#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 10 of 1
Wdym? That's the definition of homotopy class. Two maps are in yhe same homotopu class iff they're homotopic, i.e. there exists a homotopy between them
You're not gonna be able to describe this explicitly for 2 general functions
You didnt have to restate the definition, but what do you think are the limitations between knowing if any two given functions are in the same class, and giving an explicit homotopy
Im not sure how to approach the second question but maybe it has to do with really nice descriptions of things like convex spaces
I'm sorry, I misread your question as "I DO know they are in the same homotopy class"
So I thought you might be confused about the defn
My bad
dont apologize its fine
I think the first question is too broad, and if you want a meaningful answer you'd probably want to narrow your scope a bit
Giving an explicit function in an arbitrary space us nigh impossible
i never thought of this to be honest
and i feel bad because this feels like a natural question
It is
I think it's as natural as "when are two spaces homotopic/homeomorphic"
But just like those questions, it's pretty much impossible to give good answers except under some nice special cases
im angry
There's just too many spaces, man
And even more functions (well technically not but yaknow)
Even if we restrict to like, very specific cases, say maps R^n->R^m I still think this question is very hard (maybe unanswered/unanswerable?). I think the best we can do is assume things about either the functions or both the spaces and the functions
And get some partial results
I mean really a lot of theorems of that sort are good because they're applicable to every-day spaces
Pretty much any theorem regarding CW complexes
Yea it's a sad reality of math
But if a complete classification was that easy then the definition is probably not very interesting
R^m is contractible, so any such pair of maps is homotopic
Finding the explicit homotopy part is fine too because linear homotopy I assume
Oh oops you're right 🤦♂️
Yea
I feel like I forgot a lot of topology
I tried thinking of an example that would be simple but not trivial but had a brainfart
the difficulty of computing the homotopy groups of spheres is maybe a better example
Im more concerned about
the second question
of knowing when there is an explicit formula for the homotopy
idk what to do if it isnt linear
also i cant think of examples easily
@peak crystal I've once said to you that finding Tychonoff spaces which are not T4 is a hard task.
I misremembered - it's finding regular spaces that aren't Tychonoff that's hard.
But I heard there is a process of constructing T3 spaces that aren't Tychonoff from a countable amount of Tychonoff spaces
Hopefully you'll forgive me 
is the fact that this is a homeomorphism trivial?
Whats exercise 19.8
oh i guess i should've checked that before asking here
yeah that has it my b

the identity map is a bijection on the underlying sets
ohhhh from X to X
i wass thinking T to T'
but that's like a side effect of the map from X to X right
what do you mean?
i was thinking as the identity mapping as being a map between the topologies
which i guess it kinda is
but the actual map is from X to X
Note that the map from the coarser topology to the finer topology won't necessarily be continuous though
i dont wanna note that 
Kinda stuck on part b here, aren't the conditions for defining this topology the same as part a?
What do you mean?
Topology of X' is given you from heavens
It's not generated by anything
The function just happens to also be continuous for X' in place of X
Hopefully you're not confused anymore
Tbh d doesn't even have to be continuous on X x X, just coordinate-wise
I'm looking for a counterexample to $\overline{A-B} \subseteq \bar{A} - \bar{B}$. Could I just take A=(-3, 3) and B=(-1,1) in R for example? Then if x=-1 or x=1, $x \in [-3, -1] \cup [1, 3]$ but $x \notin [-3, -1) \cup (1, 3]$?
You can do \overline if you want the bar to stretch over the whole thing.
I was curious about that, thank you
J.Ross
Your example works.
Another nice example is Q in R. You can look for them by letting A be the whole space and B dense, so that the set on the right is empty.
How could I approach finding a continuous function from R to R with a standard basis element I=(a,b) such that f^-1(I) is not a standard basis element? I understand the idea, but starting a problem like this seems odd
Does "standard basis element" just mean "open interval" here?
It does, yes, sorry
Not sure, but what book is this? Looks like it has good exercises
Ok this is probably going to be an exceedingly dumb question but uhhhh
what exactly is algebraic topology?
I've taken a graduate algebra course and am taking real analysis right now for reference about background (haven't taken a topology course tho)
topological spaces are hard to understand, they got too much subtlety. You often would like to know whether a continuous map exists between spaces, or whether spaces are homeomorphic, but it’s hard to tell. If two spaces are the same, then you maybe have hope of just writing down a homeomorphism. Otherwise, it can be really tough to show no map exists.
algebraic topology deals with extracting data from spaces and continuous maps. It’s kinda like how a data set is complicated, so we learn about it from simpler things like mean, standard deviation, etc. We do something analogous where we start with a topological space and get something more tractable, like a number or maybe different groups that are associated to spaces (e.g., homotopy and homology groups).
Then, we’re interested in what continuous maps do to the associated groups. The cool thing is “functoriality”, an idea of category theory invented for alg top. Just as we extract groups from spaces, we extract group homomorphisms from continuous maps, and this process respects composition.
Let me just give one vague example. We might be interested in whether the 2-sphere and the 3-sphere are homeomorphic. Your intuition probably tells you no, but justifying that intuition turns out to be a little tricky. This is where homology helps you. It turns out that the 2nd homology group of S^2 is Z (the integers), but the 2nd homology group of S^3 is 0. If these spaces were homeomorphic, the homeomorphism would turn into a group isomorphism but clearly Z and 0 are not isomorphic. Thus, there does not exist a homeomorphism
this is at least how algebraic topology starts out being useful in like an intro class. I’m sure there are more mature perspectives to it too
Or just calculate their dimension
Well, it's very easy tbh
A sphere S^n is union of two closed subspaces homeomorphic to [0, 1]^n
From subset and sum theorems its dimension equals that of [0, 1]^n
Which is n as standard computation shows
To show dim [0, 1]^n = n you still need Brouwer fixed point theorem and a bit of work, but it's doable
So yeah, no need for all the AT machinery to show this
AT is still crazy important of course
I just learned about ultraconnected and hyperconnected spaces 
that just screams bad separation properties
what's ultraconnected
any finite intersection of non-empty closed sets is non-empty
when ur space is not the union of disjoint open sets
So is R with the standard topology connected since you cannot express is as the union of disjoint open sets?
ye
before i drop in with the problem i'm facing for the next couple weeks, is the topic of set/multiset diversity functions ok for this channel or should i look somewhere else
i can't really tell since i'm a compsci major taking a math elective purely by necessity >.<
Nice, that's pretty interesting
there are a few equivalent definitions of connectedness. one cool one is that a space is connected iff X and the empty set are the only clopen sets in the space
and if X is not empty 😼
connectedness can also be a bit pathological though (see topologist's sine curve for example). There is a stronger condition called "path connectedness" which often captures the intuitive notion of connectedness better.
