#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 14 of 1
Uh I mean I guess you wanna check like stuff is uniquely determined by vertices
That is probably it lol
But yeah weird
Well like so there is an implied like labelling of vertices etc
If you don't subdivide enough you could have distinct triangles w the same vertices or smth like that
As an extreme example, we can't take there to be just one 2 simplex for either shape since then you have a 2 simplex w one vertex lol etc
I think that is basically enough yes well you want to show that triangles/edges which share the same vertices are actually the same etc
So like for the torus it is implied the bottom middle edge is identified with the top one
But that is okay cause in our structure we are actually gluing those so they are the same vertices and same edge lol
But yeah this is weird
Of which shape
Uhhh
Okay so it seems fine to me at first glance lol
Wait no so
You have two triangles which share all vertices
But they are distinct
Ye
These r a meme tho cause if they ask you for a triangulation you can usually just cut up a ton around any places where stuff is identified and be gucci
Like the problem here is the identification on the boundary of the square
So we can just separate the opposing sides by subdividing further
reposting here in case someone knows: #diff-geo-diff-top message
How do I show that polynomials are continuous using product topology?
?
Any anime recommendations?
on the scale of 0-10 how tedious is it to calculate homology of $\mbb{R}P^n \times \mbb{R}P^m$?

Hm tbh I quite like cute like slice of life type stuff but i really don't mind lol not watched much
Simplicial approximation theorem yes
Which maps into X are relevant when we're considering the fundamental group of X?
try Mikakunin de Shinkoukei
topology and anime is what I do
aha
Depends on the theorems you are allowed to use. If you already know the homology of RP^n, and can use künneth, its like a 3/10 i‘d say
Using Küneth btw
To me it’s 10/10
this is making me realise how lazy i have been with actually computing stuff in alg top
Have you ever done spectral sequence computations
No
Eh Künneth is just a spectral sequence anyway
Not touching spectral seq then
(...which i need to look at at some point oop)

Go to the dark side
not just that
well what is the fundamenta l group
well
homotopy classes
so you aren't just interested in maps [0,1] -> X
yup
so the point is that any map and any homotopy can be assumed to go into the 2 skeleton
Or I guess to be slightly more rigorous you can show the inclusion of the 2-skeleton into the whole thing induces a bijection on pi1
(surjectivity is easy by homotoping loops, but injectivity needs you to consider maps from the square)
oh like
i mean so this is just simplicial approximation theorem
so are you asking for intuition for that theorem
[0,1] is naturally a 1 dimensional simplicial complex
so you can take any map [0,1] -> X and homotope it to a simplicial map [0,1] -> X (for some new simplicial complex structure on [0,1])
And then since it's simplicial, the image will lie in X^1
simplicial maps map the k skeleton to k skeleton
So in particular the 1-skeleton of [0,1], that is, [0,1], is mapped to the 1-skeleton of X
okay maybe you use a different definition to normal lol
which definition are you using
Well okay so it maps vertices to vertices but importantly the images of the vertices of a simplex span a simplex
So in particular, given any k-simplex in the domain, the images of its vertices span a simplex, which is necessarily of dimension <= k just because there are only <= k distinct vertices
Sure yeah
that should imply this
ye
show kernel is 0
well so we can view it as being the same space [0,1] but with a different simplicial structure
but yes, you have a path f: I -> X, then you can take some homotopic g; I -> X whose image is in X^2
Then restricting that, we get a map h: I -> X^2, such that the map on π1s sends [h] to [g] = [f]
ye
more generally just like subdivision preserves dimension and so u can use this
np owo
worth pointing out maybe that the same thing occurs with CW complexes
since there's the analogous cellular approximation theorem
Oh rip
Uhhhh
Okay so like basically
A cw complex is a space $X$ which has subspaces $0 \subset X^0 \subset X^1 \subset \dots \subset X$ where $X^0$ is just any discrete set and formed by taking some (discrete) set $X^0$ and given $X^{n+1}$ is obtained from $X^n$ by attaching disks $D^{n+1}$ to $X^n$ via maps $S^{n} \to X^n$
potato
(you then need to make sure X has the right topology etc but here let's focus on the finite dimensional case, where this process terminates after finitely many steps and we only attach finitely many things at each step)
But yes the key idea is basically it's a space formed by attaching disks (well, 'cells') and it's built up dimension by dimension
So like we take some points, attach some 'lines' between points (or loops from points to themselves), then add in some disks whose boundaries are those loops/lines, and so on
From that kinda handwavy description it includes simplicial complex as a special case, cause ur taking points, adding edges, then triangls etc
The thing is that this is a lot looser than simplicial complexes lol
like u can glue stuff with fewer restrictions
and ye cw complexes are very general which is nice
like i fink any compact manifold has the homotopy type of a cw complex and for every space Y there's a cw complex X and a map f:X -> Y inducing isomorphisms on all homotopy groups (CW approximation) and stuff like that
[the thing i am working on rn is 99% CW complexes lol]
Im trying to prove that for x_1,...,x_n distinct points in a Hausdorff space, that there exsits disjoint open U_1, ..., U_n where x_i in U_i. I tried proof by induction but dont know how to conclude that the n+1 set is disjoint
since the space is hausdorff, for each i=1,...,n you have a V_i open around x_(n+1) that is disjoint with U_i
can you use this to finish the proof?
also like you can think about it diagrammatically if ur not sure
Yeah, that part i understand that but not sure how to use it to prove the U_n+1 disjoint
how can i use the v_i disjoint to construct u_n+1
View it as two glued triangles i guess
or actually as just one triangle lol up to homeomorphism
But yes it is similar
heres a diagram to help you visualize the situation
V_1 is disjoint from U_1 and V_2 is disjoin from U_2
you want a open U_(2+1) around x_(2+1) that is disjoint from both U_1 and U_2. Can you think of what to do in this case?
oh take intersection right
Yes! 
got it thanks picture was super helpful
Every element is a face of itself, here proper means it is not a face of anything bigger
Hi, I have an assignment to write a couple of pages on metric spaces in regards to topology (we have not yet had metrics be mentioned in the lecture thus far) and so I am experimenting a bit.
