#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 15 of 1
but for an open covering that doesnt cover (0,1) does this work
(0+1/n,(n+1)/n) as n ranges over positive integers
or 1-(n+1)/n for the upper bound
an open cover that... doesn't cover it? why not just take an open set that's not (0, 1)
if you want to work with open covers whose elements are open subsets of, say, R, it works
if you intersect with (0, 1) you get (1/n, 1) and that's the standard example
which is simpler and still works
ive seen that but i was trying to come up with an interval with n's in the upper and lower bound
well like
(1/n, 1- 1/n) then
which i imgine is what you were shooting for
Okay, so there is an obvious typo (should be RP not R at one point) but how is it easy to see this is a surjection (lol accidentally clipped that off)?
It feels a bit weird when we don't have a definite description of what the map actually is; maybe I'm missing something.
Bott-Tu defines a locally constant presheaf as a presheaf where all the restriction morphisms are isomorphisms (and a constant sheaf when the morphisms are the identity). nLab defines a locally constant presheaf as a presheaf over a space X with an open cover that is constant when restricted to each element of the open cover. are these two equivalent?
Bott-Tu implies that resX,U: F(X) -> F(U) is an isomorphism, so F is isomorphic to the constant presheaf F(X) over each U since resU,V resX,U = resX,V for any open subset V of U, but i'm not sure how the other definition implies that each morphism is an iso
For any subset V of U, an element of the constant cover, we have resU,V is an iso since it's the constant sheaf, but I'm not sure how this implies that every restriction morphism is an iso, at least using presheaves. So is this only equivalent for sheaves?
hmm I'm not sure that this is the definition of locally constant sheaf...
why should F(X)->F(U) be an isomorphism? What if U is disconnected?
I see where my confusion is now
they specifically define locally constant and constant presheaves on a good cover
Aha
What’s a good topology book
point-set i would go with munkres
I wouldn't
I'd read Dugundji
also #book-recommendations is kinda more relevant
munkres is a snoozer
i feel like a lot of people (possibly including myself) just don't know any better though
For metric space topology there is Kumaresan which people online recommend
which I think people should start with metric space topology anyway
after that I'd go for some more advanced book, maybe from point set topology, but not really Munkres (like Dugundji)
but you can just go straight to the point and read Munkres of course
what exactly is wrong with munkres?
I had also used a book by a Sunderland or Sutherland that was quite good
idk how well-known it is
"Introduction to Metric and Topological Spaces" by Sutherland it was. think i mainly used it for exercises
i have only heard about that book from oxford/cambridge and never heard it mentioned elsewhere
it was on the suggested reading list for my topology course
Yeah nice
looking back it's a bit basic in terms of how far it goes though (what you'd want from a first course and pretty much nothing more)
I started reading dugundji recently, want to vouch for it
it is very damn nice so far
ya dugundji is nice
Problem: show that the version of the topologist’s sine curve shown here is connected.
Progress: Not far. I started trying to show that any nonempty clopen set C in (we’ll call it) S is all of C by showing that each x in R has an image lying in S. That seemed a bit much after writing it out and not conducive to using clopenness at all.
I am now trying to suppose per contra that there is some clopen set strictly between Ø and S.
My problem with just letting A and B form a separation of S is I don’t know how to whittle it down to (0,0) being the “separation point”.
Is this an analytical proof? I saw one online using an infimum of x-values along the right half, but it was a different version of the topologist’s sine curve.
closure of a connected set is connected
What would I do with the limit points after that? 
Aren’t the limit points S, plus the line segment from (0,1) to (0,-1)?
Important to my original method, or to using Blitz’s?
Oh, I see. Yes, that was in the statement of the original problem.
Good lord, the one on Stack exchange translates to this version almost immediately. 
I’m pretty sure I can translate this precisely. Thank you both and sorry for not reading more carefully.
I've been reading Pedersen's book Analysis Now, and I wanted to double check that I'm understanding the wording of one of his proofs.
That's his proof, but I thought the wording was slightly confusing, so I tried to reword it a bit in my notes.
Is this equivalent to the above proof?
This screenshot does not explain what sigma is
Sorry, it’s based on the definition of continuity given by Pedersen - it means the topology of Y.
It means the topology of Y?
What is O(f(x)) then?
I assumed it meant the set of open neighborhoods of O(f(x)) but then the intersection would be redundant, as obviously the set of open neighborhoods of f(x) is a subset of the topology of Y.
The argument looks like it might make sense if O(y) is the set of all neighborhoods of y (though where the letter O comes from is then a bit of a mystery).
oll neighborhoods
nice, pederson is my fav book.

I think they use the definition of nbhd as "set containing an open set containing the point"
Open?
I think troposphere's point is that if a neighborhood is not open then why call the set of neighborhoods O(f(x))?
imo it's a more natural definition for continuity at a given point
which is what he's talking about here
A function is continuous at a point if the preimage of every neighborhood of f(x) is a neighborhood of x
because the preimage of an open neighborhood is not necessarily an open neighborhood if the function is only continuous at that point
Is triangulation equivalent to finding a delta-complex structure on the space?
Usually it would mean a simplicial complex structure
I would say it's a matter of context. "simplicial complex" is itself sometimes used in a more generic sense
is there a name for this.
the collection of open sets that have boundary A
Hi, guys, why such B always exists?
you could take a chart at p contained in U and let B be an open ball strictly contained in that chart centered at p, for example
{0} cup {1} is a subset of E1 whose connected components {0} and {1} are not open. Yet E1 is locally connected.
oh god, I was so focused on whether 0 cup 1 is locally connected in the subspace topology and it made no sense
thanks that clears it up
Let $(M,d)$ be a metric space and let $A\subset M$. I already know that $A$ is compact iff $A$ is sequentially compact. How to prove that $A\subset M$ is relatively sequentially compact iff $A$ is relatively compact. In other words, how do I prove that for every sequence in $A$ there is a subsequence converging in $X$ iff the closure of $A$ is sequentially compact?
RaD0N
ok. I found it
I am currently working with cohomolgy theories in the sense of Eilenberg and Steenrod. It is a standard result that any two cohomology theories satisfying the Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms gives the same result on CW-complexes. Any recommendations on a short/consise ressource that proves this? What I have seen so far is lengthy and has quite big leaps in logic. I also thought about it myself and hoped we can give a more "top down" proof: Somehow a CW complex is always a direct limit (in Top) of its k-skeleta. Now I recall (not sure) that cohomolgies behave nicely with filtered colimits (in particular sequential ones). Thus it should essentially suffice to prove that any two such cohomologies agree on k-skeleta for any k. And these are somehow finite disjoint unions of disks modulo gluing -- so again a colimit. Hopefully this behaves nicely with cohomology again. What do you think?
Hmm, I can see this is related, but I cant quite make the connection to CW-complexes! This seems very general!
Ah I see
But that is not really concise and uses a lot of machinery
I see the point, but its not really what I am aftee
I am reading about triangulations. I understand the idea that we are putting triangles on a surface with some properties but i dont know how to actually do it. For example it says that we cant make a triangulation on the sphere with less than 4 triangles. How can i show that ?
like lets say i can make a triangulation with 3 triangles, how i will try to create it to show a contradiction ?
