#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 4 of 1
$\pi_i:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}$ given by $\pi_i(x_1, ..., x_n) = x_i$
Blitz
So we're modeling each variable as a projection right?
So you're saying $\pi_i(\mathbb R^n) = \mathbb R$? Scandalous
potato
[jk]
This is what it is
And a polynomial is obtained from those and constant functions using multiplication and addition
On another note i asked a question in help and a helper gave me this answer. I am not convinced. can someone weigh in and tell me if this argument is flawed or not
the question is f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) and f continuous at 0 show that its continuous everywhere
This should probably be in #real-complex-analysis
oh
Okay got this
thanks
Should the homology groups of the klein bottle be anything recognizable when the ring is not Z?
Simplicial homology btw
There is an uncountably infinite amount of possible topologies one could define on R, right?
yes
something something even P(P(R)) topologies
Check out the universal coefficient theorem. It boils down to whether 2 = 0 in the coefficient group. So for Z2, the groups are Z2, Z2 x Z2, Z2, but for, say, Zp (with p odd), they are Zp, Zp, 0 iirc.
We haven't gotten to any theorems yet, so I'm just trying to prove what it is from definitions alone
For a generic commutative ring R
I’m beginning Singular Homology in Hatcher and he says this, but doesn’t clearly explain what a “singularity” means
Is this a region of the map that isn’t injective? Or something else
I just want to figure out what intuition he’s getting at before I move on
yeah p much
It is as he says: its image may not look like a simplex, insomuch as it is squished beyond recognition
(he doesn't say the second part, but this is what the first part means)
This is also in contrast with simplicial homology, where we had characteristic maps sigma_alpha which were actually embeddings (in the delta complex structure). Now we’re looking at arbitrary continuous maps
In Hatcher, he says that a CW pair (X, A) is a cofibration and for this he shows Dⁿ×I (def) retracts to Dⁿ×{0} ∪ ∂Dⁿ ×I. And uses it to show that Xⁿ ×I retracts to Xⁿ×{0} ∪ (X^{n-1}UAⁿ) ×I. I don't understand where this is coming from
Is it like we are shrinking every n-cell that are in Xⁿ but not in Aⁿ?
yes
I think one way to get intuition for the proof is that
if (X,A) is a pair and you have some space Z, and a homotopy h : Ax I -> Z and an extension of h at time t=0 to a map f : X ->Z
then using quotient topologies you can glue h and f together to give a map X x 0 \cup A x I -> Z
and it's not hard to see that the problem of extending the homotopy to X is equivalent to extending the map h \cup f : (X x 0 \cup A x I) -> Z to a map X x I -> Z along the inclusion (X x 0 \cup A x I) -> X x I
if you want to do this for all Z it suffices to give a retraction of the map (X x 0 \cup A x I) -> X x I
yes, that has been discussed in the previous section
Btw any resources I can read cofibration and fibration theorems from?
he said there exists a unique map from a set T to a cartesian product (A*B) such that these 2 triangles commute. i have no idea what triangles hes refering 2, ig its the projections since he dre them in a a triangular form but i dont know exactly what he means by they commute
anyone can recognize the property hes talking about and help me out
then he wrote this is what he meant
with u defined as u= {ta(x),tb(x)} such that ta and tb are 2 maps from T to A and B respectively
These are the two "triangles" in the diagram
A commutative diagram is one in which if you choose two points and any two paths between those points, the composition of the functions in those two paths are equal
So he is saying exactly this.
Dw
thanks a lot
No problem
There's no way you'd know the terminology without learning it so don't sweat it
yepp. The more i know💫
when you cover P^n with say U_i in k^(n+1), k a field
U_i is all stuff in k^(n+1) with x_i \neq 0
and you get a map (x_0,... , x_n) to (x_0/x_i, ... , x_n/x_i)
why is this bijective
it is onto
but if I have a homog coordinate in P^n I can multiply it by anything nonzero and let that factor be x_i
nvm it is mapping from U_i in P^n to k^n
can indeed take any nonzero x_i
doesn't matter in P^n
Limit points and sequence limits have the same definition?
A limit point is a sequence limit, and a sequence limit is a limit point?
Can i take the isolated point to be the limit of a constant sequence?
are you talking about limit points of a sequence
limit point of a sequence is a limit of some subsequence and conversely
yo
I ma trying to remember
ig not
Yeah i cant see exactly how i would go about doing this
Ah yes makes sense
connectedness is very common too
Okay yeah i can see how. Theres a lot of talking about holes and shapes in algtop
Right
i have videos on this topic but they arent part of my required studies
so i skipped them
Okay so if a homeomorphism exists ebtween the two no?
Is it a very long argument the relation between morphisms and continuous functions?
or are we almost there?
okay
they are the same thing in this context lol
in what context
when are they different
A morphism X -> Y in the category of topological spaces is precisely a continuous function X -> Y
right
i mean homo
this is no no homo territory
right
yeah
dying to know
gooooood
wtf is this sorcery
Well homomorphisms also come into the picture with fundamental groups - a map X -> Y of spaces induces a homomorphism between fundamental groups
Ohhhh
Yeah sure
this isnt necessary
i def should learn this on my own
just wanted this
Yeah lol xd in uni we're still defining closure
in a normed vector space
but i am moving at a faster pace
I think i am done with general topology concepts
but havent touched any of the algtop since it isnt required
wdym
i am reading wikipedia and watching videos and reading books
its fine
i undestand. quality vs quantity
yeah
thanks a lot for the explanation i rly needed it
mainly rn i am struggling with the 10 definitions of limit points lol
and closure
ik theyre all equivalent but fuck they are many
theres definitions involving every concept, one definition for distance, 2 for sequences, one for closed sets intersection, one for the interior and the frontier, one for balls
whats the difference between compact and complete spaces?
As ive seen on wikipedia, both seem to be defined as spaces that have no holes or missing endpoints
First off complete spaces make only sense if you have something to complete, like a metric or a norm
whereas compact is a notion that makes sense for arbitrary topological spaces
If you have a compact metric space, then it is also complete, but not every complete metric space is compact, like e.g. the real numbers with the euclidean distance
For cauchy sequences to exist you mean
well you need some notion of "distance" for the definition to make sense yes
in a general space you only get to know which subsets are open
real numbers with euclidean distance are complete or compact iif its a closed interval no?
real line is complete (but not compact) and a subset is compact iff its is closed and bounded, by the Heine Borel theorem
it doesnt have to be connected, so e.g. [0,1] u [2,3] is also a compact subset of the reals
and is hence complete
so ig if its bounded on a complete sspace then its compact?
completeness just makes sure there is no holes
or a vector space
without a norm?
yes
well a metric space is compact iff it is complete and totally bounded, which is a bit different from just bounded
Complete vector space
you can find lots of equivalent statements on wikipedia or the like
We say it's complete if any Cauchy net in it converges
a Cauchy net on a topological vector space is a net x_a such that for any neighbourhood of zero U, x_a - x_b is in U for big enough a, b
i. e. it's a Cauchy net using the standard uniform structure on a topological vector space
No, for example (0,1) in R is bounded but not compact. In general even closed and bounded isn't enough
But when we think about Cauchy or complete, we usually want some kind of metric.
