, {a}, {a,b}, {b,c}}, and to make this a topology we add unions/intersections of elements of the set to the set
So the smallest topology containing T1 and T2 should be {0, X, {a}, {a,b}, {b,c}, {a,b,c}, {b}}.
However i've found a couple sources online saying that it should be {0, X, {a}, {b}, {a,b}, {b,c}}. But this isnt even a topology since {a,b} U {b,c} = {a,b,c} isnt in the set?
so now I have to say that \Phi and \Psi are subsets of R^m and R^n because the dimensions must be the same and now I can't say that the dimension of M x N is d+e anymore...
TTerra
note that the big thing in the {} brackets at the end is the vanishing set of (n + m) - (d + e) coordinates in R^{n + m}
but they might not be the last coordinates as your definition requires
but it's okay for any of them to vanish as long as you get the number right
as you should prove
in particular the dimension will be d + e
and just to be absolutely clear: everything before "now consider" is just applying the definitions of manifolds
so I missed that last line and the prove would've been complete?
everything after "as you can check" is what you need to be proving
it's the most important part of the proof
nvm
Ok but the proof is now complete
because (U x V) \cap (M x N) is equal to (U \cap M) x (V \cap N) which is how phi x psi is defined
that's too vague
goddamnit
\phi, say, isn't defined by U \cap M. it's defined on \Phi as a diffeomorphism with U such that the image of a certain subset of \Phi is U \cap M
all i am asking is that you write precisely
I'm sorry but I really don't understand what's missing
.
it's hard to tell if you're understanding what's happening if you don't write precisely
also please don't ping me about this anymore
i feel like i've said too much about this problem and i want to pass the torch on to someone else
MyMathYourMath
consider the set of all b in B with that property and show its clopen and non-empty
that's how these proofs always go!
yeah
by connectedness
that's usually the trick if you have connectedness in general topology
only clopen sets are whole space and empty set
thanks!
and we clearly have non-emptiness by existence of the b_0
MyMathYourMath
i know for general open subsets of B this is true but im unsure for singletons
nope the preimage of a singleton might not be a disjoint union of opens
general example: take X discrete and the covering map X x B -> B. the preimage of a singleton {b} is gonna be of the form X x {b} which might not be a union of opens
i'm picturing like two copies of B projecting onto a base one
ahh i see
potato
I suppose this may seem weird but it generalises
Well, by continuous we may as well say locally constant
function valued in cardinals 
nu nothing, just a weird though >.<
felt weird when i first saw it, since the fibers could be infinite, but ig the size is still bounded by #E so makes sense
?
I am having a lot of trouble following this logic
Maybe I misunderstood the original question. Let me reread
Are you talking about in the subspace topology in the fiber or are you talking about like, open in the whole covering space
If you're talking about open in the whole covering space it's obviously false but then the question is not very interesting
I'm confused by this question since it seems to like be pretty much in contradiction to the previous question you had (assuming the space is nice)
because singletons are usually not themselves open so the preimage is not open
hey man i'm drinking tonight
cheers bro
it's fine lol it's really a matter of interpretation of the original question rather than your answer
i didn't mean general as in like every answer i just meant one where i didn't have to write down a space lol
hope you're doing well too diligentclerk you're a treasure to this server
Thank you TTerra. I hope my "?" was not too passive aggressive.
you're all good
Next time I will pad with more ???'s so it will be simply aggressive rather than just passive-aggressive.
sooooo based
lol nice

No. It is my friend Dan's dog. Her name is Summer. I will forward your request to Dan.
which previous question
that a path from a to b is homotopic to a path from a to be passing through c? that was the most previous question i asked which i figured out
in a path -connected space
that wasnt about covering spaces
No I meant that like preimage of a point being a union of open sets
Because in your previous question you talked about covering maps where the preimage of a point is a finite set
And finite sets are not usually gonna be open in a space (e.g. if the space is T1, connected and infinite this is impossible)
But diligent said p much the same thing as the same time anyway
You’re right
Question since the fundamental group of the product is the prod of fund groups
Then. The torus has fund group Z cross Z?
