#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 8 of 1
on normed spaces?
the normed spaces we usually consider have uncountable algebraic dimension
So the norm of any element is always finite
I guess if you're in a Hilbert space or something, fix an orthonormal basis, you could make sense of matrices
THank youuu
but matrices in the classical sense are for finite-dimensional spaces
what does this has to do with dimension
I am saying that multiplication between matrices isnt defined on a normed vector space
matrices are mostly a way for us to do calculations by fixing a basis
So like 1/x, it doesnt work well
at least that's how I think of them
yeah
you could do that in infinite-dimensions, but the same thing would lose its purpose imo
unless the basis is countable or something
I suggest you maybe review the definition of norm
You're right
I remembered it directly and it all makes sense
I know for a fact that infinite matrices have their uses... but I don't think they come up a lot
What does infinite matrice mean
a sequence of matrices where its norm goes to infinity?
I must have misunderstood one of your questions
Tell me
If you think its useful
Why all balls are convexe?
in a normed vector space
Because of the triangular ineq?
intuitively speaking
triangle inequality, yes
How can i generalize this/
anything that for all elements x,y: llx+yll=<llxll+llyll is convexe?
that is connected
in a normed vector space
But this seems wrong, because not all connected spaces are convexe in a normed vector space
what's also missing
The triangle inequality holds for all elements so including it somehow will be unnecessary
yeah
What exactly are you looking for
Generalizing why balls are convexe
in a normed vector space
Is it because it's closed?
Take two points and show that the line between them is inside it
why does it stay inside?
I think my question si meaningless
i wanted to find a condition for a connected subspace to be convexe
convex sets are their own thing
But i think its not feasible because its illogical
a weaker form is starshaped
similarly theres concepts related to connectivity like local connectivity and path connectivity
u might wanna explore those to get a better idea of how they work
I will
Is (R,U) connected? U is the usual topology. My claim is yes. Suppose it is disconnected. Then there exists two open disjoint sets(other than the empty set and R) whose union is R. To have the union equal to R, we must have (-inf, a] U (a, inf) or (-inf, a) U [a, inf) and in both cases, one of the subsets of R is not open. So (R,U) is connected.
do the two open disjoint sets have to be open and closed rays
I think so yes
i actly think we talked yesterday or smth abt how open sets can be arbitrary unions of intervals
yes one set can be a union and the other can also be one
We just need to break R into two disjoint parts. Now no matter how either part is constructed, we must have the breaking point included and so our set(maybe a open interval or a union of open intervals with breaking point included) isnt open?
Yes perhaps I can have union of infinitely many open intervals on one side of the breaking point as one set, union of infinitely many open intervals on the other side of the breaking point as the other set, but still I must include the breaking point in either set for the union to be R
And so one of the sets isnt open
Is this correct?
You are assuming you have to break it apart as two rays, which is incorrect. It's true that R is connected bit the proof is trickier. As blo said, open sets can be arbitrary unions of open intervals (in fact countable unions), so this isn't that simple
In that case, you can't a priori assume there's such a thing as a 'breaking point'
I see
Is this approach okay? This time I'm using the definition that (R,U) is connected iff the only sets which are both open and closed in (R,U) are the empty set and R.
Let A be a open and closed set in (R,U). Then we have that R\A is open. Suppose R\A is not equal to the empty set or R. Then R\A is either an open interval or a union of open intervals, not equal to R. Either way, (R\ (R\A)) = A is not open, contradiction. So R\A is either the empty set or R which implies A is either R or the empty set.
Maybe I have to explain in detail the part where (R\ (R\A)) = A is not open, other than that, is this acceptable?
Now that I've seen some proofs online using the completeness axiom and stuff, Idk if my proof qualifies
lol
Yes you must somehow use completeness
Q is disconnected but it’s open sets have very nearly the same form as those in R (that is the rational pts in intervals)
So you have to think
GUys, are all normed vector spaces path connected
If they are real or complex vector spaces, yes.
is there a difference between the box topology and the product topology or is it just in how we think about it
ig box includes the possibility of arbitrary products?
There's a difference when there are infinitely many factors.
only for infinite products
For finite products, "box topology" and "product topology" are the same.
prod topology cannot have arbitrarily long products right
It cannot

but they're still pretty much defined the same way right
Well, it can
If U is open in product topology, then its projection on X_i is X_i for all but finite amount of i
Provided that holds lol
topology having as a basis product of open sets of each set in the product
The basis we are taking is different.
For product topology we only specify that x for finite amount of indices x_i belongs to some open set U_i
for box topology we specify open sets U_i for all x_i
the better way to think of product topology is it's the coarsest topology that makes all π_i's continuous
so for infinite one, you get the subbasis as π_i^(-1)(U), U open in X_i. So arbitrary union on finite intersection of these sets give you the product top.
notice that π_i^(-1)(U)=X1 ×X2 × .. ×U×X_i+1 ×...
essentially the categorical product in Top.
The product topology has the universal property that for every topological space A, having a bunch of continuous maps from a to each X_i is exactly the same as having a single continuous map into the product space (with the product topology).
This is all well and good, but what would be a good intuitive example of the box topology not being good enough for that?
The only one I can think of is to use the product space itself as A. That works, but is not really intuitively striking.
perhaps im being a bit dense, but the only way this differs from the prod. topology is by allowing for arbitrary products right
The product topology also allows arbitrary products, but it has different open sets.
and I think Blitz misunderstood you when he agreed with this.
Or I understood them right 
it's not. For finite products box topology and product topology coincide
Well, duh. If I actually stop to think, it turns out that there's a much nicer example: The product of infinitely many copies of the reals, and A is also the reals, and we want to combine infinitely many copies of the identity R -> R into a single map to the product space. It turns out that the diagonal map f(x) = (x,x,x,....) is not continuous if the codomain has the box topology!