It's pretty clear that every topology induced by a metric is hausdorff, but I can't really figure out whether for every hausdorff topology there is a metric which induces it
Does anyone have an idea?
not every hausdorff topological space is metrizable
Thanks
oh wow
This is a hard problem actually
To give a characterization of metrizability
And there are Nagata-Smirnov or Bing's metrization theorems for that
For separable metric spaces we have a simpler Urysohn metrization theorem
They rely on paracompactness of metric spaces
There's also metrization theorems in terms of star refinements
Theorems by Morita, Stone and Archangelski
There's lots of properties satisfied by metrizable spaces that aren't satisfied by all hausdorff spaces, just pick one of them and find an hausdorff space not satisfying it
if only i found this when i was digging up counterexamples for my topology oral exam
So I have a book in a semi rare speciality, it's called topological graph theory, studies embeddings of graphs onto topological surfaces
I have a decent enough background in graph theory, I've also gotten through point-set topology, i'm still finding it a difficult read past chapter 1 or 2, any ideas about prerequisites, here's a link to the book: https://www.amazon.com/Topological-Graph-Theory-Dover-Mathematics/dp/0486417417/ref=asc_df_0486417417/?tag=hyprod-20&linkCode=df0&hvadid=312130957577&hvpos=&hvnetw=g&hvrand=2282354625504542619&hvpone=&hvptwo=&hvqmt=&hvdev=c&hvdvcmdl=&hvlocint=&hvlocphy=9016510&hvtargid=pla-553995538720&psc=1&asin=0486417417&revisionId=&format=4&depth=1
Clear, comprehensive introduction emphasizes graph imbedding but also covers thoroughly the connections between topological graph theory and other areas of mathematics. Discussion of imbeddings into surfaces is combined with a complete proof of the classification of closed surfaces. Authors explo...
dumb question, but let B be an open ball in R^n, and x in B. Why does the inclusion of pairs (R^n, R^n - B) --> (R^n, R^n - {x}) induce an isomorphism on H_n?
Whilst there's probably an easier way to do this, it does follow from the corresponding morphism of LES i think
hm right, okay
I think though that the second pair of spaces admits a deformation retraction into the first
Since you can send any of the points in B \ {x} into R^n \ B radially
okay, so ur talking about (very informally speaking) squishing B - {x} into the boundary of R^n - B?
so, i can see that would show that the inclusion R^n - B --> R^n - {x} induces an isomorphism on homology, but does that give you isomorphism on relative homology w/o going through the LES morphism?
I'd suspect a book like that to use tools from algebraic topology more than general topology
Follows from five lemma?
Hi, guys, is there any hint for the proof of lemma
Anyway this follows from continuity
Oh, X and Y does not have to be Euclidean
what do you mean by euclidean?
it says "holomorphic" so complex surfaces are what they probably mean by "non euclidean"
What are some of the things that make a fibration p : E -> B useful?
Does it let us study (some) homotopies from X to E in terms of simpler homotopies from X to B?
Or is it usually the other way around, fibrations are helpful because the base space B and homotopies into it are easier to understand when spread out in terms of the bigger total space E?
Looking at: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fibration
The notion of a fibration generalizes the notion of a fiber bundle and plays an important role in algebraic topology, a branch of mathematics.
Fibrations are used, for example, in postnikov-systems or obstruction theory.
In this article, all mappings are continuous mappings between topological spaces.
the three topologies are the topologies of uniform, pointwise and compact convergence
I am unsure how to prove for uniform and compact convergences
can you recall how to prove uniform or compact convergence for any simpler examples?
There don't seem to be many examples but I'll check again
at least in my book
here's a definition for compact convergence
not def thm srry
uniform
I would assume x/n converges uniformly and in compact
actually not uniformly
since the case for n -> inf/-inf wouldn't satisfy that I think
since x can be arbitrarily large, but then so can n so I'm confuzzled lol
@glass bison First, lets establish that f_n converges pointwise to the function f, where f(x) = 0. To see this, note that at an arbitrary point, f_n(x) = x / n, which tends to 0 as n -> infty.
Does it seem plausible that f_n -> f = 0?
looks like a start
Now, lets suppose that f_n converges uniformly.
Then we should be able to globally bound |f_n(x) - f(x)| for all x and for all n suitably large.
But in our case,
|f_n(x) -f(x)|
= |x/n - 0|
= |x/n|
So we need
|x/n| < e
for some bound e.
But no matter how large n or e are, we can break this inequality by setting x = n * e.
@glass bison oh, that's exactly what you wrote
Yeah I think what I did works
seems to be the same thing
I think we're chillin there
the real funky one is the compact convergence
@glass bison I think in the compact case, you just try to prove uniform convergence of the restriction $f_{n | [a, b]}$ of $f_n$ to an arbitrary interval $[a, b]$
Mars Industrial
I'm actually not sure if it applies here. Every compact set X in R is the disjoint union of a countable set of intervals X_1, X_2,.... But proving that f_n is uniformly convergent on each interval X_i may not be enough to prove f_n is uniformly convergent on X. I'm not sure, definitely do some study and convince yourself what is right here!
yeah, there is something that makes me feel we should be able to shortcut this way here. I'll get back to you if I figure out why
alright thanks man
@glass bison I have a parting idea.
If f_n converges uniformly on every interval in R, then it converges uniformly on some interval X* containing our compact X. So it should converge uniformly on X itself as well. Definitely verify if this is reasonable or not!
Take care!
Sounds good, thank you!
One major thing is that the existence of a fibration can tell you a lot about the (weak) homotopy type of a space e.g. via the Serre spectral sequence, or even just by the associated LES
but also the properties are interesting enough in themselves to warrant interest ig
ur talking about applying five lemma to the LES morphism, right? I mean, sure, i think i understand that. I was moreso curious if there was some super conceptually simple application of like, excision or something, that i was missing since Hatcher deemed it clear enough to write down H_n(R^n, R^n - B) \cong H_n(R^n, R^n - {x}) without any explanation
I'm having a bit of trouble parsing this Hatcher problem: Prove the Brouwer fixed point theorem for maps f : D^n→D^n by applying degree theory to the map S^n→S^n that sends both the northern and southern hemispheres of S^n to the southern hemisphere via f.
The actual theorem is of course for arbitrary f, so this added condition is confusing. Are we supposed to assume that f maps the northern hemisphere of S^n to the southern hemisphere, are we supposed to assume/prove this can be done without loss of generality, or something else?
im about to leave, but as a hint iirc you construct a function g : S^n -> S^n which acts as f on each of the hemispheres, and globally maps both hemispheres to the southern hemisphere
See Topics on Topological Graph Theory, published in 2009. See also Graphs of Groups on Surfaces (2001) and Graphs on surfaces (2001).
(something like this)
@gilded oyster "Topics" has a helpful a bibliography for each chapter. Each section links to key papers for the actual "tools". Eg, rotation systems, current graphs, voltage graphs.
