#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 5 of 1
i am dumb
what I'm saying is that you'd probably want them to be unbounded
You mean, A = {n : n natural} and B = {n+1/n : n natural, n > 1} ?
yes
it does work
what did you have in mind?
just two curves in R^2 approaching each other at infinity
I thought it's better to visualize there
x^2 and x^2 +1?
well this probably works but a better example might be something like 1/x and -1/x
where they approach each other at the line y = 0 as x goes to infinity
in hatcher it's asked to show that homotopic maps induce the same homomorphisms on reduced homology groups. Now this follows by homotopy invariance for n>0, but the problem with n=0 is that no induced maps f#:Z->Z were defined in the book and i dont see any obvious way to define this which isnt just the identity in which case the exercise is more than trivial
What are the conditions for a sequence to be a closed set?
It definitely cannot have limit points which aren't already members of the sequence
I think this is sufficient for spaces which are, say, Hausdorff
yes
but if we were in a general topological space then we need to watch out for constant sequences which can converge to multiple different limits
to show this we have to show that any infinite sequence taken from the convergent sequence will converge eventually to the same limit?
is there an easier approach?
ouff
Take a sequence of elements $y_k\in {x_n : n\geq 1}\cup {x}$ where $x_n$ is your sequence and $x$ is its limit. If $y_k$ has finite amount of terms then it has a constant subsequence, so we are done. If it doesn't then we can take a subsequence of $y_k$ that will also be a subsequence of $x_n$. Then it converges to $x$
we can show that A=A_ right? by taking an element of the closure we show easily that its an elemnt of A
Blitz
why we can take a subsequence of yk that is also a subsequence of xn. Shouldnt we show this somehow??
i mean i know its obvious
but its the proof that they want
do it by recursion
yeah. i am gonna have to construct it
first take some y_1 = x_(n_1)
can i do this?
then there exists y_(m_2) with y_(m_2) not being equal to x_k for k <= n_1 and not being equal to x
and m_2 > 1
this is because if we have y_n then there always exists m > n with y_m =/= y_n
and so on
so y_(m_2) will be equal to x_(n_2) for some n_2 > n_1
now the sequence constructed y_(m_k) will be a subsequence of x_(n_k) and so it will converge to x
and being a subsequence of y_n, the limit of y_n must be x
It's not hard if you learn how to intuitively view those things
Then the only hard part becomes justifying them
why if it has a finite amount of terms then it has a constant subsequence?
ik its true but i dont see how
Say y_k can only take values from a finite set A. Then {k : y_k = a} for a in A partitions N into a finite amount of sets. One of them has to be infinite
then using this infinite set, we have a constant subsequence of y_k
that is genius i am glad i asked
I am doing an course on topology by UB (on youtube). Just wanted to know are these topics enough. Here's the list of topics :-
(lemme know if this is the wrong place to discuss this)
- SOME SET THEORY
- METRIC SPACES
- OPEN SETS
- BASIS, SUBBASIS, SUBSPACE
- CLOSED SETS
- CONTINUOUS FUNCTIONS
- CONNECTEDNESS
- PATH CONNECTEDNESS
- SEPARATION AXIOMS
- URYSOHN LEMMA
- TIETZE EXTENSION THEOREM
- URYSOHN METRIZATION THEOREM
- METRIZATION OF MANIFOLDS
- COMPACT SPACES
- HEINE-BOREL THEOREM
- COMPACT METRIC SPACES
- TYCHONOFF THEOREM
- COMPACTIFICATION
- QUOTIENT SPACES
"Enough" is an extremely fuzzy concept. Enough for what?
yes, this should be enough for most purposes
Enough for competitive exams and as an introduction to AT
Few things like fundamental groups and CW complexes are missing but I think that would more like intro to AT
yes, that belongs to an AT course
people sometimes give a brief introduction to fundamental group in the end of a topology course, though
if you're going with Hatcher then he has something like... topology chapter 0 I think it's called
and you can fill up all the holes in learning there
and then you should be good to go with Hatcher
That chapter 0 is really really intense (of AT)
I must warn you
People's opinions really strongly differ on this, so take mine with adequate salt, but I don't think Hatcher's book on AT is a good book.
I didn't mean chapter 0 of his book on algebraic topology
I did take an AT course in my last semester using Hatcher and I vaguely remember it but then covid came and it was all a mess
Oh whoops haha mb
Sorry
no, it's my bad, I thought he made a book which is named like that
but he only made notes
Ah, cool. I might also look a bit to Lee's book to further fill the gaps. Have heard much about it
for manifolds?
I have to warn you that the versions you can find online have lots of errors so it's better to get a physical book for that one
Lee's book is really good but not for an intro to topology.
Maybe as a 2nd topology book :)
Yeah, the table of contents makes it look quite like it's written for graduate topology with some AT
he does cover a lot of the needed topology briefly in the appendix
the most difficult concept there is probably paracompactness
Is the same true for versions downloaded from libgen?
yes
I saw Jack Lee speaking about it once on math.se but I don't know where it was
It's 40 usd here online in my country which seems reasonable for a hardcover but people have complained about the print quality
(It's his name on stack exchange)
I had some nice books about smooth manifolds recommended to me before, I'll try to check for some
@rich bison how about Hirsch - Differential Topology
This was recommended to me by a retired professor that was working in the field
There's also Milnor - Topology from differentiable viewpoint, iirc it touches upon some connections between AT and differential topology as well
I feel that's not what I wanna do but not sure. My route is: Topology -> AT -> Homotopy Theory. I am not exactly sure how well diff topology sits in this. I might be completely wrong though
I'm just giving you alternatives to check out instead of Lee's Smooth Manifolds
There's also Guillemin Pollack which does the things in R^n
I don't know either, algebraic topology/differential manifolds are not my prime interests
sounds good to just go through Hatcher and think about it later
or other book about AT, if you prefer
My main interests in the book are cause he does quite a lot of topology and AT judging by the table of contents. But I guess I'll try Hatcher first, it's kinda the standard recommendation
Not everyone likes his books, but yes. It's the primary recommendation
And ofc, there's also good old Rotman and Tom Dieck
or Spanier
I think it's this one - https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1628180/trouble-with-exercise-from-lees-introduction-to-smooth-manifolds
yes
How does this argument work? It just feels a bit hand-wavey and doesn't really convince me that it's not a cell complex
infinite cell complex is defined by removing the word "finite" from the definition
You have a few options. You can prove as a Lemma that a compact subspace of a cw complex is contained in a finite subcomplex. Alternatively you can prove as a lemma that CW complies are locally contractible.