Namely: (0,2)×(0,3/2)×(0,4/3)×(0,5/4)×... is open in the box topology, but its preimage under the diagonal map is (0,1] which is not open!
if im understanding things correctly this is a defining characteristic right
Yes.
adjacent question but im doing this problem
what does it mean for x_1, x_2,... to converge in the product space
perhaps i missed it but i dont think munkres has properly defined convergence yet (im on ch2 section 19)
We can reasonably generalize from the familiar metric-space case: The series converges to a limit L iff every neighborhood of L contains all x_i from some point on.
that was my guess but i wasnt sure 
(And then the space had better be Hausdorff; otherwise limits are not unique).
i think that's implied 
It's probably not
but ok so assuming that the sequence converges to x is the same as saying that every neighborhood containing an x_i also contains x right?
noo
No.
hold up
Every neighboorhood of x contains all but finitely many of the x_i.
i was gonna rephrase but that words it better than i wouldlve
the same thing here is true for nets
i found a SO post mentioning that but idk what those are 
which means that convergence in product is pointwise convergence
generalized sequences. In a topological space you cannot just use sequences. But if you use nets, every topological space has unique structure of convergence of nets
It's important. I sometimes see people that use sequences to prove something about topological spaces, in the context of Banach spaces for example, and they're wrong
i'll assume munkres mentions it soon ish
this is so handwavey 
or at least i feel like it is
it's supposed to be the forward direction of this
"almost all" cant be a good proof
almost all means all but finitely many usually
It's perfectly rigorous
Just using terminology that might be a bit unfamiliar to you
well then TIL 
so for the reverse direction of this, we want to assume that all but finitely many of the sequence of projections are in a neighborhood of the projection of x, then probably start with a neighborhood of x, and show that it contains all but finitely many "inverse projections"
Start with member of basis
Then for all relevant indices, the projections are in there for almost all n
In those open sets
So taking the maximum of moments for which they are there, we get that the sequence is in your nbd
im not sure i follow
start with a nbhd of x, you're saying that projections of the sequence of x_i's are in the projection of the nbhd of x?
It's easier to write in LaTeX than explain tbh
Take $U={y : y_{i_k}\in U_{i_k}, k = 1, ..., N}$
For $n\geq N_k$ we have $x_{i_k}(n)\in U_{i_k}$
Blitz
So for $n\geq \max(N_1, ..., N_N)$ (notation collision 🐒) we have $x(n)\in U$
Blitz
this Uik is a product of open sets right
ohhh i see it i think
we get this from the assumption?
ok nvm what did you mean by x(n)
i think i get the proof but not your notation lol sorry
im trying to show that R x R under the dictionary order topology is metrizable - my first idea is defining, for (a,b),(c,d), d = |b-d| if a = c, else sqrt((a - c)^2 + (b - d)^2) - why is this wrong
apologies for interrupting, if anyone here would be so kind as to help me out in help-0 it would be much appreciated 🙂
It doesn't work because every ball around (a,b) will contain points from neighboring columns, whereas the order topology wants, e.g. {1}×(0,2) to be an open set.
(In fact your metric is exactly the euclidean metric).
ohhh so the topology created by the metric has to "agree" with the existing topology?
Yes, otherwise there's no point to it.

A small hint: if d1 is any metric on a set X, then d2(x,y) = min(1,d1(x,y)) is also a metric, and generates the same topology as d1.
Or perhaps easier: R × R under the dictionary order is order-isomorphic to R × (0,1) under its dictionary order. And therefore R × R is homeomorphic to R × (0,1) under the order topologies, and you can show that the latter is metrizable instead.
anyone know any other ways to solve this problem? my proof (at least for the deg = 0 case) feels kinda inefficient lol
I imagine you can just say that any injective phi admits a retraction and then passing to fundamental groups you see the resultv
I imagined taking the inverse of phi on the image and then extending that to the whole space
OK yeah I did smth cringe
Yeah I mean it's sort of irrelevant since if you assume varphi injective then it must be surjective as in Frank's argument i.e. no need to extend
I'd just do their argument there (if not surjective then wind up with image of S^1 contractible, a contradiction; hence it's a homeomorphism, i.e. of degree \pm1 )
can someone explain why this iss true pls
because x and x' are distance 1 from each other
I don’t remember who I was talking to slimy claws about, but I think this is sufficient
ignoring the composition notation since f points the wrong way
I don't see why I get a circle base
it glues the endpoint of a fiber at f(x) to the starting point of a fiber at x
which circle is it referring to
like the glued part going from f(x) to x to f^(-1)(x) and then maybe some preimage hits f(x) again?
which I don't think is possible for every map
oh ok f preserves the basepoint
so at the basepoint we get a circle at least
not sure about elsewhere
wrong channel
Not really
I am talking about the uniform convergence of a function deduced from the simple convergence
if its on a compact and continuous and other conditions
theres 3 of em
types of conditions
"In the mathematical field of analysis, Dini's theorem says (...)" - Wikipedia
Just because something has a concept from topology doesn't mean it's topology
Questions about Banach/normed spaces don't really belong here either
ask about any specifics on the proof there
They literally asked the question
Oh wait lmao I thought they asked "I need the proof"
this is correct
try to visualize this using 3 points you'll get why this is a fiber bundle
Need help with some proving, I can't seem to do it. If A is open in (X,T) (some topological space), then A \ {a} is open in (X,T). Is this even true?
not in general
Oh..
Yeah..
this is true however when every "one point set" is closed
which is equivalent to T_1 spaces
Alright thanks.
i am not sure what is meant by this part here; am i to show that these assignments are also lifts of fq starting at the same point or
im not exactly sure what they want tbh
yh that's what it seems to be to me
weird 😵💫
so i know that qF = fq; if i apply q to F(x)+F(y) i want to show that what i get agrees with ... f(q(x))?
or f(q(x+y))
its weird that this y is floating around
like is it fixed or is it a paramter im not too sure
like i dont see how this is going to work out at all
f(q(x)) is certainly not true
y is fixed here
so like q(F(x)+F(y)) = e^{2pi(F(x_i) + F(y_i))} in each coordinate and you can work through that
Similarly q(F(x+y)) = fq(x+y)...
it all comes from the fact that the exponential map is nice
Yeah, this is the idea. While f isn't invertible as a continuous map, it does have a homotopy inverse (it's a homotopy equivalence). So if we take f' to be a homotopy inverse for f, then the map along the top is hgf'.
What does f' do? Imagine a small neighborhood U of the point P where the claws meet. Then f' sends P to the middle of the thread, and points in (the closure of) U get sent to corresponding points along the thread.
Basically it squishes the tip of each claw onto half of the thread.
For a spectrum $E, \sigma^1 E$ means taking the smash product with $S^1$ in each entry. I can figure out what $\sigma^n E$ means when $n$ is non-negative (n-fold smash product with $S^1$), but what does it mean when $n$ is negative?
Finitely Many Bananas
For context
For a spectrum $E, \sigma^1 E$ means taking the smash product with $S^1$ in each entry. I can figure out what $\sum^n E$ means when $n$ is non-negative (n-fold smash product with $S^1$), but what does it mean when $n$ is negative?