Under that theorem
Yes
fibers

Blitz

I would normally say fibre sure
I think that this must be very wrong
Because if you add finite unions then I think it should almost never give you a sigma-locally finite family
Maybe even it won't give you one unless it was countable in the first place
why isn't the intersection of non finitely many open sets open
ah
,, \bigcap_n \bB(0, n\inv) = \Set{0}
that notation
cope harder
It might not hold in general, but a weaker version of this holds in some spaces, namely every countable intersection of open sets (so called G_delta-set) is open. Those are called P-spaces
we might ask, what if we allow arbitrary intersections of open sets to be open, but under some weak separation axioms those become trivial, namely any such space which is T_1 is already discrete
similarly, under some stronger separation axioms, P-spaces also become trivial, namely a T_6 space which is a P-space is discrete
the strength of those separation axioms might not be optimal one which makes them discrete
hello can someone explain the symbol "∧" in the context of 1-forms? for example how can i rewrite w = xdx + ydz to dw = ... with these symbols?
this is not topology
might fit better in #diff-geo-diff-top but it's fine
∧ is the exterior product or the wedge product, the crucial property is that it's antisymmetric, so you have for example
dx∧dy=-dy∧dx
so in particular you have for example
dx∧dx=0
the d here is the exterior differential or the de Rham differential, you basically compute this by taking partial derivatives with respect to x_i and wedging with the corresponding dx_i
if w=xdx+ydz on R^3 you would have dw=dx∧dx+dy∧dz=dy∧dz
but where does the multiplication go?
for the first term it's w = x*dx + ..., so dw = d(x*dx) = dx*dx + x*d(dx)?
dx dx =0 and also d^2=0. You dropped half your terms for some reason
w = ... + ydz => dw = d(ydz) = dy*dz + y*d(dz) = dy*dz
I don't understand, here ∧ acts as multiplication?
Correct
okay thank you
SubGui

T_PR^2?
tangent space in the euclidean plane
(Otherwise known as the euclidean plane)

Does anyone have any good references (easy intro) to the structure of the naive homotopy category?
I know 3_1 is not satellite i.e. it does not admit a non boundary parallel tours which is irreducible ( i.e. does. Not have a nontrivial compressing disc) but how is this not a counter example does it fail ti be non boundary parallel or incompressible
And more generally for any know
Knot *
how does saying "the coarsest topology that satisfies property x" make sense
because not all pairs of topologies are comparable by inclusion
or does the statement implicitly imply that the collection of topologies satisfying property x are comparable by inclusion?
idk
it means it's contained in every topology that satisfies x
you might say it's the coarsest topology satisfying (pick your favorite tautology)
mhm
but wait
shouldn't the existence of a "coarsest topology satisfying property x" already tell you something nontrivial about x?
like it could very well not exist
so just saying "coarsest topology" gives you some information then
The existence of a "coarsest topology satisfying property x" is indeed significant because it tells us that there is a unique minimal topology that contains all the topologies satisfying property x. This can be useful in certain contexts, such as in the study of topological spaces and in certain types of mathematical proofs. Additionally, the coarsest topology can provide a useful starting point for understanding the properties and behavior of other topologies that satisfy the same property.
- ChatGPT
sounds legit
yeah "unique minimal topology" is a better way to say it
oh yeah that also brings attention to the fact that it has to be unique
wait nvm if two "different" topologies were contained in every topology, then they'd contain each other
ok but the existence is still nontrivial, I think I got that right
someone pls agree or disagree with me 😭
It honestly doesn't sound that impressive a quality to me but it's possible that it could be meaningful
That or the non-existence of such a minimal one
Try to come up with some example?
How does one go about showing that the unitary group is homotopy equivalent to the special linear group over C?
Can one use a similar proof to the one of O(n) and GL_n(R)?
im trying to use van kampen to find the fundamental group of the klein bottle.
we described the klein bottle with I^2 under the quotient topology that identifies the left side of the square with the right side, and the top side identified with the bottom side (i.e. (x,0) ~ (1-x,1)).
if we let U = some open disk around (.5,.5) with r<1, and lev V = K - (.5,.5), then UnV is homotopy equivalent to S1, U is homotopy equivalent to S1vS1, and V is homotopy equivalent to a point. this produces the same diagram as if we were to construct T^2 a similar way, yet their fundamental groups are not isomorphic.