This can be defined more generally for so called uniform spaces (it just happens that topological vector spaces have a natural structure of a uniform space)
niiice
0,1 is not complete tho
I mean the set itself is complete
ill fix my question then a sset that is bounded and complete is compact
Still no
counter example?
yes, it needs to be totally bounded
For any metric, you can create a metric that is topologically equivalent but bounded, so take eg [0,1]^infty, this has a standard metric d that makes it complete, then you can take the metric d_b(x,y)= max{d(x,y),1}
Then this space is complete and bounded but not compact
The ball radius 2 about any element is Z (hence it is bounded) and any Cauchy sequence is eventually constant (i.e. it's complete), but it's obviously not compact
For what it's worth, totally bounded means that for any epsilon, you can cover the space by finitely many epsilon balls
yeah i just looked it up on wiki
or its called precompact
Which is certainly stronger since for example you can't cover Z by finitely many balls of radius 1/2
Yep. Z is pretty standard because for (metric spaces I think), being non-compact is equivalent to having Z as a closed subspace
which is a very cool property
you can have something similiar for the Baire space
I suppose non-compact is equivalent to not being limit point compact for metric spaces and it follows from that right? Roughly
that;s called sequentially compact, and yes, it should follow from that
Well limit point compact is different to sequentially compact in general
By having Z do you mean a countable discrete subspace
I don't know that property then
Every infinite subset has a limit point
yes, a closed subspace homeomorphic to Z
Implied by compactness for any space and equivalent to compactness and sequential compactness in metric spaces
if memory serves
I see. I've learned something today
Noice
Yeah in my view a nice way to prove that compact => sequentially compact for metric spaces is through limit point compactness
It's in Munkres, makes sense why I didn't know about it
Ah okay
But yeah this style would be to say take a sequence (s_n), if it's only got finitely many distinct terms then extract a constant subsequence, otherwise the set of elements has a limit point, then constant subsequence converging to that
Actually that argument will work for any first countable space I suppose
Nice
does bounded make sense without a metric?
I don't think so
they're 2 different concepts ig
its only defined in terms of open subsets so i dont see why not
tho bounded is defined in terms of distance
no, because the subsets need to be small enough
okay so its balls not open sets
it makes sense for uniform spaces though
well, spaces of small enough diameter
ok
either way, it uses the metric in crucial way
but can be generalized to uniform spaces, which are sort of inbetween metric and topological spaces
like, how topological spaces tell us about all the continuity properties, uniform spaces tell us about all the uniform continuity properties
but people don't really study them anyway so they're not that interesting ¯_(ツ)_/¯
okay
For me they're kind of unintuitive, hard to imagine.
tho whats the difference between compact and precompact
so compact and totally bounded
precompact means the closure is compact
GOOOOD so many fucking concepts
precompact is a property of a subspace, compact is a property of a space
so precompact is not defined for a space?
i dont see how subspaces and spaces are different
nope
Ohhh
subspace means it's a subset of some space
space is just a space
that's the difference
in other words, the property of being precompact is relative to what space are we in
the property of being compact is a property of a subset taken as a topological space itself
no matter what space it's contained in
this can be seen because in the definition of precompact we use closure which means we need to be in some topological space in the first place
equivalently, a subspace is precompact if any net in it has a convergent subnet
the limit here doesn't have to belong to the subspace
I still dont intuitively understand compactness
what is it really
Its excruciating to memorize this
i need to understand so i can tell on my own what is what
a space is compact iff any net has a convergent subnet
a generalized sequence
how is this supposed to be intuitive
i mean how would it let me take a look at something and know if its compact or not
it wouldn't
or whats the properties of compactness
Then its not helpful really just one more thing to memorize
it's helpful sometimes
Okay
ill see on youtube if i can find somethings that explain it in a memorizable way
you check a property of a space on many different ways and no way is better than the other
sure, they lie on youtube but feel free to
probably the easiest definition of compactness to memorize, and the easier to check in most contexts, is the one with covers
a space is compact iff any open cover has a finite subcover
finite subcover that is open right?
to check a space is compact is even easier once you know Alexandroff subbase theorem
a subcover of an open cover is open itself
so how is [0,1] compact in this definition?
we don't need to signify that it's open
Alexander, sorry
A standard proof is to take an open cover U of [0,1] and let s be the supremum of all t such that [0,t] is contained in a finite union of elements of U
Which may sound slightly complicated but it has to be since we need completeness of the interval
open cover of [0,1] contained in [0,1] right?
0, 1?
sry
it doesn't matter if you consider open covers of [0, 1] as a subspace of R, or open covers of [0, 1] as consisting of open sets in R
so is ]-1,2[ an open cover?
Sure, under the right definition
The set containing that is an open cover in one definition ye
because all open covers of [0, 1] can be translated into open covers of a subspace [0, 1] in R
and conversely
so can i just say that U containing ]-1,2[ covers it then its compact?
huh?
Or is it that any subset of [0,1] needs to be covered also
(-1, 2) won't be in the cover in general
why?
because there are covers which don't contain it
So open covers are the smallest covers than contain [0,1]
cohomology is a ring with the cup product
does reduced cohomology still have a ring structure?
if so what is the unit
@ebon stream
hello i am skin, anyone know how to use fundamental groups in knot theory?
knots are images of S^1
so if you have a shape
and you calculate its fundamental group
it you get Z
then its a knot
so knot is continuous right?
This seems suspicious
What do you mean "continuous"?
A knot is an embedding of S^1 into R^3
Anyone here once told me Willard was a bad book or at least had some wrong theorems/definitions. Does anyone else find this too?
I say this because I feel he skipped on proving something very interesting maybe because he tripped on his words; or that I am not seeing that it applies to the specific case too.
My problem is that in chapter 2 section 4 (Neighborhoods) he never actually talks about the neighborhood system of a single point in a topological space X being a topology for the whole set X. He doesn't even leave it as an exercise.
He instead points that if you get a collection N_x of subsets of X for each x in X, which fulfill the properties of neighborhood 1 to 4, then if you define open sets as in 5 you get a topology in which N_x is a neighborhood system for each x... That is just saying that a collection of neighborhood systems (one for each x in X) defines its own Topology in X; but not saying that a single neighborhood system can define its own (maybe) smaller topology for X.