Thanks kxrider, but I'm not asking for a hint on the solution. I'm fine with tackling it once I can exactly parse the question, which was my original question. Feel free to reread it if you need to
can you refer to the page number?
well homotopy then, (Rⁿ, Rⁿ\x) and (Rⁿ, Rⁿ\b) are homotopic
Exercise 1 on page 155
nope no idea what he means
Lol thanks, it's nice to have a second pair of eyes for things like these :)
@gilded oyster I think you might like Graphs of Groups on Surfaces. It paces itself and spends time on prerequisites in the first half of the book.
Hrm, sorry for not posting this in #book-recommendations, didn't realize the images would stack vertically 
yes, i understand your question
hatcher is asking you to construct a new map g : S^n -> S^n using the map f : D^n -> D^n you're given. that's what he means by
applying degree theory to the map S^n→S^n that sends both the northern and southern hemispheres of S^n to the southern hemisphere via f
i.e. you shouldn't have to assume anything about f
okay, if im understanding correctly, the inclusion has a deformation retract which is a homotopy equivalence of pairs?
would anyone be able to review a presentation on simplicial complexes? it is fairly short and elementary but I learned about them as I did pres so want to make sure I understand
i am struggling to prove if a map from S1 to S1 is nullhomotopic it has a fixed point
any ideas?
i want to somehow use browers fpt but cannot see how
you're familiar with degree of maps S^n -> S^n, right?
no..
i think we briefly defined degree of a map of S^1 to S^1 in proving pi1(S^1) = Z
ah okay, thats fine
iirc its number of times it loops around
if your map is nullhomotopic, what is the induced map on pi1?
it is the trivial map
yes. Now suppose your map has no fixed point. Try to construct a homotopy of f to some other map such that the induced map on pi1 is nonzero. then you'll have a contradiction
i guess my first thought is to define g(x) = (f(x)- x)/|f(x)-x| but i dont see any obvious homotopy from f to g and i also am not certain if/why the pushforward g_* is nonzero
Nah, that’s not the right g, but you are on the track by considering functions that could not exist if f had fixed points. Instead, the correct g is a rather simple function and the homotopy you construct between f and g should not be able to exist unless f doesn’t have fixed points
np
is it accurate to say that the product topology on X1 x X2 x X3 x ... is the set of all products of Xi with an open set Uj ⊆ Xj in finitely many indices?
maybe it's phrased weirdly
that's fine. phrased a bit strangely, but it's not wrong this is merely the basis for the product topology, but you have described that correctly
tripped me up
it'd be better to say that finitely many of the indices are allowed to vary between the open sets of the X_i's
idk i just see it better like that, the definition munkres gives in terms of projection mappings is weird to me
i like that more tho
what's munkres's definition?
box topology kekw
it's just one of those things that might appear on my exam 
the preimage of U_b by π_b is just the product of all the X_a's, except when a = b you get U_b
when you take the intersection of finitely many of these, you get the usual basis open sets for the product topology
which are defined this way
that's how they're related
also this is technically wrong, these only form a basis
should have caught that sooner, oops
my brain inserted an "is generated by"
@odd flame
basically what you described is actually only the basis for the product topology
you need to go one step further and take unions to get the real product topology
i see what you mean
i get that it's a subbasis but are there any elements of the product topology that might not look explicitly like this
for a continuous function from X to Y, if Y is T2 will X be T2 only if f is injective? or not necessarily? I think it has to be injective to determine X is T2 but not sure
i answered my own question but still posted it so i can come back later
but intersections would prolly give an open set like that
Injective is the normal criterion I guess yes
If two points are distinct, find disjoint opens about their images and then take the preimages
open ball in R^2
that's not a rectangle
Anything other than a rectangle
lol
So anything you can draw by hand
ye I did that but can we infer the preimages of the open sets are disjoint without the function being injective?
No
If the function isn't injective there's nothing we can say about Y from X
After all, if Y is nonempty then every space admits a map to Y
Np!
Also does the same hold if Y is T3 instead of T2?
is composing a covering map with a homeomorphism necessarily a covering map?
i cant seem to find anything about it
Try to use the def of a covering map
what does it mean that A is diagonalizable , iff the set of all similar matrices of A is a closed set in Mn(C)
what's it actually saying, in english
intuitively
does it help if i tell you that the set of all diagonalizable matrices in M_n(C) is dense in M_n(C)?
i dont think so
i am not sure how it fits here
Lies made to sell more topology
yo, if we have a homeomorphism $f:(X,d_X)\to (Y,d_Y)$ do the metric $d_X$ and $d(x,y):=d_Y(f(x),f(y))$ induce the same topology on $X$?
I think yes just using def of continuity of f and its inverse
i assume you mean$ d(x,y) = d_Y(f(x),f(y))$. Then $d$ and $d_X$ are topologically equivalent: take a ball $B_{d_X}(x,\epsilon)$ around $x$. Then by continuity of $f^{-1}$, there is an open ball around $f(x)$, $B_{d_Y}(f(x),\delta)$ such that $f^{-1}(B_{d_Y}(f(x),\delta))\subset B_{d_X}(x,\epsilon)$. The former is an open ball with respect to $d$
same thing for the opposite inclusion
ye ok thx i was thinking about the same proof just to be sure
why do you always add this word to your questions. Not everything can make intuitive sense
to make it clear i am not looking for rigorous proof
Ik not everything can make. A lot of things can, so i ask
and usually after i ask for intuition i try to come up with the proof myself
see if they match
oh, I see
context
try detexify maybe
does cofinite topology = finite complement?
the sets with a finite complement are the open sets in the cofinite topology, yes
you could say it's the space in which the only closed sets are finite sets and the whole space
the empty set also 🙂
empty set is finite
noob question -- how does one "read" $T^2 # T^2$
mjachi
tee two connect sum tee two
thanks
does anyone know any sources that construct the cup product in this way other than may
so, im trying to understand the proof of theorem 3.26
Let $\varphi : H_n(M;R) \to \Gamma_R(M)$ be the map in the proof. If $\alpha \in H_n(M;R)$ is a generator, then $\varphi(\alpha) \in \Gamma_R(M)$ is a generating section, but how do we know that $\varphi(\alpha)(x)$ is a generator of $H_n(M, M-{x}; R)$ for each $x \in M$?
kxrider
the goal here being to show part (a) of 3.26, that the natural map $H_n(M; R) \to H_n(M, M-{x}; R)$ is an isomorphism
kxrider
Trying to understand what's going on here
if X is connected, and \pi_1(X) is not abelian,....then what?