\begin{tikzcd}
& \pi_1(U) \arrow[rd]\approx \langle a,b\rangle & \
\pi_1(U\cap V)\arrow[ru]\approx \langle a\rangle \arrow[rd, ] & & \pi_1(X)\approx\langle a,b | aba^{-1}b^{-1}\rangle\
& \pi_1(V) \arrow[ru]\approx 0 &
\end{tikzcd}
i believe this may be because the induced homormorphisms from the inclusion maps differ, but i'm not sure i see how they would
maximo
im not very comfortable with the induced homomorphisms from these inclusions. i think i understand that we get bab^{-1}a (or an equivalent expression) from going around the fundamental polygon, but i don't see how this relates to the induced homomorphism
I asked for book recommendations on sheaves but no one has responded for a few hours, maybe people who know about those books just don't check those channels? Anyway, anyone happen to have any? #book-recommendations message
For sheaves on a site there is Kashiwara and Shapiras Categories and Sheaves.
with regards to topos theory there is Mac Lane and Moerdijks book on sheaves in geometry and logic
if you just want basic sheaf theory then probably any book on algebraic geometry will do
or various internet sources like the stacks project
Thanks for the recommendation! I haven't heard topos theory yet so I'm guessing probably the algebraic geometry books are where I should start
Thank you as well 🙂
well we defined the induced homomorphism for a function phi as the mapping [f] -> [phi of f], which under inclusion i still don't quite understand the relationship between the mapping and going around the generators. is the idea that the loop abab^-1 is homotopic to the constant map?
a non-example would be if property x were "the topology has k elements", because if there is more than one the intersection certainly will be smaller
regardless of if it is is impressive or not, the existence of a coarsest topology is still not automatically known right?
that was my original question
noooo 😭 I was "... is typing" baited yesterday too
I'm not sure I understand this. Consider the set S = {a,b,c}. Let the property be that the Topology has 3 elements. What is the coarsest
ok change to 4 elements
es for emptyset
{es, {a}, {b, c}, {a, b, c}} and {es, {c}, {a, b}, {a, b, c}}
are both topologies on your set S, so clearly there cannot be a coarsest topology of four elements
You now have 2 examples to suggest no
Okay, so in my homework when a problem refers to some coarsest topology satisfying a property, I am implicitly being told that there does indeed exists one
Idk about that
Could also implicitly be asking you to show such a thing exists
Or depending on the statement might be vacuosuly true if there does not exist such a coarsest
like for this problem
I would have to show the product topology is contained in all other topologies that satisfy the property
and also that the product top. contains no subspace top.s that satisfy the property
The question asking you to show something is the coarsest with property X expects you to show that it is the coarsest with property X, yes
Am I missing something
sorry 😭
I don't get the confusion haha
I guess I just wanted confirmation
The question being worded that way implies that it is a true statement it wants you to verify
I think I thought that I would have to use the fact that there is a coarsest topology and I only had to show that it was the product topology
but really I can just prove it
Ah, yeah just do it in one step!
alright thanks!
oh yeah also this is not necessary
Does anyone here have some nice intuitive explanation why does the splitting lemma hold? I’ve done the computations, but I haven’t gotten the intuition as to why it should be true.
question
i know if stwo spaces are homeo in the topological sense
then theyre fund groups are iso in the group sense
but is the converse true
no right?
cause any finite set and R both have trivial fund group
[0, 1] and R too
true
ok sweet
then thats not the way about proving this hw problem lo
but its an optional exercise though from alg top
im new to alg top this stuffs tricky
@tidal lynx It is certainly possible that it may not exist. When we speak about "the coarsest topology tau such that P(tau) holds", it is almost always a trivial exercise to prove that
- There is at least one topology satisfying P, namely the discrete topology containing all sets
- the property P is closed under arbitrary intersection, i.e. for any family of topologies such that P, the intersection of all such topologies again satisfies P
Now once those two lemmas are established it is easy to prove that there is a unique coarsest topology usch that P. Namely you form the set of all topologies tau such that P(tau) holds, and take the intersection of all of them. This again has property P by assumption (2.) and it is immediate by construction that it is the smallest topology with property P.
Why do you say that property 2) is almost always trivial to check?
Because otherwise the writer of such and such lecture notes would not pass over it without comment lol. i'm not making some metamathematical claim i am simply suggesting that if the writer omits the proof, this is the most likely proof and it is likely doable by the end user without too much trouble
Otherwise you would not just handwavily speak of "the coarsest topology such that P" and move on
This proof is an example of something that a predicativist would get mad about, if you ever encounter a predicativist in the wild
Thank you!
this is redundant
it follows immediately from the previous one
For mere existence, as opposed to uniqueness, can't you always just make the poset of topologies satisfying ordered by \superset [so A \superset B means B is above A], then note that {\empty, X} [for space X] is an upper bound of each chain, and then finally use Zorn's lemma to show a "maximal" topology (in this case, that's the coarsest) satisfying P exists?