I agree that the argument you have there is not very rigorous. But it was just an example, so you're probably expected to work out the details yourself
If you struggle with either of these lemmas, they're somewhere in hatcher I think. Maybe relegated to an appendix, he does that for a lot of CW stuffs
You should try it on your own first though, it's relatively easy
The lemmas that is
Is the first lemma almost obvious via contains an infinite subcomplex => non-compact? If so then I think I can prove it
But I think the problem is that I understand the arguement that it can't be a cell complex, but don't see what part of the definition it doesn't fit
There is a little more nuance but it should be easy enough
What do you mean? I'd you prove as a Lemma that CW complexes satisfy condition X and the hawaiin earring does not satisfy condition X then just look through your proof of the Lemma to see what part of the definition hawaiin earring defies
how do we prove that 1/x is closed?
Well the graph of a continuous function into a Hausdorff space is always closed
You can intersect it with arbitrarily large closed balls. Then they are homeomorphic to bounded closed intervals which are compact. Since it's closed under intersection by arbitrarily large closed ball, it must be closed
I guess if you interpret it as a function from R to the one point compactification of R
We're in R^2
Yeah lol mb
so this is false?
why 1/x isnt a continuous function into a hausdorff space?
It is but the theorem says that its graph is closed when interpreted as a subspace of (R\{0}) x R
Ye
is there another proof
I suppose one other method is to consider {(x, y) | xy =1} which is closed and its intersection with closed right half plane is the graph we want
why xy=1 is closed?
Multiplication is continuous
this is the preimage of 1 under the multiplication map
Let (x_n, 1/x_n) converge to (x, y). Then x_n and 1/x_n is bounded, so in particular x =/= 0 and so 1/x_n converges to 1/x = y
so?
4 different proofs of the same thing
Nice 
how is this proof?
that its closed
A subset of a space is closed iff it contains all its limit points
AH any convergent sequence converges with the image?
Riggght
okay
amazing
if A is a compact of E, for any x in E there exist a y in A such that (normed vector space): d(x,y)=d(x,A)
if i can prove that there exists a y such that d(x,y)=<d(x,A) then its done
i want to say that d(x,yn)-1/n=<d(x,A) then if yn converges to y i am done
but this is obviously wrong
Also quantifiers aren't in the right order here
its <=?
That isn't a quantifier
ah ik what you mean
i fixed it
There we go
right :/ any other proof?
i am so dumb
Sounds like what you were doing is almost there
Let f:A to R be defined as f(y) = d(x, y). There is a sequence a_n in A such that f(a_n) converges to inf(f). From compactness of f(A) we can assume that f(a_n) converges to f(a). Then inf(f) = f(a).
So wait this is correct?
But i didnt use compactness i only used the property of closed subsets that for any y there exists a seq that converges to y
thats why i said this is obviously wrong
i dont see how the compactness of f(A) was helpful here?
It allows us to replace f(a_n) with a subsequence of it which converges to some element f(a)
Ohhhhh we want to show that f(a) is reached right?
inf(f) is
okay
if for all x,y llx-yll>r for some r>0 then its a discrete topology?
if a function is continuous, then f (closed set)=closed set?
they way you've worded this is slightly ambiguous but yes
if there exists r such that d(x,y) > r for all x,y then the topology is discrete
because for any element x in a closed set there exists an xn such as xn converges to x. then f(xn) converges to f(x), so all sequences of the image converges within the set of images and the proof is done
this is not true!
err that's not a good counterexample let me think
take your time
And telling me why this proof is wrong would be even better
oh it does work
consider the image of Z under sin(x)
i dont see how this contradicts
and i cant tell why my proof isnt enough to prove this
the first statement ignores isolated points.
isnt is enough to consider constant sequences?
for isolated points
uh I don't get how this is meant to work as a proof
you need to start with a convergent sequence in the image and show its limit is in the image; it's not clear that all of them should come from convergent sequences in the domain like that
a set is closed if it contains all its limits
an easy example of a continuous function taking a closed set to a non closed set is arctan on R: the domain is closed, the image is not
i should be more precise
$\arctan(\bR) = (-\pi/2, \pi/2)$ is not closed, despite $\bR$ being closed and $\arctan$ being continuous
ТТерра
how does compactness fix this
f(compact)=compact
lets take a convergent sequence y1...yn in the image set
there exists an xn=f-1(yn)
i wouldn't use sequential compactness
but they are, so let them
its the only one i learned
ok fair
now you have a convergent subsequence
back here, there was no guarantee the sequence in the original domain you take converges (let alone has any convergent subsequence); this is how compactness fixes things
yeaaaah
amazing thanks a lot :)
now when is f(open)=open
xd
is there a condition on the space?
if f is only continuous

i dont think so nvm
nope. Those maps are called closed
nope. Those maps are called open
I understand
conditions for when a map is open? For linear operators you just need them to be surjective. In some other cases you can have open maps too
it might be a good exercise to think about this a bit (for example, could you conclude anything using what you know about closed maps? just as a starting point)
this is a less clear example than tterra's but what i meant was that the image is dense in [0,1] but is countable so cannot be the entire interval
so its not closed?
ye
why?
I think it's easier to construct some conditions for when a map is closed than when a map is open. Just because of things like compactness
bcos it is dense in [0,1] its closure is [0,1]
oh yea x(
god when will i have the reflex
ill try
why don't you construct some bitches
why don't you stop being toxic and get a life
wth
another characterisation of compactness is that X is compact if every open cover of X has a finite subcover
(an open cover is simply a collection of open sets such that each point of X is in at least one set from the collection)
yeah ive seen that on youtube. Ive only learned topology on normed vector spaces untill now in uni
so it wasnt deemed necessary
Also worth emphasising that what twiceshy just said is the typical definition and indeed is different from sequential compactness for general topological spaces
yes, thanks potato.
something something only equivalent in metric spaces
Yeah I believe compact implies sequentially compact for first countable spaces (hence including metric spaces) whilst the reverse direction is more subtle
right
all the spaces any reasonable person cares about are metrizable anyways
Algebraic geometers are unreasonable
zariski topology go nyoom
zariski "topology"
topological spaces were never supposed to be non-hausdorff
that's not true at all. In functional analysis you constantly consider non-metrizable topologies
just consider weak topologies of a Banach space

how to show that an open ball inteersects all open balls around a point on the border of it's closure
ik it's definition of border but i need a rigorous proof
well, start by giving your relevant definitions
i did that
B(x,r')inter B(a,r) for all r'>0 is what i want to show
where x is at the border
and B(a,r) is my open ball
where is your definition of border (i assume boundary?) and closure?
llx-all=r ig
i mean the point on the boundary itself is in the closure, so ...
no i want to show that the closure is equal to the closed ball
B'(a,r)
whats your definution of closure then?
any of em. The smallest closed set containing the open ball for example
or the set containing all of it's limit points
You can translate the ball so that it has 0 as its origin and use multiplication by scalars
the ball around x?
