#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages ¡ Page 707 of 407
Ok after thinking about it a little i'm starting to see it we consider all subsets so S_3 as open sets so for every element in S_n you just look at the neighborhoods when we "zoom" we can indeed see they are locally euclidean. But what does it mean for the group operations to be "smooth" sorry for sounding dumb i'm new lie groups I did take abstract algebra tho đ
someone posted a definition of smooth in the differential geometry channel not too long ago
all right i'll check sorry for the newbish questions
Is there any point to Cayleyâs theorem? Like does it have any significant consequences?
What's the point of algebras over non-commutative rings if we're going to map them to the center anyway
Doesn't it induce a map on R/[R, R] anyway
Mostly historically important because groups were originally defined to be subgroups of S_n
Similarly, what is the point of defining representations of groups when they are representations of the group algebra anyway
Hmm... I guess if you tensor an R-module by an R-algebra S then you can get an S-module. And now when you iterate then having algebras over non-commutative rings makes it more efficient
Yeah we shouldn't worry why study objects but if they arise in nature
Ohhh ok I think I briefly heard about this before but never understood, thanks for the rundown. Do you do pure maths in these years? If so, this could be really beneficial, because in the UK many people have no idea what a maths degree entails since school maths is very methods/computational, so having a prep year to see what you like/able to do could be good for deciding which way to go
Thatâs fair, and yes you do quite a bit of pure maths during that time (though I suppose that might depend on the institution)
We know that nilpotent groups are close to be abelian. Let G be a nilpotent group and let's consider all pairs (g,h). Then there are |G|*|G| pairs. Is there any lower bound such that if G is nilpotent then at least x% of the pairs commute
For example there are 36 pairs in S_3 and half of them commute and we know that S_3 is not nilpotent group so it makes sense since we interpret nilpotents as almost abelians or close to be abelian
perhaps this is a nonsense question
I don't know but it reminds me of this: https://johncarlosbaez.wordpress.com/2018/09/16/the-5-8-theorem/
Here is a proof that none exist: if we let P(G) be probability that two elements commute, we see that P(G)= |{conjugacy classes}|/|G| and if you consider the group of 3x3 upper triangular matrices with all diagonals 1 and entries in Z/pZ , you can show that conjugacy classes=p^2+p-1. So P(G)<= 1/p. Taking larger and larger p we can make this as small as we want. (Also note that this group is nilpotent since it is a p-group)
We have a cyclic group $G$ with order of 20 and a generator $a$, and the following question "How many distinct cosets are there of $H = \langle a^7 \rangle$?".
Is it fair to say that this $H$ is not a subgroup of $G$? Since if we want to calculate the order of $H$ under the assumption that $H$ is a subgroup, we have $H = \langle a^\frac{n}{t} \rangle$, so taking $\frac{20}{t} = 7$ would have to hold up, but 20 is not divisible by 7
S3BAS
per definition of the brackets $\langle, \rangle$, $H$ is a subgroup
Denascite
Okay yeah, I was confused by the theorem "for each positive divisor $t$ of $n$ there is exactly one subgroup $H \leq G$ such that $|H| = t$, and $H = \langle g^\frac{n}{t} \rangle$ but I see where I went wrong with my thinking, I cannot use this formula in the first place since 7 does not divide 20
S3BAS
Hm not sure how I'm supposed to calculate the amount of distinct cosets then, do you have a hint on what theorem/property I can use?
The formula for that would be $a^7 = 1$ right? But I'm unsure how I'm supposed to use this formula if I don't know the module H is under
S3BAS
Or $|a^t| = \frac{n}{gcd(t, n}}$ but for this I need the order of H
S3BAS
Compile Error! Click the
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don't just spoil the answer
That was my suspicion all along, but I'm trying to find the theorem/property on how to show that
Oh sorry
Oh right I was thinking the order of the element depends on the set it is in for a second
Looking back on it not sure why I was thinking that
Hm because of the theorem I feel like it was implied you apply that formula once you know the cyclic group the element it is in
well no, generally the other way around
So basically, if you know any cyclic group and the order of that cyclic group the element is in, you can calculate the order of the element
I think for this one you can just list out a few elements from <a^7>
if by order of the formula you mean order of any element a^t, then yes
cyclic groups are very nice and simple
I guess it does hold up under the assumption that G and H are under the same modulo
Since that's not specified in the assignment
not sure what you mean with modulo here
This is the assignment
It doesn't say for example that both G and H are under $\mathbb{Z}_{21}$
S3BAS
well it doesn't need to
Wdym
G is a cyclic group of order 20. that's enough
Yeah, I'm not disagreeing, just trying to understand
G doesn't have to be Z_20
it's only isomorphic to it
(which is another nice thing about cyclic groups. all cyclic groups of the same order are isomorphic)
I mean more like, shouldn't it at least be specified G and H are under the same group? Imagine G was Z_20, and H was Z_21, then the order of a^5 would change right?