Oo that equivalent definition in unique, I like it. Does that imply that the trivial topology is always connected and the discrete topology is never connected?
And path connectedness, okay. I've heard about these terms, we just haven't made it that far in the class yet, but they're nice definitions
Correct outside trivialities
(singletons with discrete top are connected)
I never heard of something like that in my life
trust me, me neither
just ask, if it's wrong channel for this then we'll correct you
Ahhh of course. Topology keeps getting weirder, there are so many very general and basic definitions with so much embedded in them, it's nice
but basically, i'm doing a project to develop a metric (in its formal definition) used to compare 'how far', as in 'how much do you have to change one set to turn it into the other set', sets/multisets are from each other and looking for any useful resources
more specifically it's finite multisets of finite sets of anything that you can check equality for (technically no ordering, or i guess no specific ordering), but let's assume natural numbers for simplicity (and implementation) sake
if it's fine to post here about then i can continue on what i tried so far
connected is not strange at all. You should see ultraconnectedness or hyperconnectedness
And I wouldn't say connectedness is pathological or unintuitive
nor that path-connectedness reflects our intuition somehow
arc-connectedness is a little better
fortunately for a lot of spaces arc-connected and path-connected are the same
that said, topologist sine curve is actually intuitive
it's a good example to get rid yourself of some bad intuition
what connectedness does tell you, and what it doesn't
I'll definitely look into these definitions, there seem to be a lot. You said that ultraconnectedness means that any finite intersection of nonempty closed sets is nonempty. Does that mean R with the standard topology is not ultraconnected? Just take two disjoint closed intervals
Nah. I haven't known what ultraconnected/hyperconnected means since today
those properties look very pathological and probably only something like algebraic geometry uses them
Ahhh okay fair enough
I mean - pathological in a sense that they're not what we usually think about when we think about nice spaces, like the metrizable ones
I'm sure they're nice properties to have
I'm definitely not there yet, but maybe one day. I covered metric/normed vector spaces in analysis, but not topology yet. In topology we finished separation axioms and closure and are finishing up continuous functions this week.
A nice problem I haven't been able to solve yet is "Show that there exists a subset A of R and disjoint subsets C and D that are closed in A such that the closures of C and D in R are not disjoint."
what kinda separation axioms did you talk about already
Try A = R without 0
T1 (singleton sets are closed, and an equivalent definition), Hausdorff, Regular, and Normal is all we covered
T0?
I know it exists but am not sure what it is
completely normal, perfectly normal, Tychonoff?
Nope, unfortunately
Also I'll look into the A=R thing real quick
I imagine there's a nice reference of all the separation axioms I could hang on my wall, or type up
wikipedia
Oh there are so many
it's alright, no need to remember them all
Normal, Hausdorff, Tychonoff are probably the most important
That's relieving, there are a lot of definitions as is
Normal because of Tietze and Urysohn theorems, Hausdorff for obvious reasons, and Tychonoff because they're the topologies which can be generated by a family of pseduo-metrics/which can be given a uniformity/which can be Cech-Stone compactified/which embedd into the generalized "Hilbert cube" [0, 1]^k for some cardinal k
and regular too ig, because of the Urysohn metrization theorem
all (Hausdorff) topological groups or vector spaces are always Tychonoff for example (but not necessarily normal)
I don't think there'll ever be a moment when you're happy that your space is regular. It's just less conditions to check for Urysohn metrization theorem
just as a reminder - i guess it's fine if there was no correction? i'll prob get back to it later (since i'm doing something else right now)
cardinality of symmetric difference maybe
I'll understand all of that one day I'm sure
hm, i initially thought of symmetric difference, but in a different way now that you mention it, in the form closer to levenshtein distance where i allow substitution of elements (so basically ceiling of cardinality of symmetric difference divided by two, if i'm thinking correctly)
the bigger problem that i'm having here is using this to 'measure distance' between multisets of sets, and proving it is indeed a metric, but I may be missing something here
i'll try just using the cardinality itself instead of some offshoot of it for now and get back later if i get stuck, thanks
It's definitely a metric
that's my intuition, or at least it was close enough I suppose, but putting it into a formal proof is going to give me some trouble i feel
It boils down to $A\Delta C\subseteq A\Delta B\cup B\Delta C$, $A\Delta B = \emptyset$ iff $A = B$, and $A\Delta B = B\Delta A$
Blitz
first property makes triangle inequality work, second makes d(x, y) = 0 iff x = y work, and third is symmetry
I'm talking about finite sets of course since I don't want to dive into multisets
From topological standpoint this metric is very boring - the topology is discrete
if we replaced cardinality with a different notion of measure, we might get something interesting
well it's a binary "the element is there or not"
though hm, maybe i used the wrong words here
if it's a set to set comparison, I can handle that, I meant it more on the line of comparing a "multiset of sets" to another "multiset of sets"
the initial idea i had is to use that offshoot of cardinality of symmetric difference, order up the sets in multisets arbitrarily but both in the same way, if one of the multisets has lower cardinality pad it with empty sets (and adjust the final distance), use that ordering to compute distances between sets pairwise then sum them up
not sure if understandably so or not, but proving triangle inequality here proved troublesome for me
maybe i just need more background to understand what's going on here
either way thanks for suggesting some ideas
I live to serve
If I have X and Y with cofinite topology does X x Y need to have cofinite topology? I think not but can’t think of counterexample
Take X, Y infinite then for any finite F, X x F is closed but not finite, nor the whole space
in fact, X can be infinite and Y have at least two points
so if X, Y have cofinite topology then X x Y has cofinite topology only in trivial cases
Thanks way simpler than I thought
I've seen the definition of "dimensionality" for vector spaces, but is there also a notion of "dimensionality" for metric spaces or topologies or something? If we have a continuous function f on [0, 1] where f(0) = f(1), I know that R^3 is the only R^n where we can divide such paths into equivalence classes of knots, so is there a sense in which a topology that has distinct kinds of "knots" be considered 3D?
Yes, there are notions of topological dimension, but these tend to be somewhat specific to the kind of topological space you're looking at. I'm familiar with Krull dimension for the Zariski topology, but this is not suited to manifolds – I think covering dimension is one that is.
I think the 3d knot thing isn't the best idea as if you just choose a topological space with nontrivial fundamental group, you get a nontrivial "knot"
Are these things you're talking about part of algebraic topology? I've only seen the basic point-set stuff covered in undergrad analysis.