This argument is more complicated but it perhaps would be necessary to apply it if the property P was not known to be closed under arbitrary intersection, but only under intersection of decreasing chains. I do not know of an example of this off the top of my head.
Anyway, perhaps this is what you meant by "existence but not uniqueness" but in topology "coarsest" means "least", not "minimal". tau minimal = there is no tau' below tau with the property. tau least = tau is less than any other tau' with the property. You can have two distinct minimal elements in a poset which are incomparable, but a least element is automatically unique (any two are both less than or equal to the other, so they are equal.)
Zorn's lemma constructs a minimal element, but not necessarily a least element.
I have a question about the compression criterion
If $f \in \pi_n(X, A, x_0)$ is homotopic to 0 through $F$, sure at every $t F(f,t)$ is mapping $S^{n-1}$ into $A$, and then it says restrict $F$ to a family of n-disks in $D^n \times I $starting with $D^n \times {0} $and ending with $D^n \times {1} \cup S^{n-1} \times I$ with all disks having the same boundary. How is this even continuous
Iteribus
So we start with a cylinder of D^n and compresses all of the boundary together and I don’t understand why this F is still continuous at the boundary
At D^n \times 1 F(f) is already a constant map so everything is mapped to a point but this is saying that it keeps the map on S^n-1 fixed? so for this F(f,1) you go into the interior one bit and immediately everything is mapped to a constant?
You start with the cylinder and then „pull f down“, you basically deform a disk into a cup while keeping the boundary of the original disk at the top
This helped me when I worked through that part of Hatcher
I think minimal element could sometimes be more desirable in the poset of topologies tbh, so Xela's comment might be insightful. For example, given a topological space we may ask if there exists a topology weaker than it that's a minimal Hausdorff topology
but distinction between minimal and coarsest topologies if of course very valid and important
Hi, I have a question about the boundary operator in simplicial homology. I’ve learned homology using the field of integers mod 2, and so the boundary operator just “breaks an n simplex into a sum of n-1 simplices, but now using free groups, the boundary operator has an alternating sign. I’m just curious about the intuition behind this and why someone would define it this way.
The intuition is that the sign tells you about the orientation of your simplex. The standard simplices come with a canonical orientation, and it turns out that the induced orientation on the odd-numbered faces (opposite to odd numbered vertices) have the opposite to their canonical orientation
for a 2 simplex it looks like this (where the canonical orientation for an edge is in direction of increasing vertex number)
the signs / orientations then also give you the correct boundary when you glue simplices together, clearly the faces of the simplex in the middle here are not part of the boundary of the whole thing. Also note that all the orientations on the little triangles are induced from the canonical orientation of the big triangle
lastly the signs are the reason that the boundary operator squares to 0, which i guess you want because its true in geometry, e.g. for manifolds with boundary
or more abstractly you want this to get a chain complex of which you can take homology
i had not realized that about "coarsest". i presume "finest" actually means "greatest" and not "maximal". thanks for the correction
showing RP^n is second countable
thinking about using the usual basis vectors for R^n+1
dk how xd
no need to
what you just showed me
that quotient spaces of second countable spaces need not be second countable
so it has something to do with RP^n topology itself
ig
right. you need the quotient map to take open sets to open sets
is that true here?
wait it might be lmao
let me try
and seee
i mean
i got it but
i got it without using any of RP^n definition
so i got it wrong
here's another general useful fact: if you have a group G acting by homeomorphisms on a space X, then the quotient map X -> X/G is open
so
i want the group to just act by like multiplication
so this would work
like x-->tx
yo
i think i got it so like
t non-zero, but yes
better
exactly
ohh its geomeetry ofcc
im so stupid
i have to use actual geometry to think about things right
lmfaao who would have known
so umm
wait wydm X/G
set of orbits
for some g, yes
RP^n is the quotient of RP^{n + 1} by the action of R - {0} given by scaling
this is so op
yess makes super sense
cuz RP^n is likee the set of 1 dim subspaces of R^n+1
so if two have the same span they are the equivalent
ie both are scalar multiples
is that right
you should be able to answer that lol
yes ?
