#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 2 of 1
Your proof doesn't do it formally
It's not wrong, we basically had the same idea
The only informal step is not showing that any neighborhood crosses a line segment.
But to justify it you'd have to do what I just did anyway
What for?
If you're content with informal (visual?) proofs then feel free to use yours
Not a big deal
How to show that any covering of a rectangle is trivial?
It is formal, I just didn't write it out. I only asked if the argument worked...
What's a trivial covering?
p:Y->X is trivial if Y is homeomorphic to X x D where D has the discrete topology
Then we're not talking about the same thing?
Oh I completely got the wrong end of the stick of that question with rectangles lol
because of all the point set topology questions
Precisely: you asked if your reasoning is wrong or not
I provided you improvements to your reasoning
Nothing to argue here
it seems obvious geometrically to me but idk how to tackle the problem
No need to be rude but okay.
Basically comes down to simply connectedness
This seems like the type of thing that you might want to post on MSE (failing that, MO)
I wish I could help but I don't know the answer
I wasn't rude (I'd agree I was unrefined or blunt, but definitely not trying to be rude)
Hausdorff's 4th axiom for neighbourhoods is cyclic!
geometrically, a homotopy beween the border of the rectangle and any point in the interior has as image all the space
so it makes sense that the preimages can be adjoined
but again this is very informal, how could I make this more formal
also thanks
<@&286206848099549185> or anyone else, can you kindly look into my thread above? https://discord.com/channels/268882317391429632/1004072710609055785
Helpers are for the help channels, not for pinging people in channels here
Oh, I see.
• These channels are for pre-university homework-type questions. Broad conceptual questions, as well as questions in university-level topics — are more appropriate in topic-specific channels (Pre-University, Early University, Advanced Mathematics) and in
I do not see how my question can be seen as fitting this condition. I do not think it will fit in a help channel.
Yes you got it the other way around
not that you should be posting in the help channels but instead that you should be posting here
its just that helpers won't be of much help here
So, what you have described here I think is usually called the weak-f topology
and indeed surjectivity isn't necessary
But when describing quotients we want surjection
just because we want to think of the quotient as coming from gluing parts of X together, essentially
The notation is confusing because discord screwed me
hence the compilation error
this is the correct one:
TheZachMan
Andrew071
wouldn't the signed distance for x in M just be 0?
No
it's a little hard to see, thanks latex bot, but that's S complement
if it's easy for you, can you edit it and change your notation to d(x,S)?
it'd be a lot easier to read
and then signed distance can be like d*(x,S)
the bot won't pick up on the edits at this point, but yeah that'd probably be better
and S^c is S^c not bar S which is typically the closure of S
ok I realize now that in a topology context S-bar is a bad choice of notation, but in general it's a reasonable way to write complement
Reading on stack exchange, someone claimed the result is actually false, and limit point should be defined as the one given in wikipedia and then the proof would be correct
With the discussion of local degree in Hatcher and in my uni's notes, it seems if one makes consistent choices of isomorphisms then one finds the degree of a map f: S^n -> S^n is equal to the sum of local degrees (where one picks some y with finite fibre under f) .
But our uni notes define the local degree by itself and basically seem to imply that you can get different signs for different choices of isomorphisms between homology groups. Is there a problem here, or is the point just that we have to calculate local degree after already having chosen isomorphisms H_n(S^n) \cong Z so that everything is consistent?
Should be the latter
Sure thanks
Let $X$ be $\bbR_{\geq 0}$ with some nonstandard topology, and let $Y$ be $\bbR_{\geq 0}$ with the standard topology, so that $\mathrm{id}\colon Y \to X$ is discontinuous. now let $\bullet$ be a group operation on $X$ which pulls back under $\mathrm{id}$ to a metric $d$ (which of course \emph{is} continuous, as all metrics are)
[\begin{tikzcd}
Y \arrow[r, "\textrm{id}"] & X \
X^2 \arrow[u, "d"] \arrow[ru, "\bullet"'] &
\end{tikzcd}]
can $\bullet$ be continuous? I think no, right?
Average J∘du=du∘j enjoyer
I can tell you it for $\mathbb{N}[\frac{1}{2}]$, because for $\bbR_{\geq 0}$ it's not constructive
Average J∘du=du∘j enjoyer
Silly question but is X even a group like
it's bitwise XOR, so like 101.01 * 11.101 (in binary) is 110.111
then you extend this to R_>=0 with axiom of choice or whatever
Oh okay fair you've put some weird topology and weird operation on it ig
yeah
btw potato I'm writing an invariant article about this so this is a sneak peek lol
Lol nice
So • is a group operation and a metric? That's impossible
why?
A group operation must be onto, but a metric must be non-negative
It's R_+ and not R. Never mind
yeah lol
|a-b| <= a • b is a curious inequality here
Doesn't this inequality lead to a contradiction with assumption that Id is discontinuous?
How I arrived at it:
a • a = 0 for all a, so 0 is the identity element
0 • b <= 0 • a + a • b so that
b-a <= a • b by triangle inequality
So such situation is impossible, Id must be continuous
This only uses that • has identity element and is a metric (no associativity or other group axioms)
if $X = \mathbb{N}[\frac{1}{2}]$ and $\bullet$ is the bitwise XOR described above, then the open ball around 1 of radius 1 is
[{x \in \mathbb{N}[\tfrac{1}{2}] : x \bullet 1 < 1} = \mathbb{N}[\tfrac{1}{2}] \cap [1,2)]
which is not open in $Y=\mathbb{N}[\frac{1}{2}]$ with its standard topology. so the identity $Y \to X$ must be discontinuous, no?
Average J∘du=du∘j enjoyer
I know that you can bound it below by |a-b| and above by a+b, but I don't see how this leads to contradictions @gritty widget
The inequality implies that if y_n converges to y in Y, then y_n converges to y in X. But this is precisely what means for Id to be continuous
isn't the inequality the wrong way round for that? seems like it implies X —> Y is continuous, but not necessarily Y —> X
If y_n is convergent to y in Y, then Id(y_n) = y_n converges to Id(y) in X
X has Euclidean topology here
|Id(x)-Id(y)| <= x • y = d(x, y)
It's in fact Lipschitz continuous
If you calculated this right then you got it wrong
If this set, say A, would be open in Y, then using Id_2: X to Y, Id_2^-1(A) isn't open
So it's Id_2 that's not the continuous one
You switched them around
no no, X has the topology induced by this weird metric, and Y is the euclidean one
you said here that d is continuous
as all metrics are. This made me think that Y is generated by topology from metric d
metrics are continuous as functions to R with its standard topology, right?
and the domain space has topology induced by the metric (which is the coarsest topology that makes d continuous)
yes
you mean X^2?
the domain space
X^2 is given the product topology I guess
I think $\bullet$ can be continuous, I don't see why not
Blitz
unless d is somehow a quotient map
It wasn't said, but I'll assume d is a metric on X, as otherwise d might not be continuous
it would be nice if it is, so that this object is a topological group, but I'm not sure either way
I don't know. I think this is the place that we can't get too far by abstract considerations and need to get "nitty gritty" into the analysis
is it the case that every subspace of a t1 space containing all its limit points is closed?