Oh, I think when one studies a topology course you'll see the fundamental group.
It is indeed part of algebraic topology.
Thank you!
No worries
Covering dim works good for any separable metric space
There are also cohomological dimensions
For normal spaces this is a pretty good notion of dimension as well, but we can do a better (equivalent) one
Which works relatively well for any Tychonoff space
Usually only at the end of some courses
Most notably small/large inductive dimensions and covering dimension.
Those are the first 3 classic dimensions for topological spaces
For subspaces of Euclidean spaces they are the same, and can be described axiomatically
Result of Hayashi
They have to satisfy Menger's axioms and a decomposability axiom, about decomposing an n-dimensional space into n+1 zero-dimensional subspaces
Moreover, they are the largest dimension on Euclidean subspaces from the ones satisfying Menger's axioms
I feel like nobody reads what I write
I typically can't understand what you write yet
I don't know any of those terms. Thank you anyway for explaining.
Do we know what’s H_0(S^n) is

Using just the axioms not any particular theory of homology
Thats what i am asking
Yeah from the axioms you can show that H_0(S^n) = H_0(pt) for n > 0 and of course H_0(S^0) = H_0(pt) + H_0(pt)
im assuming by axioms you mean at least homotopy invariance, excision, and the LES
you then get finite additivity for free
Legendary bookcover
well then you always have isomorphism $H_n(X) \cong \tilde{H}_n(X) \oplus H_n(pt)$
Phil
also $\tilde{H}_n(X) \cong H_n(X,x)$
Phil
for some point x in X
for the higher ones it tells you that reduced homology coincides with unreduced
since by dimension axiom H_n(pt) = 0 for n > 0
also makes sense when you look at the LES
Yes then how we get this exactly
depends on how you define reduced homology
oh its as in your image actually
you have a split SES $0 \to \tilde{H}_n(X) \to H_n(X) \to H_n(pt) \to 0$
Phil
That should for n=0only ?
well idk what your definition of reduced homology is. In my lecture we defined it as the kernel of H_n(X) -> H_n(pt)
this gives you the SES for free
and it splits because as long as X is nonempty X -> pt is a split epi
meaning pt -> X -> pt is the identity
In bredon it says we only define it for n=0 so i am confused
well you can define it like this and get a homology theory that coincides with the one you started with in all higher degrees
we used it here and there, but i guess its more of a notational convenience
Okay
but yeah you can basically compute the homology of S^n by induction on n
you can cover S^n by two contractible open subsets U and V, (S^n without northpole, S^n without southpole).
Then H_k(S^n, pt) = H_k(S^n,U) = H_k(S^n - pt, U - pt). Note that S^n -pt is homotopy equivalent to a point, and U - pt is homotopy equivalent to S^{n-1}
so the LES is $H_k(pt) = H_k(S^n-pt) \to H_k(S^n-pt, U-pt) \to H_{k-1}(U-pt) -> H_{k-1}(S^n-pt) = H_{k-1}(pt)$
Phil
say k-1 > 0
then using $H_k(S^n) \cong H_k(S^n,pt) \cong H_k(S^n-pt, U-pt)$ we have a SES $0 \to H_k(S^n) \to H_{k-1}(S^{n-1}) \to 0$ and hence an isomorphism $H_k(S^n) \cong H_{k-1}(S^{n-1})$
Phil
and like this, once you know that H_0(S^0) = Z + Z and H_k(S^0) = 0 for k > 0, you get by induction that for n > 0 we have H_k(S^n) is Z for k=n or k=0 and H_k(S^n) = 0 otherwise
as one would expect with the intuition that H_k counts k-dimensional holes
It is connected right? I used the f: X -> {0,1} where f is continuous to show this but i'm not sure if my argument proves the conclusion
Yes, it's arc connected
Since p(t) = tf+(1-t)g gives an arc between different f, g
How does this argument look so far
i want to show there is maybe an intersection somehow and so one of the preimages is empty
What's fg(x)
oh i forgot to write that " let f:C[0,1] ---> {0,1} be continuous"
and I kept switching between X and C[0,1]
My point stands
f applied to the function g in C[0,1] ?
Then how is that in X
What is
fg(x)
f(g(x))
Huh?
wdym
That doesn't make any sense
im sending a function to a value 0 or 1
using f
then composition of continuous functions
yeah
f is not a function on real numbers
I've thought maybe we can fix your argument but I figured out that's too much hassle
It's a lot easier to use that C[0, 1] is convex
would I use that to show that X and the empty set are the only open and closed subsets of X
we can form a sequence in S that tends to an element in S_c
in*
To prove that for a connected topological space X, any non empty proper subset has non zero boundary, how do I prove backward direction
That non zero boundary implies connected
Other way was fine with contradiction but idk here
convex implies path connected implies connected
if there is a subset C of X with empty boundary, then C is both open and closed since bd(C) = cl(C) \ int(C)
is there anyway to prove it strictly using definitions of connected?
^ proving my question
i think path conected is the next chapter but i want to see if i can prove it without using the path connected argument
my first instinct would be to show that if i have a non-empty clopen set then it has to be all of C([0,1]).
yeah that's what im going for now thanks
i’ll try and work out some details
Yeah, I understand this part but how does that lead to connected conclusion
what def of connected r u using
X not connected if there exist non empty U,V disjoint open sets where U union V is X
okay. so i have a non-empty closed and open subset C of X
and recall that X = C U (X/C)
non-empty, proper clopen sets* but yea
I just thought about premise and how does X not connected if boundary is 0 mean X is connected if boundary is not 0? Isn’t it not necessarily true
uhh
rephrase this just a bit
X is connected if and only if the only subsets of X with empty boundary are X and 0
That part makes sense and then ur explanation makes sense. But directly, would empty boundary implying non connected mean that non empty boundary implies connected?
thats the converse, not the contrapositive
the converse is not true. take X = [0,1] U [2,3]. [0,1] has boundary {0,1} but X is not connected
the contrapositive says that connected implies that every non-empty, proper subset has non-empty boundary
im being asked to prove that a collection of finite sets with the FIP has nonempty intersection - doesnt this follow directly from the definition?
yes
okay then

nothing changes if the collection is infinite right?
i feel like im losing my mind why is this on my homework
It's not true then
oh but that's just still by the actual statement of FIP
It isn't
It doesn't follow in a straightforward way as you're suggesting
You have to fix a finite set A and for every element x of A find a set B_x which doesn't contain x. Then look at intersection of A and all of B_x
what im doing for the proof is considering a collection X = {X1, ... , Xi, ... , Xn}, taking subcollections {X1, ... , Xi} {Xi, ... , Xn} and trying to do something w that
It doesn't have to be finite
ahhh that's why i was asking before
if the collection is finite before hand then its trivial
by FIP any subcollection containing A and any B_x must have a non-empty intersection
hmmm but actually if $x \in A$ and $x \not \in B_x$ the FIP tells us there must be some $a \in B_x \cap A$ but that's not enough to show that the intersection of the whole thing is nonempty
stμ₂dying
@gritty widget is there a way to prove my problem without path-conectedness
I'm trying hard to formulate an argument but it isn't coming through
is there no other way?