thats the relation afterall
okay got it
now to the hard part , proving its hausdorff
will try it out
tysm
nvm this should be preserved from taking the quotient right?
not in every case
in the case of quotient maps being open
cuz if i can just like map up the two disjoint nbds of the first space
right?
are you sure?
you can get non-hausdorff spaces even in this setting. thankfully, for open quotient maps, there is a nice condition equivalent to hausdorffness of the quotient
something like the equivalence relation being closed as a subset of X x X? it resembles the classic exercise "a space is hausdorff iff its diagonal is closed"
lmao yea
with specially a group action, you can also get hausdorffness of the orbit space by requiring the action to be proper
i have to show that the umm
"action graph" is closed
like
{(x,y)|y=ax for some a in R} is closed
right?
well i can just take like umm
like this is some planee or some figure or some shit so like
i can revert map it
or like
like continuously inverse it lmfao
but idk how
damn i could neveer do it without ur hint
i cant think of a function
so i can say the graph is the closed preimage
can someone help me understand the projective plan please
im reading a text by Massey
"topologize" bro how
yo wtf this is the same shit
i didnt read up at all
RP^n is fucking everyone's mind
i just be interrupting people n shit 
it's also defined as a quotient space of the upper hemisphere of S^2 which makes a bit more sense
but also not really 
i like the I^2 quotient topology representation too (at least just for RP^2). but it just depends on what you're trying to do with the space
is a filter just a fancy sort of subset?
i've heard you can use them instead of open sets but i don't know if i completely understand the concept
like a subset with a special method of selection?
in what sense
could you try looking up the definition and see if that helps
"Filters in topology, a subfield of mathematics, can be used to study topological spaces and define all basic topological notions such a convergence, continuity, compactness, and more."
That's not the definition lol
that was in response to blitz sorry
i did on wikipedia, but maybe that was the issue
usually you do not use filters as a replacement for open sets
they are used in tandem
specifically open sets or any sort of set? cause i would think there's always gonna be a set unless things get crazy
I mean that if X is a given set, and you want to do topology with X, you usually assume that there is a topology on X. Then you might additionally work with filters on X.
It is possible to do some topology with X using only filters without a choice of topology but this is something that only category theorists care about basically
ok. Do you know what a topology is
a set with some other stuff that connects elements?
i also read that "a net is defined on an arbitrary directed set."
clearly i have some more reading to do in general, but getting tired tonight
so is a net just a sequence except instead of N, you use a directed set?
Yes. Nets provide a lot more info than sequences (example: all reasonable topologies on the tempered distributions agree on convergence of sequences)
Yay
I was just reading that the bolzano–weierstrass property holds if you replace sequences with nets
munkres defines the standard topology on R by the topology generated by the basis B = {(a,b) | a,b \in R}.
Is B equal to the standard topology?
I'm thinking yes bc a set is open iff it is the union of basis elements. So if x is in the standard topology on R, then its a union of elements in B, which is itself in B. And if x is in B, then x is in the topology since each basis element is open by def of the topology generated by a basis
No. Take (a,b) union (c,d)
oh right so a union of elements in B isnt necessarily B?
Indeed
meaning we just have B is a subset of the topology
indeed. it specifically is a subset that in and of itself is not a topology.
If X is a set, then B={X} is a basis that generates the indiscrete topology {∅, X}.
How does this work with the fact that the topology generated by a basis = union of the basis elements?
In this context im asking how do you union elements in B (so only X) to get the empty set?
the union over an empty indexing set is the empty set
ohh
wait but if $\mathscr{B}={X}$, isnt the union of basis elements $\bigcup_{B \in \mathscr{B}} B$
michαel
and \mathscr{B} isnt empty so how does that work unioning over the empty set
is it that for the union we take no B in \mathscr{B}
if B is a basis for a topology then you get the open sets by taking unions of subfamilies of B
in this case there are two
the empty one and the entire thing
the empty set is definitely a subset of B
Isnt the topology equal to the collection of all unions of elements of B though, not subsets of B
and the empty set isnt an element of B
okay, more specifically, taking a subset of B and taking the union of the elements of that subset of B
alternatively, "taking the union of no elements"
okay this makes sense to me
bc its saying that open sets are a union of some number of basis elements, so if we let that number be 0 then its the empty union
everytime the teacher talk about checking whether the empty set is an element from the topology someone has to say: "but the empty set isn't a subset of every set?" 