well H is per definition a subgroup of G
ok granted, that is assumed within the notation $\langle a^t \rangle$
Denascite
I thought the bracket notations just mean "generated by the element of a^5", does it mean "generated by a^5 under G" instead?
yes
wdym by "under G"
because what else is a if not an element of G
Well what does "generated by" mean fully in your definition
It should be the intersection of all subgroups of G containing a^7 or equivalent
I think I'm overthinking it, I'm thinking along the lines of: a^5 just any number that happens to be a generator of G, but if you'd use that number to generate under Z_21, surely that would not be a subgroup of H
I think you seem slightly confused about the idea of cyclic groups - there needn't be any sense of "under" Z_21 (im not sure why you mention Z21 when it seems irrelevant to the question at hand)
Maybe we could discuss the topic more from the beginning?
If you use a generator of 2 under Z_10, the resulting set is different from using that generator 2 under Z_20 right?
well yes. but just because in both cases we use the symbol 2 to denote that element, that doesn't mean it's the same thing we are looking at
in Z_10 the symbol 2 has the meaning of the residue class 2 + 10Z. in Z_20 the symbol 2 has the meaning of the residue class 2+20Z. those are different things
Yeah, that's fair
and if we say that G is a cyclic group of order 20 generated by a, then the symbol a also has meaning and part of that meaning is that it only makes sense if we treat it as an element of G
So I have that $\eta = \sum_{\sigma \in H} \sigma(\zeta_p)$. I need to show that if $H \subset \left(\mathbb{Z}/p^2\mathbb{Z}\right)^{\times}$, the subgroup of prime order $p$, then $\eta = 0$. My idea was:
If $H$ is of order p, then it is cyclic. Furthermore, by Galois correspondence, $H$ corresponds to $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_p)$. Additionally, $\zeta_p = \zeta^p$; the $p^2th$ root of unity; hence, $Aut(\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_p)/\mathbb{Q}) \leq Aut(\mathbb{Q}(\zeta)/\mathbb{Q})$. Furthermore, $Aut(\mathbb{Q}(\zeta)/\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_p)$ consists of precisely of all $\sigma \in Aut(\mathbb{Q}(\zeta)/\mathbb{Q})$ such that $\sigma(\zeta) = \zeta^{p+n} = \zeta_p^n$ for $n \in {1,\cdots,p-1}$.
Ăvariste Galois
Finally, $\eta = \sum_{\sigma \in H} \sigma(\zeta_p)$
Ăvariste Galois
which is equal to $\sum_{\sigma \in Aut(\mathbb{Q}(\zeta)/\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_p)} \sigma(\zeta_p)) = \zeta_p^{p-1} + \cdots + 1 = 0$. As required.
Ăvariste Galois
I'm wondering if this looks acceptable. Or if I have made a mistake
in here, $\zeta$ represents $\zeta_{p^2}$.
Ăvariste Galois
@tribal moss@strong yacht A follow-up on the problem I posted yesterday
A friend gave me the tip to look for linear functions
And sure enough, it worked
I am really struggling to understand this proof. Can someone explain what they mean by {t_f} in bijection with the set of nonconstant monic polynomials f(x) \in k[x]?
My understanding is that they assign one indeterminate to every monic polynomial in k[x]. And then they create a new polynomial ring, in possibly infinitely many indeterminates k[fancyT]. Then they look at the ideal I generated by all the polynomials in only one indeterminate t_f in our new ring
Does this sound right?
Then they say that this has to be a proper ideal (contained in a maximal ideal M by zorns lemma), because if it was all of k[fancyT], then we could write 1 = \sum a_i f_i(alpha_i), which obviously is impossible since by V.5.7 we can create an extension where all the polynomials f_t has a root. (edited)
Here is prop V.5.7
What's footnote 5?
Nothing. It just comments on how k[fancyT] might have infinitely many indeterminates, which hasn't been covered much in the book.
this is not exactly right, they are not looking at ALL polynomials in one variable, only the ones of the form f(t_f) note that the polynomial f and the subscript f of t are the same
so if we have a variable $t_{x^2+1}$ we only put $t_{x^2+1}^{2}+1$ in the ideal
Yeah, that makes sense.
whoa, that looks slick
wait
chmonkeynumber1fan
No, yeah that makes sense.
Sorry its a little confusing to have polynomials of polynomials kind of.
it's not polynomials of polynomials tho. the subscripts just look like polynomials
Yeah I know
manner of speaking
if you want you can also index every such polynomial and then do t_1, t_2 etc
(not quite, the field might not be countable)
well the set itself serves as a good indexing set in that case
because cardinality can go far
which is why I said if you want, not that you should
Cool!