Well I mean there probably will be but idk why you'd want it
Proving path connectedness is more conceptual and stronger anyway
and everyone I know proved path connectedness (it's the expected thing)
ah fair enough
a rough like rule of thumb imo is like
it's often easier to show stuff is path-connected and to show something is not connected than the other way round
Because in either case you can explicitly give a path or a disconnection
(Ofc the two notions are not necessarily equivalent)
oh thats fair
but often if you want to show smth is connected you should see if you can prove the stronger statement that it's path connected
For example uh so like
so they are just easier approaches
why is the sphere connected?
There are various approaches but to me the most obvious is just that you can take a great circle through any two points
np
Sorry to reply so much later, but then the statement that if X is connected if and only if every non empty proper subset of X has non empty boundary isn’t true?
Doesn’t that example contradict the direction where empty boundary of proper subset implies connected X
yes because i made an oopsie
the boundary of [0,1] in X is empty since [0,1] is clopen in X.
I got u. To prove it then do we need to consider contrapostive. Rn I suppose boundary of A is non empty and assume that A is clopen. This motivated by fact that only clopen set can form separation (?). However this contradict since then boundary empty so A not clopen I.e. no seperation and X is connected
This is a kind of random question which popped up in my head because I’m learning about singular homology and group cohomology right now but.
If a group G acts on a topological space X, then this induces an action of G on H_n(X) and turns H_n(X) into a G module.
Is it interesting to study the group cohomology of H_n(X)? Does this tell us something about X, does this have a name or is it just kind of irrelevant/uninteresting?
yes this can be quite interesting and is related to equivariant cohomology (which is a joint generalization of singular cohomology and group cohomology)
e.g. if G is a finite group acting on X then one has H^i(X/G,A)=H^i(X,A)^G (G-invariant subspace), but the latter is just H^0(G,H^i(X,A)). The higher group cohomologies H^j(G,H^i(X,A)) will measure the extent to which this taking G-invariants is not exact, so it measures something about how cohomology of G-quotients behaves.
you do always have a map like H^i(X/G,A)->H^i_G(X,A) where H^i_G is G-equivariant cohomology, this is an isomorphism when G acts freely
Oh wow I didn’t expect there to be a positive answer to my question!
I haven’t learned singular cohomology yet but ig this is something I have to look forward to now, it sounds awfully interesting
singular cohomology is quite similar to singular homology (and the universal coefficient theorem gives you a precise relation between the two)
everything here should have a homology analogue, it's just that group cohomology is sorta more natural than group homology (since taking G-invariants is more natural than G-coinvariants)
I see, Ill definitively have to read up on that, though I probably have a few missing prerequesites to understand anything in depth
question about FIP - it states that any finite subcollection of some collection A has non-empty intersection, that subcollection doesn't need to fully cover the whole collection A does it?
what do you mean by cover the whole collection A?
Yes
oh i guess i phrased that wrong
wait nvm wdym
actually i can answer my own question from before easily, the subcollection of A needs to cover the same elements as A otherwise you can definitely find an empty intersection
i think that's what you meant
Wdym cover here
Covers are not directly relevant to the statement and there are no restrictions on what the union of your closed sets is
suppose that there is some continuous bijection f: A -> B and there is some continuous bijection g: B -> A. does it imply that A and B are homeomorphic?
uh... some online friend googled for me https://mathoverflow.net/questions/30661/
Appeared here many times
well may I ask if moreover A and B are metric spaces does it imply? @@
I should better not to do too much google... @@
i believe the pictoral answer on the mathoverflow post you sent is a counter example
The example you gave in the link is a subspace of R
We know that any compact CW is finite and so $H_n(X)=0$ for $n\geq N$ for some N. It is true for general compact topological space that higher homotopy eventually =0?
i was having some trouble figuring out where to start this problem that I've been assigned
i feel like I don't relaly have a good idea of where to even start looking in terms of thms that might be helpful rip
what does closed cell mean here?
closed cell means homemorphic to closure of unit ball B^n
ok nice
so you can assume wlog that D = D' = closure{B^n}
and then you can even manually extend the given function on S^{n-1} to closure(B^n)
although I concede personally I like the homotopy group argument better as well
why can we assume D = D' if they're not of the same dimension? would the homeomoprhism not die
I have no idea how to prove this but apparently the answer is no. If you do a 2 dimensional analogue of the Hawaiian earring, you get arbitrarily high dimensional nontrivial homology.
https://en.everybodywiki.com/Barratt–Milnor_sphere
oh yeah sorry ofc they dont have to be the same dimension
but the important thing is that you can assume they are the unit balls in some R^n
and then you can use the coordinates there to manually extend your function
I see tks
is the set X ={ (x,y) : x in Q and y in R\Q} open is R_2
no
at least not in the usual topology
any ball around (0,sqrt(2)), no matter how small, will not be contained in X
I still don't think I'm quite following >//<
are we saying closed cells are unit balls in R^n, R^m respectively ==> continuous map between boundary of cells is continuous map between S^n-1, S^m-1 circles ==> (something about how the interior gets filled in by construction of F, this is what I'm missing and also feels like the meat of the proof rip) ==> the function can be extended continuously (also continuously is kinda ?? but it will probably show up in the middle step somewhere)
well you said closed cell means homeomorphic to closed unit ball
so if i manage to solve the problem for closed unit balls, then i solved the original problem by pre and postcomposing with the homeomorphisms to the cells
I guess you need that they send boundary to boundary
but thats given when you cell closed cell i reckon
So you are given a continuous function S^n -> S^m and you want to extend it to a function D^{n+1} -> D^{m+1} that sends interior to interior
call the given function f, then you can extend it by defining F(tx) = tf(x) for t in [0,1] and x in S^n.
in the forwards direction (second paragraph) why do we require that y \neq f(x)
ohhh wait y is just "y-coord" of the pt outside the graph
If y were equal to f(x), then (x, y) would be in the graph.
yeah i was once again just being a goober 
Another way to think about this is in terms of the diagonal being closed btw
another question -- I was trying to prove that a CW complex is locally compact iff it's locally finite
for compact implies finite I tried doing my proof like
X locally compact => each point has precompact => each point of e has precompact means closure of e is compact => e is covered by finitely many precompact nbhds. Because of this define U as the compact nbhd of e in X, U is contained in a finite subcomplex so it intersects a finite number of open cells and is thus locally finite
but (1) i'm not sure if that's actually correct and (2) I have no idea how I might start the reverse implication
im not sure why i need a suitable point a unless im wrong
The projections are open
what does this mean
Yes
Which is quite key to this
but then why does it say for suitable a
but wouldn't it work for all a
Yes
since R will just be split into two open sets
Okay so I'd be slightly careful I guess
So like you need to be slightly more careful because what's to say that the image of R^2 under f isn't (0,1] and you're taking away 1
you need to rule out all things like that
hmm
yeah i get what you mean I'm just thinking of how to rule it out
Do you mean to ask for a closed set for which it's not true that every open covering has a finite subcovering?