Lol it is though
ok lets try this again lol
how does this break connectivity of U
Thank you for the explanation.
yeah, the thing is that for some topologies it might not be intuitive, for example the cofinite topology
the complement of the empty set is the entire set, that might not be finite
thats why some authors make sure to say {U | U^c is finite or U = X} to avoid that problem

I'm not really sure what there is to prove
Well
You should show that the "slices" are precisely the connected components of p^-1(U)
Not really a spoiler, that is hopefully clear
i managed to show the V_i and W_j are connected and found a disconnection of V_i
whats the simplest way of showing R^3\{0} is simply connected
i can see it
like you just wiggle the loop if it goes around the origin over or something and to a point
this is the same as showing S^2 is simply connected
oh yeah cause its homeo to S^2 x (0,\infty)
how would one go about showing S^n is simply connected for all n>1
any f:S^1->S^n is homotopic to a map f:S^1->S^n-{x}
i.e. you can deform continuously to avoid a particular point
but then S^n-{x}=R^n is simply connected
alternatively use Van Kampen to compute \pi_1(S^n)
and R^n is simply connected cause its convex right
sure that's one way to see it, or you can just deform retract to a point
may I ask why you used f:S^1 \to S^n instead of f:[0,1] \to S^n is it becausee its a loop? so end points are glued?
could I ask what a polygonal path looks like in R^n? is it just a composition of n many straight line paths?
like if p is a polygonal path, what does it look like how is it rigourously defined
yeah if we're talking about \pi_1 we're talking about loops, so it's better to write S^1->X instead of [0,1]->X and having to impose the gluing separately
yes it's just a finite series of line segments
Im struggling to prove (and understand) this exercise from sue goodmans topology book
I am fairly certain I have half of it.
If A-C is open => A-C = A n B for some open set B in Rn
with some shuffling =>
C = A-A n B = A n (A n B)^c
and thus C is written as intersection of A and a closed set.
I dont know if this is correct, or how to do the other direction.
Wdym by A^B
That is A intersection B
Yea i mean that works
Whatever syntax is most pleasing is what ill use, but its not really relevant beyond understanding i dont think
What I said isn't just different syntax
Nw
Does that work? It seems so simple
I don't really get the "shuffling" step just saying
I think so
Yea it should be right
This is generally nice to know, you can argue similarly that any non surjective map X->S^n is nullhomotopic and use simplicial approximation to show that any map S^k->S^n (k<n) is hullhomotopic and therefore S^n isn’t only simply connected but n-1 connected (all homotopy groups until the n-th one vanish)
I meant like algebraic shuffling as in subtracting C from both sides, and then subtracting A n B from both sides
Ok ig, I'll have to write it out to check
No sorry add c to both sides, then subtract A n B
I should really learn latex to make this easier to communicate
For the other directions note that arbitrary intersections of closed sets are closed
Well A is open, does that still apply?
Oh nvm
My initial attempt was to try and show that C contains all of its limit points by reasoning about which points it inherits from A n D but that didnt really go anywhere
D has all of its limit points, and that means that C contains all of D's limit points, but I dont know how to bridge that into C contains all limit points
It's generally not true that A-C=X implies C=A-X: just consider a situation where C is not a subset of A, like X={1}, A={1,2} and C={2,3}. It's also not generally true that (A∩B)ᶜ is closed in your proof.
As a hint, you should recall that here C is a subset of A and use that. Also recall De Morgan's laws for complements of intersections.
if you want a full proof here's how I'd do it
I walked away and I’ll need to look at this once I get home, but I really appreciate the detailed response
yeah, so first the definition of open sets in the subspace topology $A\subset X$ is
$$\mathcal{U}=A\cap\mathcal{V}$$
given $\mathcal{V}$ open in $X$.
Then, the forward direction gives C closed. Its complement in A must be open. Therefore using the above definition of openness you can find a open set in X such that its complement is closed and is exactly that D you're looking for.
SubGui
the other direction is basically the same and the De Morgan's Laws are useful
why does the pair being $2n-2$-connected imply $H^i(U(n)) \rightarrow H^{i}(U(n-1))$ an isomorphism for $i\leq 2n-3$?
lime_soup
that means you're being careful 
Does anyone see why this is an isomorphism of rings?