Finitely Many Bananas
I figured it out
Since smashing with S^1 is an equivalence of categories, we just take the quasi-inverse
*a quasi-inverse
What is the "sheaf of bigraded stable homotopy groups" assosciated to this presheaf?
The values are sets, so I can't just sheafify it to get a group
Here U is a (finite type, smooth, separated) scheme over a field k and we endow the category of all such schemes with the Nisnevich topology
Howdy, I think I'm missing a simple covering argument, but I'm not sure.
Lemma. Let R⊆ℂ be a compact (full) rectangle. Let f:R→ℂ be a continuous function with differentiable reistriction to int(R). Let E⊆int(R) be subset. Suppose the derivative f' vanishes at each point of E. Then the only subset of the image f(E) that is open in ℂ is empty.
Suppose some path-component Q of f(R)\f(∂R) contains an open subset of ℂ. How does the lemma imply the existence of a fiber f⁻¹(w)⊆int(R) such that the derivative at each of its points is nonzero?
Any continuous map f: X->Y can be factored through a fibration. X -> Fib -> Y. Do I need f to be surjective here?
I'm trying to prove this actually
Hey does, anyone know how to do this? I found a solution and I have a couple questions about it
- Why isnt z_i a 1-boundary but z_i-2a_i is a boundary?
- Why is the boundary of c equal to 2a_1+2a_2+···+2a_q (I did excercise 8 and still dont understand it)
What would be an example of a vertex which isn’t ideal in a convex polygon in B^n?
An ideal vertex is a horopoint of P whose link is compact
A horopoint is an ideal point s/t the horosphere meets only the sides of the polyhedron which are inside the to the point
This is getting silly so I’ll leave it there lmao
Please @ me if you have ideas
I’m struggling to see how the boundary of a neighborhood of any point in B^n could fail to be compact
Well, actually the neighborhood of a point intersect the polygon
Ah, I guess that’s where things could go weird. Take a wacko polygon like infinite rose or something 🤔
Ok never mind
Ok I can’t come up with an example this is hard lmao
Reposting for visibility: how is the thing on the right a group?
show that this is dense in R
not sure what to do
should i take 2 numbers in R and see a way to find m and n to fit between them?
Is it an arithmetic or a group theory property?
that makes this enough
and can you explain why its enough
Okay, thanks a lot for the hint
tho is it?
No i dont mean it has to use group theory, just your logic for deducing this statement
Tho its fine
ill try to do it and see where i can get
And did you see the question before?
or youre just smart? :p
I'd say it's a kinda common type of argument with density
reduction to something like this
Really? first time i m hearing of it
There is always a first time aha
I dont see at all why it would make sense
I dont think ill get it alone
were trying to prove its dense around 0
and somehow deducing that if its dense around 0 then its dense in R
ok we can take n =m+1 then the seq can get arbitrarily small
help
first is this enough to show it can get arbitrarily small?
i showed theres a seq for which it goes to 0
Yeah i am writing on paper
Tho an additional hint
would be welcome
its this right?
not by a lot
but maybe
bump (apologies if bumping is not permitted), ive been stuck with this for 2 hours 
Take $U = \mathbb{R}^\infty \cap \prod (-1, 1)$. Then $U\cap\mathbb{R}^n$ is open for all $n$, hence open in $\mathbb{R}^\infty$. But $\pi_n(U) = (-1, 1)$ for all $n$, while if it were $U = \mathbb{R}^\infty \cap V$ for some open $V\subseteq \mathbb{R}^\omega$, then $\pi_n(V) = \mathbb{R}$ for all big enough $n$, hence also $\pi_n(U) = \mathbb{R}$ for all big enough $n$.
Hi, I'm trying to find the conditions on the Conway notation for a rational link that make it a link of two components, rather than one. I know it's a question of whether or not the NW corner of the tangle ends up connecting to the NE corner, and I know adding even tangles doesn't affect it and adding odd ones switches NE and SE or SW and SE depending on the parity of the step, but I'm having trouble seeing my way to a reasonable numerical answer. Am I right in thinking that I have to see this in terms of the Sym(3) group permuting the corners? Is there a simpler way that I'm overlooking?
If I want to prove a function from R --> R^2 is continuous, but we have yet to go over the product topology, can I show continuity by using open balls? Both R and R^2 are being given the usual metric topology and I'm working w/ subspaces of each of them
it isn't difficult to show that a function f = (f1, f2) : R --> R^2 is continuous iff f1 and f2 are continuous by using the metric space definitions
you could also use an epsilon/delta argument to directly argue that f is continuous, but it would likely pass through a line of reasoning used to prove this more general statement
oh so like, if you have something like f(x) = (cos(x), sin(x)), it suffices to prove that if f1(x) = cos(x) and f2(x) = sin(x) are continuous on their own, so f(x) = (cos(x), sin(x)) is continuous?
Well you might have to show that f1 and f2 being continuous does actually imply f is continuous
This is an important property of the product topology, but you can also prove it using epsilon-delta arguments in metric spaces
But yeah if you know this fact already then what you said is correct
ahhhh I seeeee
Cause the example I'm working with is that one from munkres that takes [0,1) --> S^1 = {(x,y) in R^2| x^2 +y^2 = 1} and there they use the argument that the function f(x) is continuous because of properties of trig functions
i was having trouble with this problem -- I figure the best way to approach it would be to look directly at the two conditions of being a basis, but I'm not exactly seeing how having each basis for U in U works...any guidance on how to think about that or the problem i guess?
Every open set is a union of U's, so it's a union of bases of U's
I'm not exactly seeing how having each basis for U in U works...any guidance on how to think about that or the problem i guess?
Basis of U is part of P(U); write out the two aspects for the definiton of the Basis for U. Then you need to prove, that the two aspects hold true for the union of the bases of each U
I can show you the first part to help understand the context:
Prove for all x in X it exists a B part of the Union of all U-bases so that x is in B:
x in X => it exists U so that x in U;
Because U is part of the open cover in X and has a basis per def, it exists a B in the basis for U so that x is in B
B is part of the union of all bases which is the base we have in mind for X 
Work with the definition for U to learn about X basically
Now what's left for you is to check the other aspect, (for all B1, B2 in the base, for all x in the intersection of B1 and B2 it exists a B with x in B so that B is part of the intersection of B1 and B2)
ohh gotcha thanks!
i was originally going for the other one
every B in B is open and every open subset is a union of elements
it wasn't going too well
I'm on phone so can't check the other approach, but my guess for that task is that it's just to work with the defintions you probably learned recently
Good luck 👍
thanks appreciate it
So what’s the closure of $\Bbb{R}^\omega$ in $\Bbb{R}^\infty$ then is it all of $\Bbb{R}^\infty$?