The point is that if X is path connected given two points x and y, there is a path l between them, and we have an isomorphism of fundamental groups given by p maps to l^{-1}pl. In the nonabelian case this isomorphism is dependant on the choice of l we used, hence is called non canonical.
what book is that? looks like Vakil font
where can I find the following result: "an injective map between n-dimensional tori is bijective" ?
bit of a weird question but what's the point of first countability
can i think of it like a countable "subcover" for a basis
im assuming such a space has nice consequences and whatnot im just wondering how to see it in my head best

it does have nice consequences, you are allowed to use sequences instead of nets to characterise closure and continuity
first countability is the bare minimum a topological space should have to be nice if you don't want to deal with nets
maybe think about why you need first countable to replace nets with sequences
good exercise
nets are fake anyways
Ngl still never used a net lol
When do they start actually being useful
Well tbh I guess I have used nets without realising it
"when will we use this in real life?"
i feel like blitz is gonna murder you for that statement
Well yes but I don't do like pure pointset lol
That wasn't even a statement anyway smh
yes i haven't used nets either
the loss of tone on the internet and its consequences...
no i was intentionally twisting potatos tone

Lol
another thing that i have never seen again are separation axioms
where do people care about those
a criterion for normality that is local
Im so glad we didn’t cover those in my pointset class
What even is the point
doesn't munkres explain what he means by this?
"local" in topology usually means something like "for every point (and maybe every neighborhood of the point)..."
it means you're focusing on what happens near points
no idea
i'm aware of the consequences and implications among them but uhh
oh ig i just haven't seen it then, combing ch4 rn
"local" is more of a vibe than a precise mathematical thing
but it's usually either "every point has a neighborhood such that..." or "every point and every neighborhood of the point has a smaller neighborhood such that..."
in point-set "local" usually refers to the second one, and an example of the first one is in "semi-local simple-connectedness"

well, that one's a bit of a misnomer anyways. it's not "simply connected neighborhood of each point"
most decent spaces are going to have neighborhoods like that anyways (earring get fucked)
aaand before the AG nerds hit the chat i have to mention that "local property" has a well established meaning in commutative algebra...
and said local property does indeed reflect some geometric idea of locality
would this count as local?
sorry i always disappear terra i be walkin around n shit
it seems like one of those words that gets thrown around very vaguely idk
the property of being normal is not really local
but regularity is, sure
We already know that M is R-orientable, so we already have a section that is a generator at each point. The fact phi is an isomorphism just says that this section corresponds to some class, which is the alpha you want
isnt that thm redundant
"X is compact iff every collection of closed sets with the FIP has the FIP" no?
how is that redundant
hhhh wait
think about the statement some more
or do you mean like
the collection neednt be finite
yeah didnt immediately catch that
the point is basically this is what you get by dualising the open covers definition
intersections correspond to unions, being empty corresponds to being the whole space
wdym by dualising
okay so like
taking complements, roughly, but I used that in a non-technical sense lol
basically the intuition is uh: open covers definition says if $\mathscr U$ is a collection of open subsets of $X$ such that $\bigcup_{U \in \mathscr U} U = X$, then there's finite $\mathscr F \subset \mathscr U$ with $X = \bigcup_{U \in \mathscr F} U$
So yes, they are the same after taking complements everywhere
what about taking compliments?
Well if the space compliments you, you should take it
if the space complements you well, maybe ask it out on a date
I am confused. How do we know $f[\omega + 1]$ is compact?
SB
image of compact set by a continuous map
@gritty widget Thank you!
Ahh ur totally right. Ty frank!!
I'm not sure about the conclusions to these theorems not being valid, but I know the radial plane is not normal:
It's R2 with the topology generated by the neighborhood basis of stars at each point. Here a star (about a point p) is any set for which the intersection of a ball about p with any line through p is contained in that set.
@odd flame
The Moore plane is also not normal. I really don't want to describe that one.
Soooo here's this instead:
In mathematics, the Moore plane, also sometimes called Niemytzki plane (or Nemytskii plane, Nemytskii's tangent disk topology), is a topological space. It is a completely regular Hausdorff space (also called Tychonoff space) that is not normal. It is named after Robert Lee Moore and Viktor Vladimirovich Nemytskii.
Okay. X3
Yeah, no prob. Sorry I can't point you toward the "actual" answer.
Maybe when I start studying again for the topology qual.
my final is in 10 hours
this is a practice exam lol

Well, my first thought would actually be to use the Moore plane. It's Hausdorff, so singletons are closed. With that in mind, you could pick the x-axis and some singleton "above" it to be your closed sets which may not (?) be able to be separated with a continuous function.
How about, say, an infinite set with cofinite topology
Singletons are closed but any two (nonempty) open sets intersect
How would I best go about showing that a metric pseudocompact space is also compact? Would it be good to show that a metric pseudocompact space is completely metrizable and totally bounded and then show that that implies sequentially compact and second countable (since I can use that this implies compactness) or is there some easier route directly to compactness?
Let x_n have all terms different and no convergent subsequence, define f(x_n) = n and extend (say using Tietze theorem)
I'm sorry but what does that show exactly?
I have not yet heard about Tietze's theorem
what is the most elementary argument to say homologies of a compact manifold is finitely generated
what's Aⁿ? affine n space?
This is affine n-space. So this is supposed to be the AG analog of homology invariance
In topology the cohomology of X is the same as the cohomology of XxI where I is the interval
Here the affine line A^1 plays the role of the interval in AG
I would guess Mayer-vietoris. Although perhaps that is a bit painful
To me it doesn’t seem like there would be a simpler way though—the idea is that you should cover with finitely many charts and the homology is thinking about how they overlap, so you kinda just need Mayer-vietoris for that
looks like that's the way
is there any intuition to the definition of a topology
short answer: metric spaces
A different answer: verifiable properties
Intuitively an open set is a set where you can "verify" that some element belongs in it
For example consider the open interval (0,1). Suppose you have some x in (0,1). If you zoom enough near x you will be able to see that it is indeed inside of (0,1)
but if your x was 1 instead, no matter how much you zoomed you'd never be able to tell whether it is inside (0,1) or not
This justifies why finite intersections are open: to verify if x belongs to a finite intersection you can just separately whether it belongs to any of the components of the intersection;
Arbitrary unions of opens are open because if x belongs to the union then theres one open on which x belongs so you can verify whether it belongs to it
(of course this is not very formal, but i still think it's a nice intuition for topological spaces)
How do you show the degree of a map f: CP^1 -> CP^1 that raises each coordinate to dth power is d
Following should work: You can view CP1 as the Riemann sphere, i.e. as S^2, say with [1:0] the point at infinity / the north pole of S^2, and the other points being represented by [x:1]. Clearly f fixes [1:0], and sends [x:1] to [x^d:1]. Under this identification of CP^1 with the Riemann sphere this is just the map x -> x^d on C, and under the identification with S^2 this is the same as the suspension of the map x -> x^d on S^1. The latter map has degree d, and suspension preserves degree
thanks I think it works
I can generalize it to CP^n using suspension
i have a problem in my topology course which involves proving a space is simply connected
according to my textbook, a space is simply connected if a) it is path-connected, and b) its fundamental group is trivial
the space in question is described as "two distinct 2-spheres, joined by a line segment. imagine a dumbbell, but with a very thin connector"
it's fairly trivial to see that it's path-connected, but to construct the fundamental group, am i allowed to reduce the space to S^2 v S^2?
that is, two spheres connected at a point instead of a line segment?