You can always find a finite open covering of a subspace. Take the entire space.
yes my b
working on d,e here
Then any closed but not compact subset of R^n will do.
Closed set which is not bounded.
For part e, try to think of a closed unbounded set (in R^2 for concreteness) which gets arbitrarily close to some neighborhood of it. This will ensure any epsilon-neighborhood of the closed set intersects the outside of the neighborhood.
For part d, you just use compactness and the fact that metric open balls generate the topology.
dense moment but im not sure i see this, can you elaborate please
Try R.
as an elabortion like your question is "does closed => compact" and so the suggestion is just to try R or R^n where it's particularly nicely because compact is equivalent to closed and bounded
would a clopen set in R suffice? (0,1] isn't compact
It's not clopen
(0, 1] is neither closed nor open in R with the usual topology
As I said, try R.
A comment on this: clopen sets should generally be thought of as 'walled-off' parts of a space. In R, the only clopen sets are {} and R. If you take the subspace [0,1] u [2,3] of R, the clopen sets of that include [0,1] and [2,3].
dense 
coming back to his question. can we rule it out due to the nature of the interval (0,1] or is it something else?
im glad someone got it lol
Well the point is you have to pick a such that you don't take off an endpoint or something like that
I'm confused
so why is it not valid
isn't that the point I said before about there being two open, non-empty disjoint sets in the image after removing a point
@wicked yew take any three points in R^2 and remove the middle one
(middle one after mapping to R using f)
this way you'll make sure the sets you are dividing the image into are non-empty
nah
you said that you could take away any point
and I said you don't know that you'll disconnect the image with that (with the example being that theoretically the image could be (0,1] for all we know, with you just taking away 1)
But we can always pick a point a which will lead the image of the restriction to be disconnected
nah dw
if I added that together with what I said earlier would that be formal enough to show that such an f doesn't exist
Well depending on how you do it sure I mean
Ig you gotta justify this
But you know roughly what the image of any such f would look like anyway
yeah
so if I said a is the preimage of the "midpoint" of an interval within R
that f maps to
Yup, that'll definitely work (of course you can also assume the interval isn't a singleton for obvious reasons)
yep
Every continuous map of a closed disk to itself has a fixed point, for if not, you could find a retraction of the disk onto its boundary.
It might help to ask a more specific question. What about the theorem do you need explained?
Do you want an explanation of the statement?
So you want the definitions that appear in the Brouwer fixed point theorem explained. Any particular ones?
"Every continuous function from a closed disk to itself has a fixed point."
Which?
I don't want to converse in DMs.
Post it here.
If you need to talk in DMs for whatever reason, someone else can help.
It is in words.
You need to be more specific.
Do you want the meanings of continuous function, unit cube, and so on explained?
Could you please just point out which specific part you need explained? It's still unclear.
Which words.
Is the phrase "Brouwer fixed-point theorem" the confusing part?
it's a theorem, not a definition
The "definition" of the Brouwer fixed-point theorem is the statement you see in the page you linked. (Or, with the cube replaced by a closed ball, or a compact convex set, or whatever).
Theorems are not said to have definitions.
i give up
good luck
the word has a definition but the Brouwer fixed point theorem isn't a definition
I'd like to think that with as many years of mathematics training as I have, I'm at least alright with "basic mathematical definitions" and the like. The same is true of Blitz. You're just not doing a good job of communicating what you want.
Blitz is right.
They have a good reputation in this channel, so you should listen to them.
It's literally right there on the page!
You linked it!
I do.
And I offered multiple times to explain the theorem.
My spiritual guidance is that you should criticize whatever you see, including what I write. In short, you can listen to me but don't take it for granted
On the theorem?
You seem pretty consistently good, so I'd listen to you at least.
I haven't seen you type anything blatantly wrong.
No. Why would you do that?
No, I'm not. Feel free to, though.
I was perfectly willing to explain the theorem, but now that you're threatening me with moderator action and such, I'm suddenly not really interested.
the fuck happened 
What's x?
Is this like, the set {(x, 1/x) | x in R\{0}}?
Bc that's homeomorphic to two copies of R 

The guy probably got banned, which wiped their messages.
Kind of a stupid question but when we try to show the product of two compact spaces is compact, why cant we just say that the product of the finite subcollection of A and B is a finite subcollection of the product of the open coverings of A and B? Why the tube stuff?
You're proving that A x B is compact, provided A and B are?
So you start with an open covering of A x B, right?
Because that's how you prove compactness.
This gives an open covering of A and an open covering of B, just by projecting.
I cant start with an open covering of each individual space and product them?
You can extract finite subcovers of each. However, you may not recover elements of your open cover of A x B by simply taking the products here.
The open sets which you have assumed to cover A x B may not necessarily be products of open sets covering A and open sets covering B.
Not all open sets in the product topology are products.
Thank you; last statement is what I wanted to hear
So you need a slightly more delicate argument, which is what the tube lemma stuff does.
Yes I see it now thanks again
Nope. When you prove that a set is compact, you start with an open covering of that set. As this example shows, you might not be able to build arbitrary open covers out of specific ones.
In the utmost general setting, you can only start with the set itself.
hi so i don't really know anything about topology or what a metric is. can anyone point me in the right direction for how to even understand this problem
probably just read whatever book your class is using
if you're not in a class, any point set topology book or real analysis book
@halcyon dock
Essentially the metric defines the open balls (points at distance < r), an set is open if there is an open ball around each point of the set that is entirely in the set
And a set is closed if complementary is open
Finally, continuity is defined as usual (limits: for all e, there is d a.th. if d(x,a)<d then d(f(x),l)<e, which can be reformulated in terms of neighbourhoods)
right the preimage of f will take open sets to open sets
"preimage of f^-1(r)" is a typo I'm sure and you could streamline this a bit more but yes the argument is correct in essence
Also this is incorrect, sorry
If it were true, you could take U = X and you'd already be done
Do you see what it should be instead?