That is true for all spaces, not just T1 ones
The closure of a subset A of a top space X is equivalently A union its limit points
The proof should be in any good topology textbook or you can try it yourself
This is vacuously true
I was implying there are no good topology textbooks
There's no good topology textbooks that you know of
And that's different
There's no good topology textbooks because point set bad
nice
For topology textbooks I like Dugundji. It's not perfect, but it did prepare me for all the basics of topology that I'll probably ever need
I don't like the part about the simplicial approximations though, I'd skip that part of the book, Dugundji has a bad approach to simplexes, too informal and using old nomenclature
It doesn't appeal much to intuition and often doesn't really justify concepts, or why they are, but I don't mind that approach
Figuring out why something is myself was good enough for me
I didn't read Munkres but introduction to AT in the last chapters sounds promising
Willard has cool contents, I've only really read the proof of Hahn-Mazurkiewicz theorem there. It didn't make a good impression though, since Willard makes a crucial error in the proof
Not sure how much that speaks for the rest of the content in his book, they probably don't contain many errors (or so I hope)
how the hell do you guys read 20 topology books when it takes ages to just finish a single one
I only really read one. Why read the same thing over and over again?
I mean why fly over the others then
I get that they may have different content, but there is often a heavy overlap that is redundant
I had doubts about the proof of Hahn-Mazurkiewicz book presented in one book (not Dugundji but something that touches on different fields, mainly separable metrizable spaces), and I was looking for something which wouldn't have an error
in the end, I had to fix the proof myself, since Willard was the only book I found with a similar proof, but that one was also wrong
lol
anyway, I am reading few different books which are also technically topology, but they go further in one direction
ok I guess, but do you really feel qualified judging the other books if you just went to search this specific thing in them?
but I haven't finished them yet
I feel qualified by looking at the table of contents
Willard touches on some continuum theory which is pretty neat
it's one thing for a book to have bad content, it's another to have bad content explained in a terrible way
bad content is something subjective
you could say the same about writing styles
I wasn't judging Willard on the level of content, rather that the error might mean that there's more errors in the proofs out there
That's a maybe of course as I didn't read it
The direction the book is going is pretty cool though, as it doesn't go in the "standard" algebraic topology direction, but it touches on some continuum theory
cool ig, no idea about it though
No
I think there are good examples with the wedge of two circles in that section
But I haven’t looked in a bit
Huh?
The idea is that the deck transformation preserves the fibers/preimages over points in the base space
So if I have an n-sheeted cover
My deck transformations can permit r the even lifts
Permute
Yes
Same thing
I think the source of your confusion is that just because the composition is p, it doesn't uniquely determinte tau.
I mean p doesn't have to be a homeomorphism.
This example is not a covering, but to illustrate
Imagine a linear map from f R^2 to R
where you map (x,y) to x
if I compose f with the map
g(x,y) = g(x,n*y)
then f composed with g is still the same map f
even though there are many choices for g
I mean X
The point is like
Over each point x in X
There’s like n points x’ living in the cover over x
And the deck transformation is allowed to permute these n points
Now, not all permutations will be valid for other reasons
you aren't really allowed to just swap though, more like sliding since you'd have some continuity issues if I remember correctly, I'd have to look it up again
It would be ideal if you could type it in latex...
explain to me what you're doing when you're calculating interior of B
Let's start with $B^\circ \neq 0$
Blitz
I don't get it
Blitz
better?
nlab diagram of models for homotopy theory in increasing order of convenience
boy i sure find it convenient to have to establish what a cohesive infinity topos is before i can do basic topology.

the euler characteristic of a torus minus a disk is just -1 right?
the red lines are the 1-cells
the red dots the 0-cells
and yeah the blue one I can't be ask to draw properly but you can probably imagine how the 2-cells are supposed to glue in the end
(I tried)
the two points close together at the left are supposed to enclose the hole of the missing disk with their connection
this kinda looks like some physics picture from electromagnetism
it's as good as it gets for 1 minute of effort with screenshot mouse paint
though in hindsight
drawing the blue lines that way was stupid
this might be better
There is this standard arguement that if X=U_1 union U_2
and there is some element s1 that kills H^*(U_1) and s2 that kills H^*(U_2) then s1s2 kills H^*(X)
and its easy to induct this up for a finite cover of X
is there a version of this for paracompact X
this is the result for a finite cover
Is that Gage "Nhymnim" Poljack of the series which progresses?
The goat
Yes, since a torus minus a disk is homotopy equivalent to a wedge of two circles so the Euler characteristic is 1-2=-1
Just for feedback. Is it in any way recognisable how I tried to construct this thing as a CW complex?
Yes
your CW complex structure looks correct if I am interpretting the image properly
and then you have the right euler char from the alternating sum on the number of cells
I'm not too deep into topology so I'm sorry if this is a bit of a simple question but is there actually a good reason to define neighbourhoods? It seems like every proof using neighbourhoods would be simpler just using open sets. So what is the intuition behind understanding neighbourhoods?
open neighborhoods are literally just open sets containing a given point
I know what they are. They just seem pointless.

you can't imagine any situations where you would only want to consider open subsets that contain a given point?
I can. I just can't imagine why I would want to define neighbourhoods after already defining open sets which fill that role.
I know.
it's just giving a name to something is all
The word neighborhood also conveys intuition about how to think about a neighborhood of a point
imo
that and it's just convenient to not have to say "open subset containing" every single time you invoke this notion
I guess..
idk you're free to not use it if you feel it's redundant, and you're free to use it if you feel it conveys some useful meaning
Anyway I think the idea that notation should be concise to this extreme is a bit weird
By which I mean not having names for things that you can define in terms of other things
Oh, I did read there were 2 definitions for neighbourhoods. One was open, the other just contained an open set containing the point. I guess the first one makes sense, my gripe was probably more with the second one which was what I was reading about.
well so there's a notion of open neighborhood, and a notion of neighborhood
you also have a convenient abbreviation with nbhd. 
Not sure if this belonged in #top or #diffgeo, so top it is.
I am being asked to make sense of a classification of boundaries in the case of a closed manifold M. The classification relies on being able to construct, at a point x on the boundary E of M, a basis for the tangent space T_x M given a vector of T_x M and a basis for T_x E.
How is such a definition sensical for closed manifolds? Namely, I'm not sure what a basis for the "tangent space" of a nonexistent point on its boundary would look like.
I found a defn of a boundary that might help
I appreciate this, but I’m not looking for the definition of a boundary, this is already known. I’m trying to understand how an empty boundary would be classified when, in order to do so, I need a basis for a tangent space in the boundary
However, after looking back at the “definitions”, it seems like the best interpretation is that the empty boundary vacuously satisfies the criterion for both “types” of boundaries. So I will just go with this, thanks though!
I’m not sure if I am misunderstanding
Oh sorry never mind I was
It’s been a long day
Wait yes okay I was right the first time
I don’t understand the problem you are talking about
The classification of boundaries for a closed manifold is just that they are all empty
I’m not classifying boundaries by their cardinality, I’m classifying boundaries by whether they are “in” or “out”.
In fact, the problem I was wrestling with is exercise 1.2 of that TQFT book you posted in Ivory.
I’m still a little lost
Are you asking which closed manifolds can be boundaries of what higher dim manifolds
I was reading it as like
Which manifolds appear as the boundary of a closed manifold
Which ofc is easy to classify
Let f : X -> Y be a function between topological spaces. Then f is said to be continuous at x if, for every neighborhood V of f(x), f^{-1}(V) is a neighborhood of x.