I think this is just van kampen
doesn't van kampen require the sets u and v be open?
someone please correct my proof of: if c is a cluster point for S then there exists a sequence $(s_n)$ in S such that $(s_n) \rightarrow c$: Assume c is a cluster point for S, then let $(s_n) $in S by the definition of a cluster point and let $\epsilon > 0$ such that $|s_n-c| < \epsilon$. Suppose $(s_n) \rightarrow c$ then for any $\delta > 0$ there exists $N$ such that $|s_n-c| < \delta$ for all $n \geq N$ proving the original statement true
imnotrachel
What definition of cluster point are you using
It also looks like you are proving the wrong direction sort of
Why is the following statement true? I feel like im missing something really obvious.
Suppose that $f \colon D^n \to D^n$ is a map with no fixed points. Then we can treat $f$ as a map from the northern hemisphere $D^n_+$ of $S^n$ to itself.
OmnipresentCoffee
In what way does this map of the hemisphere arise?
nevermind, i thought it was inducing some map on the boundary of Dn but that is S{n-1} not Sn. I didnt realize hemisphere of Sn is just homeomorphic to Dn
oh haha whats the correct proof?
Limit point is enough
Or well, point from the closure
If is in closure of S, then for any neighbourhood of c we can find a point of S in it
In particular choose s_n in open ball around c of radius 1/n
Then s_n converges to c
This proof translates well if we have a countable basis at c
If not, we can choose a point for every neighbourhood of c and thus we would create a net converging to c
so is this a good way of starting the proof if i say this: Let $s_n$ be a sequence in S that converges to c. The sequence exists as c is a cluster point of s so the neighborhood is non-empty
imnotrachel
Not really
If you have claims you should justify them
People in books/articles often don't but you should
im still kind of confused but this is my second attempt, Assume c is a cluster point for S then by the definition of a cluster point, there exists an element in the nieghborhood such that s_n belongs in S. Assume s_n belongs in S for all n in N that converges to c and choose an epsilon > 0, then there exists a N in the natural numbers such that |s_n - c| < epsilon. meaning that s_N belongs in the neighborhood and is a sequence that converges to c
small question for showing closed subset of normal is again normal.
oh neevermind I just answered my own question.

MyMathYourMath
that, you should be confident about
ok cool neevermind then 🙂
ok question in showing a compact metric space is totally bounded. Suppose the space is NOT totally bounded then there is an epsilon such that X has no finite epsilon covering. Then choose a sequence in X as follows:
pick any x_1 \in X then as X \neq B_\epsilon(x_1) there exists some x_2 \in X such that d(x_1,x_2) \geq \epsilon
then repeating this we see that
given some {x_1,...,x_n} there exists some x_{n+1} such that d(x_k,d_{n+1}) \geq \epsilon for 1 \leq k \leq n.
backslash your stuff
So any Cauchy sequence cannot converge thus the space is not sequentially compact and thus not compact
sorry lol
i didnt know if i show put it in TeX or not
you are massively overthinking this
suppose X is compact. you want to show that for each epsilon > 0 there is a finite covering of X by epsilon balls
what's a super easy way to use covering compactness?
unless you want to use sequential compactness for some reason
any opeen covering has a finite subcover
epsilon balls?
yes
ahh
there is a finite subcover so you're done
youre right! I was overcomplicating things
how to show X is compact if it is a totally bounded metric space that is complete? this is the tough direction i wanna say
I wanna say to choose balls of radius 1/n but unsure what to do with the completeness in the argument
for this sequential compactness is probably easier to use
ah
(and you're right about it being the tough direction)
since in a metric space compact iff sequentially compact
(also, you can use sequential compactness for the other direction like you were doing above, and i think your idea is right)
(it's just a lot nicer with covering compactness)
youre right it is lol
so you take a sequence in X
and you want a convergent subsequence
what are our assumptions? totally bounded doesn't give us anything that looks immediately useful, but completeness? completeness tells you that cauchy sequences converge, so what if you could find a cauchy subsequence?
using the totally boundedness?
somehow, yeah
cause you can bound it by balls of radius 1/n
well, i'll let you figure out the details
but i think i've given a good starting point
will do!
We are trying to recover a 2-dimensionsal closed TQFT from a monoidal k-linear pivotal bicategory B with duals such that B(O,O)=Vect_k, where O is the unit object of B.
That is, for each object a in B, we would like to construct a commutative Frobenius Algebra A_a from a.
We declare the underlying vector space of A_a to be End(1_a).
The dual a* of an object a in B is interpreted as a label for the bordism patch with opposite orientation.
Now, in order to endow A_a with a bilinear form, we begin by labelling a sphere as a, then project it onto some plane, producing a disc labelled as the tensor product a x a*. Supposedly this is because "the rear part of the sphere has opposite orientation with respect to the plane".
I'm having trouble understanding what's going on here. I can start to understand the intuition being that when you tensor product a and its dual, the parts on the same side of the sphere cancel out, but I don't know why the same wouldn't apply for the plane its projected onto.
Furthermore, why are we even projecting in the first place, what does that have to do with this construction?
Lastly, why not just declare that a x a* will be the disk because that is precisely the unit of the 2-dimensional bordism category?
can you define what's a closed TQFT ? Are 2d closed TQFT the same as the monoidal thing ? Like 2d oriented TQFT are the same as Frobenius algebras ?
is your category of cobordism here extended or just a genuine 1-category ?
A rather elementary question but I can't be the only one who finds this proof confusing to read?