To show that the closure of an open ball is a closed ball
can you elaborate?
B(x, r) is open ball with center x and radius r right
right
for any point y from the closed ball, lets denote it by D(x, r), for 0 < s < 1 we can write x+s(y-x) which will be in the open ball
but as s -> 1, x+s(y-x) -> y
if we were to shift it by x then this would look a little simpler
because x = 0 then
the purpose of s is to make the the point y a little closer to the center so that it's contained in the open ball
yes
and that proves it because the closed ball is closed
how would we translate?
the function f(y) = y-x is a homeomorphism for every point x
so we have things like, f(cl(B(x, r))) = cl(f(B(x, r))
you know, it commutes with the closure for example
if you were to show that cl(B(0, r)) = D(0, r) then shitfing it forward by x, we get D(x, r) = x+D(0, r) = x+cl(B(0, r)) = cl(x+B(0, r)) = cl(B(x, r))
so we can just prove it in case x = 0
similarly we could have assumed r = 1
it's not necessary, this formula just looks a little worse
im still confused about your definitions lmao
like this doesnt work
i guess you are in R^n with standard topology?
nice
Not R^n
a normed vector space
but i understand the confusion
i meant just in the case of an open ball
hm does this definition work then
this is great thanks a lot
i mean yeah. the border is the set of x that verify llx-all=r
doesnt it break for trivial norm
which one is the trivial
what's the trivial norm
0 for 0, 1 otherwise i guess
discrete metric?
ye, such that you get discrete metric
Pretty sure that space wouldn't be normable
I don't think it's even a topological vector space actually.
yes
its just such a weird definition of boundary
but what you said is the simplest way then
But if it has any non-zero vector x, then (1/n)x for example should converge to 0 by continuity, but it also has to be eventually constant since we're going for the discrete metric
but (1/n)x is never non-zero
i still dont trust that defintion of boundary though 😛
If C is a convex neighbourhood of zero, then if p is the Minkowski functional of C, we should have that the points of boundary correspond to the points at which p = 1
(i was originally thinking this is supposed to work in metric spaces, its my mistake to not read history some more)
which is an analogue of the situation with the open ball centered at zero, because then the Minkowski functional should be the norm times some constant
No, it's totally okay to be confused, I just guessed it because @candid hedge was working with normed spaces the past days
it's good to know that this property fails horribly when we're not in a normed space
yes. Ive only worked with normed vector spaces so far
But i watch a lot of youtube
xd
show that the interior of a convexe is convexe
we know that in an interior all points are centers of some open ball completely contained within the set
so tx+(1-t)y is contained in some open ball in the set is what ive got to show
oh and theres also the question to show that the interior of a closed ball B'(x,r) is the open ball B(x,r)
I am almost done through the sheet of questions. Sorry for asking too much but this is really important for me to understand and i have a shitty uni
Dw, topology can take some time to get used to
ig that's true of any area of math(s) xd
yeah for sure
can you help me show that the interior of a convex set is a convex
having some trouble
just a general guideline on how to do this
Is this for any normed vector space?
yes
its a normed vector space
i should get in the habit of specifying that xd
take x, y in (the interior of) your convex set C
take an open ball B centered at 0 such that x+B and y+B are contained in C
Conclude
It should that for any t in [0, 1], tx+(1-t)y+B is also contained in C
i am still unsure how to do this
im thinking
have no idea what to do
Oh interesting, the idea I had was fairly different but possibly wrong then lol
and i am not sure what the translation achieves
what did you have in mind
you should think about it on your own a bit
I was going to say you could probably take the line between the two points x,y (which lies in C) and consider the sup of t in [0,1] such that tx + (1-t)y lies in the interior
Or some perturbation of that idea
oh thats really good
but idk how it would work here
Ig since the original set is convexe then tx+(1-t)y lies in C but i cant get further than this
i need a hint i cant spend more time on this quest
you won't learn if we give you all the answers
yes thats true lol
but ive been stuck at this since 3pm
You’ll want to show that for interior points the line between them lies in the interior too
yeah i realized this
Have you tried showing it’s everywhere locally convex
If I’m not mistaken this is equivalent to convexity
And this is easier to show I’d assume
I never heard of locally convex refering to subsets of a topological vector space 
I thought we were talking about subsets of a normed vector space
probably not because if you draw two disjoint balls then they'd be "locally convex"
I only ever heard locally convex refered to locally convex topological vector spaces
tell me if this statement is true: if there exists an r such that B(x,r) and B(y,r) lie in the set then B(tx+(1-t)y,r) lies within the set
and never as a property of subsets
Locally convex as in there is a neighborhood that is convex
Hmm that’s fair though maybe connectedness is enough?
on my drawing i see it works but i cant tell if its always true
This is way easier than this and I gave a hint above. It basically solves the question
Ah i didn’t see your hint
AHHH FUCk
this is this no? xd
Right yeah lol
Nvm me that makes it much easier
sure
ofc i take any point in the ball and show that its in the set
its a nice property of convex sets that i didnt understand until now
so let z be tx+(1-t)y, then a a point in the open ball B(z,r). lla-zll<r then...
i have no idea
help
OHHH i got it
Its incredible
i am soooo fucking dumb
thanks a lot
if the distance between a point and a set is 0 then its a part of the set's closure?
try proving it
a related a good exercise is to prove:
It is possible for two closed sets $A, B$ to have $d(A,B) = 0$ but $A \cap B = \emptyset$
Migillope
It's quite hard to have a distance function if you're not in a metric space I guess
But jokes aside, yet another related thing is that you can characterise the closure of A as the set of points distance 0 from A - that's a good thing to prove and obviously a strengthening of the original thing
Forgot to bump this but I asked someone irl and they said this sounded correct :)
Oh yes free action on finite set => finite group. Even faithful action is enough I think since it determines an injective map into the symmetric group on the cells
That's cool
I agree
oh yeah, yesterday I learned about a special case of Lefschetz fixed point theorem and used it to prove that Z/2 is the only nontrivial group that acts freely on even dimensional spheres :)
That's exactly what came to mind when I saw your post aha
I'm working through Brown's book on cohomology of groups, have you read it?