Equivalently, for every open set V containing f(x), f^{-1}(V) is a neighborhood of x.
I think this is a good motivation for neighborhoods.
We say f is continuous if it is continuous at every point in its domain.
From this you can recover the usual definition.
So my short answer is, neighborhoods are useful when you want to talk about functions that are continuous but some points, but not all.
When talking about functions that are continuous everywhere, it becomes easier to use open sets.

Also perhaps worth points out that so many properties of functions and spaces in general are dependent on local behaviour - e.g.. it suffices to check continuity (or smoothness etc as it may be) of a function on a neighbourhood of each point. I'd argue it's much more elegant linguistically too in many cases
For what it’s worth, here’s the context and the problem was “Make sense of the definition of in-boundary and out-boundary in the case of a manifold M with empty boundary.”
Like I said though, the empty boundary is then both an in-boundary and and out-boundary.
Why is this called this name? what relation does this have with chains
I don't know, alternatively you could just say it has countable cellularity
from set theory https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Countable_chain_condition
if we consider inclusions of non-empty open sets, then this is exactly countable chain condition from set theory
why can we not make a countable basis for an arbitrary metric space (X,d) by the following logic:
-take any point x in X
-take the set of open balls with rational radius as a basis B(x,r)
this would be countable since the rationals are countable, and for any point y in X, take some rational radius ball such that r > d(x,y)
and this basis is closed under finite intersection
i know that not every metric space has countable basis, so what is the flaw in this logic?
the definition i use for basis is the following from munkres:
can you describe your proposed basis more precisely?
what it's supposed to be isn't very clear from your description
take an arbitrary x in X
then the proposed basis is the set of all open balls B(x, r) where r is a rational number
sorry, i dont know how to use texit
so just all rational radius open balls centred at the same point where the point is arbitrary
one more clarification
is the proposed basis $${B(x, r) : x \in X, r \in \bQ},$$ or is it $${B(x, r) : r \in \bQ}$$ for some $x \in X$?
TTerra
presuming the second, but i just wanna be sure
yeah
The latter won’t be a basis
the second is clearly closed under intersection, but that's not what (2) in the definition of a basis says
You can think about R to see a counterexample
Ie might as well choose x=0
Find an open set that doesn’t contain any ball around 0
wait so what is the difference between 2 and closed under intersection?
ah i am drunk. this is a basis for a topology on R, but not the standard one
replace R with any metric space
the point is that not every metric space has a basis for its metric topology
Because this is equivalent to requiring the space be separable
read their next message lol
If you look at for example L2, you can see that it’s not seaparable
You really don’t need to go as far as l2 to understand why this construction fails lol
Also, you really aren’t answering the question at all other than saying it’s wrong lol
Which the question asker is already aware of
the open sets in the topology generated are just gonna be open balls at the point you picked, which makes it pretty clear that you won't get the original topology
@wise coyote maybe this is a point of confusion: just because some collection of open sets inside of a topology T satisfy the axioms of a basis, does not mean that this collection of basis open sets is a basis for T
You can potentially get a much coarser topology
Rishi
why can't i delete this
Probably left it too long
Im reading a book and It says all finite subcoverings of are open coverings open But that would mean compact spaces would be impossible because every subcovering would need another subcovering and so on... What am i missing?
If the cover you start with is already finite, you're done. A "finite subcover" can just be the cover itself, if the cover is already finite.
Mhm, but then the closed interval [0, 1] wouldnt be compact
The problem is to reduce infinite covers to finite covers: once that's done, we have enough to get a lot of stuff done. That's why compactness is a useful notion.
Why not?
Which open cover can you give me where I cannot find a finite subcover?
Because to make a subcover of the infinite open cover of open sets only using the open sets you need infinite open sets
I guarantee you that I don't need infinite open sets.
But the subcover of an open cover needs to be open right?
Open in the sense that each set in the subcover should be open itself, yeah
The subcover just consists of a bunch of sets that I already had in my bigger cover.
All those sets are open cause they were open before.
As elements of the bigger cover
And then how can you make a finite subcover of the open cover that corresponds to infinite open intervals approaching 0 or 1
That is not a cover, it does not contain the endpoints
That's why (0, 1) is noncompact
But once you add the endpoints, you need an open set around each
And that open set will be able to replace all but finitely many of your intervals approaching the endpoints.
The more clear case of this would be to try to prove that the set {0} union {1/n : n in N} is compact
I don't understand the confusion here
That gets rid of the messy interval stuff
Me not getting the concept of cover
And lets you see how an open set around 0 contains all but finitely many of the points 1/n
But the idea is the same for the unit interval (it's just harder to prove properly)
A cover is just something that sums to the whole space. In this sense, covering it
Because every element of your space is in one of the sets from the cover
Yeah, i get that but i was not getting that an infinite union of open sets that approaches 0 or 1 doesnt cover [0, 1]
That's a key to compactness.
Compactness is all about holes being filled in and ends being capped off
And too many things not being too far apart
(what you would expect "compact" objects to be)
Yeah, the problem is that i try to visualize it in my head and It makes everything x1000 harder
Holes being filled in hmm
Here i'm referring to the fact that a metric space is compact iff it is complete and totally bounded
This isnt catch all intuition-wise for topological spaces
But it's still usually a pretty good picture
{0, 1} has a pretty big hole (0, 1) here
But the rest of the intuition seems alright
Yeah. But it's because arbitrary open covers are impossible to visualize
So you want to visualize [0, 1] itself and the process of how would you go about to extract a finite subcover from an arbitrary one instead
Observation -
Let Y be a fixed space.
There's a monad on Top/Y which sends each f : X -> Y to the mapping cylinder M_f , equipped with the obvious projection onto Y.
The unit is the usual inclusion of X.
What I find interesting about this is that the unit of the monad splits iff Y embeds in X in such a way that f is a strong deformation retract.
An algebra of the monad is some kind of ... very strong deformation retract, haha.
It's cute if you want to work out what the extra condition is to be an algebra. Or I'll tell you. Whatever.
what's the property "nets have convergent subsequences" equivalent to
I know
mb then lol
say a subsequence of a net is a subnet which happens to be a sequence
such space would have to be compact and sequentially compact
perhaps that's the characterization of it?
if i have a manifold M, is the usual way of defining a basis for a topology on M to use the coordinate charts for M?
this seems like the topology on M would depend on the coordinate charts
A topological manifold can be defined as a topological space with few properties
But it can also be defined using charts
I'm guessing former would be preferred in the study of them since it's simpler. But probably both are beneficial
See Lee, either topological or differentiable manifolds
It should be in both of them
do carmo does this in his book on riemannian geometry. see chapter 0, remark 2.3
at least for differentiable manifolds. but just remove the smoothness assumptions present and you'll get what you want for topological manifolds
some people define differentiable manifolds this way to try and write introductions to differential geometry without much prerequisite topology knowledge
but no one defines "topological manifold" this way
relevant parts so you don't have to set sail
I like that he uses phi for the empty set in (2) lmao
thanks! doesn’t this depend on the charts tho? for example, the circle has two atlases, one parametrized by (t, +- sqrt(1 - t^2)) and the other by (cos t, sin t)
this should be independent of the charts used correct?
as long as two atlases are compatible (transition maps are homeomorphisms, diffeomorphisms, whatever), the topology induced should be the same
side remark: (cos t, sin t) is not an atlas, you need at the bare minimum two charts to cover the circle
thanks for clearing that up
I have this weird question, dunno if it's more topology or linear algebra. Suppose I have a group $G$ and I construct $V=\oplus_{i=1}^\infty Lin(G)$, the linear spans being over $\mathbb{R}$, so a direct sum of real vector spaces; introduce the weak topology on $V$. Denote the $i$th copy of $G$ in $V$ with $G_i$. The claim is that $H=\cup_{i=1}^\infty G_i$ is discrete in $V$. Is there an obvious way of seeing this?