MyMathYourMath
Of all sequences that have nonzero terms for only finitely many values of the sequence in the product top
Do you mean closure of $\mathbb{R}^\infty$ in $\mathbb{R}^\omega$?
Blitz
If you take $x\in \mathbb{R}^\omega$ and $y_n = x$ on ${0, ..., n}$ and $0$ otherwise then $y_n$ converges to $x$
Blitz
In the product topology
MyMathYourMath
Yes
Is that because under product topology your open sets are equal to the whole space for all but finitely many values
Yes. You could also say that it's because y_n converges to x point-wise if you prefer
In the appendix of Characteristic Classes, they seem to use a notation of cross product on the level of cycles - how is this defined? I can't find much on it (and indeed the book only defines cross products in the normal case of cohomology)
i was trying to work through this -- does it feel correct to say something like
"B1, B2 in base and x in the intersection, B1 intersect B2 is open so exists a neighborhood contained in the intersection, which is our B3"
feel like that feels iffy because I'm not figuring out how to prove that neighborhood is part of the bases but that was my thought ig?
Ah I'll try that thanks (and have a look at spanier lol)
Does two surfaces with the same identification polygon have the same homology groups? Example: The pinched klein bottle and the pinched torus
why does this proof work? what if our space is not equipped with the subspace topology?
Then it needn't work - this assumes the subspace topology is given to the subspace
(Otherwise you could just take the trivial topology or something potentially)
i see, so the existence of a topological subspace means the subspace topology is given?
i guess that makes sense...
that's the definition of a subspace
in fact you could define the subspace topology as the coarsest topology which makes the inclusion map continuous
you can define a lot of stuff by coarsest topology which makes some collection of maps continuous
in general this is called the initial topology
If we have basis B_1 = {(a,b), a=!b}, B_2 = {(-a,a)}, is topology generated by B_1 = topology generated by B_2?
I'm thinking no, because any element in T_B2, which can be written as some union of intervals (-a,a) is a union of some intervals (a,b), but not every element in T_B1, which is a union of some intervals (a,b), can be written as a union of some intervals (-a,a). So T_1 is a stronger topology than T_2.
Is this correct?
Basis for what exactly?
For a topology?
oh, those are supposed to be intervals?
Inside B_1 and B_2? Yes
why did you write $a\neq b$ then instead of $a<b$.
Blitz
in the definition of B_1
Well I thought that (a,b) only makes sense when a<b, so it's already implied
It's good to have it written out
the two topologies aren't equal, because 0 is contained in any open set of B_2
I don't like the notation T_1, T_2 because those already stand for the separation axioms
Ah sorry I am not familiar with them
but yes, the topology generated by B_1 is stronger than that of B_2
And is my reasoning above correct?
The thing is, B_2 is already a topology. So something like, say, (-1, 2) even, doesn't belong to it.
It's not that it's not correct - more that it doesn't explain anything
if you think about it, you wrote it's true because it's true
does anyone have the time to just sit with me and explain informally wtf is going on here? How does the diagram on the left give a torus?
It says: glue a's together, then b's, without turning sides. so imagine a sheet of paper, you glue the oppoiste sides to get a cyllinder. Then glue the opposite ends to get a torus.
Yeah. After rolling the cylinder, the b sides are now circles. To get more comfortable you can try figuring out what this shape looks like. Arrows of oppoiste direction mean you glue them but with 'different direction' (like turning the side 180 degrees then gluing)
mobius strip?
Yeah, exactly.
ok thats very intuitive, thanks
im guessing that the order of what you fold first doesnt matter? like if i stretched the square into a ring, then folded the ring into itself to create a torus, thats equally valid?
Not quite sure what you mean, the order doesn't matter in a sense that no matter which sides you glue first you will get a cylinder.
Right. I was imagining it wrongly, basically I had this image in my head
But of course that is just another cylinder
Just oriented differently
that was a lot easier than i thought ❤️
Supposing $\xi_1, \xi_2$ are vector bundles and $\pi_1,\pi_2$ are the projections $\pi_i:B(\xi_1) \times B(\xi_2) \to B(\xi_i)$, is it 'obvious' that $\xi \times \eta \cong \pi_1^\xi_1 \oplus \pi_2^\xi_2$ (as bundles)? It seems to just be tacitly assumed or even be a definition
potato
I imagine this is ultimately just an exercise in chasing around universal properties but it doesn't seem obvious at first glance
Why does eta only appear on one side of the conclusion?
(should xi × eta have been xi1 × xi2?)
Sorry that was a typo - originally I had xi and eta but changed it (for the projections) - should be xi1 x xi2 as you say
Hm I'm not totally sure how that gives you the answer, sorry if I'm being silly aha
I imagine the idea is we can get a continuous map between total spaces introducing an isomorphism on fibres (since there obviously exists such an isomorphism) which would give the desired bundle iso?
potato
and so both the total and base spaces can vary between the two and the product bundle is E(xi_1) x E(xi_2) -> B(xi_1) x B(xi_2)
(following Milnor-Stasheff here)
Oh sure thing thanks - I've realised I've not seen the uniqueness of extensions of smooth functors (only existence of such extensions essentially) - would Atiyah's book be a good place to look?
For what it's worth, I've realised chugging through specific constructions of the direct sum and products here does give you the desired iso, just it's not very elegant aha
Sure, thanks
Well Atiyah's paper is actually younger than the paper I'm currently learning K-theory for as it happens :) [Adams' vector fields paper]
I believe so using the morphism (x,(v,w)) -> (x,(v,0)+(0,w))
Okay I have had a good night's sleep and now I think i'm fine with this lol
The idea being we have isomorphisms on fibres (the obvious one) and since all the relevant operations are continuous they stitch together to make an isomorphism of bundles (?)
I agree that this should suffice
Take my words with a grain of salt but I’m pretty sure that isomorphism on fibers plus continuous choice of bases was the way we argued for vector bundle isos in our class
Noice
question for the problem stating that compact subsets of a Hausdorff space can be separated by disjsoint open sets does the following work
is this all correct? @ me when helping plz
Your V needn't cover B at all - you need to do more.
is this the correct approach then
Well it's a similar idea but there is more to it.