Nah, it's just this is done in Hatcher
ah I see, never made it past like the first section on simplicial homology
how are you finding that book though? group cohomology isn't really something I've looked at
Yeah fair enough
I'll probably go back to hatcher once I actually take an alg top class lol
John is using this in his homalg course
the book is fun, I haven't gotten to any of the core material yet because there's an introductory section that just talks a little bit about free resolutions of Z over group rings
I talked to clerk about this a little while ago, but there are really cool interactions where you use topology to construct the bar resolution for Z over a group ring
Basically you construct a simplicial complex where n-simplices are (n+1)-tuples of elements in the group. There's a natural free action of G on the simplices, and the space is contractible, so if you look at the induced map on free abelian groups generated by simplices, you get a free resolution of Z
The context for my question was that if you have a free action of G on an odd dimensional sphere, then the Lefschetz thing says that G acts trivially on the non-trivial homology groups, so you get an exact sequence 0 -> Z -> C_{2k-1} -> ... -> C_1 -> C_0 -> Z -> 0, and if you just chain these together you get a periodic resolution of Z over your group ring
neat stuff, I'll probably talk to you once I get to the actual subject material
Are Munkres topology and Gallians contemporary alg good prerequisites for Hatchers alg topology? Because I have those first two, and want to go into alg top. I'm not sure, other than groups and maybe some knowledge of other general structures, what abstract alg I need
Also, for those of you who answer in this channel a lot, I'm taking my first introductory topology course this semester (jr. in ugrad), and I'll probably be asking a lot of questions on intuition and the like. I apologize in advance lol
You’ll have a good foundation for alg top if you go through Brown’s book
He connects lots of things back to homo-cohomo of top spaces
Imo On the algebra side of things, if you’ve gotten up to free groups I think that’s enough to start out with
Wait does Gallian even go that far?
Edit:it does
first few chapters of Munkres should be fine, Hatcher himself also has some free notes with the point-set topology required for his AT book: https://pi.math.cornell.edu/~hatcher/Top/TopNotes.pdf
don't worry about asking questions btw that's the whole point of this server
Up to free groups and the first few chapters of munkres, I can do that. And thanks for those notes, I'll most likely reference those a lot.
The professor this semester is focusing on the more point-set side of things, and we aren't touching on geometry much, or working towards classifications of surfaces. We're mostly just learning what's required to really prove stuff
There's the contents for the semester, so it's definitely more general topology
Okay Hatchers notes touch on quotient spaces, good
is there some relation between π_n and H_n
been watching some videos on homology of simplicial complexes
pi_0 and H_0 both measure connectivity
pi_1 and H_1 holes
You may want to look at the Hurewicz theorem(s)
for a path connected space the abelianization of the fundamental group is iso to H_1
The main results are that the first homology group is the abelianisation of the fundamental group (for path connected spaces) and that if n>1 and X is n-1 connected (path connected and first n-1 homotopy groups vanish) then the nth homology group equals the nth homotopy group
This is quite a specialised hypothesis, though it does let you compute the first n homotopy groups of the n sphere for example
honestly some of these results are impressive they feel like black magic
Maybe a silly question, but in homology theory, do you lose that much (at least when dealing with manifolds and other nice things) by requiring the p-simplices to be embeddings rather than just continuous maps?
the intuition of kindof lassoing holes in your topological space with the simplicies would be slightly nicer this way I feel 
Take the projection map R^2 -> R^1 onto the first coordinate. The first space has lots of embedded 2-simplices; the second space doesn't have any embedded two-simplices. So smooth maps between manifolds don't carry embedded simplices to embedded simplices. In order to get a functorial theory you would have to consider only embeddings between manifolds or something like that.
You would run into a similar issue with homotopy, I think. Only subspace embeddings X x I -> Y would lend themselves to establishing a nice relationship between homotopic simplices. Thus the homotopy invariance of homology is thrown off. It is difficult to see in this theory how you would prove that an arbitrary contractible space has trivial homology groups.
Thanks, this makes sense! Do you by any chance know if on a fixed manifold (so that functoriality isn't a concern), a hypothetical embedded homology theory would capture more or less topological data than the singular homology?
Essentially what I'm going for is that If the singular homology is in that sense the same as the embedded homology, then I can morally think about singular homology in terms of the embeddings, and I can just consider the singular simplices as a trick that makes it naturally functorial
Is Q ⊆ R with the subspace topology not discrete because if you have some p in Q, then p=A ∩ Q for some A open in R. So that means that p is in A, and so (p - r, p + r) is in A. But since Q is dense, there is some q in Q such that p < q < p+r, and so q is also in A ∩ Q? Which means A ∩ Q cannot be a singleton set?
yes
Okay nice
I guess you should say {p} = A \cap Q but sure
the informalities weren't that bad so I payed no mind. But yeah
Yee
So could I show that ${\frac{1}{n}}{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ is discrete in R by taking some ${\frac{1}{n_1}}$ and showing that ${\frac{1}{n1}}=A \cap {\frac{1}{n}}{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ where $A=(\frac{1}{n+1},\frac{1}{n-1})$ is open in R? I wanna make sure I have the idea correct for these kinds of proofs. I imagine I could always just show whether or not a singleton set is open in a subspace topology
J.Ross
yes. And the last sentence doesn't make sense to me, this is precisely what you're already doing
Oh I suppose I worded it weird. I meant in general, if I'm trying to show that a certain subspace is discrete in a topological space X, I would just have to show that an arbitrary singleton is open in the subspace?
yes, it's equivalent
Here a cute alternative is to use the fact N is discrete in R and that x -> 1/x is obviously a homeo between that and this
Oooo, I like that
Is there some theorem about quotients of quotients
Like mobious band is some quotient of the square
And klein bottle is the same quotient with some more relations added
If A is open in X and B is open in Y, is A x B open in X x Y? proof: let A be open in X and B open in Y. Then if a is in A and b is in b there is an neighborhood N_a that is contained in A and a neighborhood N_b that is contained in B. Then N_a x N_b is a subset of A x B, for any u in N_a is in A and any v in N_b is in B. Let (u,v) in N_a x N_b. Then (u,v) in A x B, so A x B is an open set in X x Y. Is that all??