Thanks, I will check it out
i tried to create one and then i show that the Euler characteristic cant be 2 (which is for the sphere), but is this a correct way, i dont know if this is enough to convince me or not 😂 like what if i could create a different triangulation which would give me 2 for Euler's characteristic
btw sorry if i am interupting a conversation.
Suppose you have a triangulation of the sphere. You have a set of vertices, K0 a set of edges K1 (which is a set of unordered pairs of vertices) and a set of faces K2 (which is a set of unordered triples of vertices). Any face in K2 has all of its edges in K1.
I think you might be able to just work out what all the spaces are with 3 or fewer faces and classify them up to homeomorphism. There are not that many of them. None of them are a sphere.
For example if there are 3 faces and each face has 3 vertices then all in all that's 9 vertices. But it could be fewer than that if the faces have vertices in common.
Does that sound reasonable? You are classifying small simplicial complexes up to isomorphism.
In the case of the sphere you can discard complexes that are not connected or simply connected, and you can discard any space which is contractible.
how do you know if a complex is contractible without looking at homotopy
You don't know this. I was taking it for granted that we understand that a sphere is not contractible, however this is difficult to prove.
Anyway, given any simplicial complex with fewer than four faces and a small number of edges/vertices I am confident I can give you a simple proof that this is not homeomorphic to a 2-sphere.
So the problem can be attacked on a case by case basis
okay got it
Even before considering the Euler characteristic, a triangulation of any closed surface with an odd number of triangles would need to have a half-integral number of edges, which is absurd.
This excludes "1 triangle" and "3 triangles". There is a "triangulation" with 2 triangles, though: draw a great circle on the sphere, and declare three points on it to be "vertices" where two triangles meet. That gives you a triangulation with two 180°-180°-180° spherical triangles. If you want to exclude that (say, because it complicates notation and bookkeeping that a face is not given uniquely by its set of vertices), you'll need to build an exception for it into your notion of "triangulation".
Yeah this is where the right choice of definition of triangulation can make your life easier
What troposphere describes is a triangulation by a delta complex but not a triangulation by an abstract simplicial complex
yeah like for my triangulation there are some specific properties like every edge must belong to only 2 triangles and for every 2 different triangles their intersection will be the empty set or one common vertice or one common edge. So if i understand correct the triangulation with 2 triangles their interection will give 3 vertices so its out of my triangulations
is what you were doing an abstract simplicial complex? it looked like just a simplicial complex to me.
(do note that i don't know barely any algebraic topology, so i likely will be not all that coherent)
In an "abstract simplical complex", you forget everything about each simplex except its set of vertices. This is usually enough to reconstruct the original space up to homeomorphism when the complex is abstracted from an actual geometric simplical complex -- except in degenerate cases like mine where the two triangles become indistinguishable when we're throwing away their interior points. You can always avoid this situation by subdividing sufficiently many of the simplices.
It was just a simplicial complex yeah but I was using the term "abstract simplicial complex" to be more specific about what exactly I meant. I have seen the term "simplicial complex" used to mean "delta complex" or "geometric realization of a simplicial set" but the term "abstract simplicial complex" always refers to a specific definition
Barycentric subdivision 
yo faye
I came up with a gigabrain definition of barycentric subdivision at one point lmao
Do you want to hear it
Ok "I came up with" I kinda stole it from Kan
First I define a notion of the "subdivided join" of two simplicial sets, if X and Y are simplicial sets then the subdivided join is constructed by taking the product diagram
X <- X x Y -> Y
and taking the homotopy colimit, so you replace those projection maps by their mapping cylinders.
Now you check that this 'subdivided join' defines a monoidal product on SSet. Let's call it \ast.
Now define the following functor sub : \Delta -> SSet: it sends [0] to a point 1, it sends [n] to the iterated tensor product 1 \ast 1 \ast ... \ast 1, n+1 times. You can check that this is the barycentric subdivision of the n-simplex.
the left Kan extension of this functor sub along the Yoneda embedding defines an endofunctor SSet -> SSet which gives the barycentric subdivision of an arbitrary simplicial set by gluing it out of the barycentric sudivisions of its simplices
Neat
it's ok that's what I mean when I say "I came up with" too
also ew
is there a topology (R^d, O) such that there exists a p with open neigbour B in O but is not an openneigbour in the standard topology for Rd if so can u give me example.
like most topologies other than the standard one should work right?
e.g. you can take the discrete topology
ohh yeah the question is kinda dumb
or even uh like
take any set which isn't open in R^d and then consider the topology it generates
thanks, im just speedrunning through maths to get an overview so my understanding is very limited
ye dw
or consider the lower limit topology on R^d as the half open intervals aree open in this topology but not in standard
or like potato mentioned the discrte topology gives you the same thing as all subsets are open in there
it's probably worth pointing out though that if you induce a topology from any norm then you'll just retain the standard one
What's the easiest definition of a weak equivalence between simplicial sets which are not necessarily Kan complexes and doesn't involve passing to the geometric realization
like the definitions I know are:
f : X -> Y is a weak equivalence if it induces isos on homotopy groups (but the homotopy groups are hard to define if X, Y are not Kan complexes)
f : X -> Y is a weak equivalence if |f| : |X| ->|Y| is a weak equivalence (and |X| and |Y| are CW complexes so this happens iff |f| is a homotopy equivalence)
f : X -> Y is a weak equivalence iff Ex^\infty X -> Ex^\infty Y is a weak equivalence
Another one is that f is a weak equivalence iff precomposition induces a bijection on homotopy classes f* : [Y,K] → [X,K] for all Kan complexes K.
Since we are then looking at maps from cofibrant to fibrant, it does not matter whether we take left or right homotopy and wrt to which cylinder or path objects. So generically we would look at homotopies X x Delta^1 → K
gotcha
I have an argument that I'm not sure how to formulate rigorously:
I claim that infinite unions of intervals of type [-a,a] are either going to be equal to:
- (-k,k) (such as for all a < k)
- [-k,k] (such as for all a <= k)
- R ( such as for all a)
It seems clear those are the only possibilities, but I'm not sure how to prove that rigorously.
Take the sup over the a’s in your union
So I can say that if a sup exists, then the union isn't R , but how do I know there isn't some crazy other possibility other than 1) or 2)
it is a symmetric, (path)connected subset of R, so its a symmetric interval, and the only symmetric intervals are of the form 1., 2., or 3.
I feel like I'm being pendantic but how do we prove that?
I feel like bringing in path connectedness shouldn't be necessary for a question so close to basic principles though. Maybe I'm wrong about this?
its not necessary, just a fast way to do this problem since (path)connected subsets and intervals are all the same thing in R
he means either the sup is in the union or its not, in which case you can get arbitrarily close to the sup using elements from the union (this follows from the characteristic property of the supremum in R)
So we need the completeness axiom for this?
no, you are studying all cases: the union has no supremum in R, the union has a supremum which is in the set, or the union has a supremum which is not in the set. these exhaust all cases involving the supremum and the cases only rely on the order structure of R (since we are considering supremums)
I see, that makes sense. Thank you!
try not to get bogged down with the specifics of the proof. if you just have the definition of a symmetric interval J, you should be able to deduce that it is either all of R, [-sup J, sup J] or (-sup J, sup J) with similar case work
J is symmetric if whenever x in J, -x in J.