(@wicked yew in case you don't see)
No, the quantification and stuff isn't quite right - try giving it another go
ok
also just another quick question. When we refer to a connected component of X containing x could this also just be X?
It is indeed just X
potato
wdym?
Exactly
Thanks I was losing my mind
It matches with the more intuitive notion really.
I think for example you are asked to prove that R^2 minus the diagonal (i.e. points of the form (x,x)) has two connected components (the obvious ones)
np
just above and below the line?
Indeed
ah
though there are very different cases
but in this case R_2 \diagonal is still connected
Uh it's not connected
actually no
otherwise there'd be just one connected component anyway
i was thinking that any R_2\A where A is countable is connected
but ig thats not the case
actually wait i'm bugging
(x,x) isn't countable
R^2?
yes, that's correct
in fact < size of continuum is enough
to see this we can prove it's arc connected
consider a straight segment between two points x, y of R^2\A
it might not be a desired path, but we can modify this
concatenating lines?
consider the line passing through (x+y)/2 and being perpendicular to this segment
call the line L
now for every z in L, we can consider a path from x to y made from first traveling from x to z, and then from z to y
since A is of size < continuum, and all of those paths are intersect only at points x, y, continuum many of them need to be disjoint from A
in particular, one of such paths works
I saw it before
the same proof works for R^n with n > 1
do I have the right definition of f?
that for all x in U f(x) = k
i mean that isn't a definition and needs more detail
But yes, for each x, there is some k in R and some open U containing x such that f(U) = {k} (equivalently for all y in U, f(y) = k)
The word some in what I wrote
this is why it is called locally, rather than globally, constant
Ohhh
from this can I then take largest open subset U_k for each k
and their union must be X
and then my argument should follow?
yeah
but it's essentially the same lol
np
I need to watch for these things
if a finite set of A_i are connected in X then their intersection should be connected right?
I want to use the argument of f:Z -> {0,1} being continuous
How would your argument go?
I'd recommend you do some pictures on R^2 or something to get some intuition
No, intersection of connected sets need not be connected
it fails for two sets already
in R you won't find counterexamples, but in R^2 you will
because in R connected is equivalent to convex
in R^2 we can find two simply connected domains, whose intersection is not connected
Example:
They're hugging.
can we do uncountably many components?
I think so!
If we can find some uncountable set of disconnected points in R, we can
no because R has countable cellularity
at least, we can't do so for two open sets
Yeah this is true, open sets would be impossible
My thought was just having points. Not isolated points of course...
Ah, connected or path connected?
The latter is probably easier
yea, without requiring open sets, you can like, take A = {(x, 0) : x irrational} union {(x, y) : y > 0}, and B = {(x, y) : y <= 0}
with open sets, should be possible in really crazy topological spaces, is my guess
This was the image I had in mind, but I'm not sure that the irrationals are disconnected – although they are obviously not path-connected
they are, because between any two irrationals is a rational, and R minus that rational has two connected components
and different components dont merge together if you take subsets of them
np
lol. They are totally disconnected
In fact they are zero-dimensional
(which means that they have a basis of clopen sets - see intervals with rational endpoints)
the name zero-dimensional comes from the fact that it's equivalent to ind X = 0 where ind is the small inductive dimension
for Ind X = 0 we say that X is strongly zero-dimensional, and for Lebesgue covering dimension it's the same as strongly zero-dimensional
so there are those two concepts of zero-dimensionality
(strongly zero-dimensional because for any good enough space, say T1, ind <= Ind)
Can anyone help me see why reduced zeroth homology of S0 is Z? Just using the axioms. It’s defined to be the kernel of H0(X) ->H0(pt)
H_0(S^0)=Z^2, the map H_0(S^0)->H_0(*) is just the map Z^2->Z sending (a,b) to a+b. So the kernel is Z.
the map \phi is 1 \mapsto (2,-2) since the boundary circle of a Mobius band wraps twice around the core circle
tbh, im not exactly sure what question to ask, except to say I am a little uncomfortable with this reasoning hm
i am not sure why the map sends {a,b} to a+b
would it be easier to prove this by contradiction or a direct proof
idk how to formulate that there is a convergent subsequence in the union
For metric spaces, sequential compactness is equivalent to compactness (in terms of open covers and finite subcovers)
Can you use that instead?
Okay, this can be addressed too. Take any sequence in the union: there are only finitely many sets in the union, so at least one of them must end up with infinitely many terms of the sequence, i.e., you get a subsequence of the original sequence in one of the A_i.
Oh yeah that’s smart
Thanks
Nobody
So then those two definitions become equivalent, I see. Thank you
do i take the "unit vectors" in a closed ball to show that the general closed ball is also sequentially compact?
That is part of the idea sure
Idk what's the point of saying sequentially compact here
Also, this just follows from B being continuous image of S x [0, 1]
V is complete because V = R^n tbh
wait how is B the continuous image of that product
just multiply an element of S with an element of [0, 1]
my bad I thought they were asking about R = 1
still, it's the same thing, the two are homeomorphic
from the unit closed ball, multiplying by R gives a homeomorphism
yeah i was trying to find that exact map but didn't know how to verify that it was continuous
any normed space is a topological vector space, meaning that
- It's Hausdorff
- the multiplication K x V to V given by (k, v) to kv is continuous
- The addition V x V to V given by (v, w) to v+w is continuous
the condition 1) isn't always assumed but there's no reason not to assume it tbh
damn
anyway, we are using the property 2) when restricted to [0, 1] x S
I think topology is just not for me
what is for you
is this a definition?
it's a definition of topological vector space
it's basically what we expect a vector space with topology to satisfy
I mean yes, it might not be for you. Idk, I didn't find anything as cool as topology in math yet
Functional analysis being a close second
fair fair
i don't think i'll pick the topology course next term
it would be a horror show
I'm sorry
😔
how did you find complex analysis
most people love it, I didn't
ah
F is just multiplication on R
restricted to some subspace
multiplication is continuous
for the second part which says to show V is complete, would a direct proof or a proof by contradiction be easier?