I tried going the rout of no accumulation point of $H$ is in $V$. To this end I can reduce the problem to no accumulation points in any finite dimensional vector subspace $W$ of $V$ (because of the weak topology). But besides this, I can't really see what I else I could do. Any ideas?
miqq
Linear span where?
Weak topology? You mean if you map V to Lin(G)? So Lin(G) is a topological space now?
It's not a weird question but as it is, doesn't make a lot of sense
The weak topology is on V wrt the finite dimensional vector subspace of W, and the linear span is over R. Maybe it's a terminology issue, Lin(G) means the real vector space with an abstract basis in G
So C in V is closed iff C cap W closed for all f.d.v.ss of V
Yeah. Normally you specify that you're taking the free R-vector space with generators G
Lin(G) would be the linear span of G
That doesn't tell you what space we are in or if G are independent
So H is a linearly independent set
Your claim boils down to: if V is a vector space with weak topology and H is a linearly independent set of vectors in V, then H is discrete
In fact, H is a basis here
For v in H, let U(v) = {x in V : x expressed in basis H has non-zero v coefficient}
This is an open set in V and U(v) cap H = {v}
So H is discrete
@gritty widget
Of course! I actually got to the point that H is a basis for V but it didn't even cross my mind that it must be linearly independent.
Thank you very much!
How do I show there is no continuous bijection from (0,1) to S^1? Intuitively it's quite clear but not sure how to show it properly.
you mean, from (0, 1) to S^1?
"between" sounds a bit weird, because relation of there existing a continuous bijection from one space to another isn't symmetric
Yeah
Then there'd have to be a continuous bijection from union of two open intervals to an open interval
On both of those intervals it would be a continuous injection, so it'd have to be strictly monotone
How do you conclude that? 🤔
So without loss of generality there'd exist a continuous strictly monotone bijection from (0, 1) union (1, 2) to (0, 1)
By removing some point from (0, 1), say 1/2
removing a point of S^1 gives us space homeomorphic to (0, 1)
Oh I get it. Thanks
Say this function is f. Then A = sup f(0, 1) and B = inf f(1, 2) would exist and be some elements of (0, 1)
Moreover A <= B
Does there exist t in (0, 1) union (1, 2) for which f(t) = A then? No, there can't
this is a contradiction
Is it true that the number of (not necessarily connected) n-sheeted coverings of S^1 is equal to the number of partitions of n?
up to isomorphism
Hm. Are you accounting for the fact that an isomorphism may switch two components around?
Like consider the covering space over S^1, which is the coproduct of the identity map and the map z |-> z^2.
This has three sheets
but i could write it as 0 | 1 2 or 0 1 | 2
I think
If i'm understanding you correctly you would have to identify those partitions.
yeah, those should be identified
So maybe we could come up with a rephrasing which involves a choice of each equivalence class under this bijection. Example - all partitions of n where the partitions are in monotonically increasing order of size.
my bad, I probably should have clarified that by "partition" I meant without regards to ordering
generally this is what is meant by a partition
Hm ok thanks. Not familiar with this terminology i guess
quick proof: Two coverings are iso if and only if they have the same set of connected components (as always up to iso)
For each m, there is only one connected m-sheeted covering of S^1
this is why for the purposes of classification we only need to consider connected coverings
I suppose you need to also know that sheets sum additively over components when they're finite but...obvious.
this means a covering of S^1 is classified by how many copies of R it has, and a partition of n where n is the number of sheets once you remove all copies of R, as the only infinite quotient of pi1(S^1) is pi_1(S^1)
er, assuming non-infinite connected components
Let $A \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ such that $A^c$ is unbounded. I want to show that A compact iff $d(A,B) >0 $ for any closed disjoint set $B$. I think I managed to show compact implies the other condition, kinda stuck on the other one and correct me if Im wrong but I think this other direction is not true in R (so need to assume $n>1$) since you can take say (-infty,0]. So how can I show that holds for $n>1$?
Catematician
If d(A, B) > 0 for all closed disjoint sets B, then d(A, x) = 0 implies x in A, so A is closed
Yeah closed is easy, but the problem I have is how to show A bounded
Sry should've said that
It definitely uses that we are in dimension n > 1
Yeah
I think an illustrative example is something like (-infinity, 0] x R in R^2
Yeah I get why it breaks, we can take some kind of a graph of a function in those simple cases
Was thinking about something like R \ A_eps but it doesnt work unless maybe there is a way to make it work lol
(To construct a counterexample if A is unbounded)
If A is unbounded, we want to extract a sequence in A^c which would be unbounded and at the same time, get closer and closer to A
So we probably would like to, say, divide the whole space into rings {x : a <= | x | <= b}
And I think here is why n > 1, we use that those rings are connected
If there's no ring for us to choose a point from A^c, then well, this would contradict that A^c is unbounded
Kinda confused whats your idea, what are a and b and by sequence in A^c you mean a sequence of closed sets?
If there's no ring for us to choose a point from A, then this would on the other hand contradict that A is unbounded
a sequence of points, of course
a and b are constants
they will be chosen for every ring in the construction
because you want the rings to get more and more far from 0
and at the same time, you want them to contain both points from A and from A^c
Since such ring is connected, the intersection of A with it and A^c with it are 0 distance apart
because otherwise those intersections would be non-empty, closed and disjoint
so we can always take a point in A^c in such ring, which would be close to A
and we want to take them closer and closer to A
This sequence of points will be disjoint from A, closed, and would be 0 distance apart
contradiction
Sorry I dont get it but even if I did why is this sequence closed?