Is it that this is not true in general or that he just didn't want to prove it? I'm actually a bit angry because I feel Willard actually thought he proved what I said with different words, but I'm thinking maybe this book just doesn't want to prove the things I expect
Jesus Christ I hope to be wrong on this one because this school has smugly been using this book as an intro to topology for a while thinking Topology is just hard and students are bad when the book might actually be the problem
I never said it's a bad book. Students most likely are bad/not dedicated enough though, in my experience a lot of them are
classic victim-blaming
This isn't a result used in standard cirriculum anyway
I wanted to use what I said for an example of a singleton in which its closure is an infinite set.
So since I want a Topology in which the only closed set which contains this singleton, is the whole space X, then using the neighborhood system at the point p of some infinite space would do if it formed a Topology in its own right. Because all open sets are empty or contain this point, it means the only closed sets are X or don't have p (*since they are the complements of open sets which contain p or of the empty set), so the closure of the singleton {p} would be the whole space X
for that specific problem you could just define the topology as any set containing p + the empty set
non-trivial, that's literally the trivial topology
huh
it has nontrivial open sets
and unless i am incredibly bad at topology im pretty sure it isnt the discrete topology either
that is definitely not the trivial topology lol
maybe you're right then
for your original question i guess its just because it isnt really that useful
I've never seen anyone define that or feel the need to
in regards to your original question
that makes sense maybe in topological groups where the topology can often be defined by a nbhd system of the identity
like i think every topological space can be defined by its neighborhood system at each point but thats definitely not true if you only take one
define what
a topology using the nbhd system of a single point
But even if that's not by definition that's still quite trivial, did you mean from an infinite set X, the empty set, a set containing the point, and X? that has barely any open or closed sets, X, empty set, that set is open, its complement is closed. I thought you meant something else
i meant empty set, X, and any set containing p
also triviality isnt really a subjective thing
I find it the exception that it's used to define something, I usually see it when the author wants to skip a proof he thinks it's easy. So it's subjective in the sense I'm using it. I'm using the word in two senses because the word is not a single thing
like if they say "nontrivial topology" they specifically mean any topology that isnt the trivial topology (and maybe the discrete topology)
Well true that you gave me a non-trivial topology but that's a very easy thing to do, so that in the non-topological sense to me that's a trivial answer. Not the topology you're giving. If I have the trivial topology, I just add a proper subset which contains the singleton then it's not technically the trivial topology
authors note stuff they think is important or useful, and i'd generally trust their judgement over yours, especially when it comes to introductory books
this is not to berate you to be clear, this is just something that evidently comes from experience
At the same section the book gives us the definition of the Sorgenfrey line, and since asking for a singleton which is dense in an infinite space was asked I find it natural to try and give an infinite topology rather than a finite topology
I said I think the same at the beginning if you read what I said. If the book means what it means then he's just not proving or talking about the things I expected
I was trying to show that the category consisting of one object X and one morphism, the identity on X is equivalent to the category with 2 objects, Y and Z, and 2 morphisms, f and g st fog=idY and gof=idZ. I defined 2 functors, one from cat(1) to cat(2) and the other viceversa, took the composition, and showed that the composition of the 2 functors were naturally isomorphic to the identity functor on the category. Is this the right idea for equivalent categories?
#category-theory but i think thats right if you took both possible compositions of the two functors
so whats the easiest way to think about quotiened spaces?
Is it collapsing some space around certain points?
sometimes you can think of it as "gluing" certain subsets together
like [0,1]/0~1 is a circle because you glue 0 and 1 together
Okay
Define an equivalence relation on [0,1] so there is a simple bijection b/w the set of equivalence classes and the unit circle.
Can anyone give me any hints?
find a piece of string in your house and make a circle out of it
now turn that into a topology proof
Am I correct in thinking that only 0 and 1 will be equivalent while all other numbers will just be equivalent to themselves?
Like [0] = [1] = {0,1}, while [a] = {a} for all a != 0,1
you are correct
i think you described the relation just fine there
Dont I have to describe it mathematically?
what's not mathematical about what you just wrote?
Like I was wondering it should be of the form..
aRb iff (some expression/equation involving a,b)
it doesn't HAVE to be
Okay
you essentially wrote down a partition of [0, 1] here, which is equivalent to specifying an equivalence relation on it
you also described it just fine in words here
Ah okay thanks!
Yes. Collapsing spaces but with respect to an equivalence relation. And they can be pretty pathological.
Or you can think like. You already can consider neighbourhoods of subsets of your topological space
So it all happens in it already, sorta
The sets of relevance being equivalence classes.
So quotiening is like forgetting all the information about the points and making equivalence classes those points, based on how they behave with each other as before
That's why separation properties are usually bad to preserve with quotients
Hi for some reason Im stuck with one step in the problem. I need to show that if $f,g : X \to R$ cts where X compact and $I_x$ is a closed line segment in $R^3$ with endpoints $(cosf(x), sinf(x),0)$ and $(0,0,g(x))$ then $Z= \bigcup I_x$ is compact. I'm not really sure how to properly show it's closed. (bounded follows from g being cts) I could probably use the argument 'complement is open' by handwaving, but maybe there is some argument using general results?
Catematician
Define G:X x [0, 1] to Z by G(x, t) = t(cos(f(x)), sin(f(x)), 0)+(1-t)(0, 0, g(x))
G is continuous, onto, and X x [0, 1] is compact
@gritty widget
Oh that's pretty cool
Thanks
can someone please help me understand the concept of a (B, f) structure/tangental structure on a manifold as in https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/tangential+structure ? I really don't understand where this definition comes from
Like is it the case that BSO(n) structures on a manifold correspond to orientations on the tangent bundle? Because I can't see this at all
Assume that we have a fiber bundle $S^1\to E\to B$, where $E$ is simply connected. Does it follow that $B$ is also simply connected?
gustavn64
i think so
by the long exact sequence of htpy groups induced by the fiber bundle
you get $0\to \pi_1(B,x_0) \to 0$
Timo
So the Kernel of the second map is all of $\pi_1(B,x_0)$ which is also the image of the map that sends everything to 0
Timo
the zero on the left comes from the fact that E is simply connected and the one on the right comes from the fact that S^1 is path connected, hence pi_0(S^1) vanishes
If the closure of A is contained in the closure of B, then A is contained in B
I think this is true, but I can't prove it
Can someone verify this?
Converse true tho
Yes, that's right. Here's a sketch... The tangent bundle of an n-dimensional smooth manifold is classified by a map $M \to BGL(n)$ which is basically the same as saying that, if we choose a nice open cover ${U_\alpha}$ of $M$, and trivializations (frame fields) of $TM$ over each open set in the cover, then on intersections we get maps $U_\alpha \cap U_\beta \to GL(n)$, called transition functions (giving the change of basis from one frame field to the other).
daveamayombo
We can always choose a metric on $TM$, and choose our trivializations to be orthonormal... in which case the transition functions land in the orthogonal group $O(n)$ instead of $GL(n)$. That data (those transition functions) then correspond to a map $M \to BO(n)$ that lifts the map to $M \to BGL(n)$ mentioned above.
daveamayombo
If $TM$ admits an orientation, we can choose all the trivializations to be oriented as well as orthonormal. The transition functions then naturally land in $SO(n)$, and correspondingly we get a lift $M \to BSO(n)$. (Conversely, if such a lift exists we can choose trivializations for which the transition functions land in $SO(n)$, which implies $TM$ is orientable).
daveamayombo
okay I see, but I don't really understand how those transition functions correspond to a map M --> BO(n). Could you elaborate on this?
nvm lol. Thank you so much! This makes a lot more sense now 
Someone have some intuition for what this prism operator is computing?