How do.you define the topology on XxY
Brcause depending on your definition, this is true by definition
a topology on X x Y is the a set of open sets W subsets of X x Y such that UW is in the topology and finite intersections of W is in the topology, X x Y is in the topology and empty set is in the toplogy
really I'm trying to prove A closed in X and B closed in Y means A x B closed in X x Y but I just need to know what an open set of X x Y is like
this is doing my head in these proofs feel so weird to me
lol you get used to it
That's a topology on X x Y
There is a product topology which is usually the one assumed
So by this definition AxB is definitionally an open set
Try and characterise what a set of the form (AxB)^c looks like
To see why AxB is closed when A,B are
It seems to me that these go in opposite directions? A neighborhood near x implies a neighborhood near f(x) on the left, but it's the other way around on the right. Which one is correct?
on the left you're taking an epsilon-nbhd of f(x_0) to find a delta-nbhd of x_0.
note that f(U) contained in V (right hand side) just means that if x is contained in U => f(x) is contained in V
I think my confusion stems from this example:
$\rho = \theta\mapsto e^{i\theta}:[0,2\pi)\to S^1\subset\mathbb{C}$ where $S^1$ is the unit circle on the complex plane
chic-chicago
here rho is not continuous?
looks continious to me
what if I fix a neighborhood around f(0)? there is no corresponding neighborhood around 0 because you can't just jump to 2pi
then you'll have some nbhd of 0, some [0; r)
a neighborhood needn't be connected, in this case you'll get something like [0, r)U(2pi-r, 2pi)
if you take the preimage of e.g. an open ball around f(0)=1+0i
and this is open in the induced topology over [0, 2pi)
also consider that this function is also continious as a function R -> C
uhh
i mean that if you take the function r -> e^ir then its continious as a function from R to C
hm, ok. rho inv is supposed to be discontinuous
yes
could you explain why? my intuition was that the neighborhood has to be connected in some way
but clearly it's wrong
it's a good example of a function that is continuous, bijective but not a homeomorphism for that reason
and yes a straightforward way to check that rho^{-1} isn't continuous is by a compactness argument
if you've seen that
i deleted it and went back to check the question again
otherwise you can also play with preimages of open sets around 0 and directly check that rho^{-1} isn't continuous by definition
i misread a while ago on a similar example
didn't wanna do the same mistake again 
so intuitively, is the fact that [0,2pi) is bounded contain some information that the unit circle can't represent?
as in, we can't represent that cutoff on a circle
im also interested how does a compactness argument look like
its a bijection
If X is compact and Y homeomorphic to X, then Y is compact, but [0,2pi) isn't compact whilst S^1 is
hence the image of the inverse is all of [0,2pi)
but compact sets (like S^1) are mapped to compact sets under continous functions
[0,2pi) is not compact
no boundedness doesn't really have to do with it -- after all, both [0,2pi) and S^1 are bounded, and boundedness isn't a topological property
oh, duh
thanks
one reason is because continuous maps f: X -> Y map compact sets to compact sets
to add to this, (0,1) is homeo to R
and another is that the preimage of any open set of the form [0,r) around 0 isn't open in S^1
lmao potato (deleted
)
Another way is to note there are many continuous maps S^1 -> S^1 (like a rotation) which are clearly not continuous after composing with rho^-1
this neighborhood isn't an open set of R (I think), so how could it be for [0,2pi)?
it's not, but its an open set of [0; 2pi)
cuz it an intersection of an open set of R and [0; 2pi)
for example, (-1; r)
how though. it has two disconnected parts. Say we stick with whole numbers.
The way I understand {0, 2} wouldn't be an open set because no intersection of {0, 1, 2} with an open set of whole numbers results in it
both [0; r) and (2pi - r; 2pi) are open in the subspace
{0, 2} wouldnt be an open set in which space
if you intersect [0,2pi) with (-1. r) don't you get [0,r)?
yeah
and what about the rest (2pi-r,2pi)
and then (2pi - r; 2pi) is also open in the subspace
since its also an intersection of an open set of R (namely, itself) and [0; 2pi)
they are both open means their union is open
i think i need to go back to square 1
if you want an explicit example of the set, it would be (-1;r) \cup (2pi - r; 2pi)
another way to look at it is that since topology on R is generated by an order on R, topology on its subspaces is also induced by the induced order
and [0; r) \cup (2pi - r; 2pi) is open in the order topology
I haven't learned about compactness or order topology yet
order topology on R is just the usual topology
yeah i didnt realize the union of open sets is an open set in R. I get why rho is continuous then. As to why rho inv is discontinuous...
is there something unclear?
since you have a bijection on your hands, its enough to find an open set whose image is not open to prove discontinuity of the inverse
in [0; 2pi)? no
so any interval I pick in R or C has to be open for it to be an open set
You need to specify the topological space it's open as a subspace of
An "interval in C" doesn't really make sense
we're assuming the standard topology here i suppose in C and R
yes
Yeah, just the preceding discussion was focused on [0, 2pi)
what's the definition of openness you are working with chic
yes, interval in R has to be an open interval to be an open set
Definition. A set U of real numbers is said to be open if for all x ∈ U there exists δ(x) > 0 such that (x − δ(x), x + δ(x)) ⊂ U.
oh this wasn't directed towards your preceeding messages sorry
i agreed with your points
Ye dww
So it’s the standard topology/Euclidean topology/topology used in analysis
now think about why [0,1] is not open
so to show rho inv is discontinuous, I need to find an open set in [0,2pi) that does not have a corresponding open set in S^1
where could the parts lay where that definition fails
no, I get that, I wrote closed by accident
oh ok
have you not covered compactness yet
no
covered
well, "does not have" is a strange way to phrase it, more like whose image is not open
Nice
could you give me an example? I feel like im truly stuck
you have a continuous bijection, only thing that stopping it from being a homeomorphism is that rho^-1 is not continuous. rho^-1 is not continuous, by definition, means that there is an open set A in [0; 2pi) such that its preimage in S^1 under rho^-1 is not open
since rho is a bijection, it just means that the image of A under rho is not open
yes, right. I can't think of an example A. I think it comes down to the definition of openness on S^1
well, what do you think would mess with the continuity in this case
I would assume at 0
yes, 0 is a bad point
namely, you come close to rho(0) from 2pi side
if you want a hint, ||A includes 0||
wait uhh
i meant to say the opposite :)
ok now im back to square 1
if 0 is included in an open set of S^1, the pre image isnt an open set in [0,2pi) right
so rho is not continuous
it is continuous
the pre-image is an open set
we are arguing the opposite
that some open sets of [0; 2pi) dont have open images
yes right, but what about 0 then?
we have an open set in S^1 that contains 0
but no open set in [0, 2pi) contains 0
that never happens
for example, [0, 2pi) is an open set (in [0, 2pi)) that contains 0
but [0? doesn't that contradict the defintion I sent
whats [0? means
well there is no point less than 0 within the interval
Definition. A set U of real numbers is said to be open if for all x ∈ U there exists δ(x) > 0 such that (x − δ(x), x + δ(x)) ⊂ U.
yes, and because of that [0, r) is not an open set in R
but it is an open set in [0, 2pi)
aha right, back to the subspace idea
look, I think the ideas are written out. I'll try again later. thanks again
do you want to hear the set A?
sure
why can't [0, e^(irpi)) be an open set for S^1
yeah sorry
so does this come down to intersection between induced topology of C and S^1 vs the induced topology of R and [0,2pi)?
yeah ok, thanks.
you worded it wrong, but yeah, those are not homeomorphic spaces
don't waste your time w/ me. I'll go back to definitions. thanks again for all the help!!