Doesn't it converge to something in A
no, it converges to infinity
so has no limit points in R^n
How are the rings chosen? I dont get the construction and still what are the a and b in the rings youre choosing.
numbers
so I choose 6 and 8
they are constructed recursively
Say R_n = {x : a_n <= | x | <= b_n} = R(a_n, b_n) is going to be the n-th ring
For R_0 we can take a_0 = 0 and b_0 to be large enough so that R_0 has non-empty intersection with A and A^c, and |b_0-a_0| >= 1
Then take x_0 in A^c intersection R_0 so that d(A, x_0) <= 1
For a_1 we can take something like b_0+1
Then choose b_1 so that R_1 has non-empty intersection with A and A^c and |b_1-a_1| >= 1
Then take x_1 in A^c intersection R_1 so that d(A, x_1) <= 1/2
and in general, take R_n so that it has non-empty intersection with A and A^c, |b_n-a_n| >= 1
a_n < b_(n+1)
and take x_n in A^c intersection R_n so that d(A, x_n) <= 1/2^n
Then {x_n} is closed and disjoint from A, but d(A, {x_n}) = 0
Hmm I think I see it now, and is |b_n - a_n| >=1 so that you choose different points or doesnt matter as long as the rings are increasing?
it's so that {x_n} doesn't have a limit point (in R^n), and converges to infinity
Okay yeah I see it now
R_n were taken to be disjoint also because we want {x_n} to have no limit points
Yeah I get it
Thanks, thought it's going to be some kind of one liner proof im missing
actually if you choose a_(n+1) = b_n+1 then you probably don't need that condition
if your proof depends somehow on dimension, then it's probably not a one-liner

Yeah, the problem stated implied it works in R which clearly doesn't
yeah. Here R^n was crucial to say that the rings R_n are connected so that d(A cap R_n, A^c cap R_n) = 0
We can see where the proof breaks using your example (-infinity, 0]
How is connectedness needed for that?
well you see that it doesn't work for R
If d(A cap R_n, A^c cap R_n) > 0 then A cap R^n and A^c cap R_n would separate R_n
so R_n would be disconnected
here it's also crucial that A cap R_n and A^c cap R_n are non-empty
I'm not sure where I should post this, but what is the purpose of dictionary orders?
if a function has compact support on a space (X, tau), does that mean $f(\partial X)={0}$?
ok that's not what i meant to ask
if we have a set X \subset U, U being the universe, and f has compact support in X, does that mean f(x)=0 for all x in the boundary of X?
i think that's what i meant to ask
yes, because every neighbourhood of a point in the boundary intersects U
for p in the boundary, if f(p)>0 there would be a neighbourhood of p where f is positive, which intersects U
I don't even think the support has to be compact
maybe I'm accidentally assuming some nice things (separation axioms) about U but I don't think so
for my case that's nbd since i'm really asking about X \subset R^n, with the usual topology
but thank you. i'll try to wrap my head around this
feel free to ping me if you have questions about anything I said
Rephrasing, { x | f(x) > 0 } is an open subset of X and hence contained in the interior of X
Given the action of a group on a space, there is an induced action on (co)homology. How should I think of this induced action intuitively?
I guess right now, the picture I'm starting with is to take a simplicial structure and see how the group action affects it, but I'm not sure how to visualize what the fixed points and orbits in homology correspond to
What does the "real projective plane" has to do with the real plane? Im reading about it and the book im reading describes it like "an homeomorphism from the mobiüs strip with a disc attached to its boundary"
You mean the lexographical orders? They're the most natural way to totally order cartesian product of (totally ordered) sets
They're useful for examples and counter-examples in topology. Some people study order topologies and they'd obviously be useful there.
It's a 2-dimensional real manifold
Projective spaces are pretty big but I have yet to see them applied, someone else could expand on this
They're a special case of the Grassmannian
Yes
thanks!
can anyone explain in a simple way how dehn surgery is possible? so from my understanding, I take the 3-sphere, remove a solid torus T, then reattach a solid torus T' so that the boundary of T and T' agree. How is it possible to reattach T' in a way that is "different" from how T was originally attached?
what do you mean how is it possible?
you're choosing a homeomorphism T^2->T^2 to glue along so to speak
like is there a simple example
im just imagining taking R^3 and removing a torus, and the only way i can think of putting it back is in the same way. but this is probably just cuz i cant visualize 4 dimensions?
or maybe im misunderstanding the definition
do you know what a Dehn twist is?
hmm ive had it explained to me before, i can try to look it up again
ah yes i think i remember
you're cutting an annulus from a surface, modifying by an element of the mapping class group, and then gluing back in
Dehn surgery is the same thing just a dimension higher
ohh okay i see
ok dehn twists make sense ill just have to think about the higher dimensional one more lol
this is sort of the picture of how you're doing a twist in Dehn surgery
wait sorry in this case, you're removing an annular region from the torus and gluing it back, but isn't the resulting manifold still a torus
yes
in dehn surgery is it possible to glue back the torus and get a different manifold?
yes this is the point, you remove a solid torus, and glue it back in along a homeomorphism of the boundary
that homeomorphism is this Dehn twist
you typically end up with a different manifold than when you started when you do this procedure
is this possible in a dimension lower? like is there a way in the 2-dimensional case where you can remove an annulus, glue it back and you get a different manifold?
since in like this example you get the same manifold back
the lower dimensional analogue would be like, cutting a disc from a surface and gluing it back in along a degree n map on the boundary S^1
For a worse example that has no lower-dimensional analogy (I think), the homeomorphism of the torus boundary could be one that interchanges "latitude" and "longitude". One kind of great circles on the torus can contract through the solid torus itself; the other cannot. And it's the opposite way around for contracting through the complement of the solid torus. So if we stitch the solid torus back in after that twist, we get something that is not simply connected -- some of the circles contract neither on the inside nor on the outside.
Dehn twists and Dehn surgery are separate things, right?
Hello all, stuck at a fairly basic question. I am trying to prove the fact that if f maps convergent sequences to convergent sequences, then the preimage of an open set under f will be open. Not sure how to go about it. Any hints? I thought maybe I ought to try showing the contrapositive?
Try proving that the preimage of a closed set under f is closed maybe
also I don't think this is equivalent in general, unless you're maybe, in a metric space
Equivalent for first countable spaces I suppose
anybody have any hints on how to show that GLn/On is homeomorphic to [0,infty)?
O(n) is inner product preserving, thus norm preserving on R^n. The orbits of this action are thus spheres of fixed radii
okay this is R^n/O(n), not GL_n(R)/O(n)
the points of the quotient space are orbits of the action of O(n) on R^n
O(n) acts on R^n by rotations, so the orbits are spheres of a fixed radius as bacono said.
i’m confused on how R^n/On is defined
two points in R^n define the same point in R^n/O(n) if they are in the same O(n)-orbit
sry, i was confused on notation. A/B has a lot of different uses and i was messing them up
thanks
Q/Z or R/Q has caught me out a couple of times aha
Q/Z is wack
Would that mean that they’re equivalent iff they have the same norm? 
right
(I complained earlier because GL_n(R)/O(n) is something different: it's homeomorphic to the space of upper triangular matrices with positive diagonal entries, by the QR decomposition)
Oh makes sense
Learned those decomposition in numerics some time ago, didn’t think I’d see them again 
so would u map an orbit OnM to the unique upper triangular matrix in the QR decomposition for the homeomorphism?
yup I believe that's how the identification goes
this is kind of a general pattern when you describe some quotient of matrix groups G/H in terms of some matrix decomposition
This is the definition of classifying space on fiber bundles by husemoller . And wiki gives classifying space of U(n) like this. Are they homeomorphic? How?
idk if they will be homeomorphic but they should be homotopy equivalent, which is what matters for the construction
for what it's worth the infinite Grassmannian definition seems to be the more modern definition that shows up everywhere
This is a construction of a 4-manifold with a given group presentation. Why does $\pi_1(X \setminus int(N_j))$ is still the free group on generators $a_1, ..., a_{|S|}$ ?
ru0xffian
so there's a kinda subtle difference between retraction and deformation retraction but roughly speaking you think of these as continuously shrinking a space into a subspace
e.g. a cylinder S^1x[0,1] or a Möbius strip both deform retract to a circle S^1
they're important because these are examples of homotopy equivalences, so all the different invariants you study in algebraic topology (homotopy groups, (co)homology groups, etc) are invariant under deformation retract
Other way around (the example with S^1 and R^2-{0} is extremely similar)
But yeah this map from the cylinder to the circle that collapses the interval is a retract
sorry for the necro, but im guessing its to construct ordered topologies on set products
My instinctive thought was "okay, but order topologies are kinda pathological anyway" when thinking of something like the lexicographic order on the unit square, but I suppose this is useful for lattice things anyway
And I guess generally lexicographic orders are just a thing in the real world that people sometimes actually work with, so even without the topology in the background, they are useful and good to think about
It's the simplest way to make a total order on a cartesian product of totally ordered sets, and total orders are often useful to have.