J is an interval if whenever we have x,y in J and any real number z between x and y, that implies z must be in J
In this particular case I really care about the specifics -- I'm going back to the subject decades after college and I'm going through textbooks really wanting to understand it fully from first principles, as opposed to taking a class that has timelines.
Imo you do need the completeness axiom to say that there is a sup
i disagree. any subset of a poset either has a supremum or it doesnt. if it does, its either in the subset or its not
oh good point, thanks
Isn't the completeness axiom something literally built in to the real numbers anyway? You do need it but it's not a big deal that you do
that's true
you should start off with some algebraic topology knowledge
Like what are the required pre requisites from alg top?
Well as the name suggests it is algebraic, so you need some knowledge of abstract algebra first. Group theory and such. A second part that would be helpful is to have a good foundation in real/complex analysis and proof writing. Then I think you are good to start with algebraic topology
As for knot theory I don't know, haven't studied it
It sounds really cool tho 🙂
Thanks. I'll buy Colin Adams' Knot book too.
I didn't ask the question but recently I needed that topic to understand Wilson loop deeper.
It's not important to have a background in complex analysis to study algebraic topology
Hmm aight thanks
in a metric space, if p in B=B_r(q) then B is an open neighbour of p?
cuz it is in the top. right?
yes
what is the topological space (R, P(Q)) called?
i think it maybe a good example to use to study topologies and train my intuition
What
What is (R, P(Q))
Are you talking about $\mathbb{R}$ with the powerset of $\mathbb{Q}$ as the topology?
diligentClerk
The powerset of $\mathbb{Q}$ does not contain $\mathbb{R}$
diligentClerk
yeah
i mean every element of a powerset of Q is a subset of Q and there fore R and (trivially) their unions and intersections are again in P(Q) so it is a topology on R right?
i was wondering if it had a name
or maybe sth like top. space (M, P(N)) where N is dense in M
if it had a name
no
a topology needs to contain the base space as open set
why would R be in P(Q)?
this will generally not be a topology for the same reason
ah forgot the very first condition
I mean you could just add R to P(Q) and make it a topology but at a first glance this topology doesn't seem to possess any interesting properties
its hard to visualize
is it?
i mean i cant
having a little bit of a hard time with this homology theory problem:
Find the homology groups of the union of all k-dimensional faces of the n-simplex.
getting a bit lost in the details, and it isn't really helping that i have had to skip a lot of class and essentially self-study due to Circumstances™️.
so far i have written down that the i'th chain group of this thing is isomorphic to Z^(n+1 choose i+1), which is just... a combinatorial thing
i cannot even write down the boundary maps without getting into a huge mess.
<@&286206848099549185> long shot, but maybe?
ping me if replying
(resolved)
Is that Schuller
yeah i like his lecture style tho there are only 2 courses on yt
How does one prove that the (Cech-)cohomology of the warsaw circle $W$ is that of $S^1$? I have seen an argument for homology that uses the fact that $W$ is the infinite intersection $\bigcap_{n\in \mathbb N} W_n$ where $W_n = W \cup R_n$ where $R_n$ is a montonoically decreasing collection of rectangles covering the singularties of $W$. Then $W = \lim_{\leftarrow } W_n$ and $H_\bullet(\lim_\leftarrow)=\lim_\leftarrow H_\bullet$ gives the result as all $W_n \simeq S^1$ in a compatible/natural way. Does a similar argument hold for $H^\bullet$?
MrMonday
my brain is fuken fried, if (M, O) is a manifold with dim d, and there exists p in M such that {p} is in O, what does it imply
Ye tho he is v concise so make sure to read up more if you wanna learn topology properly
any book recommendations?
best if it has a video lecture based on the book
O?
this notation isn't universal
how do I go about civ)
R is complete and C is ______
compact metric spaces are complete in any metric
are these sub n's supposed to be sub k's?
looks like it
cool i edited it lol
also i dont understand why
U_m \subset U_n for all m \geq n
is that just basic set theory
by the way the U_n are defined
is this because. compact in metric is seqwuentially compact thus any sequence has convergent subseq thus so does any cauchy sequence and is thus complete
yes
Cauchy sequences either converge or have no limit points
but in a compact space any sequence has a limit point
compact metric space you mean? I thought sequentially compact and compact were same in metric spaces only
cause you could give a topology on a 3 point set in which no sequence converges, I wanna say
or there is a sequence that isnt convergent
and a 3 point set is clearly compact
can someone help me see why if $U_n:=\bigcap_{k=1}^n A_n$ then $U_m \subset U_n$ for all $m \geq n$
MyMathYourMath
Doesn't have to be
Maybe I'm using wrong terminollogy, I mean accumulation points
A sequence on a 3-point set will have a constant subsequence
$U_m = U_n \cap \bigcap_{k=n+1}^m A_k$
Blitz
for dii) I tried to use the hint and here is my thought process( probably going in the wrong direction). I said that every sequence x_i(k) is bounded as given in the definition and so by Bolzano-Weirestrass in R, we can find a convergence subsequence for each i. Then at maximum we have summation 1/n^2 and we know this is convergent?
I've worded this very weirdly and idk if that's even right
I think my problem is that if I take a subsequence for each particular co-ordinate, how would I don't really have an idea if all the subsequences coincide and give a limit
This is about Cantor diagonal argument
Take a subsequence such that first coordinate converges. Then a second. And so on. Take the diagonal
The resulting subsequence is convergent
so a subsequence of a subsequence of a subsequence ..... ?
Yes
but since the sequence is infinite is this valid
We have a sequence of subsequences
And this won't converge to a subsequence in any sense of the word
But we can place them one under another and take the diagonal
The result will be a subsequence for which each of the coordinates converges to some point
This is your convergent subsequence
I think this is the right place... so I have a collection of facets that make up a continuous non-self-intersecting surface, each defined by their vertices and a normal vector. I want to pick a point in space and determine if I am inside of or outside of the body, but I have no idea how to do that, besides maybe checking all the centroids of the faces and checking if the closest facet is facing away or not like obtuse angle criterion type deal, any help?
could i ask for proof verification here
on sequence of nonempty sets having nonempty intersection given their closed and compact
lemme make it sound better
here
took me a while but i managed to get it!
i think
if im correct that is
and for proving that union of connected sets with nonempty intersection does this suffice: Let X=U_nX_n with\cap_nX_n \neq \emptyset. Then there exists an x such that x \in X_n for all n
then suppose X. is disconnected then X = A u B with A,B clopen disjoint and non empty
then x \in A or in B
WLOG suppose x \in A
but B non empty so there exists some b \in B so b \in X_m for some m \in \Z^+
but then x \in X_m as well
but X_m is connected and can lie only in A or only in B
contradictign connectedness of X_n's for all n
its been so long im gonna step away for a sec so @ me if answering to either question plz
any1??
it's an advanced channel...