Hi, Trying to do this question but i'm not sure how to approach it. I think the goal is to show that kernel of rho is the identity, but not sure how to get there
I don't think you ever really want to show completeness by contradiction (not sure how it'd work really)
But if you want a hint: why is B complete? and how can you use that to show V is complete?
hint: show that cauchy sequences in V are bounded
right now what I have for why B is complete
- suppose a cauchy sequence in B does not converge
- then limit must be outside of the ball
-however B is a closed ball and so all limit points must be within the ball
and so every cauchy sequence must converge in B as a result due to it being bounded
for the second point, since B is sequentially compact then there is some subsequence of your cauchy sequence which converges to some limit L in B
just show that the entire cauchy sequence converges to L
but then what do I do for V? union of all balls?
this
but does it not follow from B being closed
or?
all you can say when B is closed is that a convergent sequence in V whose points lie in B converge in B
no
oh i think i finally got it
thanks
every cauchy sequence is bounded in V
so we can find a B in which the sequence resides
and so it converges since B is complete
ye
how do you guys formulate arguments when you are answering questions? Like how do you piece things together
uhhhh
That's vague and not topology
is a metric space sequentially compact iff it is closed and bounded?
Is the whole plane R^2 star shaped by definition since there are straight paths from any point to 0?
every metric space is closed in itself
and every metric can be made bounded
are you asking if pseudocompactness implies sequential compactness
for metric spaces
yeah ig
yes, it's equivalent to compactness
if X isn't compact then there exists an infinite sequence x_n with no convergent subsequence
Now take f(x_n) = n or something
extend using Tietze
tietze?
If A is a closed subset of a metric space X, and f is continuous from A to R, then there exist a continuous extension of f to whole of X
Is this true?
Yes
Thanks
Indeed, note convex => star shaped more generally too
i've shown that X is complete but I'm struggling to show that it is totally bounded
then i can conclude with X is sequentially compact iff it is complete and totally bounded
@gritty widget
can i get a clue
yes?
clue is that this characterization of compactness is mostly useless anyway
not in any proofs you'll need anyway
Now, it might be sometimes useful to throw random ideas
but it might be equally useful to stop and think
What's your first intuition to prove this? Mine is to assume X isn't sequentially compact and try to construct a continuous function which would be unbounded
and this approach indeed works
yeah i did this prove it was closed
to ^
oh so you used it for the whole claim
i tried that before but i didn't get to the end. I'll try again
In the contradiction, did you use the fact that there exists a sequence in X such that there is no convergent subsequence in X?
yes
This implies the sequence can be chosen to consist of different terms and the set itself is closed
huh
what do you mean by different terms
and are you using the assumption the set X is closed
no, there's no such assumption
That X is a subset of R^n is basically irrelevant
but maybe it'll help you to construct this function in some simpler manner than what I am telling you here
but how do you come to the conclusion that the set of elements is closed
That x_1, x_2, ... is closed?
since there is nothing that contradicts the definition of it being closed?
yes
I mean, I've just realized that since we're in R^n we have a very straightforward way of proving this
even though it holds very generally
after all, compactness is equivalent to being closed and bounded
so it's enough to check that we get a contradiction if X is not closed or not bounded
yeah I did it that way but I want to still know how you went about it
If it's not bounded then we can just take the norm of R^n
well, I used an extension result by Tietze
this says that if you have a continuous function on a closed set then you can extend it to the whole space
the sequence (x_n) is closed so we can do that
is it closed because there is no convergent sequence?
the only assumption in Tietze theorem is that your space is normal, and all metric spaces are normal
yes
we've basically proven that if a metric space isn't compact then it contains a closed copy of natural numbers
where x_n corresponds to n
so how did we come to this conclusion
If we only assume path connectedness then given two covering maps $p_1: X_1 \to X$ and $p_2: X_2 \to X$ and $F:X_1 \to X_2$ s.t. $p_2 F = p_1$, it is true that F is also a covering
well maybe you didn't but it boils down to checking that x_n is additionally discrete as a topological space
no need to over-analyze this though
@wicked yew consider the norm function on X to show that X is bounded. if X is not closed, think about using 1 / |x| or something along those lines to reach a contradiction, showing that X is closed
in this case, closed and bounded iff compact iff sequentially compact
yeah, 1/|x-a| where a is the point in cl(X)\X
the sequence with no convergent subsequence can be treated as a sequence convering to some cl(X)\X where X is embedded in some larger space
at least you can interpret it that way
Tietze theorem shouldn't be that bad to prove once you know Urysohn lemma
and for metric spaces Urysohn lemma has an easier proof involving the distance from a set function
(tietze is very much unnecessary for any question i've seen in this course btw for op lol like but still cool)
I never had a course like that and it's what naturally comes to my mind when I see this question
Let M be a non-invertible complex matrix of order n. I was wondering if $(GL(n,\mathbb C)\cup{M})\setminus\det^{-1}(\mathbb R^{\ast})$ is connected... 🤔
Ofc - just saying it for context lol
It is a shame tietze etc was never mentioned
Gillian Seed
isn't that just M
Matrices there can have complex non zero determinant
sorry, complex matrices
i want to say yes. GL(n,C) is path connected
What about GL(n,C)\det^{-1}(R*) ? 🙂
IIRC, if you take a connected manifold of real dimension n, and remove a submanifold of real codimension >= 2, the resulting space remains connected, right?
I am trying to solve exercise 14-C from Milnor and Stasheff's “Characteristic Classes”. The exercise asks to show that, given a complex vector bundle $E \to M$, the $(q+1)$-th Chern class $c_{q+1}(E) \in H^{2q+2}(M, \mathbb Z)$ is the primary obstruction to the existence of $n-q$ linearly independent sections $M \to E$.
I already know that this primary obstruction actually lives in $H^{2q+2}(M, \pi_{2q+1}(V_{n-q}(F)))$, where $F$ is the typical fiber of $E \to M$.
I also already know that $\pi_{2q+1}(V_{n-q}(F))$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb Z$, but in principle this bundle of coefficients could be “twisted”. Why is it not twisted?
Automorphism
It probably has something to do with the fact that $V_{n-q}(F)$, being a complex manifold, has a preferred orientation, right?
Automorphism
Unrelated but are you using the Tex version of the book?
I have a physical copy.
I see 
But I stumbled upon the TeXified version less than an hour ago. (And, in fact, that is what landed me here.)
oh
Ah nice
Was it the same person or group that TeXified Milnor's Morse Theory book?
Different group (my group) but we had help from the Morse theory group.
Oh, nice. Good job!
Q n [0,1] is compact right?
since there is always a finite union of open sets in an open cover that give the set
no
I mean one way to see this is uh
is Q closed in R? You should see it is very far from being so; indeed, what is the closure of Q?
R is the Cauchy completion of Q, so by construction Q is dense in R.
More concretely, if you have any irrational number, then the sequence of truncated decimal expansions gives you a sequence in Q that converges to it.