It's splitting Delta^n x I into a simplicial complex
I get that decomposition at the top
But I’m not sure what exactly the prism is
It’s like going through these simplices in the simplicial complex in alternating directions but I’m not sure what the intuition for considering that is
You should think of it as making the faces that touch each other cancel out
Did you print it out yourself?
why not I also have a physical copy
Moneys
is it expensive you you live?
Hatcher is free. Printing is not
it's <10$ here
This actually isn’t physical Hatcher but a pdf on my tablet
However I also have a physical copy that I got last Christmas and occasionally touch
e-paper is so useful
I someday wish to have an e-paper tablet so my eyes don't hurt as much 🥲
Cause you can actually write on the book 
Understandable
Dw I was joking
Though on amazon for example it's like not cheap
Is there an established term for a metric space where any two points are connected by a rectifiable curve?
what's the easiest way to see that the inclusion is an isomorphism on homology? I guess it suffices to show that H_n( X+,X) = 0 for all n using the LES on homology
You can use CW homology. Then the inclusion induces an isomorphism of chain complexes, not just homology, in degree n >= 2
because it sends cells to cells
Hm I don't see how it induces an isomorphism of chain complexes (with CW homology) since isn't C_3(X)= H_3(X^3, X^2) free with basis the 3-cells of X, and since X^+ has (potentially at least lol) more 3-cells than X we can get non-isomorphic groups C_3(X), C_3(X+)?
I think the long exact sequence of the triple does it though, though I may be wrong
Im trying to determine how perumutation of vertices in a simplex affects orientation
if I force v_0 to be fixed (since standard orientation is [v_1-v_0, ... , v_n-v_0]) I believe I have proven that the sign of the orientation being positive implies orientation preserving, the other is orientation reversing
just using a permutation matrix and taking its determinant
I thought to precompose with another permutation but I'm not sure how to determine orientation when v_0 <-> v_i
I thought maybe rewrite as such
\begin{align*}
\tau: (v_1 - v_0, \ldots, v_n-v_0) &\mapsto (v_1-v_i, \ldots, v_0-v_i , \ldots, v_n-v_i) \
&= ((v_1 + v_0-v_i )-v_0, \ldots, (v_0+v_0-v_i)-v_0, \ldots, (v_n + v_0-v_i )-v_0
\end{align*}
Migillope
But I'm not sure where this gets me
Have you looked for patterns in low dimensions? See how freely permutting the vertices affects orientation in dimensions 1, 2 and 3?
Also, you're free to put the vertices wherever you want, so long as they're in general position, right? So you could arrange xi = -x0 (and x0 non-zero), with all the other vertices in the plane orthogonal to x0. Then swapping x0 and xi is just a reflection across that plane... so the effect on orientation is easy in that case.
we require that the sum of the v_0 is leq 1 and each one positive
for the standard n simplex
So first I would show that that transformation is orientation preserving
multiplying every vector by some scalar or adding some vector to all of them ought to be orientation preserving, but I'm not sure about that sort of rearrangement
morally yes, I'm not sure it would be so easy to prove?
I guess now that I am examining specific cases directly I'm not so sure I see how [v_1-v_0, v_2-v_0] induces the normal orientation on the two simplex
Y'know I think it's easier even than I said above. For the std 2-simplex, for example, you have three vertices v0, v1, v2. Normally those are taken as the three std basis vectors in R^3, right? The orientation of the simplex is such that (v1-v0, v2-v0, v0+v1+v2) forms a positively oriented basis for R3. So just show that the sign of permutation of those basis vectors affects orientation of R3 and correspondingly the simplex.
it seems as though this would suggest the orientation is v_0 -> v_1 and v_0 -> v_2
Right. That's an oriented basis in the plane containing the simplex, for example.
So how is that permutation orientation preserving, my picture must be wrong somehow
should I not also be swapping vertices in the picture
yeah that would always preserve orientation then
and im not actually moving the vertices im just reordering okay
so actual picture should be
huh, so you're suggesting going up a dimension and checking there
Yeah, that's at least one option -- if you know how orientations of subspaces and their orthogonal complements relate to orientations of the ambient space. Another way to think: the simplex is defined to have the orientation associated to the ordered basis (v1-v0, ..., vn-v0) and you want to know how that orientation compares to the one given by (v0-vi, ... vn-vi). Both of those are bases... so if you can find the matrix that sends the first basis to the second, the sign of its determinant will tell you whether they give the same orientation or not.
This second option was my strategy the first time
but I couldnt easily see what the matrix would be in the case that v_0 is movd
I guess I can actually do the change of basis formula and write it all out
but that seemed hard(er than necessary)
Maybe I will try your method to avoid having to do that
Yeah, going up a dimension seems easier.
very clever, thanks for this hint!
👍
how are g and h countable here
(h) is a countable union of sets like (g), so you can just worry about (g)
for (g), it might be helpful to use when the function becomes constant to rewrite the set
like "union over n in Z_+ of sets of functions which are 1 at and after n"
basically just push "countable union of countables is countable" and "finite product of countables is countable" as far as you can
also, not a topology problem (despite you finding it in a topology book)
There's another way to do (g) (which was given by someone here)
you can biject sequences of Z+ to Z≥0 by subtracting 1 from each term. Then you can send that sequence (a_n) to ∑ (2^n)^(a_n) which gives you an injection to Z≥0.
nvm too complicated, basically those seq correspond to finite subsets of Z≥0 and you need some binary rep to produce a unique number from it.