waiting hours for a question is extremely normal
I'm also a beginner to topology so take my words with a grain of salt, but I don't see why the U_n are supposed to be open
your connectedness proof seems correct to me, although you might want to expand on why X_m can lie only in A or only in B (esp if this is for an assignment)
though again, a grain of salt because I don't feel like I have a strong enough grasp on topology to be helping u out, just doing so because you seem to be in a hurry?
ive shown that separately
cause their the complement of closed sets
U_n = Y_1 - Y_n = Y_1 cap Y_n^C
Y_1 is closed, complement of Y_n is open
so isn't this just the intersection of a closed and open set?
suppose y1 was [-1,1] and y2 was [-1/2,1/2]
unless I am doing something terribly wrong y1-y2 does not seem to be open
its open in the subspace topology i believe @untold lily
you can write [-1,-1/2) U (1/2,1]
right, it is open in Y_1 but that is a very important distinction
and you need to mention that
yes
there are also problems with your last statements, although the main idea seems to be correct
you actually shouldn't have bothered with a contradiction tbh, a direct proof is much more clear here I feel
You can look at the books "Topology" by Munkres or "Topology without tears". I am sure there are lecture courses for topology on youtube
Question about first and second countability axiom. I am given a theorem in the book stating that A subspace of a first-countable space is first-countable and same for second-countable. Is it not enough to proof only second-countable as it implies first-countable?
It is not enough. If you only proved only for second-countable, then you can only say that a subspace of a second countable space is first countable. You also want the theorem that says that a subspace of a first countable space is first countable.
But doesn't second countable not imply first countable?
Or am I going wrong somewhere with my logic?
Second-countability is a stronger notion than first-countability.
Proving subspace of first countable is first countable starts from a weaker assumption than second countablity.
For example
If second countable implies second countable subspace , does that mean first countable implies second countable subspace?
Point is just because second countablity implies first countability doesn't mean results that are implied from second countablity will be implied by first countability.
Because the former is a stronger notion as mentioned.
Oh yeah right. I see my mistake. Thanks!
First try to learn metric space topology so you can have intuition.
See "Topology of metric spaces" by Kumaresan
This is direct consequence of compactness of Y_1 and Y_i being closed
Recall that a space is compact iff every family of closed sets with finite intersection property has non-empty intersection
Here Y_i is such family in Y_1
Hence the intersection is non-empty
but it can happen in a topological space that...
isn't this obviously wrong since the whole space will always be a nhood of both x and y?
I looked it up in stackexchange and the most reasonable interpretation seems to be excluding the whole space
even then it makes no sense though... weird
Yeah it does sound slightly careless for the reason you mentioned
They mean it's not in some neighbourhood
Wrong quantifier used is all
What the author had in mind is how cl({x}) can be properly contained in cl({y})
Such as in the Sierpiński two point space
Sierpinski space 🤝 counterexamples
Not sure where to ask this but this is more so a question about point set topology I think. Can someone give me a reason why we would like open sets of a topological space to be closed under arbitrary unions?
I understand that making sense of limits, continuity, and compactness are reasons for using a topological space. Is there somewhere that arbitrary unions of open sets being open are used for these? I would like to get an intuition for this property.
for me open sets are generalizations of unions of open balls
so naturally, unions of unions of open balls are unions of open balls
¯_(ツ)_/¯
yeah, if you want to understand why we defined a topological space to have X property it's best to look at why it is the case for metric topologies
One way to come at this perspective is to take the notion of "neighborhood" as fundamental, so that topology assigns each point x in a set X a family of subsets of X, each containing x, called "neighborhoods", the intuition being that if A is a neighborhood of x, you can move x around a little bit and you will still be in A.
The set of neighborhoods is required to satisfy certain axioms, for example the intersection of two neighborhoods of x is a neighborhood of x, any set containing a neighborhood of x is a neighborhood of x, the whole set is a neighborhood of x, and so on.
Then an "open set" is any set which is a neighborhood of each of its points. Thus, for every point in an open set, even those close to the edge, you have a little wiggle room to maneuver and you will still be in the open set.
From this perspective it is obvious why the union of open sets is again open, if you take this as the definition of an open set it is easy to prove
Thank you so much for this perspective. I think further that the proof that A is open iff A=intA uses the closure of arbitrary unions of open sets is open
i forget what second countable means visually
it is it just an amazing boundness condition
Visually you imagine there is a collection of countable subsets that can generate all the subsets in your topological space
visually you can imagine (the definition)
I guess I would draw a shape and turn it into patches and close my eyes and say "countable..." A few times in my head
i'm teasing cause i'd probably say the exact same thing lol
The collection is countable, not the subsets
A countable collection of subsets, not a collection of countable subsets
❤️
dont hate they tried lol
o u said jk
im just going to say visually it means too many balls
because ig there isnt much visual intuition for understanding countability besides the idea of having gaps
as a gay man, you can never have too many
yeah i have the honorable role
lol
yes i am gay
second countability to me is kinda like a way of restricting how ""big"" the space can be and it's a useful technical condition that gives you stuff like partitions of unity
i don't really think of it visually but maybe that's useful
(the latter obviously for nice enough spaces only)
(and i care about such nice enough spaces)
I also think of it as how "big" a space is, in a certain sense
it is similar to cofinality of cardinals
there are probably some very important set theoretic concepts I am missing here that would expand upon that line of thinking
i would be interested in these set theoretic concepts 
what I am saying is, while the actual size (i.e. cardinality) of the topology might be massive, we can play around with the topology purely in countable land and be okay
I've only recently started studying topology tho so this might be a pedestrian take
yes, there is a concept of so called cardinal functions in topology
one of such functions is the weight of a topological space
yeah I've seen those skimming engelking
there is a huge amount of inequalities between them, and this is part of set theoretic topology
if you're interested you can check out Handbook of set theoretic topology
maybe there is intuition in terms of metric spaces
second countable metric spaces are precisely those which admit a metrizable compactification
so in this sense they are small
while set of reals are uncountable, they can be approximated to an arbitrary precision by a countable subset
so in some sense, the reals are shackled to countability
separability is a lot weaker property than that of second countability
it's really the latter that we usually care about, but the two notions are often equivalent, which gives us an easy condition to check if a metric space is second countable
question about this proof
first off, canw e find the disjoint open sets U,V because all metric spaces are normal and A,B ebing open means theyre both closed ? since theyre complements??
and secondly how to theyc onclude that X_i \cap A and X_I \cap B are nonempty?
that and metric space gives you second countable, right?
We're assuming that A and B are closed. But yeah, normality of metric spaces imply the existence of disjoint open sets U and V.
X_i \cap A is nonempty because A is nonempty, and if x is in A then x is in the intersection of all X_j, hence also in X_i.
and siimlarly for B right
yes
whats the point of creating the U,V and F_i
oh to show you cant have a separation of an individual X_i
right
Hey, I am reading "A Combinatorial Introduction to Topology". I've got a question about a vector field along a path and counting the "winding number" of points:
In the figure, the point R on γ_1 passes through the vertical "clockwise". Can anybody explain how it passes "clockwise"? As a counter example, R, T and U on the path γ_2 pass "counter clockwise".
I would assume that you go along the path counter clockwise (conventionally positive direction) and look at how the parallel transported vectors pass through the vertical.