(It's an additional bonus that it preserves the "well-order" property of the original orders if they have it).
This is one way to define ordinal multiplication
This is a construction of a 4-manifold with a given group presentation. Why does $\pi_1(X \setminus int(N_j))$ is still the free group on generators $a1, ..., a{|S|}$ ?
ru0xffian
Why doesn't removing the tubular nbhd change the fundamental group ?
For any space with the discrete topology I can define a delta complex structure on it by letting every point be the image of a 0-simplex right?
Yes.
Hi everyone! I'm currently writing a thesis on simplicial homology groups, and I wanted to incorporate a chapter fully dedicated to examples and computations of homology groups. For now I've included zero-dimensional homology and the homology of surfaces (I'm reading Munkres' Elements of Algebraic Topology), and I saw some yt videos titled "homology on graphs". Does anyone know any book which talk specifically about homology on graphs? It would be fantastic if it used just the definition given for simplicial homology (for example I've found a book that talked about homology on graphs but used terms like "cell complex" which I've not treated in my thesis, and I don't want to develop a whole new theory for just a section of a chapter, it should be like a class of examples).
(I tried asking on #book-recommendations and I was redirected here)
graphs are 1-dimensional simplicial complexes / cell complexes, so it's not really a surprise that this term pops up
you define homology for these complexes, and graph homology follows as a special case
there is not much to it, so I would be surprised if there is a whole book on homology of graphs unless it goes into heavy graph theory
maybe also check out the wiki article https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graph_homology
In algebraic topology and graph theory, graph homology describes the homology groups of a graph, where the graph is considered as a topological space. It formalizes the idea of the number of "holes" in the graph. It is a special case of a simplicial homology, as a graph is a special case of a simplicial complex. Since a finite graph is a 1-compl...
Thank you. I've already introduced complexes and the general homology groups, I thought there was something more to discuss about the 1-homology of graphs (like, idk, some special results, for example with the fundamental group one shows that every graph can be seen as the product of n circles glued in one point, so once you compute the fundamental group of those n circles glued together you are done, I was thinking about putting a computational example like that for homology)
yes the same happens for homology with basically the same proof
But I don't want to go too deep on graph theory since it's not the aim of my thesis. Thanks
because everything is homotopy invariant
you quotient out a maximal subtree and get a wedge of circles
then the fundamental group on that is free on the number of circles
and likewise the 1st homology is free abelian on the number of circles
generally you have H_1(G) = Z^(|E|-|V|+1) for a connected graph G
as you can see on the wiki article
I haven't shown that $H_p(K)$ is homotopy invariant, indeed that could be a problem, i don't want to use results I've not proven 😅 . I'll definitely check the article
Mòrag
The proof of homotopy invariance for simplicial homology is an incredible drag
What people usually do is prove it for singular and show Equivalence for triangulable spaces
not if you use the method of acyclic models 
I'd still call that a drag phil
no way
I know, I was trying to avoid it like hell, it's a mess with simplicial approximations and stuff
its so much more straightforward
I think something like this which will take a while to develop can be stated without proof
It's pretty much the main reason one cares about homology at all
I was thinking about that. Is singular homology hard to introduce? Could it be done in a single chapter, with the proof of its equivalence to simplicial homology (and its topological invariance)?
the definition is easy, but verifying the axioms takes some work
by axioms i mean like homotopy invariance, excision, etc
Oh, those things I've skipped, like... Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms are they called?
yes
these make homology fairly easy to compute
as compared to (higher) homotopy groups for example
Really? My professor who is supervising me just said "ye you can skip those"
well maybe its out of the scope of your project
I'll check them out nonetheless, thank you
Proof of the excision axiom using acyclic models
Not everything that satisfies the ES axioms (minus dimension) is easy to compute!
In fact, stable homotopy satisfies them 🙂
fair enough, i was only thinking about singular homology really
I somehow doubt that they want to get into acyclic models in their paper
btw this is some of the coolest stuff i've seen in a while, thanks!
really nice and short
yeah i am like
a collector of all things acyclic models
i hoard everything i come across
nice
Barr wrote a 200 page book on applications of acylic models
yeah i saw that but never really made the time to look into it
it's not bad it's like
pretty self contained
it's like 120 pages of general hom alg to just get all the groundwork laid for the main theorem and applications
dude really likes acyclic models
you too apparently xd
i dont know much about them except the few applications i've seen, but they are all really neat
i just found a new version of the theorem last night
and i've been thinking about it this morning
it's in an old paper of borel
maybe you could actually introduce singular homology like this in an algebraic topology course if there was a course on homological algebra and some category theory the semester before
we only got to see acyclic models very briefly in the follow up course sadly
just start the algebraic topology class with like 6 weeks of category theory and ignore the kids who keep asking about """"" spaces """""""
whatever those are
our class literally started with the eilenberg steenrod axioms lol
Just start with spaces, define homotopy types, and then stabilize them
then you never need to define singular at all
Just provide the t-structure on spectra and note that the heart is equivalent to Abelian groups
then you get singular homology for free
nice
is this understandable without too much knowledge on infnity cats and if so do you have a paper / source recommendation for this
hm
i know how the stable category is triangulated
but ive never worked with t structures
So this is just a very dumb way of saying
that the spectra with homotopy concentrated in degree 0
are the EM spectra
which are equivalent (as a subcategory) to abelian groups
oh i see
yeah ok that was actually mentioned in our course
but not shown
that EM spectra are "the way to port algebra into stable htpy theory" or something like that
Right
So the construction is usually not so bad, but is model dependent
You start with EM spaces and just apply the \Sigma^\infty functor
i dont mean to interrupt but ive heard about homotopy having a meaning in other categories. are there examples of uses of this?
this is just model category theory and infinity category theory
the basic example is the derivated category
where "homotopy" is really just homology
derivied category
oh yeah we also had a construction of these, but we didnt show that the stable htpy groups are concentrated in deg 0
Oh
I mean thats a very simple computation
Since the EM spaces have homotopy concentrated in a single degree
you just write down the relevant colimit
and see that its identity in degree 0 and 0 everywhere else
unless you are saying you didn't show that EM spaces have homotopy only in one degree
which follows from their construction
no yeah ik that
i wonder if there is an inbetween where homotopy isnt either homological algebra or the usual theory
EM spectra makes me think "electromagnetic spectrum"
i think its just that we had a different construction
we didnt work immediately in the stable category
There are all sorts of model categories and infinity categories out there
but worked with the model of orthogonal spectra
well they're certainly better than symmetric spectra imo
many things are better than garbage
xd
what other model do you prefer then
these ideas were super revolutionary
or do you just not care at all
but the infinity categorical approach to spectra is just miles better
true, that was also mentioned in the introduction
this has to be related to spectra right? or dont you need talk about spectra when talking about homotopy in other categories?
you dont
but you cant just require that ppl know infinity category theory in their 2nd master semester
Spectra end up being integral to the theory of stable homotopy categories
True, I would use sequential spectra
Assert it exists
hm
stable homotopy theory is just pretty cool
bruh moment
in early grad school anyway
i want to study AT but i only took one course
I worked with Peter May at UChicago as an undergrad
and i think exploring is good
and that basically set me on this path
woah!
cool
Did his REU twice and mentored for it once
oh jesus
i heard later on you dont really care much about the actual model as you said, and the phd student i talked to also said that they think of spectra as abelian groups
are u phd there?