So in Hatcher he gives a long exact sequence of homology groups for good pairs $(X,A)$ ($A$ is a deformation retract of some neighborhood in $X$) that involves the homology group $H_n(X/A)$. To prove this he instead works with relative homology groups but never comes back to prove that this is a specific case of that. I figured all you’d need to prove is that $C_n(X,A)$ is iso to $C_n(X/A)$. My first naive idea was to send any simplex $\sigma:\Delta^n\to X$ in $C_n(X)$ to the simplex $\sigma\circ q$ with $q:X\to X/A$ the quotient map, but the kernel of this morphism isn’t quite $C_n(A)$ but the subgroup of it consisting of sums with net 0 coefficients
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
And of course none of my attempt was using deformation retracts
So I’m thinking I need to send simplices in A to 0 and somehow take a certain set of simplices in the inflated neighborhood to send to the constant simplex sending Delta^n to the point A collapses to
(Meant to say q o sigma)
I see it’s not that simple: the proof I require is actually given a few pages later
Yeah I thought that one was slightly odd in how the proof and statement were so far apart
It’s normal to be stumped by the proof of excision on a first reading right? It’s mad
It is probably like in the top 3 longest proofs in the book oof
Okay oof good to know
Hatcher says $H_n(X\cup CA,CA)\cong H_n(X\cup CA \setminus{p}, CA \setminus {p})$ by excision, for $A$ a subspace of $X$, but $p$ is not in the interior of $A$ (it’s the tip of the cone)
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
But the tip of the cone \emph{is} in the interior of $CA$ as a subspace of $X \cup CA$, which is what's needed for excision.
daveamayombo
Gaahhh I don’t know what I was thinking thanks
I guess I still have the naive idea of thinking about my topological spaces as embedded in something bigger
No worries! 🙂
Would there be any use in constructing homology groups by using formal sums in Z/nZ instead of Z (so not using the free abelian group as a staring point but adding in some cyclic relations)
For that matter you could probably use any group G 🤔 by just imposing more relations
I suppose you’d lose a lot of the geometric interpretation though…
You gain quite a lot, actually. This is called homology with coefficients -- Hatcher covers it at some point.
when you do it with a field, the dimension of the homology are the betti numbers
so in some sense you could say that initially homology was computed with coefficients in fields
What are Betti numbers again?
well you could use that as the definition
alternatively, the rank of homology as Z-module
b_n(X) = rk H_n(X; Z)
b_n(X) = dim_C H_n(X; C)
where C are complex numbers
What do we mean by dimension here then
as vector space over C
so you can basically do the whole thing with homology and chain complexes and so on over R-modules
You don't get the same Betti numbers over different fields tho.
for many things you want your ring to be a PID though
I mean Z is already a PID so C doesn’t tell us more at least for the numbers no?
Ah okay
for example you get that over fields homology and cohomology coincide
for finite dimensional things
betti numbers generally have lots of nice properties
Still don’t know cohomology so can’t appreciate that but neat
homotopy invariance, künneth formulas, poincare duality, relation to euler characteristic, etc
Is it nice also for finite fields or only infinite?
And does the characteristic matter
Over fields, modules have very simple forms. Over PIDs it's still easy to classify and deal with modules.
Fair enough
Yeah, I think thats where daveamayombo's remark form above comes in
Yup. Field characteristic is what matters for Betti numbers, iirc.
mhm makes sense
I see
if you wanna get an even cooler invariant you can look at the universal cover and incorporate the action of the fundamental group
How so
this leads to L^2-betti numbers
pretty cool stuff
those have the nice properties of betti numbers and even more, like multiplicativity under finite coverings (much like euler char)
but also you have to get functional analysis involved
at least a bit
The alternating sum of Betti numbers is the Euler characteristic, which is the same as the alternating sum of the counts of simplices in a finite complex.
L^2 betti numbers are defined for spaces with group actions
and they're a bit more complicated to define
Ah okay
the most basic situation is you have a connected finite cw complex X
then you look at the universal cover
And Betti numbers participate in some nice inequalities with the numbers of critical points of Morse functions (smooth functions that are reasonably nice).
and that has an action by the fundamental group
Right
the problem is that usually the universal cover can be huge even if you base space is small, like S^1 only has one 0 cell and one 1 cell, but its universal cover R already isnt a finite cw complex anymore
so normal betti numbers arent really useful anymore there, as they give you infinity
so the idea is to incorporate this group action we have
to reduce the size again in some sense
Normal Betti numbers of what space
Isn’t that 0?
well yeah
It’s contractible so homology groups are trivial
but the method of how you go about computing it is what i mean
Ah right okay
R was just an example to demonstrate that the universal cover may be "huge" in some sense
Yeah
but you can view it as a Z-cw complex, which has one equivariant 0-cell, and one equivariant 1-cell
and this gives you a tractable chain complex again
I’m not sure I know what a Z-CW complex is
if you look at the universal covering, the preimage of the 0-cell is Z right
the action of the fundamental group pi_1(S^1) = Z on this is free and transitive
so we can interpret as one equivaraitn 0-cell
yeah basically
Alright
and in this situation of finite connected cw complexes and their universal coverings, this is the method you use to get tractable chain complex for the universal cover again
So how are you getting your chain complex?
Oh I haven’t done cellular homology yet
well the n-th chain module is free on the number of n-cells
and the boundary maps are a pain in the ass to compute
lmao
Oof
but yeah so after all of this you bring your nice chain complex into the world of modules over the so-calles von Neumann algebra over your fundamental group
in that world you have a very nice dimension function coming from a nice trace
did someone say von nuemann algebras
and this you use to compute your l^2 betti nunbers
I see, well I mean I don’t cause half of the stuff I haven’t heard of but it sounds pretty neat
anyway this is all a bit far out if you havent seen cellular homology yet lul
its honestly also not really something you come across randomly in most algebraic topology books
its more geometric topology
Can you name an example of a space where the L^2 Betti numbers differ from the usual ones? Is S^1 already an example?
What’s the difference? (Geometric vs algebraic)
yeah for example all the L^2-betti numbers of spaces that cover themselves vanish
by multiplicativity under finite coverings
I.e. simply connected, yeah?
btw phil you got a reference on the topic of, is this L^2 homology? I am intruiged by the connection to W* algebras.
for any finite sequence of rational numbers and natural numbers, you can find a finitedimensional cw complex that has l2 betti numbers the rational sequence and normal betti numbers the natural sequence
There is Kammeyer's book (a bit shorter and newer) and Lück's book (a bit older but basically a tome, the main reference)
also Lück gave a nice introductory talk on it here https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gdj5Vyh6xBc
Principal Talk #1 at the 32nd Annual Geometric Topology Workshop, June 25, 2015, at TCU
Abstract: We give an introduction to L^2-homology and L^2-Betti numbers which generalizes the well-known classical notions of homology and Betti numbers. They have surprising applications to problems in topology, geometry, and group theory which a priori see...
he was my prof for this course
nice guy
funnily enough this area has lots of applications to things you would never expect
like the kaplansky conjecture, that for torsion-free group G and field K of char 0, the group ring K[G] has no zero-divisors
Yeah, thanks! Curious too now, will take a look.