If you want a concrete example of a subcover with no finite subcover you can consider $(U_\epsilon){\epsilon > 0}$ where $U\epsilon = [0,1]_{\mathbb Q} \setminus [a-\epsilon, a + \epsilon]$ and $a \in [0,1]$ is your favourite irrational
potato
Why can’t a finite T1 space have limit points
A finite T1 space is automatically discrete, right?
I mean, every point is closed. Hence the union of all points but one, which is a finite union, is closed. Hence every point is also open.
because point sets are closed
sniped
Ok thanks both of u guys
Indeed it may be helpful to note (somewhat tautologically) that the cofinite topology is the smallest topology you can give a space to make it T1 more generally
would knowing linear algebra help with understanding point set topology better or are the two more or less unrelated?
basically unrelated
pset topology has basically no prerequisites besides maybe knowing how to work with sets
Linear algebra is more likely to help you with algebraic topology, if you decide to study that at some point.
But point-set topology, probably not so much.
thanks so much
i'm trying to take pset topology next semester without having taken the linear algebra prereq but wanted to make sure it wasnt a terrible idea
Usually the prerequisite for a first topology course is having taken a real analysis course. Because, in real analysis, you learn the topology of R^n, and that gives you a starting intuition before working with more general topological spaces.
yeah it won't rly be necessary initially but linear algebra is definitely something i'd recommend anyway XD
That being said, when I took topology, the professor used function spaces as examples quite a lot, e.g., “space of continuous functions” or “space of differentiable functions”. And it would have hurt a lot not to know linear algebra. In one take-home test, a question was “Let V be the vector space of continuous functions [a,b] -> R. Show that the map that sends f \in V to its integral over [a,b] is continuous.”
wouldnt a (first) real analysis course just cover the topology of R?
in like baby rudin for example
but either way the prereqs listed are calc 1 and 2 and linear algebra
Mmm, then two courses on real analysis. Just the topology of R doesn't give you enough intuition to bootstrap an understanding of topology, IMO.
Do the projections of the torus onto each of its factors induce an isomorphism $H_1(S^1 \times S^1) \to H_1(S^1) \oplus H_1(S^1)$?
kxrider
Trying to get a handle on generators for H1(S1 x S1)
Doesn’t that last line imply that tau_T is just the discrete topology? I can draw an open disc around any subset of T
No
What generates the topology on T are open arcs
i dont think i follow
all subsets of T are arcs
or unions of arcs
so wouldn't it still be the case that tau_T is the discrete topology?
Proof?
If you prove it to me then I'll consider it
Idk why but this response is just so funny 😂
Mathematicians when someone confesses their love for them
ok yeah i can think of subsets which aren't arcs, sorry
Hey, can someone help me with this bit in Hatcher? im probably misunderstanding how the boundary map works
is the set of continuous bijections from R^2 to R^2 a connected set in the space of functions from R^2 to R^2
i would think it to be disconnected as you should be able to split it into sets which preserve the orientetation of the unit circle and others which reverse it
with what topology
Product topology
Look at the simplicial strucure he has given before
I think i figured it out already but thanks
Bump?
.
What happens when we attach D^n to D^n by their boundary? Do we necessarily get S^n?
I think it's true for n = 1 and n = 2 but I'm really not sure for n = 3
I guess you can write a homeomorphism explicitly
Yes
That is one of the CW construction of Sn
I have proven that for i=1,…,n that Ai connected subspace where each Ai intersect A{i+1} is connected that union of union i=1 to n Ai is connected. But not sure if this result can be extended to infinite sequence (Ai)i in N of connected sub spaces
I don’t see why it couldn’t but not sure
It does work for the N case and works under more general things provided that you can uhhh
Well basically there is no need to do it by induction. One way to do it is to use the characterisation that a space X is connected iff every function into the two point space (call it 2) is constant
I proved first part by induction already. Doesn’t that just affirm this second part
How would it?
Proving a statement for all finite n doesn't somehow prove the infinite case if that's what you mean
say A = U ∪V is a disconnect and Ai are open then Ai ⊆ U or V, but since they intersect, all of them must lie in one contradicting other one is nonempty
Yeah I was gonna say if you have a function into 2 then the restriction to each A_i is constant and the constants agree on overlaps by then restricting to intersections (which are also connected)
You do
sorry yes
Ok I think I see thanks
goober moment but im having a hard timie understanding the definition of the product topology
which definition are you using?
munkres
like in terms of basis elements
subbasis i think, one sec
the intuition / a nice way to define it is that it is the smallest topology such that the obvious projection maps X x Y -> X and X x Y -> Y are continuous
Yup
Okay sure so what I said about works
Smallest topology you can put on the product set such that the projection maps are all continuous
that means in particular that all the sets in those collections must be open in the product.
So then we just consider the topology those sets generate to get the smallest one
i wanna translate to english first though
What I just said was english XD
the collection is projections of open sets into the product right
No, for each open $U_\beta \subset X_\beta$ we put its preimage under the map $\prod_{\alpha \in J} X_\alpha \xrightarrow{\pi_\beta} X_\beta$ in $S_\beta$

*subset lol
so X1 x ... x U_beta x ... is an an element of the collection right
Well that is ambiguous and not really how I would format it but I get what you mean, sure xd
like the full X_i in all indices except beta, where it's just an open set of U_b of X_b
and that's just the box topology!
so are all elements in this subbasis of the same form?
indeed
yes up to permuting indices since they are preimages of opens under the projections
so yeah that is one way to describe it more explicitly
(just it's a) notationally simpler and b) more conceptual to write it as preimages under projections)
well, we can say at least that what you're looking at is the subspace of all homeomorphisms of R^2
i think the orientation idea should work, but im not sure how i would show that a homeomorphism from R^2 to R^2 has a well defined orientation
that's this right?
not quite

"a map into a product space is cont. iff it is cont. for every component of the product"
i see it's not the same as what potato said just making sure that that's correct now
Yeah it's not the same but is very related
How does a partition of a topological space yield some new geometric space
I’m given example of X=[0,1] x [0,1] and Y partition consisting of two points sets {(x,0),(x,1)} for any 0 leq X leq 1 and singleton sets (x,y) for any 0 leq x leq 1 and 0<y<1
That sounds reasonable but don’t think I understand what the partition and subsequent quotient topology are actually doing
Idk how though. I understand the first part of partition takes two opposite edges of the unit square and that if you can glue these together to obtain a cylinder but not sure how this is concluded from just this info
You can take another way to represent a cylinder: i.e. [0,1] x S^1 and construct a homeomorphism