I'm not even sure how to find it as a quoted result
just look for different characterizations of closure in a topological space
sometimes people define the closure as the set on the right
and some, like you, must have defined it another way
what’s the difference?
why is this true?
hmm okay, one way to see it is (M, partial M) is a good pair so the long exact sequence for the triple (M, partial M x [0, 1), partial M) gives you an isomorphism Hi(M, partial M) --> Hi(M, partial M x [0,1)), and then you can apply excision
Is $A$ : $\bigoplus_{p} H_n(X_p)$, $\bigoplus_{n} H_n(X_p)$, or $\bigoplus_{n,p} H_n(X_p)$,
lime_soup
ah thank you
I prob missing something obvious but why is U a Basis for X ? This is from Hatcher's Alg topo page 64
you want to go back and carefully look up the definitions of locally path connected and semilocally simply connected
and apply them
is there any sense in which the cross product in homology is dual to the cross product in cohomology? Say, a commutative diagram of isomorphisms
$$
\begin{tikzcd}
{H^i(M; k)\otimes H^i(N; k)} & {\hom(H_i(M; k)\otimes H_i(N; k), k)} \
{H^{2i}(M\times N; k)} & {\hom(H_{2i}(M\times N; k), k)}
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["\times"', from=1-1, to=2-1]
\arrow["{(\times)^*}", from=1-2, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-2]
\end{tikzcd}
$$
kxrider
where the horizontal maps would, i suppose, be the same ones that come from the universal coefficient theorem for cohomology
oh yea, and the indices probably shouldnt have to be like this either. i imagine you could replace i and 2i with i, j and i + j
i noticed that the way I've written this is suggestive that this should follow immediately from naturality of the SES in the universal coefficient theorem, but im going off the definitions in hatcher. The cross product in cohomology is defined in the kunneth formula section of hatcher, and the cross product in homology is defined in the chapter 3 appendix on generalizing the kunneth formula
do you have questions about something i said in the other channel?
Sorry if my brain is acting really fried rn, I'm on like barely any sleep lol, but how would I define it uniquely?
Like the smallest dimension such that there is a homeomorphism between a neighborhood of x and a subset of R^ that dimension?
what would your initial definition be
Like the general definition of a topology?
no the dimension at a point
think about why you don't need "smallest" here
for every point on your mfd there exists a neighbourhood s.t. this nbhd is homeomorphic to R^n for some n
why is this n unique
If I don't say smallest wouldn't it no longer be unique?
because it has the same dimension as the neighborhood?
To be quite frank, no, and this is assignment is due in a couple of hours, had to miss a couple lectures to catch up on other exams/hw. Usually I get to reading everything a couple days before the assignment is due, but I've been solely submitting grad school apps for the past 36 hours, and I had an exam before that
using the result nobody mentioned you can prove that if x has a nbhd. homeomorphic to R^n then x has no nbhd. homeomorphic to R^m for m not euqal to n
ah ok
the proof for said result requires invariance of domain tho, i recommend checking your lecture notes you are probably allowed to assume invariance of domain
so you think you're not allowed to use it?
I guess not, but I'm allowed to use this one, which is the same thing you and Nobody were mentioning
yes you can use that to prove the result nobody mentioned
and then prove this
and then you're done
Alright I'll give that a go
both proofs are fairly short
Thank you so much!
you're welcome
I may have one more question later if you're free, I understand if you're busy tho
Alright
I hadn't looked at this one yet but seems to be on an entirely different topic
I'll work on the other ones before getting back to this though
Sorry for sneaking another one, just so braindead rn
Aren't manifolds defined by the properties of their points
so how would I give an example of a manifold without using a choice of point
i think this is saying that they want you to give an example of a manifold that does not have the same dimension at every point
ohhh
this really depends on how u define a manifold tho. some authors don’t allow “multidimensional” manifolds
"Let M^n be a manifold"
i actually love writing the dimension of a manifold as a superscript
saves so much space
ppl should go back to doing that
can anyone tell what the "obvious isomorphism" is supposed to be here?
why sully
Bad notation
why
It overloads products/powers and it's awfully redundant a lot of the time
I usually just say, let M^n be a manifold and never the superscript again unless like
its needed.
i find this is common whenever a book denotes dimension like that
Wait so you change notation of the manifold willy nilly
yeah its called being fluid with notation lol
u do this for many things too, where you specify something in the notation only when needed
its nothing different here.
it's not like you're switching between different letters
cry about it
yeah im not a huge fan either but its super common, and for lectures quite useful when you dont want to write "let M be n-dimensional" every time
"M: n-mfd" is usually what people will write in lecture
If they are avoiding this notation
I have seen way more M^n than that lol
Somehow I don't remember seeing this in any of the low dimensional topology courses I took
please
Maybe low dimensional topology people are smart enough they don't need constant reminders of what dimension things are
Who knows
this is kind of cringy
They only need to remember numbers between 1 and 3
Maybe low dimensional topology people are smart enough they don't need constant reminders of what dimension things are
Lol
bumping my question 
isnt the inclusion a homotopy equivalence via the collar nbhd? I imagine its like the inclusion [0,1) -> [0,1]
yeah, im having a moment
Hi! Is anyone there a pro of Kirby calculus? I'm willing to show that the following two 3-manifolds are homeomorphic. What Kirby moves should I use? I'm not sure how to blow down the +2-framed unknot... I know that a +1-framed or a -1-framed unknot can be removed at the cost of a -1 or +1 in framing, respectively, but here?
Maybe it's better to make the drawings in terms of plumbing diagrams: what's the rule to reduce the plumbing graph in terms of framing?
@tardy urchin ?
can i do a proof walk through of separable metric spaces imply second countable and someone crituque my proof
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
MyMathYourMath
thus
MyMathYourMath
ok sweet
what is the example for b? the only space I'm familiar with that is not first countable is $\mathbb{R}$ with finite complement topology but I dont think that satisfies this
Bilboswaggins
oh actually nvm, I guess discrete topology on R works
No it doesn't
@old oak did you figure it out yet
Box topology
hi, i'm trying to understand this proof of dehn's lemma, but i'm not too familiar with covering space theory
the last page is really the main relevant one, the first two are kinda supplementary to my question
one setup involved in the proof is
you have a map from the disc to some surface in a 3-manifold
and they have this map whose image is a surface that intersects itself 10 times
but by considering the double cover of the surface
the double cover only intersects itself 5 times instead of 10
i don't really understand how lifting the map to the double cover reduces the number of times it goes around, so if someone could explain that, that would be great
sorry for the long text
sps X is metrizable and ~ is an equivalence relation such that X/~ is hausdorff (w/ the quotient top). under what conditions can we conclude that X/~ is metrizable?