I probably would not have gone to grad school if I didn't already know what I wanted to research, and before I clicked with AT I was sort of getting bored with math
I'm a PhD student at UCSD
working w Zhouli Xu
i guess this will get more clear at some point but rn it just confuses me
ive heard omega spectra being something about abelin groups
but thats all i know
The first statement is correct
i guess thats from the E_infinity stuff
the second statement is unhinged lol
I think the right way to think about it is like
Stable homotopy categories (triangulated categories) are something in between
a "space like" category
and an abelian category
But there are fundamental differences
hmm ill learn more about that next semester
we're doing a seminar on enhancements of triangulated categories
with lots of infty stuff in it
nice!
Yeah currently AT has a pedagogy problem
where to read basically any paper written in the past 5-10 years
you need to know lurie's approach to infinity categories
but this stuff can be hard to learn and its rarely taught
and that takes a long ass time to get used to
I think graduate schools just like
need to offer topics courses on them at this point
there was a 3 semester course on infinity categories here in bonn before i came here, and since then nothing of the sort
eh sadly its kinda dying out rn
at least it feels like it
schwede is basically the only one doing this
rest is geometric topology
or at least the people at the max planck institute doing this stuff are not giving lectures
it is what it is
yeah i know him already
oh fuck lol
how'd I miss good old toby
Tobias Barthel is like
one of the pre-eminent people in my field
hes the guy who told me spectra are like abelian groups lmao
he doesnt teach and doesnt do master theses sadly
Yeah but maybe you can still corner him or get coffee or something haha
It would be a shame to be at Bonn and never meet with him
most of the people i know from the weekly topology seminar, but he's never been there afaik
well i still have a while to go
like 1 or 1.5 years for master
I hear he might be a little on the private side
planning to start thesis early next year and do something like global homotopy theory
Nice!
Ugh I have so many projects I want to do
and this semianr
relatable
also since i got here ive basically only been doing abstract stuff, and i feel a little sad that i never really did a lot of computations
especially with cohomology operations and the like
or spectral sequences
which apparently everybody dreads but i've never actually done them
They are not so bad
i think i saw your video on the serre spectral sequence on yt a while ago
i really liked it
hahah like you found it independently?
yeah it was recommneded to me actually lol
oh wow almost 500 views
im basically famous
holy shit my hair is so short
If you want to read some like
stuff at the edge of abstract homotopy theory and computations
rn i also have an exam coming up in one week on L^2 invariants, its a good refresher to do some more geometric type topology
work by my advisor Zhouli Xu, Dan Isaksen, Bogdan Gheorge, and Guozhen Wang might be of interest
aight i shall add that to my readlist
oh motivic
and what most of my current research is related to
i have absolutely no idea what that is
There are a few different ways to think about it
one is as a homotopy theory for schemes
The other way to think about it is as a deformation of spectra with respect to the Adams-Novikov
I also don't love AG
I think about it as the latter thing
i tried it when i came here but the course was just straight up insane
bonn ag is not to be messed with
I think AG requires a particular brand of persistence and interest to really get invested in
and if it doesn't click with you its hard to force it
I've been stuck on this for a while. for b id think That it's similiar to tychoffs theorem and I choose each of these sets in the family to be compact.
I know for the product topology on an infinite family for any open set O there can only be a finite number of preimages $\pi_i(O) \neq X_i$ but this restriction doesnt seem to appear here
matthew
here it would appear that each for $(X_i,i) \subset \coprod X_i$, $X_i$ is an open set.
matthew
Assuming all X_i are non-empty, there needs to be a finite amount of them for their disjoint union to be compact
Because X_i form an open cover of the disjoint union
And are disjoint
Right, that is the problem that was scarying me
But that is a condition on the size of A and not $X_a$
matthew
Next, each X_i needs to be compact, because they are closed in the disjoint union
Too bad, it'll depend on A
Now what's left is to prove that a finite disjoint union of compact sets is compact
That Im comfortable proving
But what you are saying is that we can't treat infnite families
No. All but finite amount of X_i need to be empty
ok, then I know what to do. Thanks
Np.
I just thought I had to treat infintie families and I went crazy
Well. You do, but it's not compact there
Because if X_i is non-empty for infinite amount of i then non-empty X_i form an open cover without any subcover
So their disjoint union isn't compact
Does anyone have a SVK diagram for more than 2 open sets?
I would like to know if it is just the SVK diagram for two with another branch off the bottom
nlab has the statement for two open sets, but hatcher has it for any number so long as the intersections are "nice" https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/van+Kampen+theorem
wolfram has this as well https://mathworld.wolfram.com/vanKampensTheorem.html
(though it cites hatcher lmao)
Not sure what you mean by diagram?
in the category of groups you should get the colimit of the diagram where you have all the three-wise intersections including into all the cover components
I mean the pushout diagram
The statement for hatcher implies we do not consider three way intersections, which is part of what makes creating the diagram a little confusing to me
elements from N come from pairwise intersections
For three open sets you should get a sort of pushout cube
The iwoat seminar has started! The recording is at https://youtu.be/HRsDJPzl_Hg . Please admire and appreciate the teaching of one of our lords and saviors, prof. Jacob Lurie!
IWoAT 2022 Summer School on Chromatic Homotopy Theory and Higher (Infinity-Categorical) Algebra
Topic: Chromatic Homotopy Theory
Speaker: Jacob Lurie
Institute for Advanced Study
Date: August 14, 2022
In Hatcher it is said that the torus forms a two sheeted covering of the Klein bottle by looking at the Klein bottle as the orbit space of R^2 through a group of the form (ZxZ) x< Z/2Z, which has ZxZ as an index 2 subgroup (here x< indicates a semidirect product).
Is this a general theorem? How would it be rigorously stated?
(That subgroups of deck transformations correspond to orbit spaces that cover the original space?)
What is a borel action?
They either mean that every g represents a Borel map or that it's jointly Borel
Most likely the latter
what borel structure on G?