I think I get what you mean. For example, right from R (in γ_1) the arrow points north-west, and left from R it points north-east, so it moved clockwise?
Yeah
trying to do this problem
looking at these corollary and theorem from Spanier as suggested by @plain raven and trying to think how to modify them for my purposes
all i can think of is that maybe i should work with F2-homology groups
but i cant think of any way to proceed from this
like
maybe i could express my hypersurface as the sum-modulo-2 of some hyperspheres...?
but then i don't know how to work with that
like, i guess my "goal" is to show \tilde{H}_0(S^n - B; F_2) is nontrivial
but i dont know how to do that
if someone responds please ping me
@west spindle I know you can prolly do this with Alexandar duality, but can you explain what's a "hypersurface in S^n" actually mean?
what's alexandar duality?
i mean a manifold of dimension n-1 embedded in S^n
a manifold-without-boundary, as i would understand it
AD is under "suitable" condition, $\tilde{H}i(S^n \setminus A) = \tilde{H}{n-i-1}(A)$
i doubt that this was covered in class
we are studying by hatcher's book
oh, wait.
hatcher has it
hmm uses pincare duality
"locally homeo to R^(n-1)" certainly qualifies for "locally contractible"...?
yes
but then how do i apply this here
I believe this is the classical statement
and the one you shared is using PD
hmm
kinda confused now
wait so like
$\tilde{H}_0(S^n - A) \overset?\neq 0$ \textit{is} the right idea, yes?
Ann
applying that we just get $\tilde{H}_0(S^n \setminus K) = \tilde H^{n-0-1}(K)$
yes thing is I am getting that to be 0
path connected, yes
actually, have you done Poincare duality in your class?
what we get is that for $n>1$ $\tilde{H}_0(S^n-K) = \tilde H ^{n-1}(K) = H^{n-1}(K) = H_0(K) = R$
assuming K is connected, otherwise work on path components
but maybe someone else can give an argument without using PD
i dont know. i think we did?
i missed a lot of class because of unforeseen circumstances
ive basically had to self study from the book alone
and a classmates notes
handwritten notes so i can't ctrl+f them

what is R btw
coefficient ring
right
i think if K is disconnected then i can just take one connected component of K and show that S^n minus that is disconnected
and that will do it
yes
so the first two equalities are by poincaré duality, and the middle one is... what exactly
what's reduced cohomology? is it just cohomology with the adjustment at 0? or like
the thing with $C^{-1} = \bZ$
Ann
the modification of the chain complex for reduced homology
with the extra thing at degree -1
first is AD, 2nd definition of reduced (co)homologies, for n>1 they are same and 3rd is PD
ye just the dual of the augmented (singular) chain complex
No I meant the augmented chain complex
yes ig
but this only works for n>1
otherwise \tilde H^n-1 neq H^n-1
S^1 is a circle and a hypersurface therein would just be a bunch of points
is it?
well ok no
what if just one point
can you have a smooth 0 dim manifold


i think its no big deal
can i ask you about another one
diligentclerk and i tried to go through it but not much luck
If I can help then sure
The other way is clear, if Y is a m fold covering the char is m multiple of char of X
for the other way
well yeah
i
wait
no, it's not clear to me
euler char is the alternating sum of cell counts per dimension, and also the alternating sum of ranks of homology groups
ok I can only show for CW complexes
yes that's the idea
oh lol
can't we argue in the similar manner? since it's compact polyhedra, the char is just alternating sum of i-faces
you can decompose the map into exact sequence and use additivity of euler characteristic here?
like m points injecting into Y?
or no i phrased this poorly and it isnt applicable cuz kernels
each point having exactly m preimages and being piecewise linear should(?) imply that 1-faces go to 1-faces?
yeah but how do we know faces get sent to faces
1-faces go to 1-faces...?
but can't we have one edge in Y mapping into half of an edge in X
what exactly they mean by piecewise linear map/
never worked with these so I am unaware of the def
ah i see, I think we need to use simplicial approximation to subdivide Y such that faces to faces
i-faces go to i-faces, the "exactly m preimages" should prevent degeneracies
one thing you can do is assuming m=1 we can show it's homeomorphism. for m>1, I want to claim there are disjoint copies of X (assuming X is just one compact convex poly)
@west spindle help me out on this one

I am assuming X is just one compact convex poly
yeah but we can't do that can we
so Y is again union of convex compact polys right?
what if X is some kind of thing shaped vaguely like the union of two balls
maybe? im not sure
well
oh
yeah
it is a union of convex compact polys yes
by the def it's convex compact right?
so say x ∈X has 2 preimages lying in single path component
say y, y' then by linearity, f(ty+(1-t)y')=x means it contradicts exactly m preimage
so like no 2 preimage of x is in the same pc?
is this correct?
that is because connected components of Y are convex, by def
assuming that's correct we get m disjoint subspaces of Y each homeomorphic to X so char formula follows
@west spindle
sorry, got distracted
wait but X itself need not be convex
also how do you know y and y' are in the same "linearity component"
just working on one component
so. wait
you aim to show that the preimages of any x ∈ X lie in distinct path components, yes?
Y is union of compact convex subspace right?
yes that's what I was trying
so then, let me try to follow along
we have y, y' ∈ Y in the same path component such that f(y) = f(y') = x
you wish to say that there exists a convex polyhedron in the decomp of Y that contains both y and y', whence the entire segment [y, y'] collapses into x, contradicting the problem statement
did i understand you correctly?
why's that the case?
we could have Y be something like 7 cubes glued together in a Pi shape, this would be path connected but not convex...
oh ok that's not true, the def says just union, not "disjoint union" fuck
have to find another argument
somewhat like this? take a path from y to y' and vary t
i think we can adapt this to saying that any two preimages of x must lie in different faces or something
we get, for t and 1-t same image, but t=½ gives only one preimage, but continuity should give 2
ok have to formalize this
(nvm)
MyMathYourMath
does it follow from stating that since the X_n are compact subsets of Hausdorff space then theyre all closed thus their intersection is closed and a subset of X_1 which is compact and closed subsets of compact need be compact?
$\bigcap_n X_n$ is a closed subspace of $X_1$, hence compact
Blitz
yeah thats what i meant by theyre a subset of X_1 lol
yes, that X_i are closed follows from Hausdorff
that's the only place where we use that assumption
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
intersection here, open in the intersection
Meant $A \cup B = \bigcap_n X_n$
MyMathYourMath
yeah looks ok
sweet thabks
i have a question of proving a compact Hausdorff space is regular, and thus normal as well. (Its similar to the proof of showing compact subspace of Hausdorff is closed)
And as finite intersections of open are open, we have that
and the same trick for two closed sets shows its normal ?
is open as its a finite intersection of open
the trick for normality given regulaity is to take A,B as closed sets
then for each y \in B there exists open sets U_y,V_y such that A \subset U_y, y \in V_y
then take the intersection (finite) of the U_y then A is still in the intersection and take the finite union of the V_y which covers B
igtg so @ me with a yes or no plz
To show that the set [0,1]^[0,1] is not sequentially compact for sup metric, is it ok to justify that it is not by picking f_n(x)=x^n? This sequence converge pointwise to discontinuous function and thus can't converge uniformly (i.e for sup metric)
Yeah
thank you
having some issues with this problem still
depicted is my partial solution
i'm not quite sure where i'm going with this, or how to continue, or whether this is going to be a productive idea
if needed, the definitions of "polyhedron" and "piecewise-linear map"...