So what you've done is shown that a singleton can be separated from a compact set, namely {b} here, but you need to extend it to the whole thing
Yeah sure - perhaps best to add more indexing but sure
okie i think i got it ! thanks!
aha youre right it doesnt cover all of B
Well also I think your quantification is a bit confused
Really I imagine you wanted to say like 'fix b in B. Then for each a in A, there exist disjoitn open [etc]'
Then the idea is you get some open V_b containing b and an open U_b containing A with U_b, V_b disjoint (from your construction)
From there you are pretty close by doing this and a bit more
Yup, that's it (I'd just change the writing slightly)
like the 'Then for each b in B.'
lol
But the proof is bang on.
i got the hint from when you said i dont cover all of B
Yeah
lol
well metric spaces are normal spaces so this result holds in any metric space, correct?
Yup
But you can easily do it in that case just by considering like $f(x) = \frac{d(x,A)}{d(x,A) + d(x,B)}$
potato
and compact subapce of hausdorff satisfy the normal axiom of separability which is hwat we just showed
Which is continuous and takes 1 on B and 0 on A so that the preimages of [0,1/2) and (1/2,1] are as desired
nice!
(this is an Urysohn function if you've not seen those before)
I have a bit
seprates closed sets by cont function
right?
and compact subspapces of HAusdorff need be closed
thus Uryshon lemma applies here
Well the idea was that the metric space is compact to begin with
Some any closed subspaces r compact anyway
is every topology a basis for itself?
yes
I see that if X is a set, then every topology T on X is a basis for X because
- X is in T, so all x in X are contained in an element of T,
- topologies are closed under finite intersections, so the intersection of two elements of T is another element of T
And then the topology generated by T is the union of elements of T which is T itself because every—
okay thank you lol
np
why is a subbasis called a subbasis? subbases aren't necessarily bases right?
Because it's worse than a basis
dang mathematicians getting derogatory
okay I guess that makes sense, just feels weird when compared to set vs subset, group vs subgroup, etc
It's just a different meaning of sub
Like in suboptimal
Subset you can kind of interpret as something "under" a set
I see
Subbases are equally important as bases btw
also do people ever say isomorphic instead of homeomorphic
Yes. All the time
But homeomorphic you know it's a top space
subbases are usually easier to describe
iirc
if you have a subbasis you can just make a basis by taking all finite intersections right?
yes
I want to take algebraic topology next sem
But one of the prereqs is complex analysis
I've only taken real analysis (this course: https://math.illinois.edu/resources/department-resources/syllabus-math-424)
This is the algebraic topology syllabus: https://math.illinois.edu/resources/department-resources/syllabus-math-525
Math 525. Algebraic Topology I Instructor Syllabus Fundamental group and covering spaces [first half of semester]
Would I be screwed if I didn't take complex beforehand?
lol no
you need to know general topology if anything. open munkres
and algebra
tbh more algebra than topology
Yea the algebra prereq (surprisingly) is just undergrad alg 1
and I took grad alg 1 last sem so I'm good on that front
it's just the lack of complex analysis and topology that is making me a little apprehensive
worst case I can do algebraic number theory or algebraic geometry
I'd just rather take algebraic topology
you're not really going to be using anything from complex analysis in this course
just a little bit of general point-set topology. first four chapters of munkres at most, easy stuff
ok
first 3 chapters sound like review / slight abstraction of stuff from analysis
well, first 5 chapters. but the 1st on set theory is stuff you already know, so skip it
though tychonoff is something you can just remember if you're doing at lol
indeed
I've been stuck on this problem for a few hours, mainly on proving the conditional (the converse is easy to prove and I've already done that:)
On a set X we give a topology induced by a family of maps $(f_j: X \to Y_j)_{j \in J$ (the initial topology on wikipedia) where $Y_j$ is a hausdorff space for any $j \in J$. Show that $X$ is Hausdorff if and only if for any $x, y \in X$ there exists $j \in J$ for which $f_j(x) \neq f_j(y)$. I can't even prove it for the case where $|J| = 1$ lmao.
992qqoloy
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
actually nvm |J| = 1 was pretty easy not sure why it took me so long to see it
also nvm I figured out the general case now
basically if we assume that $f_j(x) = f_j(y)$ for all $j \in J$, then the $f_j$ will be constant functions, which implies that the sub-base will be ${X, \emptyset}$ (either the open set we're taking the pre-image of for the sub-base contains the constant or it doesn't. If it does the preimage is $X$, if it doesn't the pre-image is $\emptyset$), which makes the topology ${X, \emptyset}$ which makes $X$ not Hausdorff. So basically a proof by contradiction
wait does that work... shit
I think I negated the statement incorrectly
992qqoloy
Yeah the negation would be that there exists x, y in X such that f(x) = f(y), where f is the single function in {f_j}. So f might not be constant, but it isn't injective. You can reach a similar contradiction by looking at the subbase (and in particular look at the elements of the subbase including x/y)
you can get a similar contradiction in the general case. The negation would be that there exists x, y in X such that f_j(x) = f_j(y) for all j
The loose intuition is that X is Hausdorff if and only if "every pair of points in X can be 'separated' by some function f_j." The idea is that if none of the f_j can "separate" a pair of points x and y, then neither will the initial topology; conversely, if some f_j is able to "separate" a pair of points x and y, then this will reflect in the initial topology via the Hausdorff condition
can I just get the answer I've been thinking about this for hours ;-;
like that's the negation for the contrapositive right?
but can't I still assume this as a contradiction?
anyways if I'm going to do a proof by contrapositive instead of just by contradiction
then I think I got your hint now 😐
just to clarify, the $Y_j's$ being Hausdorff only mattered for proving the converse right?
992qqoloy
but yeah basically I wrote something along the lines of "each base element will be a finite intersection of elemenents of the sub-base, and all elements of the sub-base contain either both $x$ and $y$ or neither, so the base elements will also cintain both $x$ and $y$ or neither, and thus the open elements will either contain both $x$ and $y$ or neither as they'll be unions of sets that either contain both $x$ and $y$ or neither. Uhh, it's long winded and repetitive but I couldn't think of a better way of wording it.