G is a discrete group
Which means it's homeomorphic to natural numbers
Being a topological space, it has a Borel sigma-field
yeah but it can be homeomorphic in many different ways, its not clear that those ways preserve the group strucutre or something like that
What's your point
i dont see why it doesnt matter which homeomorphism to natural numbers you take actually nvm
its discrete so doesnt matter
i understand now
That was just to help you imagine what that is topologically
i was thinking about 2^N instead of discrete for some reason
The group structure is irrelevant to me
since its discrete it doesnt matter, i was thinking about non-discrete topologies and those could be put in different ways in G
and that could perhaps matter
Idk. No one says it's a topological group
But ig that's implied. But doesn't matter
We were talking about in what way the action can be Borel, and giving G a topology answers the question (+- it's not really "Borel" but more like measurable because X doesn't have a topology but that's like, can be ignored)
yeah but if the topology on G wasn't discrete, then different ways to put the topology on it could make the map stop being measurable
wait
if G is discrete then isnt any map measurable ?
Doesn't standard borel imply a measurable space structure
You have a map from G x X to X
ah ok
I think they're then asking for the action of g as a map X\to X to be measurable
Yes
Idk if they mean that the action is measurable as a map G x X\to X
What's the context Carla
borel equivalence relations
If you google Borel actions then they mean for the whole action to be measurable
Not just the maps from X to X corresponding to elements of G
Alright then
Anyway I think those might be equivalent but I don't want to bother proving it
(in this case of G discrete)
it is equivalent cuz inverse image of open open iff of form whatever x open in X
replace open by measurable

huh
Yeah actually it is simple
$$h:G\times X\to X,\ A\subseteq X$$ with $A$ measurable, then $$h^{-1}(A) = \bigcup_{g\in G} ({g}\times X \cap h^{-1}(A))$$ is a countable union of measurable sets.
Im not 100% sure im clear on what you're asking but here the neighborhood being evenly covered means that its preimage under p: X tilde -> X is a union of disjoint opens mapped homeomorphically onto N_t x (a_t, b_t)
and the point is that because such U cover X, you have F(y, t) in some U evenly covered by p. then the preimage of U under F in Y x I will contain such a N x (a_t, b_t), since the N and (a_t, b_t) cover Y and I respectively
tilde F isnt being used at all in this part of the proof
(it might help to like, draw a commutative diagram and look at it while thinking about this stuff because its kinda easy to mix up maps)
Oh you’re right, I was just mixing up maps. Thanks for pointing that out
Not sure how to approach this. I know it's easy to map X to a line segment, and X is a collection of line segments of length 2 B_i so I tried to think of f as a family of functions {f_i}_{i \in I} each defined by the preimage of f on a closed line segment B_i, and I know I can take the extension of each of the f_i's and that i can define f by each of the f_i's but it didnt seem like i could define an extension of f from this family of extended functions.
Another idea I had was to compose f with a map $g: R^n \rightarrow R$, and then I can take the continous extnesion of $g \circ f$ but I know g cant be a continous injection so that seems like a problem
matthew
look at the components of your map from A to the ball
you can apply tietze to each of those
you'll just have to make sure, either in the application of tietze or after the fact, that the extension takes values in the ball
forgot how to english words
what do you mean by components
oh geez I should have thought of that. oof
empty brain moment, ok then i know how to proceed
I came across an old notion of factorization system in the literature and it's all spelled out somewhat "equationally"
I am posting this here because i am hoping that more recent literature has given an equivalent formulation of the notion more .. categorically
like
idk factorization systems are a kind of algebraic structure right
So let C be a category and M be a subcategory of C. (Faithful but not necessarily full)
Our factorization will, for each u : m -> c, where m is in M and c is in C, return a kind of 'terminal factorization' of u through morphisms in M; the factorization gives a decomposition
u = beta(u)\circ alpha(u) where alpha(u) is a morphism in M.
It should satisfy the following axioms:
- alpha(id_m) = id_m; beta(id_m) = id_m.
- For any u, alpha(u) is a morphism in M; for any u : m -> m' in M, alpha(u) = u, and beta(u) = id_m'
- For any u : m -> c, alpha(beta(u)) = id_m' and beta(alpha(u)) = id_m'
- alpha(alpha(u)) = alpha(u); beta(beta(u)) = beta(u)
And lastly
~tex [\begin{tikzcd}
m && c && {c'} \
& {m'} && {m''}
\arrow["{\alpha(u)}"', from=1-1, to=2-2]
\arrow["{\beta(f\beta(u))}"', from=2-4, to=1-5]
\arrow["{\alpha(f\beta(u))}"', from=2-2, to=2-4]
\arrow["u", from=1-1, to=1-3]
\arrow["f", from=1-3, to=1-5]
\arrow["{\beta(u)}"{description}, from=2-2, to=1-3]
\end{tikzcd}]
diligentClerk
in the diagram above,
$\beta (f \beta(u)) = \beta(fu)$ and $\alpha(fu) = \alpha( f\beta(u))\alpha(u)$
diligentClerk
I have tried a bunch of different ways of taking a crack at this but to no avail
I am not sure if this is the right place to ask, but if I want to define limit of sequence of non-closed subsets, is it possible? can they form a Hausdorff space?
Can you give more detail about the scenario? If X is a space and we take an ascending chain of subsets, we could take their union or their direct limit
oh, sorry, If X is Riemann sphere, can we define limit of sequence of non-closed subsets of Riemann sphere
There are ways to give the topology to all subsets of a topological space but they are almost always not Hausdorff
And not very interesting
Try book hyperspaces by Nadler
Am I correct in computing the universal cover of a sphere with a diameter as an infinite alternating chain of spheres and intervals
Thank you!
If Dn and D converges in Hausdorff distance, do their complement also converge
And for a sphere with a circle intersecting in two points x_0, x_1, I’d get this infinite pattern of helices tangent to spheres?
Pictures of the two. First is easy to see from drawing but the second is whacky to draw
I don't think so. Consider R(t) = {r exp(2pi is) : 1 < r < 2, 0 <= s <= t}, then R(1-1/n) should converge to R(1) but closures of R(1-1/n)^c are continua in the Riemann sphere while closure of R(1)^c isn't, but this impossible
The space of subcontinua of the Riemann sphere is compact
You can probably see this explicitly too
The point 1.5 exp(2pi i (1-1/(2n)) should be the culprit here
Thank you
I agree with this but the way I’d compute it may be different
A sphere with a diameter is homotopy equivalent to a wedge sum of a sphere + a circle
And wedge sums behave quite nicely with universal covers
Great blog post abt this: https://www.math3ma.com/blog/a-recipe-for-the-universal-cover-of-x-y
Below is a general method - a recipe, if you will - for computing the universal cover of the wedge sum $X\vee Y$ of arbitrary topological spaces $X$ and $Y$. This is simply a short-and-quick guideline that my prof mentioned in class, and I thought it'd be helpful to share on the blog. To help illustrate each step, we'll consider the case when $X...
Thanks I’ll give that a look later!
Yeah alright I see, this is how I approach wedge sums too so good to know it’s not unjustified. And I’m pretty sure the same method also confirms my second drawing so that’s cool, thanks 👌
I just always feel a little unrigorous about making universal covers because it feels very intuitive I kind of just imagine starting from a point and extending the space in local steps while keeping stuff simply connected, but then I never bother getting a explicit form of the space or showing that you actually do get a covering space (at least most of the time it’s obviously simply connected)
Sin(1/x) continuum and {0} x [-1, 1]
Yooo
Graph of sin(1/x) for 0 < x <= 1 say and the interval I wrote
That's called sin(1/x)-continuum
Yes
(Silly example but also like a circle retracting to a point for example)
Something something, sin(1/x)-continuum is not path connected