Hi I am unexperienced in topology. Is there a theorem stating that the boundary of a bounded connected subset of the plane is a connected curve (or a set of connected curves if this subset has holes). Please @ me if you have any knowledge on this. Also tell me if i am not precise in what I am asking. Thanks in advance!
What do you mean exactly by curve here? Just to check
Because under some interpretations this has simple counterexamples
I think the term is jordan curve? like the boundary of a disk
Then no, e.g. just take a line segment
ok what if this subset is homeomorphic to some n-holed annulus?
Well boundary of an n-holded annulus is then a set of connected curves so the image under the homeomorpuism will remain as such I guess?
It is a bounded connected subset
And its interior is empty; it is its own boundary
thanks I think this is all I need
does an arbitrary topological space (say it has an infinite # of elements) have an infinite number of topologies that could be defined on it
if X is any set and S any subset, {empty set, S, X} is a topology on X
trivial topology?
what i mean is like
the set of all possible topologies on a topological space
if X is infinite, then that ^ should be infinite right
oh wait
use this
just an observation on this construction
no actually nevermind
i changed my mind

would the set of all possible topologies be a set of all subsets of the powerset that satisfy the axioms
i was going to say something about the problem of finding the number of topologies on a set, but there were a couple of details i wasn't sure of, so i didn't want some pedant to come by and correct me later
but you could use that pedant to do the work for you, like ur not sure of the details, that pedant will just provide you the details 
you overestimate my willingness to deal with people
moment of appreciation for tterra for helping me with so much algebra and topology lol 
a counterexample is enough to prove that the union of a family of topologies isn't necessarily a topology right
one counterexample is good enough
union of topologies could or could not be a topology, but to show it's not true in general, one counterexample works
if you wanted to explore more, you could try to figure out when the union of topologies is a topology
so like, go through trying to prove that the union is a topology, and see exactly what fails
,ti
The current time for nitezba is 01:06 AM (EDT) on Mon, 12/09/2022.
perhaps tomorrow lol
sleep is advisable
they have already given an example
health > mathematics
🗿
this isnt topology but i never know who's advice to listen on this
on the one hand deadlines, gpa, expectations, i should stay up and finish my homework
on the other hand, i need to function as a human being, health, etc.
idk ive never been able to say "fuck it" to my grades, except for when it's really bad
if you don't take care of yourself, you're probably going to see worse results in the long run
balance is necessary
this is true
yeah i bit off a bit more than i can chew this semester but i can't really drop anything so here we are
my hope is that once im caught up understanding-wise things will smooth out but we'll see - i'll conclude that intermissiono there dont wanna get off topic much
for b) shouldn't it just be the power set and the trivial topology?
oh well
i guess the smallest containing all collections T_a should be the intersection of all topologies, by part a)
,ti tterra
The current time for TTerra is 01:19 AM (EDT) on Mon, 12/09/2022, the same as nitezba!
that's so nice damn
staying up to finish a bit of work and then hang out with someone when they get back
basic operator theory review for my QM class
it's just functional analysis with physics words
just called an entire branch physics obsolete 

experimints
It is not true in general that $(A \times B)^c = A^c \times B^c$
AoiKunie
It's not even true in $\mathbb{R}^2$ try drawing a picture of a rectangle
AoiKunie
Essentially, the complement of a rectangle is not a rectangle
$(x, y)\in A\times B$ means that $x\in A$ and $y\in B$. Now take negation
Blitz
It is however true that e.g $(A \times Y)^c = A^c \times Y$
AoiKunie
Which is potentially useful for your proof
Y is the whole space
oh 😵💫 that's my bad apologies
||If it wasn't the whole space then you forgot to add A^c x Y^c||
nilpotent matrices are a closed set of Mn(R)?
and R^n projectors form a closed set of L(R^n)?
and how to reason when asked such questions
I would use limits
Like show the limit of a sequence of nilpotent matrices, if they exist, is nilpotent
how to even construct a seq of nilpotent matrices
and how would i deduce this
my logic was simply: consider a nilpotent matrice of order 3. Now consider the function g that takes f and gives f^3, the nilpotent matrices are simply g^-1(0)
so they're closed
Hmm that works too as you only need to take a finite union
but that's for finite orders of nilpotence. Idk what to do with infinite
If A is nilpotent A^n is zero
wdym
you mean infinite union?
No look at this
but id love to see how this would work
to gain a new way of thinking
i suck at using sequences
like for example here. A projector is simply a function that satifies pn(pn)=pn
so can i take a sequence (pn) and simply say it converges towards p and then p(p)=p
so i am done?
Yes
Closed means the set contains all its limit points right
why does the limit has the same property as the seq?
no i know the def of closed i just dont understand how we have the right to say p(p)=p
given only that pn(pn)=pn
So if you have a sequence that converges, and what it converges to is in that set, this shows closed under limit point
Well multiplication is continous
here its composition
So like, limit splits over it
no?
Sure same thing
Like, you have a function sending f,g to fg and this is continous, I’m pretty sure atleast lol
okay
you were saying something here
You can use your idea there
Take the pre image of p under the raising to the power n map
Of 0
But also if you wish, take a sequence of nilpotent, their n power is 0 so obviously their limits n power would be 0
WHY tho
LOL its not obvious at all
Matrix multiplication is continous
It’s the same reason the limit of product of sequences is the product of the limits in like, R
It’s just polynomials entry wise right
And ofcourse polys are continous
i dont know what that means
Well I mean how would you write matrix multiplication as a function?
Yeah
I am not sure this is right actually
I am asking in discussion
Oh lmao it is, L is like bounded operators on Rn right
Or did you mean something else
L means linear functions of R^n
Right and all linear functions are continous right
On finite spaces that is
I’ll let you fill in the rest about why composition is continuous
I cant
my brain is fried
cant think of shit
Yes you can you haven’t even tried lol
everything entering is getting out xd
(If u wish u can also identify these with like matrices and conclude there)
No no it would show that composition on linear functions are continuous
Lol
im an idiot
Okay, I have a question, because my intuition seems to be lacking severely here. We've defined a basis on a set S as a collection $\mathcal{B}$ of subsets such that 1.) For each $x \in S$ there is some $B \in \mathcal{B}$ such that $x \in B$ and 2.) If $x \in B_1 \cap B_2 $, where $B_1, B_2 \in \mathcal{B}$, then there is some $B_3 \in \mathcal{B}$ such that $x \in B_3 \subset B_1 \cap B_2$, and I'm told that we define a topology generated by $\mathcal{B}$ to be the collection of all subsets U of S such that for all $x \in U$, there exists some $B \in \mathcal{B}$ such that $x \in B \subset U$. Now, I have to prove that this collection of sets is a topology, but I'm for some reason really lacking on how to show this
J.Ross
The empty set is open in S vacuously, and S is open in S because if x is in S, then there exists some B in B* such that x is in B by definition
But for finite intersections and arbitrary unions, I think I'm just not thinking clearly enough
if you take an arbitrary union of B, will it be of the form U as given?