Hi! Any good book or internet course about topology for beginners?
Topology of metric spaces by Kumaresan
Thanks! Can you add any other?
topology without tears
There is an extensive set of lecture notes from University of Toronto
Let me see if I can find them
See "Resources" here: http://www.math.toronto.edu/ivan/mat327/?resources
is euler characteristic of a cylinder with two boundaries which dont go to infinity equal to zero?
boundaries are open? in that case it's just homotopic to S¹ and you already know what's the EC is
What if the boundaries aren't open ?
homotopic to S²
I realise that the "open" boundary is very vague
what I mean is like it's it like a soda can, top and bottom closes or just a cylinder like you get by rolling a paper
like you can put your hand through it,,, lacking terminology 
Oh yeah I am bad with English terminology. I mean my cylinder has open top and bottom, as you said you can put your hand through it
lol
is it easy to prove the uniqueness of the dimension of top mfd
for example there is no homeomorphism between Rn and Rm or sth like that
without using homology theory? yes
you can show for lR and lRⁿ (n>1) using point set argument tho
Lol nice
Hello, I am a mathematician. Nice to meet you all
Hello
Hi
Hello
this is not a discussion channel
could we say something about euler characteristic for compact surfaces with boundaries ? like for example it cant be over 0 or it cant be odd number (i am not saying these are true just giving an example 😛 )
any compact odd dimensional manifold has EC 0
for with boundary, idk
oh ok
yeah i am trying to see what difference boundaries are making in the euler characteristic
boundary components shouldn't make a difference as long as you're not putting punctures along the boundary components
i mean like if we take a torus and put two boundaries then from 2 we are going to zero for euler characteristic, is this working in general ? like from something if we cut a hole so add a boundary then the euler characteristic will drop by 1 ?
every time you add a puncture or a boundary component the Euler characteristic drops by 1
if you have a genus g surface with b boundary components and n punctures not on those boundary components the Euler characteristic is 2-2g-b-n
oh ok thank you
Yo, I have one question. Let (X,t), (Y,t') 2 top spaces with cofinite topologies. I need to show that if X and Y are finite then product topology on XxY agrees with cofinite top on XxY. But as X,Y are finite, in both cases it's just a discrete topology on XxY, no?
thank you!
@west spindle about that polyhedra thing, I suppose I have an answer but it uses simplicial approximation. So the polyheadras are simplicial complexes. The statement of SAT is for any map f: Y → X of simplicial complex, after subdividing Y, we can get a map g: Yⁿ → X that is homotopic to f and is simplicial, that is sends vertices to vertices and is affine when restricted to each simplex.
Note that subdividing doesn't change euler char as it's chain homotopic to id hence a quasi-iso.
So what we get is g( <v0, ..., vn>) = <g(v0), .., g(vn)> but all g(vi) may not be distinct. But say g(v0)=g(v1) the it will contradict the m-images. So g indeed sends i-face to i-face. Now m-images condition gives there are exactly m many i face of Yⁿ for an i face of X. So char Yⁿ= m charX, but char Yⁿ= charY.
right
sorry for not using LaTeX. Also for reference, check out Bredon section 21, 22 of ch4
i can read your notation just fine
Hey! This is a figure from the book "A combinatorial introduction to topology". Can anybody explain why the vertices (0-simplexes) on the boundary d(C) (second column) appear at those locations (so first and second rows)? I would assume only the "endpoints", but there are drawn more than the endpoints.
the diagrams are not really that readable tbh
bold lines are hard to see for the first figure
if there is an open set that contains all the isolated points of a space is that set dense.
A dense set needs to contain all the isolated points though
Depends on the mod 2 number of lines that start at those points
Like, the rule is:
--+-- ---> ∅
|
--+-- ---> .
|
--+ ---> ∅
|
--+ ---> .```
In the first and second cases, you can decompose the 1-chain into the sum of two chains. In the first case, they don't have endpoints at the "crossing", and in the second, exactly one will have an endpoint at the crossing. In the third and fourth cases, you directly have one 1-chain whose boundary you can compute locally
a question about the formula of the area of a triangle in hyperbolic geometry. I have two of them, one says the area is equal to pi minus the three angles of the triangle and the other one says its pi minues the three angles multiplied by r^2. Both of them are correct ?
Idk, but it seems like it's more of a #diff-geo-diff-top question though 🙂
Bit rusty here, but I don't remember there being an r^2 term. What I remember is that the sum of angles is \pi-Area
sorry if i am in wrong channel
it gives me a trianlge with its area and its angles but the sum of angles is pi-area doesnt work
ah i think r is the curvation so for hyperbolic plane its -1 but in general it isnt always -1
an other question i have is that if i know the Euler characteristic of a topology how can i identify which surface it is ?
A surface is uniquely determined by:
- its orientability
- its number of boundary components
- its Euler characteristic once you glue disks to each boundary component
So if you know that the surface is orientable and has no boundary, then its Euler characteristic uniquely determines its genus by the relation \chi=2-2g
Note that this is only true for surfaces
For 3-manifolds or more, or even for topological spaces in general, this is far from true
In manifold topology, closed means compact without boundary
So no punctures, no nothing
if we say compact for a surface, can it have boundaries ?
Yes
Yeah so this is a classification for closed surfaces
No punctures no boundaries
But then the Euler characteristic is not enough to distinguish between surfaces (e.g. the annulus and the torus both have zero Euler charecteristic)
Re-read my message, it works for all surfaces (compact I should say though!)
There are three things you need, not just the \chi
Oh I see oops. So compact surfaces possibly with boundary
also if i know the orientability of my surface and that its compact and also uniform geometry and i have a specific triangle with specific angles has a specific area, can i find its euler characteristic with a formula ?
Yeah I originally read boundary components as just components lol
Eeeeh, maybe, I'm no geometer
But I'd still say no. The flat torus (embedded in C² with constant zero curvature) is not the disk, which also happens to have zero curvature
Curvature is purely local
And the triangle only relates angles and area to curvature
i think if its uniform geometry the curvation is the same everywhere
Also, a triangle is local too (it's basically a disk, i.e. an open set of a chart)
Idk what that means, but again this is more of a #diff-geo-diff-top question and people will surely be more knowledgeable than here (or at least than me xD)
What comes to my mind is genus at least two surfaces
They are all Riemann-covered by the hyperbolic plane, and I think the curvature is the same (the geometry of these surfaces are very similar), so maybe that answers no to your question?
i see 🤔
i will see if i can find something more myself and if not i will come back in the #diff-geo-diff-top
Sure 
Sorry! Is this better:
Do you mean that if an intersection has 2 or 4 edges, it won't result in a vertex, if it has 1 or 3 edges it will result in a vertex (0-simplex / boundary)?