This proof is quite clever. Thanks for the help @urban ice @gritty sparrow
Np
yw
Could use a look at my proof đ
what are the sylow theorem results for groups of order p^m*q again 
mniip
that's all I can say rn
Just started reading Serge Lange's book on Abstract Algebra, and while I'm pretty sure this isnt really abstract algebra yet (as its the first chapter, which I assume are prereqs) I wouldnt really know where else to put it
I donât mean to be rude, honestly, but Langâs algebra book is really hard. This is a super classical proof of the infinitude of primes, due to Euclid more than 2,000 years ago, so if you donât see how to prove this I would strongly suggest you pick an easier book. Perhaps something like Hungerfordâs book
I see, it was recommended to me by someone I know who helps me with math
Looks correct to me, maybe just slightly more detail on why the auts in Gal(Q(zeta_p^2)/Q(zeta)) are what you said they are
it has elements of order 8 so according to GAP this narrows it down to SmallGroup(96, 64)
I don't think this is in his abstract algebra book?
The way I like to see what you posted about: Q(zeta_p^2)/Q is degree p(p-1) and Q(zeta_p)/Q is degree p-1, so Q(zeta_p^2)/Q(zeta_p) is degree p(p-1)/(p-1) = p (tower law). Then as you observed (zeta_p^2)^p - zeta_p=0, so the min poly of zeta_p^2 over Q(zeta_p) is X^p-zeta_p, with coefficient of X^{p-1} being 0 (so the sum of roots are zero, and the set of roots is just the orbit of zeta_p^2 under H, similar to our discussion yesterday)
or do I misremember something
it is there, in the first chapter on Integers
no, the first chapter is on group theory
It's titled "Undergraduate Algebra" Third Edition
Oh, he has an undergraduate book too!
Never mind, this is appropriate
Sorry, the most famous Lang book on algebra is this very hard graduate level book
oh. I never knew that
I apologize
yeah this is really basic number theory
To address the actual question you asked, this number has to have a prime factor, but this is going to be one of those numbers in the large product. If you try to divide by any of the primes N, you should end up with something that looks like
an integer + 1/N
This isnât an integer, which tells you that N doesnât divide that number, but if thatâs the case no prime divides this number, which is a contradiction
Assume by contradiction that there's a finite amount of prime numbers and define N
N > 1 so it has some prime q dividing it
Since N-1 is a product of all the primes, it's of the form kq for some k. So q divides N-(N-1) = 1. But no prime divides 1
Dumb question still talking about that DRP talk would real valued functions under composition not form a lie algebra ?
figures đŚ
Lang is a graduate level text. I'm studying it right now after taking an undergraduate level algebra class and it is still difficult. I would suggest starting with something a bit simpler like Fraleigh, especially if this is your first time studying algebra
Oh wait apparently you are studying his undergrad text
Ignore me and proceed lol
Thinking along those lines so would on ehave to show that [f,g] = f(g(x))-g(f(x)) does not equal [g,f] = g(f(x)) - f(g(x)) I think a basic example can be ported over to do this
Sorry for being newbish it took me a couple of days to get a vague idea of what a lie group even was đ˘
I mean no, you need to show this satisfies the jacobi identity
ahhh kk makes sense
Which is formal
What would be something that dosen't form a lie algebra been at this for days and haven't come up with a good nonexample
but [f, g] does equal -[g, f]
what kind of example do you want? every vector space admits a lie bracket, so i guess you want something that satisfies only some of the lie bracket axioms?
i'm looking for an example that is indeed vector space but does not form a lie algebra
let me elaborate: do you want a "bracket" that only satisfies some, but not all, of the lie algebra bracket axioms?
yeah not all of the lie algebra brakcet axioms
here's a natural example from differential geometry: given a 2-form \omega on a manifold M, you can construct a "bracket" on the space of sections of TM x R -> M which satisfies the jacobi identity if and only if \omega is closed.
specifically, the sections of this bundle are pairs (X, f) of a vector field and a smooth function, and the bracket is given by [(X, f), (Y, g)] = ([X, Y], Xg - Yf - \omega(X, Y)). a short computation shows that the "jacobiator" is equal to \pm 1/2 d\omega(X, Y, Z). this example is important in lie algebroid theory (courant bracket with a modified function term)
there are certainly easier examples, but that's the first that comes to mind
Ohh this is a clean argument. Thanks for the detailed explanation!
you can probably come up with an easy "artificial" example (e.g. take an existing lie bracket and modify it to make one of the axioms fail)
you do not have a vector space
shoot đŠ
can't come with anything
Maybe taking the lie bracket of a polynomial that isn't factorable since the Jacobi identity is equivalent to a system of polynomial equations would work since at least from what i've read there indeed has to exist a solution. But i'll have to come back to this topic when i've learned a lot more
does the minimal number of generators of a non abelian group is preserved under isoclinism?
just divide N by a prime, and you get an integer + fraction, and thus the prime does not divide N, contradiction
lang's algebra isn't that hard, i don't think. I covered part 1 while in a mental hospital, and I have really fond memories of it
i got to spend the majority of my day working on lang and munkres
and I actually found munkres harder
how do i prove the 4th claim here without transfinite induction? Is that possible?