It must, I suppose, since any element of the union is in Some B in the basis, and thus satisfies that openness requirement?
yep
And I guess for finite intersections, that's just by the definition of a basis, that if there is an element in the intersection of two basis elements, there is a new basis element contained in the intersection such that it contains the element, and thus satisfies that openness requirement
Wow, sometimes I really just have to sound things out
Let U be the union of open balls such that each open ball intersects U without the ball. Is there a theorem proving that the boundary of U is a set of jordan curves?
please @ me
Both me and the professor are a bit confused on when to used reduced homology with relative homology. In the definition of relative homology, they give this long exact sequence of homology groups. However, when applying it to find the homology groups of a sphere, it randomly swaps to reduced homology. Huh?
How do we know we can use reduced homology groups here?
Interesting, Hatcher did not introduce homology of a triple
I'll take a look, thank you
Joe 1
What would you want f’ to be so that the second space is obviously contractible?
Then prove f and f’ are grocery
Yep, I obviously meant grocery, thanks Apple. htpc*
show that if E a normed vector space has a finite dimension and A is a closed set of E that for all x in E there exists a point y in A such , d(x,y) =d(x,A)
Question i asked a bit back already, but if I’m asked to verify that $f\cong g$ implies $f_\ast\cong g_\ast$ for induced homomorphisms of reduced homology groups, what is here the definition of the induced homomorphism $f_#:\mathbb{Z}\to\mathbb{Z}$ (and similarly for $g_#$)? I see no obvious way to define this other than taking the identity, in which case the question is a trivial consequence of the same result for standard homology groups
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Given a based homotopy between $\gamma * \eta^{-1}$ and the constant loop at $x_0$, how can one construct a homotopy between the based loops $\gamma, \eta$?
adi
is the transpose function continuous on Mn(R)?
What do you think?
I believe you could argue for/against this yourself
There's several arguments that would work here
It just switches few coordinates around. So of course
lol these are pretty much exactly in our problem sheets too
just they are two parts of the same question
Well note the attaching map is just a map S^1 -> S^1 in this case, right. So you just need to show that this is homotopic to the identity map S^1 -> S^1
So really you just need to visualise what the attaching map is
I'm viewing the dunce cap as being what you get from attaching a 2-cell to the circle
which I think is a bit clearer
Though if you do have a map S1 -> [0,1], then it's nullhomotopic anyway and so you're pretty much done
Hm I think it was mostly intuition and the fact it works lol
Wdym
I'm just imagining like you take a circle and then glue a 2-cell in such a way that you have the right identifications on the boundary
I don't fully get your CW complex structure
Oh okay hm
I wasn't thinking of it geometrically like that at all aha
I was just thinking of taking a circle and using an attaching map which gives the right identifications (without drawing any pictures rly)
Yeah, that's how I meant, though I don't think that picture is enough to describe the attaching map
Well the attaching map I had in mind is one that loops round the circle a few times in different directions, to give the necessary identifications
To get you started, I mean that as you go through the first third of the circle in the codomain, its image goes round the entire circle (that identifies two of the points)
Yup, exactly! Which is just the identity map S^1 -> S^1
And so really all you've got is a disk, up to homotopy equivalence
it's weird how we can make separable spaces but we cannot cut manifolds
"haha snippity snip"
but when i try to take a scissor to a manifold
"DEATH BE ON YOU"
realized you can kinda visualize fundamental group of circle by looping headphone cable around a number of times and then plugging it in. And you can't change the number of loops on the cable without unplugging
There’s not much that needs to be said : D^2 x [0,1] def retracts onto D^2 x {0} u S^1 x [0,1] and onto D^2 x {1} u S^1 x [0,1], si you get an induced deformation retract by fixing X and just working within the attached cylinder (it works because you’re fixing the borders of the cylinders which are the only parts that get attached to X)
The question of the level of detail is one you should probably ask your prof/TA
Not really something we can answer as we don't know their rubric
If you're just self studying you can be as formal or nonformal as you like as long as you understand what you're doing
Yeah this is the correct answer actually
Usually the explicit construction of the homotopy is superfluous
Imo
Unless it's very nonobvious
In this problem, what exactly is meant by the two topologies being the same - their underlying sets aren't even the same?
Is it meant that the natural bijection between the two is not an identification?
We can naturally consider tau_1 as a topology on V
If you have the disjoint union of V_1 and V_2 consider function which injects V_1 and V_2 in that disjoint union to V
then after quotiening, this becomes a bijection
they basically mean to say that this bijection is not a homeomorphism
Lol do we just have the same problem sheets
Yeah true
Okay so @uneven hawk I've been writing up my own solution - the key idea is to consider the maps on fundamental groups that the inclusion/retraction would induce and think about the generators of fundmaental groups of the the boundary of the strip vs of the strip
Your intuition about looping once vs twice is the key idea actually, I believe - think about how that corresponds to the maps between fundamental groups!
(and thanks for reminding me to do this lol)
So letting $X$ be the Möbius strip, the inclusion $ \partial X \hookrightarrow X$ induces a homomorphism $ \mathbb Z \xrightarrow{\cong} \pi_1(\partial X) \to \pi_1(X) \xrightarrow{\cong} \mathbb Z$
And then of course as Z is cyclic, it suffices to consider a generator and consider its image
This is from my prof's lecture notes. Is this not false? For if it were true then every set is open as X \times Y is a cover of that set.
gotcha
Ah, well one way to do it is to show that X retracts onto the 'equator', which is homotopy equivalent to S^1
Yes
Yeah, it's like a particularly nice form of homotopy equivalence
I hope what i wrote above is clear enough?
Well an injective homomorphism, sure
But any group map Z -> Z besides the 0 map is injective, so that doesn't tell you much - that's why you should think about what the map is more concretely (e.g. in terms of generators)
Not quite actually. Once you have a description of the map Z -> Z induced by the inclusion, it's obvious no such r_* can exist
Indeed
and when do they admit a right inverse?
Can e.g. multiplication by 2 on Z be undone?