(also btw you should apply to the grad+ role, you will be good for our grad channels)
Thanks for the answers though the last stuff was way out of my league
i saw that but cba to apply lmao
lol fair
also this was unusual for me in that i basically only do abstract nonsense otherwise
very nice for a change though
i see, what math are you into?
makes sense
also trying to learn infinity categories rn
nice, i learnt stable homotopy from adams book, so havent seen the infty category treatment yet
i see
i mean in a course setting you cant really expect people to know infinity categories
at least not yet
lmao
yeah a friend ran a seminar on it this summer and a bunch of us learnt from that
(on adams book that is)
Max’s course?
oh was it max
yep
neat
next semester ill have a course on equivariant stable homotopy theory
thats gonna be fun
oh yeah sounds fun
Btw what is needed to start working on stable htpy theory from a books like Adams - can you go straight from a book like Hatcher? (having read chap 4 i mean lol)
yeah thats what i did
Lol yeah dw I was definitely planning on using that :)
im into operator theory btw
I am interested to see how much of homotopy theory can be extended usefully to the category of C* alg for example
Oh that's cool
Hadn't realy thought of links between operator theory and homotopy theory, not that I'm surprised
yeah like C* algebras is really non commutative topology, and i know there are model category structures on C* too
Hello everyone, I'm trying to construct an explicit deformation retraction between the doubly punctured closed disk and the figure eight, dumbbell and theta each. I know visually how it's supposed to go but I'm quite clueless about how to write it down formally. Can anyone help?
To be precise, the spaces in question are $\Theta = S^1\cup {0}\times [-1, 1]; \infty = (S^1+(1,0))\cup (S^1+(-1, 0)); O-O = (S^1+(1.5, 0))\cup (S^1+(-1.5, 0))\cup [-0.5, 0.5]\times {0}$
adi
In my minds eye I see why it's true but I'm having trouble getting a proof started
Is my topology {N, empty, N-F_i} where F_i is just an arithmetic progression of length N or less?
N, empty set, and all the sets which for every N contain an arithmetic progression of length N
The point is to prove that it is a topology
I'm super new to topology except for on R^n and find the proofs awkward.
You just need to show that it's closed under all the properties that topologies are closed under. Which is finite intersections and arbitrary unions
Blitz
For intersections you want to take two sets A, B with this property and show that the intersection also has this property
Thanks
why is union of finite sets also have this property? ain't {1, 2,..., N-1} U {N, N+1} an CE?
does it contain an arithmetic progression of length N+2?
I see the wording now.
Got another question about Hatcher, he makes the following proposition about relative homology.
For good pairs $(X,A)$, the quotient map $q:(X,A) \rightarrow (X/A, A/A)$ induces isomorphisms $q_{*}:H_n (X,A) \rightarrow H_n (X/A, A/A) ≈ H^{~}_n(X/A)$ for all n.
Espio
Basically he’s connecting relative homology to actual homology of a quotient space. What I’m confused about is the word “good pairs”… what does that mean exactly?
Page 114
Thank you! I spent a while flipping around looking for a definition and resigned myself to thinking it was a handwaved term
No problem, that is definitely a possibility with Hatcher lol
I recommend whipping out the ctrl+f on the PDF for those moments
It's free on his website
ok so im curious about "gluing" manifolds together
A section of my paper explores this concept via the "paddlewheel"
what do you guys think?
The open disc is a 2-cell but is it a cw complex. It seems to me that the answer is no but this seems a little funky to me. Because the X^0 skeleton has to be nontrivial for a non empty space, then any way you attach a 2 cell you wont get an open disc since you are mapping it's boundary onto the X^1 skeleton
a finite CW complex is compact. trying to give a CW structure to a non compact space using only finitely many cells isn’t going to work. Try using infinitely many cells
is it fine to skip chap 1 in munkres if im familiar with most things in there already
it seems like an introduction to naive set theory, logic, etc.
👍 thanks
the most important stuff from there is probably the stuff on countability
ive only seen countability in baby rudin chapter 2
i dunno what rudin does but you're probably fine skipping the first chapter of munkres
rudin chapter 2 is basically all i know about topology at the moment lol
alright, got it. thanks
since you've read the topology part of rudin, you should try comparing what you see in munkres to what you've seen in rudin
it's a cofibration
i think he just doesn't want to overwhelm the reader with terminology or like
he doesn't want to prove that a good pair is equivalent to a cofibration at that point or
idk
are convergent sequences dense in all sequences?
what's your metric on all sequences?
I think it's obviously true in the product topology on R^N
infinity norm
also is there some sort of guidebook on all the dense and open and closed subspaces of familiar spaces
like sequences, functions, matrices, real numbers...
Whats the product topology on R^n exactly
Ok. So you didn't mean all sequences, you meant all bounded sequences?
yes
i realized this now
But what does the product topology mean
Hmm. If {a_n} is a sequence then there is an open neighborhood U_k, epsilon of {a_n} consisting of all sequences {b_n} such that |a_i - b_i | < epsilon for all i < k
these open neighborhoods form a basis for the topology
In this topology it's obviously true
why?
(1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0...) whats the convergent sequence closer than epsilon to this one?
not just epsilon but within epsilon for the first k
so if k = 5 take
(1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, ... )
No, this space is complete (assuming you're asking if c is a dense subspace of l^infinity)
sadly c doesn't inherit the topology as a subspace of R^N
Here denoted by s
Is this proof valid? I'm to prove that every open subset of R is a union of open intervals. So, suppose A is an open subset of $\mathbb{R}$, and let $x \in A$. Since A is open, there exists $\epsilon > 0$ such that $(x - \epsilon, x + \epsilon) \subset A$. We can write A as $\bigcup_{x \in A} (x - \epsilon, x + \epsilon)$, for $\epsilon > 0$. Hence, A is a union of open intervals? I just feel I may be lacking a little rigor here
J.Ross
Note that the epsilon depends on x
but yes that's correct
that's the only not rigorous thing I see here
Alright, nice. So since epsilon depends on x in each subset of the union here, I should designate it as $\epsilon_x$ ?
yes
J.Ross
Okay that makes sense, thank you!
Which direction is the one that's obvious to you
Fancy A subset of the intersection of topologies containing fancy A
the topology generated by A you mean. Well, for the other direction, notice that the topology generated by A is a topology containing A, and therefore is also being intersected over, so what can you conclude
Isn't a subbasis by definition a subfamily of a topology that generates it
Oh duh, of course it is
Thanks!
np
@gritty widget from Munkres
I see. So they chose to define it in terms of an explicit description of what it is
Whats the product topology i still dont understand it
this convergence definition is really weird
Is there a guidebook on the dense-open-closed-compact subspaces of all familiar spaces?
Product topology on $\prod_{i\in I} X_i$ where $X_i$ are topological spaces, and $\pi_j:\prod_{i\in I} X_i\to X_j$ is the projection onto the $j$-th coordinate is the topology with a subbasis consisting of sets of the form $\pi_j^{-1}(U)$ with $U\subseteq X_j$ an open set, that is ${(x_i){i\in I}\in \prod{i\in I} X_i : x_j\in U}$
on the space of sequences- matrices-functions-real numbers...
i mean most important ones
Blitz
it's the smallest topology which makes all the projections pi_j continuous
So the collection of all combinations of open sets from the respective spaces right?
how do this topology lead to this definition of convergence?
I'm not sure what you mean by this.