X being compact
compact is too narrow
Could someone possibly help me understand these grading corrections? The “counterexample” they gave is just not clicking
what is the question
Oh yes, sorry
In your original argument you are correct up to and including the comment that $[\iota c] = [\iota d]$ but this refers to a different implicit equivalence relation than in the equation $[c]=[d]$. In the first one, it means that the two cycles $\iota c, \iota d$ differ by a boundary of a chain in $C(X){n+1}$; in the second one it means that the two cycles $c,d$ differ by a boundary of a chain in $C(A){n+1}$. The chain implicitly referred to in the first equation may not live in the subgroup $C(A){n+1}\subset C(X){n+1}$.
diligentClerk
That makes sense - thanks!
do you know the split exact sequence lemma?
In mathematics, and more specifically in homological algebra, the splitting lemma states that in any abelian category, the following statements are equivalent for a short exact sequence
0
⟶
A
⟶
q
B
⟶
...
ignore the shit about abelian categories lol you just want it in the case of abelian groups
That might be overkill actually
My point is you need to use that homology is a functor.
Not just that it sends maps to maps, but also the other laws regarding composition and identity
Not sure the appropriate channel for this:
Is there a study of "discrete" manifolds, I guess they're just simplicial complexes. But then having somehow equivalent definitions of vector fields on the complex (this seams easy) and then having k-forms on the complex (gut says this would be a bit more complicated to define properly)
If $X$ is separable metric, $q:X\to X/\sim$ is closed with compact fibers, then $X/\sim$ is separable metric
Blitz
Also note that R/N is not metrizable so this theorem is pretty tight
It uses Urysohn metrization theorem, for general metrizable spaces all conditions for metrizability are beautiful (well except for the star-refinement ones) but not so easy to check, I wouldn't expect anything in the general metric space setting
Blitz
why is the thing in parentheses about the no connected 2-sheeted covering space true
Sorry, why would R/N not be metrizable?
It's not first countable at N
Ah, I see.
Hi, guys, i am reading the proof that a topological manifold is paracompact. it says for any open cover U, and any basis B, there is a countable open refinement of U consisting of elements of B. But What if the open cover U is uncountably infinite? or do we just assume U is countable by second- countability?
you shouldn't need to assume U is countable
if U is uncountably infinite, then you'll have sets in your refinement which are refining uncountably many sets in U at a time
Thank you!
I'm not sure what the question is - if paracompactness just said countable covers had countable refinements, that wouldn't really make sense
It says if B is any basis for the manifold M, U is any open cover, then there exists a countable, locally finite open refinement consisting of elements in B
I guess it is saying for any U, i must miss something in the proof
question
for showing a separable metric space is second countable so I take the basis
MyMathYourMath
then show that these basis elements are contained in an arbitrary open set of my ambient space
MyMathYourMath
does that suffice to show the space is second countable? if every arbitrary open set of ambient space contains these basis elements
did i choose the correct basis
i missed this question on my final and im worried itll show up on the qualifying exam for top
anybody?
any open cover of a second countable space has a countable refinement
simply write every set in the cover as a union of some elements of the basis
Thank you! Yes! I messed up the definition of refinement. I was thinking other way around : If U has a refinement V, then for all U_a\in U, there exists V_b such that V_b\subset U_a, which is not the definition
how do you know it's a basis? That's what you got to prove
isnt it enoigh to show each element is contained in an arbitrary open set of my ambeint space
therefore each open set of ambient space can be written as a union of them
Here: Let $\mathcal{B}_n$ be a family of open covers, each consisting of sets with diameters $< \frac{1}{n}$. Then $\mathcal{B} = \bigcup_n \mathcal{B}_n$ is a basis.
Blitz
and point contined in the open set
you can put a basis element around that point and inside of the open set
so given an arbitrary y \in U \in \tau I have to show B_1/n(x) \subset U
with y \in B_1/n(x)
centered about points of the countable dense subset right?
but were in a metric space
Struggling in general because i dont see how preserving the equivalence relation I am going to find a bijection at 0,0
i guess lol
i mean its fine
ik what u mean
If you were to write it out its norm y,y’=1
like u want a cylinder?
you are not gluing the two edges together
you are collapsing each of the top and bottom edges to a point
also you dont wanna use cos and sin since your input is already in cartesian form, not in radian
so bijection should be more like (x,y) -> (x/sqrt(1-y^2),y)
Well if this is the case then yeah, you dont want that haha
this probably doesnt work entirely, but i would expect it to look similar
like y shouldnt change too much, but the range x can vary needs to be scaled down depending on y
Should probably first find one that works for [0,1]^2 and then translate and scale
I now see where I went wrong, collapsing makes more senes
oh good question
what ways besides simply connected is there to show disc and cylinder not homeomorphic?
closed cylinder and closed disc
unless you mean the boundary of a cylinder, the cylinder is 3 dimensional and disk 2 dimensional so there is a variety of reasons this cant work
yeah boudary lol
wait you say simply connected so i guess you mean boundary
i didnt mean solid
i think looking at the boundary makes sense
homology, euler characterisitc, homotopy groups, etc
without at techniques
im guessing looking at boundaries
and removing points
and connectedness
nah
oh yeah lol
boundary of cylinder isnt connected
boundary of disc is
its that
you have to be careful with these things, since boundary depends on surrounding space
apriori i dont know what you mean by boundary of cylinder
yeah treat them as manifolds with boundary
closed cylinder
?
the cylinder is homeomorphic to S^2 im pretty sure
just radial projection
like square is homeomorphic to circle
bruh
like not S1 x R
you're missing top and bottom lids
but S1 x I
whatever
idk
same here
i only do abstract nonsense
?

yeah ng be kind
general abstract nonsense
wait im dumb i basically already had it, you do (x,y) -> (x*sqrt(1-y^2),y), not dividing but multiplying
like (infinity) categories and abstract homotopy theory and so on


stuff that these guys do
🤟
Does anyone have an equivalence relation so P2/~ is homeomorphic to S2?
I know one so that S2/~ is homeomorphic to P2
But not the other way around
P2 is the real projective plane?
In that case I think it ought to work to pick a line L and define a ~ b iff a = b or {a,b} ⊆ L.
does anyone know of a reference on the computational complexity of calculating the first Betti number of a triangulation of a 3-manifold?
n would belong to the intersection right?
I guess something like {R-(-n,n)} would work
Think of it as a set of open sets that require infinitely many elements to cover the entire space
"A space X is locally connected if and only if for every open set U of X, each component of U is open in X."
what exactly does "component of U" mean? a component of U meaning U as a subspace of X?
Shivvaghel
My work so far is to suppose per contra that A and B form a separation of this union, namely as open sets in the subspace topology on this big union (which I’ve called Y). My strat at the moment is to assume that they don’t restrict to form a separation of any of the X_i, but then that means they form a separation of X_0 — a contradiction.