I think its the line `by the commutativity of the cup product'
do you guys know anything about triangulating polygons and generating different geometries for computer graphics meshes?
i'm trying to figure out which pieces of theory to start with as an absolute basis
Given an arbitrary knot embedded in S^3, how can I find a corresponding Heegaard Diagram? Is there a canonical way of doing this such that the resulting diagram is "nice?" In that the moduli spaces all have order 1
Is there any good reason to define the p-adic metric on Z by d_p(x,y) = m^-1 if |x-y|=p^(m-1)q instead of via the standard definition? For some reason this is the definition given to us by our topology teacher
Hmm actually never mind seems this is standard for Z I got mixed up with Q
Then I guess my alternate question is why do we define it this way for Z and differently for Q
ig they induce the same topology... but won't you wanna have a valuation/absolute value instead of some metric? 
so I need to show that R^n \ {0} is simply connected for n>2 and I want to to it using brut force , my idea is to create a small epsilon ball about the origin and have the path travel along the boundary of this epsilon ball when you near the origin. i.e., travel using straight line homotopy to boundary of ball the around the boundary then continue along using straight line homotopy. how do I make this idea more rigorous?
or you can say IRⁿ\{0} ≈ S^(n-1) and the latter is simply connected.
i am trying not to use that its homeo to that
I wanna see if i can brut force it using just loops in R^n \ {0} my only trouble is how dO i write doen explcitily for my loop to trace along the boundary of this epsilon ball when nearing the origin
it's not
cause i can totally see why iits true you just lift the path around the origin and shrink it its just writing this down rigouroiusly is tough lol
its homeo to that cross the positive reals
deformation retracts to that, but it's the same to simple-connectedness
don't think finding an explicit one, or describing one is that easy
its not 😦
pictorially i can totally visualize it lol but writing down a proof for it is a whole othr thing
one thing you can try is deform your loop to S^n-1, then assuming it does not go through all of S^n-1, you can unwrap the curve
I'm just giving the proof of S^n-1
you should read up on stereographic projection mymathyourmath
Are you talking about the deformation retraction? I thought that was fairly easy to describe
in case the loop is surjective, what we did is approximated the curve with a smooth one and claimed it cannot be surjective using Sard's
yeah that's how our instructor did it
i'm sure there are more elementary ways to do it lol
(to deal with the surjective onto the sphere case)
it's not I agree but other ones are boring
he even gave another proof of universal cover and van kampen
I mean you can do like simplicial approximation here too which ain't too bad
Does the limit of an arbitrary sequence in X endowed with the discrete topology is unique ? I know that this is the case for Hausdorff spaces but I am kind of lost here
bit of an overkill innit
discrete topology is hausdorff lol
Isn't doing Sard's theorem and stuff like that worse to prove lol
sard's theorem is more of a measure theory thing. just assume it's true
here you dont' even need to know about barycentric subdivision as you're just splitting up [0,1]
and [0,1]^2 ig
van kampen seems more elementary tho
since you're only dealing with the fundamental group
So you need to do this
Can’t you deform it by a compactness argument
Like take a point on the sphere and a closed ball around it
Then by smth smth compactness you can deform finitely many arcs of the curve to avoid your point or smth?
We used that to prove lower homotopies of spheres vanish, pi1 is a special case
Im pretty sure this is how you usually do it for S^2 I don’t see why it wouldn’t work for S^n-1
Just assume true
yes so did we
that's why i'm saying it might be an overkill
if you only want the statement for pi_1
It is but since they wanted an explicit description
yeah i did not say it doesn't work
Thing is surely you should be able to prove simple connectedness of spheres without using van kampen
you can
I feel you shouldn’t need any algebra for this
you can prove that S^1->S^n is homotopic to a non surjective map
Yeah exactly
... homotopic?
and then you're done because it factorizes over S^n-{x}
god damn it
Sphere filling loops
Lol same
Was about to
lmfao
btw our instructor gave a proof of Van Kampen using fiber bundles 
(assumed SLSC, PC, LPC but details don't matter)
the worst one i've seen is the one in may using the fund. groupoid and colimits
Honestly I never read a full proof of VK, just assumed true
the one our instructor gave
sadly I didn't have enough background to appreciate it fully
The one time I tried reading may that’s what stopped me from going further lol
yeah same i gave up working through it shortly after 
it's probably worth coming back to at some point
but recommending it as a first course in AT is a crime
idk if anyone actually cares about homotopy groups anymore
homology theory is much nicer to work with
it sure is easier
but has its limits to the information it carries about the homotopy type i guess?