How is the boundary defined in the book?
hey, i have an idea of a proof that R and R^2 arent homeomoprh
I thought of a proof a couple minutes ago, but I have a better one now
D = {(x,y) : x in R and y = 0} is homeomorphic to R since f : D -> R, f (x,y) = x is continuous, bijective (in D) and f-1(x) = (x,0) is continuous
for D and R^2 to be homeomorph, there must be a continuous bijective mapping g : D -> R^2, so we can write g as g (x,y) = (a(x,y),b(x,y)) where a : R^2 -> R and b : R^->R
for any point (x,y) in D, g(x,y) = (a(x,0),b(x,0))
for g to be continuous and bijective, both a and b must also be bijective
and continuous
Say that there's a point (u,v) that can be mapped using g, so (u,v) = g(x,y)
so (u,v) = (a(x,0),b(x,0))
Can the point (u,v+1) be mapped then?
(u,v+1) = g(x',y') = (a(x',0),b(x',0))
since a is bijective, x = x'
so v +1 = b(x',0) = b(x,0) = v
since that implies 1 = 0, this means that there are points in R^2 that cannot be mapped using g
so g is not bijective
since g describes all possible continuous mappings, theres no g that is bijective
so R^2 and D arent homeomorphic and, therefore, R^2 and R arent homeomorph
Intuitively, the proof is based on the idea that g has only one degree of freedom (since y is fixed) so it can only describe curves and not surfaces
invariance of domain go brr
"for g to be continuous and bijective, both a and b must also be bijective"
that's your error 
can you give me a counter example?
(x, y) to (x, y) is continuous and bijective, but the projections (x, y) to x and (x, y) to y aren't bijective
how you can prove that R and R^n for n > 2 aren't homeomorphic is by removing a point from R
yeah, i read that because R is no longer connected
I just havent studied connectedness yet, so i thought i could try using that I knew
There's another way, you can try to show no continuous map from R² to R is injective
but connectedness is the easiest one
I tried using to show that it coulnt be injective at first
then I thought of showing it coulndt be surjective
like just restrict your map f:S¹ → IR, then show by IVT there must exist one t s.t. f(t)=f(-t)
||use characterization of S¹ and look at function g(t)=f(t)-f(-t)||
There are surjective maps from R to R² tho, they are called space filling curves
Here's another problem if you want to try
show that there's no continuous bijection from IR to IR². ( Not saying homeomorphism btw)
I mean, cant i just say that R and R^2 arent homeomorphic?
oh wait
yeah thats not enough
That's the point right
There can exist continuous bijection without being homeomorphism
(X, discrete) → (X, indiscrete)
identity map
ikr
like, i had to learn the concepts that you guys learn in analysis in the same subject
ill probably stick to the easiest ways of solving problems
thanks though
does this suffice in showing path-connected implies connected: suppose the space is disconnected then X = A u B where A,B are open and disjoint and non empty. let a \in A and b \in B with path such that f(0)=a and f(b)=1 but the image of the unit interval is connected so it must lie entirely in A or entierly in B, we cannot have f(0) \in A and f(1) \in B as f([0,1]) \subset A or \subset B. I know this may be a silly question to ask but just wanted to make sure I have the logic right
and if youre a connected subspace of A u B then you lie entirely within A or entirely within B (I call this the connected lemma)
I'm curious, why study topology?
so by the connected lemma the image of unit interval under the path need lie within A entierly or within B
ur proof seems fine
thanks ^
you can also just do it directly by taking the preimage of the separation
which must be disjoint and open and closed
how I'd prove it is that image of a connected space is connected, and union of connected sets with non-empty intersection is connected
so consider images of paths from some fixed point of your space to any other point, which is the whole space, and by what I said, is connected
but there is no separation of unit intrval
we use it in qft and deformations as far as I know
but my proof works fine, right?
I see that method
so you union over all paths from a given fixed point to other points and their union is the whole space
and they share the fixed point in common
TTerra already read it so I don't have to
lol fair enough
what is A?
Take some point x which is both in U and closure of A
that the point x is in closure of A, means that any neighbourhood of x intersects A
therefore, U intersects A
thank you
let me fixate one thing hang on
"for each x and n there exists j" is what you meant
thats exactly what I was fixating on lol
oh ur right were CONSTRUCTING such a Y
after I claim that, the equalities there are wrong
wdym
isnt the closure of the x_nj's all of X
i should denote that set as Y first huh
yeah
i didnt define a Y
then just introduced its closure
is my Y the set of all the x_nj's
and their closure is all of X
yes
yea sure
and X \setminus B \subset U
and conversely, suppose $E,F \subset X$ are disjoint closed sets then $U:=X \setminus F$ is open and contains $E$ thus there exists $A \in \tau$ such that $E \subset A \subset \overline{A} \subset X \setminus F$ then $A,X \setminus \overline{A}$ are disjoint. open sets containing $E,F$ respectively.
MyMathYourMath
hello 👋
am first year in college nd am totally new to topology, can you recommend me some good books/teachers or any sources to get started in ?
i'll check that now, thank you!
Yeah just examine how paths lift
silly question but
the answer is yes
MyMathYourMath
So it is defined exactly as I said, there's not even a proof to be made...
Use this then
sorry this probably seems very trivial but I just want to make sure I'm on the right lines.
i and ii) are not complete since the sequence of 1/n is cauchy in both of these metric spaces however does not converge
is that right?
i wanna say the first one IS Cauchy the latter is NOT, but i could be mistaken have you tried proving it ?
do you mean the other way around?
as in, I agree that the first one is complete but the sequence 1/n is not cauchy
for the first one, d(1/n,1/m) = |n-m|
could someone help me on this one
is THIS true
is the idea the following: the preimage of singletons in Y are compact in a Hausdorff space which are closed then can I separate these disjoint closed sets with disjoint open sets and map them back into Y?
my only question is do distinct y values in Y map backwards to disjoint preimages in X
yes
easy set theoretic argument
ok and their compact subspaces of a Hausdorff space so their disjoint and closed
if r^2 = r is r a retract?
i don’t think it is but i’m having some trouble producing a counter example
it is, assuming r is continuous.
retracts are just like projections on linear spaces, characterized by P^2 = P
Lol t these past papers r giving me flashbacks
Same here 😒
Also like a nice trick with these is uh
but it’s a retract on the image of r, correct?
yes
Well okay so for the first, this is isometrically isomorphic to [1,infty) with normal metric
Which we know is complete
For the second, this is isometrically isomorphic to (0,infty) with the standard metric for the same reason, I think
I think given the hint for that question "you may assume R is complete" they want you to explicitly say it's a closed subset of R
nice
How is ur project btw
Noicee
topological k theory right? I've had encounters with it bc one of the main constructions of my thing comes from the index theorem
oh yes i forgot about that
Hello! I have a problem with proving that $S^n$ is a covering space of $RP^n$. Given $y=q(x) \in RP^n$ we have that a set $y\in U$ is open iff $x\in q^{-1}[U]$ is open in $S^n$. Define $A$ as the upper hemisphere and $B$ as the lower hemisphere of $S^n$, then $x\in A\cup B$ . Where should I go from here?