Yeah
Yup
So if we can show that the map Z -> Z induced by inclusion doesn't send a generator to a generator then we're done
(Tbh this is a cool question as it's more delicate than "different fundamental groups hence not homotopy equivalent" lol)
Yes (under the obvious identifications between Z and the relevant fundamental groups)
No, what you just said is the key idea
Formalising your statement finishes up the problem aha
Yeah exactly
So the smallest non-trivial loop is actually a generator of π1( boundary X), which isn't too hard to see if we view the boundary as a copy of S^1
Now you need to show that its image in π1(X) "loops round twice" by which we mean it's double a generator
So what I did was: pick a basepoint of boundary X and use the same one for X. Fix a loop L with [L] generating π1(boundary X) and a loop M with [M] generating π1(X).
Now the image of [L] in π1(X) is again represented by L, and this is homotopic to some composition of M with itself (since [M] is a generator!)
If you pick L and M nicely enough, it's clear that L is homotopic to M * M (relative to endpoints), or the inverse thereof depending on orientations. This then shows the corresponding map Z -> Z is multiplication by 2 (or -2)
Sorry, this is a bit hard to give hints for without just drawing a picture... which would spoil the problem entirely
Yeah exactly
Well I drew pictures to show what I was using as L and M
and to show a homotopy
Don't think so
The solution is actually pretty short once you write it up which is nice
np!
I mean I only wrote it out like an hour ago or so so it's fresh lmao
Anyone have a hint on how to find a basis for $H_1(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{Q})$? I’ve already shown it’s free abelian using a long exact sequence, the fact that $H_0(\mathbb{Q})\cong\bigoplus_{i=1}^\infty\mathbb{Z}$, and that subgroups of free abelian groups are abelian. Finding a basis I’m not so sure about
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
I’m thinking it might be easier to visualize by looking at $\tilde{H_1}(\mathbb{R}\cup C\mathbb{Q})$ but idk
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Is all linear paths between pairs of points in Q too naive?
Now that I think about it
i remember seeing this somewhere
Yeah that should work: take $p,q \in Q$ and $\sigma_{p,q}: I \to \mathbb{R}$ the path (1-simplex) $\sigma(t) = (1-t)p + tq$. Then $\sigma_{p,q}$ is homologous to $\sigma_{p’,q’}$ iff $p=p’, q=q’$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
i think you were supposed to look at the long exact sequence and find it from that
Then these form a basis of representatives for $H_1(\mathbb{R},\mathbb{Q})$?
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
To find the basis?
yeah
The problem is I don’t know how the injection $H_1(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{Q})\longrightarrow \bigoplus_{i=1}^\infty\mathbb{Z}$ really looks so I can’t just take preimages of the generators of the latter right?
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
you know that H_1(R, Q) is isomorphic to the kernel of the map from \bigoplus Z -> H_0(R) = Z
oh god I thought this was group homology for a second
Fair but that’s also a map for which it is unclear how the quotienting process is done if you get what I mean
I’ll think about it though thanks
Group homology looks kinda lit
it is pretty lit
Ah no you’re right since this is induced by inclusion it’s easier to work with
i think it maps individual generators of the Z in the direct sum to 1
which is pretty nice
Yeah each generator gets mapped to the homology class of a point in R
So yeah I just have to look at the pairwise differences of the generators
That’s just a generating family though you should get a basis out of it by fixing some basepoint or something
i can believe in that
Thanks for the help 🙏
lol i remember not getting this exercise in my algtop course
It's funny when there's like one major textbook for a topic and so the same problems crop up
Which textbook is it? (The one the exercises you and Joe are doing are from)
Oh I mean the one narwhal was doing was Hatcher as you may know, but Joe and I were just doing uni psets which happened to share problems
Ohh okay I see, they look interesting
Sure, tho now I'm scared I'll have made a mistake xd
Ok i wrote it out more properly and it is longer than I expected lol
Potato at least use camscanner
I hope it's readable lmao, hard to know what the best way to draw paths is
Ok mb
bruh says camscanner is 45 a year
Also if you sign up with ur student email you should get free premium
It's mostly the angle and the light it's a bit hard to read
Just not sure how to give lots of detail without it being a couple of pages lol
Ah okay yes
cool :)
Yeah I think it's weird to write stuff like this properly because I want to give lots of details (e.g. more details on the paths and all) but it'd be a pain right
Also wonder if it can be compressed into a page or less...
In a Hausdorff space, every finite point set is closed. So its complement is open. Is this enough to show an order topology is Hausdorff?
No, that only shows it's T1
Being Hausdorff is T2 which is a stronger axiom
Or are you asking, if order topology is T1, is it T2
I see. I got it twisted
The question is: if it's an order topology, Show it's Hausdorff
And I have the theorem every finite point set in Hausdorff is closed
You just need to take two points a < b and consider two cases
Ok
- there is c with a < c < b
- there is no such c
👍
So I need to find disjoint neighborhoods around a and b. So in the first case is it sufficient to say c is in the closure of an open set containing a, and c is in the closure of an open set containing b? Basically I'm using {c} as a boundary to define disjoint open sets
i dont know if this is the right channel but does anyone know if this is a knot?
sorry for bad drawing
is it feasible for me to do that if idk shit about topology or knot theory
thank you!!
im preeetty sure its a prime knot according to this https://mathworld.wolfram.com/SatelliteKnot.html
Let K_1 be a knot inside a torus, and knot the torus in the shape of a second knot (called the companion knot) K_2, with certain additional mild restrictions to avoid trivial cases. Then the new knot resulting from K_1 is called the satellite knot K_3. All satellite knots are prime (Hoste et al. 1998). The illustration above illustrates a satell...
Hey Im learning about the Zariski topology in the context of affine sets, and I'm a bit confused on its definition and how it relates to an example. The example is taking an affine space to be the set of all 2x2 matrices. The claim is that the set of invertible matrices is open, proven by showing its complement, the set of non-invertible matrices is closed. What I dont understand is how one proves this using the definition of the zariski topology.
Closed sets are subvarieties according to the zariski definition, so is it enough to say that the set of non-invertible matrices is closed, because it is a subset of matrices with determinant greater than or equal to 0?
The set of non-invertible matrices is the set of matrices with determinant 0
The order topology is generated by open rays. If such c exists then we have two rays {x < c} and {c < x}, they are disjoint, a belongs to one, b to the other.
If such c doesn't exist then we can simply consider {x < b} and {a < x} instead.
@sturdy notch Yes, I know. Hence it being a subset of the set of matrices of determinant greater than or equal to 0. Perhaps I should have been more clear in my phrasing
Right, but why are you looking at the set of matrices with positive determinant, a priori your field does not have an order?
The determinant is a polynomial map from k^nxn to k for some fixed field k, so that might help
Yes, it's the right channel, knot theory is very much topology.
I'm just trying to figure out the definition of a Zariski topology. Did you read my post? Im not sure if it being a subset is enough to say that it is closed under the zariski topology or not