of course they do
what do you think algebraic topologists do, if not study homotopy groups?
might have triggered a group of ppls 

if you stabilize, the homotopy groups do become homology theories
I don’t think that statement was meant to be taken entirely serious
stable homotopy theory is the only one i know about. is it something different?
a big theme in AT is that you have very powerful invariants like homotopy groups that are hard to compute, and you have simpler invariants like cohomology that you can actually compute
I just mean the stable homotopy group functor
and then there's a big game of like, how do you compute these more powerful invariants in terms of invariants that we can understand and compute?
that's definitely an interesting problem
e.g. the whole machinery of the Adams spectral sequence reduces the computation of stable homotopy groups of spheres to (still difficult) computations in cohomology
still hard, but it gives you a way forward
ouch
what is this
what are these
Never mind I don't care
Nobody is going to know what the hell you're talking about if you invent acronyms for everything
nobody is going to KWTHYTAIYIAFE*
Is this the one using G-coverings
Semilocally simply connected etc is bs cause every space is a cw complex
what book should me and ren use for point set topo
willard - general topology is amazing imo but I've only read like 50 pages of it so far
also has a very tiny analysis bend to it though so you might not necessarily like it
I was going thru dugundji but he absolutely lost me once he got to quotient topologies, still great book tho
there is this very nice and readable writeup of van kampen i found sometime ago
how do i rigourously show any path from a to b in an open subset of R^n is homotopic to a polygonal path from a to b I know that the path from a to b is compact so there exists a finite union of balls inside my open set that contain the image of my loop
how do I ensure these balls intersect nontrivially
cause a polygonal path is
so there is a partition of the unit interval
so that the path sends $[t_{j-1},t_j]$ to the straight line from $\alpha (t_{j-1}}$ to $\alpha(t_j)$
MyMathYourMath
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
im picturing a collection of balls that intersect
with the end points of each segment of the polygonal path in each intersection
then using convexity
to construct the straight line homotopy from the arbitrary path to the straight line segment on each ball
well they have to, or you'd lose connectedness
pull back your open balls to [0, 1] and it might be clearer
ahh
yes
nice
connectedness gets broken youre right which is why they must intersect non trivially
you get something like: [0, 1] is covered by finitely many open intervals, and in each one the path stays in a ball
That proof is cool
I didn't get it tho
cant i construct the homotopy
it's cool but needless cause eh van kampen exists so blackbox it 😎
and you definitely can't cover [0, 1] by multiple disjoint open intervals!
you could but it might be annoying to write down precisely
hm interesting question
right?!?
I can see it pictorially but having a tough time writing it down im new to alg top
partition [0, 1] into t_0, ..., t_m such that on each [t_k, t_{k+1}] the path stays in a single ball
do the homotopy in that ball for each [t_k, t_{k+1}]
then put em all together
Okay I mean I would give a slightly differnet proof
hm

aaaahhhhhh
you don't need epsilons
every point of the path is in your original open set so you can find a ball in the open
you can cover the path by balls in the open set
so like

or am i underthinking this
if $\gamma(t):[0,1] \to \Bbb{R}^n$ is a path from $a$ to $b$ then $\gamma(t) \in U_j$ for some $j$
since its in U which is open we can put an open ball around it properly contained in U
and as the whole image is compact theres finitely many of these
just draw a path in R^n and draw the homotopic polygonal path???? lmao
wait yes this is calm like lol
lol have fun!
i think also if you consider like { a in [0,1] : there's a path γ:[0,1] -> U with γ homotopic to your original path + γ polygonal on [0,a]} and let b be the sup of that set then clearly b > 0 but also like
you get a contradiction if b < 1
every open pat connected subspace of IRⁿ is polygonally path connected 
im not sure i follow this
okay so like the point is uhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
Let A be the set of paths homotopic (relative to endpoints) to your given path γ
and we can consider like the "most polygonal" one lol by considering paths polygonal on something like [0,a]
then you can show that the sup must be 1 and hence (with a lil more) that there is a polygonal path lol
but really this is just avoiding using compactness etc by using completeness of R directly lol
The more convenitional way woudl be to do what tterra said
interesting
just cover by finitely many balls and be done lol
is my main homotopy gonna be the straight line homootpy since im in a convex space
ye