The basis of topology here consists of sets $${(x_i){i\in I}\in\prod{i\in I} X_i : x_{j_1}\in U_1, ..., x_{j_n}\in U_n}$$ where $U_k\subseteq X_{j_k}$ are open
Blitz
You can think of it as "the topology of pointwise convergence"
because a sequence (or net) in the product being convergent to some element is equivalent to it being convergent for each i
what i know to be the product topology its {U1xU2xU3.... with U1 open in X1,U2 in X2} etc
but its def the same thing
how does this lead to this result?
is there an intuition?
why is it a pointwise convergence?
so for a function it would be matching up a few points to the function and the rest can do whatever the fuck it wants?
So we consider each element in the sequence to be a projection on real numbers line?
When we say "Y inherits its topology from X" what do we mean? I can't find it in the book
NM I think I get it
Y is made up of open sets in X
this is probably referring to the subspace topology
where Y has to be a subset of X ofc
This almost always refers to subspace topology, or sometimes quotient topology if Y is a quotient of X
Quotient topology 
I'm not there yet. What conditions on the subspace are required for it to be modded out?
Don't tell me I'll find it
What does modded out mean here?
i think they are asking what you can take a quotient by
Yes
everything
you take the quotient w.r.t an equivalence relation
any equivalence relation you can think of, and any subspace
quotiening by a subspace is defined as quotiening by an equivalence relation which identifies all points in that subspace
but the quotient might not have the separation properties we would like to have, so we might restrict to certain types of equivalence relations
There's one where if you have the ordinary topology on R, if you quotient with respect to ~ where x~y iff x-y is an integer, the quotient space is homeomorphic to the unit circle
That's kinda interesting
yeah that's the same as saying R/Z where Z is seen as a subspace of R
this is how you generally quotient by subspaces
no unless you interpret the quotient as a quotient by a subgroup
in topology R/Z would be interpreted as x ~ y iff x and y both belong to Z or x = y
Any ideas how to find homeomorphism between these 2 spaces? $\mathbb{N} \times X$ and $\mathbb{N} \times Y$, where $X = {0} \cup {\frac1{i} : i = 1,2, \dots }$, $Y = X \cup \mathbb{N}$
Catematician
So the limit points have to map to limit points, I was thinking of a map like (x, 1/2i) -> (x,2i), (x,1/(2i+1)) -> (x,1/2i+1), but that doesn't work I think. No other obvious mapping comes to my head.
you can just map (n, 1/i) to (n, 1/(i-1)) for i > 1 and N x {1} to N x {2, 3, 4, ...}
Oh okay yeah, thanks.
Bijection between two discrete spaces of the same cardinality is homeo right?
Yeah it is
if you're not sure then prove it
Ya just did
Yes, you are just renaming the elements essentially
I think it must be. Sorry the question is dumb
you're taking the pre image of something that is not in the codomain
so if f: X×Y -> X, then the pre-image of an subset of Y is empty
Here I'll give context
the pre image of a subset of Y is not a thing here
because your function is mapping to X
Oh I transcribed incorrectly
It would have been convenient for the proof I'm working on if it is empty
But I copied something down wrong
Sure
4
And I'm trying to use this theorem:
I can include my sloppy work
but i notice my mistake, it should be pi_2
*pi_2^{-1}
the first line doesn't quite make sense
you want W to be an open set in X x Y right
so you'd have to take the pre images of pi_^and pi_2 in the first line
but yeah that theorem works for proving that the projections are open maps
but it still wouldn't be entirely correct
Ok
That union in the theorem
I think I understand but I was having trouble
In the def of the subbasis
yeah i was about to suggest to review the def of a sub basis
i don't think i can be of more help rn it's pretty late for me 
Think about the fact that every open Set in X x Y can be written as union of finite intersections of sets in the given subbasis
and then how pre images are compatible with unions and intersections etc
that should give you your result if you work the details out
All right that helps
is there an example of an open hyperspace subspace?
hey, sorry to bother you again. But can you explain this i didnt get it yesterday
whats convergence in the product topology
How is this convergence?
We say that a sequence or a net $x_\alpha$ converges to $x$ if for any neighbourhood $U$ of $x$ we have $x_\alpha\in U$ for all big enough $\alpha$.
Blitz
i mean whats the open ball in product space
and can you answer this?
Product space doesn't have a metric in general
Ah
As for $\mathbb{R}^\mathbb{N}$ you could define it as $$d(x, y) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty 2^{-n} \frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}$$ but it's not the only metric that you could define on it
well?
Blitz
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4526397/please-help-me-evaluate-the-following-integral-analytically
could someone please clarify the derivation steps suggested in this solution to the integral
and i misunderstand the concept of dilogarithms; please explain what they are and their application in the solution.
just to conclude then
sorry for posting in the wrong channel
and interrupting the convo
i urgently need some clarification with the derivation of this integral, if anyone can help
many thanks
stop spamming
sorry, my folio is due today and thought if i posted in multiple channels i would receive more help
i will refrain from doing so in the future
Are you asking what's a sequence in R^N convergent to this point?
can u pls clarify the derivation process?
yes
no
i am asking if convergent sequences are dense in the product topology of sequences space
Yes. You can put 0 after finitely many terms
why??
this is what i dont get
can you please write an intuition or sketch a proof
If $x = (x_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ then $y_n = (x_1, ..., x_n, 0, ...)$ is a sequence convergent to $x$ in the product topology
Blitz
In the product topology
You asked in what sense is it convergent
But since we have topology here, the way in which it converges is well-defined
whats a neighbourhood of x in this topology?
I don't know how to answer this question other than give you a tautological answer.
It's a set which includes an open set which contains x
okay
how can a hyperplan be dense in a given vector space?
and do you have an example of a non closed hyperspace?
if can if it's given by a functional which isn't continuous
ohhh
in fact it's equivalent
a functional f on a locally convex topological vector space is discontinuous iff f^-1(0) is dense
and any hyperplane is of the form f^-1(0) for some linear functional f
note that open isn't equivalent to not closed
If a hyperplane f^-1(0) were open, then it'd contain x+V where V is a neighbourhood of 0, hence span(V), which is the whole space
so it wouldn't be a hyperplane
One concrete example: Let V be the vector space space of all real sequences (a_n) with finite support (that is, only finitely many entries in each sequence are nonzero).
Equip it with the sup-norm.
Then the set of sequences where a1+a2+a3+...=0 is dense in V.
like I said, just take any functional that isn't continuous
why?
is it dense
Suppose you have a sequence and you want to approximate it to within a distance of espilon>0 by a sequence that sums to 0. Just take your target sequence and add or subtract something smaller than epsilon to sufficiently many of its entries to make its sum 0.
I'm reading that if G acts freely on the cells of a compact CW complex, then G is finite. Is this because a compact CW complex is finite, hence the free action on the cells determines an injective homomorphism from G to a finite group (namely the product of the symmetric groups on the cells)?