992qqoloy
Yup! That’s exactly it
Every proof by contraposition can also be stated as a proof by contradiction
If you want to show X => Y
You can prove the contrapositive (not Y) =>(not X)
Or u can just say suppose toward a contradiction that X holds but Y is false. Then prove that X must also be false which is a contradiction
But not every contradiction proof can be expressed as a proof by contrapositive
But the point is that when u negate a statement for a proof by contrapositive it’s the same as negating the statement for a proof by contradiction
this definition of the metric space X is just another to view the p- numbers with the p-adic metric for p=2 right?
yes
Logicians call it "cantor space" rather than the 2-adics
it's also homeomorphic to the cantor set.
Idk. I call it Cantor space too
Never heard it being called 2-adics
Probably not logicians but topologists
are closure of a compact set necessarily compact? space is not assumed to be T2
No
fuck you
Here are some counterexamples
i was about to write down a counterexample

why did i waste time thinking about this instead of googling it
that was five full minutes of my life
I’ve had that issue before so i had the link ready
Im sure that was a well spent 5 minutes

Because you wanted a challenge
yeah
Maybe
probably
yeah my answer was the one given by Mike F.
I laughed at georges answer
Imagine asking an innocent point set topology question and getting hit with some affine scheme wrt. to polynomial rings in inf variables, Spec and whatever

I can imagine that because some things are only seemingly simple. You think of l_infinity but you get hit with the Stone-Cech compactification of the integers for example ...
jesus
i prefer my schemes like i prefer my coffee: of finite type over an algebraically closed field
nice
you are funny
Also if connectedness can be probed by Hom(X,{0,1}) how is compactness probed?
If we want to show any chain map $\beta$ is chain homotopic to any other chain map $\alpha$, why is it sufficient to show that if $\alpha=\textbf{0}$ then $\beta$ is homotopic to \textbf{0}?
R hom
For metric spaces N works, because if surjective onto N then not compact, and if not compact then there is a sequence with no convergent subsequence x_1, ..., we might assume the terms of x_i are all different and map f(x_i) = i, extend using Tietze theorem
because chain homotopy is compatible with the abelian group structure on the hom sets
meaning that a-b htpic to 0 iff a htpic to b
this holds essentially by definition
Actually I think this works for sequential compactness in normal spaces
if $X \subseteq Y$, and $\iota : X\to Y$ is the inclusion map, then for any function $f : Y \to S$, is $f \circ \iota$ the same as $f|_X$?
Ei ao (e/i) e
Yes
whoooo
Pretty nice eh?
can someone help me on help 9?
really stuck on this
also kind of confused of what exactly I can say with inclusions and restrictions
how about you take X=reals, A = rationals and B = irrationals, f(A) = 1 and f(B) = 0?
i dont think i can do this and preserve generality
if i use f:X-->{0,1} do i preserve generality?
or make a g
st g o f (X) = {0,1}
??
@torn jungle what's your definition of partition?
A intersection B is empty
A U B = X
for A,B forming a partition of X
and A,B open
I see. Yeah, I thought it'd be something like that
this is what ive tried up to now
If $U\subseteq Y$ is open, write $f^{-1}(U)$ in terms of restrictions of $f$ to $A$, to $B$
Blitz
so
Connectedness is not crucial here. It's that A, B are open
U = (U intersection f|B(X)) U (U intersection f|A(X))
question
are f(A) and f(B) open in Y?
or rather the restrictions of A and B of X?
?
not necessarily
wait
this is what I have now
the question at the bottom doesnt hold
i think i have it!
ill polish it
but what do you think? @gritty widget
why does pi have to be surjective here? the quotient topology is still a topology even if pi isn't surjective right?
Yes, but Y is then not a quotient set to begin with.
why is it the case that in a metric space sequential compactness is equivalent to compactness?
This is an odd question, because there's a proof out there
yes and I do not know where the proof is
This is probably very trivial but I cannot see how to prove the triangle inequality part of the definition for this defined distance. I wanted to show that the the triangle inequality holds for every term in the sum but I'm not sure how to proceed
https://www.colorado.edu/amath/sites/default/files/attached-files/compact_sequential.pdf
I googled it and this came up.
x/(1+x) is monotone and (x+y)/(x+y+1) <= x/(x+1) + y/(y+1)
x, y are non-negative
Thanks that's very helpful, but why do I need the monotone bit?
This is how you prove that d/(1+d) also satisfies the triangle inequality if d does
I don't mean d as in your d but d as in something satisfying triangle inequality
how does the second inequality hold
What are some good available resources on algebraic topology? Course started today and I'm already pretty confused about homology theory axioms, especially with no lecture notes whatsoever.
course started today
homology theory axioms
my condolences
but for this to hold does it not have to be a metric given it is already positive definite and symmetric
Huh. No
yeah I just hadn't tried it myself lol became clear as soon as i tried it xd
|x_n-y_n| = 0 doesn't imply x = y
haha i'm pretty sure we're in the same course in a certain german uni, prof certainly didn't waste time lol
you guys can check out the notes from last year
you should still be able to get into the ecampus courses
the course seems to be password protected
mhm its probably some variation of Topo21 or so
i'll have to check it out tomorrow, I really urgently need some sleep
thanks for the info though, I didn't think of that
nvm, found the password 🙂
Im confused about c isnt wouldnt attaching a 3-cell to a torus give a space X whose inclusion of the 2-skeleton doesnt induce an iso
well i suppose this means have an issue with part b as well
uhhh so the idea behind b and c is that gluing on >2-cells does not change the fundamental group
you get that?
yeah but wouldnt gluing a 3-cell to the interior of a torus change the fundemental group
the solid torus has fundemental group Z
uhhhhhhhhhhhhhh trying to visualize what you're proposing
i think you cant get the filled out torus from the usual torus with a single 3 cell
and attaching more than one requires more stuff in the 2 skeleton
b says cells plural
ok
so you already have to attach an extra 2-cell that eliminates one of the generators for the fundemental group of the torus, funky
sorry for being dumb but what did I say that made you reply with this
oh I think I found the solution. The 2xy put me off
oh so you were saying any distance function that obeys the triangle inequality would produce the same result if I'm not mistaken?
is this what he meant? @unreal stratus
so i made (x/1+x)+(y/1+y) into one fraction
ye
then on the numerator
and then you can bound it which is nice
potato
every problem that needs thinking my mind just goes blank
since the constraint on x>= 0 feels a bit weird when you just look at the stuff
np, enjoy the rest of the sheet lol
(our sheets haven't even been released for anything lol)
unless of course you're just using older versions since they're unlikely to change
yeah we have only done 1 lecture so tommorow's lecture will probably cover the rest
after 4
wait really ?