Is that a good plan of attack, and how do I enact it? 
The easiest imo is to use the characterisation of connected spaces in terms of continuous maps into {0,1} (with discrete topology)
But yours should wind up basically the same
couldn't you also show it's path connected pretty easy by induction
and then path connected implies connected
Definitely can't show it is path connected
Otherwise you'd be showing connected implies path connected
o nvm
The continuity argument is interesting, and I definitely saw that one online too. The problem is that nothing I found online matches the phrasing here exactly. (Undergrad problem to complain about, I know.)
((No hate to undergrads either.))
Hm I think you may need X0 cap Xi to be connected
Did I not type that?
Unless I'm being silly
No you did not
But dw
But yes suppose A and B separate this set and then consider intersections with each of the Xi and X0 cap Xi and X0
You'll wind up showing one of A or B is empty
Though I realize a picture is not a proof, if you stick this into R2 then it shows that the intersections need not be connected. The problem is something I saw a while ago before grad school; it shows that all you need is this X_0 “hub” for the subspace to be connected.
I think this is the hint I needed.

Actually yeah the proof I'd give doesn't require intersection to be connected so it'll be okay
so, I have a feeling this proof is quite wrong
since the hint in the book has nothing to do with my approach
and as far as I can tell, it seems like it should work for any surjective continuous map, not just a quotient map
anyone care to enlighten me?
actually think I just realized lol
we would need p to be an open map so that p(J) is open
Any intuitive proof of the fact that two homotopic maps induce the same homomorphism of Homology groups? Hatcher constructs this map called prism operator which feels very not motivated.
you need to understand how to visualize the prism operator geometrically
it's a triangulation of $\Delta^n\times I$
diligentClerk
Whenever you have a homotopy between two maps $f, g : X\to Y$
diligentClerk
then you of course are going to have, for each simplex $\sigma: \Delta^n\to X$
diligentClerk
an induced homotopy of sigma $h_\sigma : \Delta^n\times I\to Y$ induced by $h : f\Rightarrow g$
diligentClerk
i.e., $h_\sigma = h\circ (\sigma\times \operatorname{id}I)$. This is essentially the only relationship you have between the simplices $f\ast\sigma = f\circ\sigma$ and $g_\ast\sigma = g\circ \sigma$ so i feel like it should be like, somewhat intuitive a priori that the proof \textbf{has} to somehow make use of this homotopy $h_\sigma :\Delta^n\times I\to Y$
diligentClerk
and like, because we have a theory based around simplices, again i feel like it's a fairly straightforward conceptual step to go, ok is there a way we can write $\Delta^n\times I$ itself as being built out of simplices/ triangulated?
diligentClerk
And the answer is, yes, there is a canonical way to equip $\Delta^n\times I$ with the structure of a simplicial complex, which tbh kinda falls out of the definition of the cartesian product if you ever end up studying simplicial sets
diligentClerk
I really suggest trying to draw the triangulation of $\Delta^n\times I$ in the cases $n=1,2$ and trying to get a feel for it geometrically
diligentClerk
the proof is then just like, turning the triangulation into homological algebra, but the "prism" itself, it's inevitable imo that you have to use this
Thanks a lot I will try to work that out
guys i'm a little confused
it is said in the definition of an open set that it is any set part of the topology of the original set we took the topology of.
but the entire set is inside the topology
so it's impossible to construct any closed set because every subset of the original set and itself IS part of the topology
where did this reasoning go wrong? it sounds fine ^
not every subset of your base space is an open set unless you choose the discrete topology
ohhhhhh
A topology is a specific subset of the power set that has some properties. You can also think of a topology as a collection of subsets of your base space. Base space is the original set.
yep so ig it depends on which topology we choose
So those three properties quickly summarized are that your topology T contains the base space and the empty set, it is closed under arbitrary unions and closed under finite intersections
Yes
oh also
following that logic, does a discrete topology only contain open sets?
or can they have closed sets too?
you missing a word?
there fixed it heh
well yeah
if you choose the discrete topology then any subset of your base space is considered an open set relative to the discrete topology
open sets are a relative concept
ahhh
they depend on the topology you choose/ is implicitly understood
have you heard of the standard topology on R?
its the topology where open sets are unions of open intervals
however there are many different topologies on R other than this
finite complement topology is another example
So the open sets are complements of finite collections of objects
ah
So if you choose a set X={1,4.32,pi/2,sqrt3} then R\X is open in the finite complement topology
there are many ways you can construct topologies from existing ones but you should take it slowly if you are just starting
hakuna matata
well, R on its own is a set
we can give it different topologies, there's a lot flexibility about that, and it only really depends on cardinality of R
(as an example, take the discrete topology, where every set is an open set)
I am trying to understand spinors (in their broad mathematical scope rather than just pure QM) and I keep reading how they are the result of SU(2) being the double cover of SO(3) (at least in the case of 3 dimensions), what does double cover mean?
My knowledge in topology is limited, so any good reads is appreciated too
Basically there a continuous homomorphism from SU(2) to SO(3) that hits each element of SO(3) exactly twice.
So is double covering just mean there is a 2 to one 1 function that maps elements from SU(2) to SO(3)?
yes
or you can phrase it that there are two elements in the preimage of any point under projection map
Okay, idk why I had so much trouble with this before, now it's making a lot more sense
Is it just me but I've managed to convince myself that all the propositions hold for topological spaces not necessarily Hausdorff
N.B. $A’$ is defined as the set of accumulation points of $A$.
Philka
what r your counterexamples/reasoning?
that's correct
you don't need Hausdorff anywhere
Strange exercise…
This is what we all said when we did this xd
I think 3) needs T1 though
Some people incorrectly deduced 3) or 4) from 2) but that doesn't work
is it Munkres?
I did this homework at my uni
evidently same uni
I think that works at least
@ blitz
ah yeah. This one needs Hausdorffness
ye
anyone have a pdf copy of "the topology of fiber bundles" by steenrod?
How did you convince yourself for 4?
2 is closed in your example?
Ig we rely on theorem that a closed set is limit points union isolated points
Deleted, but yeah you do need T1
I'll try to come up with an actual counterexample
i don't think 0 is a limit point of {0} in that example
whilst 2 is a limit point
But yeah
yeah it cant be right
Okay, sure I found this perturbation online: X = {0,1,2} with the only non-trivial open set being {0,1}
Then the set of limit points of {0} is {1,2}, which isn't closed
isnt your example fine though?