Hatcher proves the first and fourth maps are isomorphisms and then says we can assume so are the second and fifth by induction on k to then prove the third is with the five lemma. I’m not sure I see what the inductive argument on k is, though I assume it must be obvious
Nvm I’m an idiot I see it
Just to be sure I’m not misinterpreting Hatcher, if you’ve got a delta complex and take a quotient by identifying simplices in a way that preserves order you automatically get a delta complex structure on the quotient space by composing the simplices with the quotient map right?
So for example if I’m asked to realize a delta complex structure of RP^n as a quotient of S^n after giving S^n a delta complex structure with vertices at +- the unit coordinate vectors, I just need to give that complex an order where two vertices on one axis are consecutive and then we follow some arbitrary order of the axes correct?
And then identify all simplices by exchanging antipodal vertices
Does anyone here know about crossed modules (as related to the 3rd group cohomology) or is this not the place to ask (I figured the people here would be more in touch with homological stuff than the algebra channel)?

OK, so I'm reading about H^3(G,A) in Brown, here's his definition of a crossed module. According to him H^3(G,A) corresponds (up to equivalence) to exact sequences 0->A->N->E->G->1, where N is crossed over E. Now when reading about H^2(G,A) and extensions 1->A->E->G->1 in Jacobson, first thing he does is show how the extension induces a G-module structure on A, so I tried to show how such a crossed module sequence does the same thing and I ran into some problems.
Namely, given a sequence with N crossed over E, I can show that G acts on A, but I'm not sure how to show it acts by homomorphisms (i.e. that A becomes a G-module). So my question is: i) in the definition of crossed modules, is it necessary to assume E acts on N by homomorphisms or not (perhaps Brown neglected to mention this) ii) if not, how to show that G then acts on A by homomorphisms.
yeah I think you need to assume some particular action by automorphisms
So just to clarify, here's what my thought process was: if i is the injection of A in N, lift \sigma\in G to s\in E, then by (5.2) in above picture \alpha(s\cdot ix)=s\alpha(ix)s^-1=1, so s\cdot ix=iy\in iA and then you can check that the y is independent of the choice of s, so you set \sigma x=y and then you can check the usual action identities. Only thing I had trouble showing was, as I mentioned, that s\cdot i(xy)=(s\cdot ix)(s\cdot iy). Another consequence of (5.2) is that \alpha(e\cdot(nm))=\alpha(e\cdot n)\alpha(e\cdot m), so it's like the action of E on N is "almost" by homomorphisms, but actually up-to elements of iA (the kernel of \alpha). I got stuck here.
I'm really struggling with a problem that I feel should be very basic: Let X be a topological space and U a subset of X, where U is open. (So U has the subspace topology). Then a set V a subset of X is open in U iff V is open in X and V is a subset of U.
For the first direction, let V be a subset of X and suppose V is open in U. Then V=U∩A for some set A open in X. Since V=U∩A, V is a subset of U. But from here, I simply cannot think why V is open in X.
For the other direction, suppose V is an open subset of X and V is a subset of U. Is a set that's open in a main topological space always open in a subspace topology of that set?
Any help would be greatly appreciated
V is intersection of two sets open in X
Oh my gosh
That's straight from the axioms, okay
I think I've figured out the other direction as well, thank you for that
I am reading something that states Ext is dual to topological K theory
in what sense is this true?
I can't think of a single sense in which this is true 
where is this?
oh this is C* algebra stuff lol
figured if this were true in C* it would be true in top but i guess not oof
I mean the setup with KK-theory is a lot more complicated
it's worth reading this page https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/KK-theory
i see, will do thanks
Is this simplicial homology computation correct? The space I’m working with is $n+1$ copies of $\Delta^2$, $\Delta_i^2$ for $i=0,…,n$ with all edges of $\Delta_0^2$ identified, the top left edge of $\Delta_i^2$ identified with the bottom edge of $\Delta_{i-1}^2$ and the two other edges of $\Delta_i^2$ identified, with $i=1,…,n$
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
All in an order preserving fashion ofc
I feel like I might be missing a Z term or smth
Am I being dumb or is the homology of the delta complex with all faces of the same dimension identified just 0
Consider the space $X \cup_F (D^2\times I)$ for $F:S^1\times I\to X$ a homotopy between $f$ and $g$. This space deformation retracts onto both of the subspaces $X\cup_f D^2$ and $X\cup_{f’} D^2$ so they are homotopy equivalent
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
Also this is covered in chap 0 Hatcher I fink
you should not be spending a whole third of your time checking edge cases, in my opinion
get the main idea on your first read, and do the annoying parts (trivial stuff like empty set cases) later if you really need to
if you're really checking empty set cases for a whole third of your time, you're probably not doing it right
as for actual important details in proofs (ones that aren't waved away by declaring a set nonempty or something), don't skip those
Too true
Omega is generated by open sets
f^-1(sigma(open sets in Y)) = sigma(f^-1(open sets in Y)) which is a subset of sigma(open sets in X)
where sigma means a sigma algebra generated by
I think if one of the sets needs to be non-empty, a good book should state so rather than making you figure it out.
(Or introduce a convention that “set” means non-empty set
.)
no reasonable mathematician wants to think about empty set cases for everything they do
Or perhaps conventions in specific places, such as “subsets of X that come up might be empty, but we always assume X is nonempty because we don't want to study the empty topological space”.
etc.
Sure, but then you should say you're excluding it and where.
example of 2 disjoint closed sets A,B in a normed vector space but the distance(A,B)=0
i cant think of any
the only way 2 disjoint sets is enough to say the distance is >0 is when one is compact and the other is closed
so i am looking for a counter example
thatll open my eyes
just think of something in R^2
the distance is always greater than 0 no?
no
no
howww? All sequences that converge will converge inside the ball
there can be sequences a_n in A and b_n in B such that d(a_n, b_n) converges to 0, but A, B still have all of those properties
An example would be incredible
exercise for you
cause i cant see how
First if we're in R^2 then closed means a closed ball. so any sequence inside a closed ball has a limit point because its bounded. so if the d(an,bn) converges to 0 then an and bn will have the same limit point which is a contradiciton
you can't disprove the truth
i am not trying to i am trying to see where my logic is failing
then write out your logic in clear to digest steps
is it not clear?
it's not
closed does not mean closed ball
can we agree that an,bn have limit points?
even in R^2? arent they equivalent?
no, we cannot agree on that
not all sequences in R^2 have limit points
it doesnt even mean that in R^1, this is not how topology works. closed sets are not just closed balls
this is because R^2 is not compact
all bounded sequences do
they're equivalent. Open and closed balls form a basis
well, yes. So try and come up with something unbounded
Something unbounded in a closed ball?
nonono, you cant just reduce to the case of a closed ball, the line x=0 is closed in R^2 but not a closed ball
I am not talking about R^2 i am taking about our choices of sets A,b