Yeahh at least not where they should be
And some courses have new lecturers so I'm unsure if they'll be different (though most will be unchanged ofc)
hm idk if there are many new courses at all
well
like some stats/compsci ones maybe
ah yeah
So I was doing some problems from Munkers and I'm pretty confused on how to find the closure of a subset in the lexicographic ordered square, the problem I'm doing is 18 page 101. For example for C, I have that the limit points would be (0x1) and (1x0) since we're looking at a horizontal strip of x at y = 0, so the closure of C would be C U {(0x1),(1x0)}? But a solution I found online had something different for the closure. The ordered square is just confusing me a lot.
How do I show that If X cross Y is connected then X and Y both must be connected.
continuous images of connected sets are connected
Owkayy
And ..
Oh okay
Do you suggest unsing projection maps
yes
👍🏻🤌🏻
💯
Is there a simple argument to why pi_2 of any Lie group is trivial?
or do I need to get my hands dirty
$\pi_2(TM)\to \pi_2(M) \to \pi_1(R^n)=0$?
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/8957/homotopy-groups-of-lie-groups all of these arguments look at least mildly tricky
and considering how many answers this question got, i'd say that's a solid reason to say "there's probably no well-known simple argument"
btw, is this some old convention on grassmannians i've not seen - codimension n
I assumed it was a typo, but then Atiyah goes on to do stuff like this which seems more natural assuming he means codimension
(Although i suppose taking orthogonal complements is a homeomorphism, so it doesn't actually matter in applications where we talk about dimension or codimension?)
oh yeah thats not how its usually defined afaik but as you noted, they are naturally isomorphic so it doesnt really matter
Yeah dope , cheers
Yeah cause the way he topologises it is quite different too
Tho ye ig it'll be equivalent and not rly matter
Thanks
what is C?
Trying to prove that a topological space X is Hausdorff if and only iff D is closed in X x X where D={(x,x) | X in X}
For forward direction, we are trying to show X x X\D open so would it suffice to take some point not in D, say (x,y) and try to show that some set containing (x,y) open?
Could I say that we have x in U and y in V , where U and V disjoint and open (as X hausdorff). U x V has to be open by def of product topology.
Feels like I’m missing something
Yes - you just need to show/say it's contained in the complement of the diagonal
which is more or less immediate
Don’t I have that from “(x,y) not in D”
you need to show that every element of U x V is not in D
Aren’t I guaranteed that by X hausdorff
yes, but more precisely because U and V are disjoint
Ok thanks. For other direction, we have D closed and we consider x,y in X where x neq y. Then since D complement open, there exist some open set containing (x,y) with empty intersection with D.
For the other direction you want to use the basis for the product topology
sure, the complement of D is open, but you want to find a set of the form U x V
If I have open set disjoint with D that contains (x,y) doesn’t thst mean I have open sets U and V where x in U and y in V where U x V open X and UxV intersect D empty so U and V disjoint
yes
Where do I use basis
"... doesnt thst mean I have open sets U and V where ..."
remember that UxV forms a basis of the topology XxY
Think about taking a couple of points and gradually taking away a path between them (I found an example thinking along these lines)
Well you can 'cut away' more and more by making them smaller each time
It's hard to describe examples without just spoiling it aha
Well you need to make the sets nested so that idea doesn't quite work
true...
ill think about that
Sure thing
not sure what sort of answer you want
in just having a hard time imagining it
and what i do imagine idk how to put on paper
Well I was trying not to spoil but ofc I can give more hints ig?
i think i need something more
Oh maybe it was what you intended?
But
Fix two points and take infinitely many different paths between them - let that be your initial set (but there are other examples!)
Can you think about what we can use as the other sets so that everything works?
what if i select 0,1 as points
and all functions x^n as my paths
they all pass through 0 and 1
I wouldn't worrry too much about specifics, but yes that works
oooh ok ok thanks :)
Now what would your sets be?
(also I assume you mean (0,0) and (1,1) there aha)
What is Ab
the category of Abelian groups.
Oh
(Also, I'm not entirely sure how you'd see that all the x -> x^n form a closed set, or at least there are more obviously closed examples)
tbh i'd just draw a picture of a set since it can obviously be formalised, or just pick a more easily describable set
(0,0)(1,1)
can it not?
here is one solution:
||set V_n to be the set of all line segments connecting (0,-1) to (k,1) and (0,1) to (k,-1) for k >= n.||
||Each V_n is path connected but the intersection of all of them is {(0,-1), (0,1)}||
are you using forward slashes for set minus 
\
I ALWAYS CONFUSE THEM 😭
Also that second set is oddly written (you can just remove the 'for all')
yeah
well
also you say y \in f(x)
I get what you mean but the sets are written in an odd format
It would yeah. Just like e.g. that second set you write - you've not said what y or x is and it doesn't make sense to say y in f(x) there
You'd want something like ${(x,y) \in \mathbb R^2 \mid y = x^{\ell} \text{ for some } \ell \in \mathbb N}$
potato
thats true
But you could also write this more efficiently as like
not very used to this notation yet
potato
ooooh i see
need help starting here
int(A) is the interior of a set A
With the first part?
yes
Yeah
Precisely
not sure where I'm getting this from
From monotonicity of closure
i see
Second part can be done similarly. Just properties of cl and int
ok thanks!
How does naturality property imply "Isomorphic vector bundles have same characteristic classes"?
does (non-topological) Hochschild homology have a spectrum in any sense?
The isomorphism on the vector bundle becomes an iso on homology if you follow the induced maps
sorry that's actually a different thing
so that identity above
says the class of the pullback of f to N = the induced map on cohomology from the class
if f is isomorphic you have an inverse equality thingy here as we
I slowly get it. Does $f_*:Vect(N) \rightarrow Vect(M)$ map mean that if two vector bundles over N are isomorphic so are their pullbacks under f?