よろしく
The map q is the canonical projection onto the quotient, that is q(x)=[x]
yeah that's part of it
i'm basically doing some old papers in alg top / htpy theory so i will work on either like j homomorphism or hopf invariant one now probs + basic chromatic homotopy theory
how does the index theorem crop up in what you're doing? (@golden gust)
I have no idea what those things are but they sound cool
the index theorem gives the "virtual dimension" of some moduli space of curves cut out by a fredholm map
I have no idea what those things are but they sound cool
haha fair enough
i mean i get some of the pieces but idk what fredholm maps are
or are these just fredholm operators ig
the linearisation of a fredholm map is a fredholm operator
but yeah so how does this relate to what you're doing?
ah
what is a fredholm map then
hm i might look at the index theorem more properly lol
so um I'm considering a space of pseudo-holomorphic curves, and there's a clever way to interpret this space as the zero set of some section of a banach bundle. this section turns out to be a fredholm map and so (in a way I haven't figured out yet, but can probably just blackbox) the dimension of the zero section is given by the index of the linearisation
is there such a things as a connected set in topological space?
Because a major theorem in K-theory (idk how much you know) is Bott periodicity and there was a proof of this using the index theorem
Well connected space I guess
But yes
I can explain the definitions and stuff if you want + examples?
yeah I know the rough statement, but nothing more than that
yeah i mean the important thing being that reduced real (resp. complex) K-theory is 8 (resp. 2) periodic
why 8
hm okie inch resting
Well okay good question I can't really answer lol
So like the 8 and 2 come from the spaces O and U themselves
But then ofc it's like well why the 2 and 8 for them lol
Maybe this is clearer from the proof though idk
potato
Omega^8 is the loop space of the loop space of the ... of the loop space? (8 times)??
Yes
what the hell
Well there is also \Omega^{\infty}
😵
But idk I mean repeated suspensions/loop spaces are common
Just you kinda give up visualising them in the same way i guess,
I've never seen them I guess
yeah I suppose you have to
Yeahhh oof
Idk about say suspensions too cause like lol
You can visusalise the suspension of like a 2D object okay i suppose as like a couple of ocnes
but like beyond that and with repeated suspensions lol
"taking loop spaces shifts the homotopy groups" is there a way to see this or is it deep?
Well so like
One way to see this (at least ignoring the group operation) is that if $[A,B]$ denotes the set of htpy classes of pointed maps $A \to B$, then we have a bijection $[\Sigma X, Y] \simeq [X,\Omega Y]$ and in particular taking $X = S^0$ this gives us that $\pi_n(Y) = [S^n, Y] \simeq [\Sigma^n S^0,Y] \simeq [S^0, \Omega^n Y] = \pi_0(\Omega^n Y)$ at least on the level of sets.
Dw if you don't know what a fibration is, like it is basically a generalisation of a fibre bundle
ah yeah nice
potato
oh that is cute
potato
So like all higher homotopy groups of S1 or the torus etc vanish lol
No, Bott is a person, not an image
sick
I wish I had fun facts like this
Aw lol
this is from munkres (in the ss "range" is what we usually call "codomain" so a set containing the image)
i'm gonna use codomain so its less confusing
Why do we have "g○f is defined only when the codomain of f equals the domain of g"?
Isn't having image(f) ⊆ dom(g) or codomain(f) ⊆ dom(g) enough for g○f to be defined?
so it seems like it should be (codomain(f) = domain(g) implies g○f defined, instead of the converse)
I know in the book this is a definition but if what i'm saying makes sense isnt this definition way more limiting than it has to be?
although you're reading this from a topology book, this isn't a topology question
yeah it's fine
you're right but just like, accept his definition lol
Essentially you can think of him as working in a formalism where there's a law that associates to each pair of spaces (A, B) the set of continuous functions Cts(A,B) and to each triple of spaces (A, B, C) a composition law Cts(A, B) x Cts(B, C) -> Cts(A, C)
or it associates to each pair of sets (A, B) the set of functions Fun(A, B) and to each triple of spaces (A, B, C) the composition law Fun(A, B) x Fun(B, C) -> Fun(A, C)
You're not wrong but like. if it makes you feel better you can think of him as working in a more restricted formalism than ZFC set theory, everything's interpretable in ZFC but for him every function has a clearly specified domain and codomain as part of its data
okay thanks that makes sense
Ive got a question concerning the definition of a covering map, we know that R is the covering space of S^1 via the exponential function, by definition the exponential function restricted to a connected component is a homeomorphism, i.e., restricted to an open Interval is a homeomorphism, but that would imply that the fundamental group of S^1 is trivial, isnt that a contradiction?
the middle part is not true
"the exponential function restricted to a connected component is a homeomorphism"
"restricted to an open interval is a homeomorphism"
this is not true
When we say that the exponential function is locally a homeomorphism onto its image what we mean is that for each point x there exists an open interval (x - a, x + a) such that e^{i\theta} is a homeomorphism onto its image when restricted to that interval
not that this is true for arbitrary a
Your claim is only true for sufficiently small open intervals, but the function is not injective on larger open intervals
as $e^{i\theta} = e^{i(2\pi+\theta)}$ for any $\theta$
diligentClerk
so $e^{i\theta}$ is not injective on any connected interval $(a,b)$ of length greater than $2\pi$
diligentClerk
(also i'm not sure how this is "by definition")
Probs also worth saying like covering maps are always local homeomorphisms
and every sufficiently nice space has a universal cover (i.e. a simply connected covering space) so the case of S^1 isn't unique here
But part of the definition is that, for example here, r restricted to an Interval of that kind is a homeomorphism right?
onto its image sure
Ohhhhh yes, i'm SO blind xD
Thanks!
np
If it is homeomorphic to the cantor set, by moore kline it needs to be totally disconnected right? but since any 2 open sets are non disjoint (at least one of their projections need to be \Sigma), the space itself is not disconnected.
so how can this be true?
oh its not an iff statement
This is a basic topology question.
If f:X->R is a continuous function from a compact topological space X and the real numbers R
Then f is bounded and attains it's max and min values.
I'm pretty sure the idea is just to use that since X is compact, so is f(X) and as a compact set in R, Heine borel says f(X) is closed and bounded as a subset in the standard topology of R.
But for attaining it's min and max I'm not entirely sure. My guess is that min and Max's are limit points of f(X) and as it is a closed set we are done.
Is this the right idea?
compact subsets of R have smallest and largest elements
bounded gives you an inf and a sup, and closed tells you they're in there
are nets just generalized sequences where your indexing set is some directed set lol im new to learning about nets
yes
the continuous image of compact is compact and compact in R as you mentioned is closed and bounded.
thx, is my proof correct for showing convergent nets get mapped to convergent nets implies f is continuous
probably but i'm not awake yet lol
lol
up to boolean algebra of subsets
i think your proof would be clearer if you spent less time on inverting subsets and stuff
is there a way you can rewrite it that does not involve doing this or like
maybe you can prove that the definition of net convergence can be inverted in a way that's closer to what you're trying to prove
say there is a point q for some point p such that every open neighbour of p contains q what is the releation between them?
is threre a name?
Not what you asked for exactly, but if this relationship is symmetric in p and q you can call them topologically indistinguishable