Gigrise
yeah
if it's functorial
functors preserve isos
if you have f: N -> M and g: M -> N such that f ° g = Id_M and g ° f = Id_N
then for any functor F
you preserve like
F(f) ° F(g) = Id_F(M)
that notation was awful sorry
okay I understand that part, thank you. I think where I am confused is how the map c_m is well defined. That is, I have a vector bundle and invariant polynomial. I plug in curvature matrix and get a cohomology class [P(Omega)]. Now why is [P(Omega)] isomorphism invariant? I dont know if you are familiar with chern weil homomorphism.
its not really explained
so the c_M is picking out a homology class for each iso class of vector bundle
chasing elements around generally can let you define elements in the homology groups
and like "name" them
it sounds like Chern Weil is specifically taking a form and producing an element in the cohomology class
if you've seen de Rham, elements there are equivalence classes of forms so that's a pretty easy way to get an actual element
I don't really understand the actual defn. of this form though
Also, for what it's worth one way to do this is to let S_n be the set which is the union of the lines defined (informally ig) by x = 0, x = 1 with the region given by y >= n (that was the example -i had - very obviously closed and the intersection is quite clear too)
well its a lenghty one. You pick an invariant polynomial, connection on VB produces a local curvature matrix. It entries are 2-forms. You plug in these entries in polynomial and get a doubled degree form. it is closed, well defined, doesnt depend on locally choosen curvature matrix. so in the end cohomology class just depends on vector bundle
oh my
yeaaaah
I looked up some of the actual like
defns of these things too and the formulas make my eyes glaze over
I'm not super familiar with diff geo / diff top
Differential Geometry: Connections, Curvature, and Characteristic Classes
f
lol I got it now, its just dumb definition. Basically these characteristic classes are the same on broader set of vectorbundle maps not just Vect_k(), so in particular they are the same on isomorphism classes hahahahhaha
@tidal cedar to sum it up
ahh ty
im laughing kekw
its like map everything to the zero, is an isomorphism invariance...
C={x \times 0 | 0<x<1}
and the problem asks to find it's closure in the ordered square
If X and X’ are homotopy equivalences through g and f maps X->Y and f’: X’ -> Y, show that the fiber homotopy F(f) and F(f’) are the same. I tried constructing an explicit homotopy using a variation of g from F(f) to F(f’) but it got very messy. Any ideas?
Does someone here know of a resource which computes the homology groups of spheres using only the eilenberg steenrod axioms?
I tried looking at the proof in hatcher but he seems to use explicit computations using singular homology which is not what Im after
Can someone explain why the quotient of the universal cover with the fundamental group yields the original space?
You know the homology of S^0 (2 points) from the dimension axiom. Then use the suspension isomorphism to compete for the rest of the spheres
Mhm I’ll have to look up what the suspension isomorphism is then, i’ll try and take a look at it later today
Thanks
We must’ve shown it in class without mentioning it explicitly
It's the H_n(X) ≈ H_n+1(ΣX) isomorphism
May's concise proves it from the axioms iirc
There's a straightforward Mayer vietoris argument
For reduced btw
Moldi 
✓
What does is the morphism $S^n\longrightarrow S^n \vee S^n$?
Finitely Many Bananas
It says collapse the equator, but I have no idea what that means here
In general, how do I get a morphism $X\longrightarrow X\vee X$
Finitely Many Bananas
X V X is the coproduct in the category of pointed spaces I think
So I tried doing something like the diagonal morphism
But that gives me a morphism the other way
you don't, at least not in the nice way as you do for spheres
you get the map by taking the quotient identifying 1 and -1 for example
its pinching two opposite points in the circle
hence the name
in higher dimensions, you collapse the equator
Ah crap
also the one in higher dimensions is just S^n smash the pinch map in 1 dimension
Of course
and these induce the diagonal on homology, hence by hurewicz are unique up to (based) homotopy for n > = 2
Also, are the stable homotopy groups abelian? They should be because suspension is an equivalence of categories and all higher homotopy groups are abelian
yes
@gritty widget when you said it follows from 1/x am I assuming the metric is the natural modulus in the reals?
yes, or you could just say the topology is Euclidean, which is equivalent
btw it doesn't follow entirely from 1/x being continuous, it also follows from f^-1({x : x =/= 0}) being open
So that we can find an epsilon for which 1/f is well-defined on B_eps(a)
But yeah, this is composition of two functions, restriction of f to B_eps(a) and 1/x
both are continuous
I understand the well defined bit
But idk how to formally show it is continuous on the open ball
Any continuous function when restricted to some subset is continuous in the subspace topology
the reason is that $f\restriction_A^{-1}(U) = f^{-1}(U)\cap A$ and the latter is an open set in $A$ whenever $U$ is open
Blitz
I haven’t touched topology yet so that explanation is kinda hard for me to understand sorry
If $X$ has metric $d$ then the subspace topology on $A$ is topology from the metric $d\restriction A\times A$
Blitz
that is, as a metric space, A has above metric
When you say subspace topology what do u mean
The continuity of $f$ at $b\in A$ means that for all $r>0$ there is $\delta > 0$ such that for all $x\in A$, $d(b, x)<\delta \implies |f(b)-f(x)|<r$
Blitz
Wouldn’t I need to show 1/f(b) - 1/f(x) instead
so from this, since f is continuous, you should see that after restricting some quantifiers, it's pretty much the same statement
and is implied by the continuity of f
Thus, f is a continous function from A to R\{0}
now from the theorem that says that function composition is continuous, we get that 1/f is continuous on A
here A is the open ball
by this I mean that restriction of f to A is
Maybe the composite function theorem comes later in my course but it has not appeared yet
What if I used Limits of sequences
To show 1/f is continuous on the open ball
It has not appeared we just started 2 days ago
so you technically don't know that f is continuous iff for all sequences x_n converging to x, f(x_n) converges to f(x)?
Then you probably might want just try to prove the theorem about compositions at this point
it's not hard, fortunately
I think I’ve covered the composition theorem but it was on the reals
Like real to real funcs
Well, the proof should look the same
To make d(f(g(a)), f(g(x))) < r we find some delta > 0 such that d(g(a), g(x)) < delta implies it. And then we find some u > 0 such that d(a, x) < u implies that
so we get that for d(a, x) < u we have d(f(g(a)), f(g(x))) < r
the metric d here is denoted by the same thing, but it can be a different metric each time, of course
Ohhhh
That’s a nice proof thanks
How do I get better at pure @gritty widget :/
Maths in general tbh
read, solve, go further every day
and forget
well... part of it you'll forget, that's true
but there's things here to salvage, such as abstract thinking
and hopefully creativity
I’ll try
Yeah. Remember that not being successful in your math career is not the end of the world though
For me it's a hobby, perversion, way of escaping from everything else. No matter what path I choose, I'm still going to explore it.
Very nice
I enjoy it but most times I’m always stuck and can’t think of the end solution which annoys me
Even when I look at the problem for a while
I do enjoy the problem solving though I just want to improve
i hope you meant diversion and not perversion blitz lol
Yeah I think he did haha