I donât think you need that lmfao
Take an arbitrary a in the union, it lies in some E_alpha, so itâs algebraic
@fiery berry
I totally misinterpreted this, you totally need transfinite induction
These arenât just algebraic over the base
These arenât just algebraic over the base field, itâs like extending E_i+1 algebraic over E_i transfinitely
Is it true then?
Consider the chain
k < ⌠< k(t^8) < k(t^4) < k(t^2) < k(t) < k(t^1/2) < k(t^1/4) < âŚ
If it was a well-ordered chain it would make sense.
I mean itâs definitely true lol
im not sure how to prove that f(pq)=f(p)f(q) here
unless its just as simple as p(sqrt2)q(sqrt2)=(pq)(sqrt2)
and im overthinking it
just write out pq as a polynomial, stick sqrt(2) in, and show that this is the same as p(sqrt 2)q(sqrt 2)
what you wrote here is exactly what it means for f to be a homomorphism (you also need to show it respects addition and sends 1 to 1, but these should be obvious)
This is a very silly question possibly but uh how do i do 2a
Any hints
Havent working with polynomials with more than 1 variable
Why if 10^m is congru modulo nZ implies that 10 is inversible in Z/nZ ?
@delicate orchid Answering is more helpful pls :)
What don't you understand ? I thought what I've said is understandable in English
ah ok, I can answer this now
Wait I just didn't type it lol
I have trouble to understand what does " 10^m is congruent to 1 mod nZ"
Because I have and integer in one side and a set on the other
you can read "congruent" as "is equivalent"
Is it implicit that 10^m is 10^m mod nZ ?
so 10^m is in the equivalence class of 1 mod nZ
10^m is in the equivalence class of 10^m yup
Ok I have understood ty
ok then i guess i have to figure out what transfinite induction is :D but it makes sense that you need some stronger principle than induction to prove this
I understand how to solve this problem by just visualizing the cases in my mind
but is there a way to solve it using group theory?
Maybe you can use Burnside's lemma here
This should be number of orbits where we have G the group of rotations of a cube, I think
So you have different transformations of a cube and you want to count how many fixed points does a given transformation g give. This is |X^g|
You sum them all and divide by number of transformations |G|
Yep, this works
how to show the map $\rho:V \to V \rho(w)=\int_{G} gv (gv, w) dg$ is $G$ equivariant?
ProphetX
G v is action of The group on the vector v
Inner prod yes
thisâll probably be one of those nice change of variables things. Have you seen the proof Maschkeâs theorem (for finite groups)? I think itâs gonna the same trick
er idk this isnât really my ally, havenât learned much rep theory
does anyone knwo any good papers on polynomial mappings over Z/p^nZ?
in other words paper studying the following question (sort of like a generalization fo lagrange interpolation)?
For what tuples (f(0), f(1), \cdots, f(n-1)) does there exist a polynomila in Z/p^nZ[x] that takes on the values in the tupe
It is clear that you need f(ap) and f(bp) to differ by a multiple of p, f(ap²) and f(bp²) to differ by a multiple of p², and so forth.
I suspect that's the only condition.
Do you mean p|(a-b) => p|(f(a) - f(b))?
Or is it not required that f(1), f(p+1) differ by a multiple of p?
good second book on abstract algebra? I would like if it shed some light onto linear algebra too
i think troposhere is basically just saying that if x and y differ by a multiple of p^n, then f(x) and f(y) have to differ by a mutliple of p^n
@tribal moss i suspected that too
but i am not too sure how to actually prove it
like show it is sufficient
by generating an actual polynoimla
Yes, that's what I said.
like in lagrange interpolation
anyone know how to solve this?
Determine all homomorphisms $f \colon \mathbb{Z} \oplus \mathbb{Z}_3 \to \mathbb{Z}_2 \oplus \mathbb{Z}_2$
scorpio1147
i kinda know how to do it when it isnt external direct product but im sorta stuck here
I see 2x2 matrices where each entry is a homomorphism from one factor of the LHS to one factor of the RHS
wut do u mean by external direct product?
You can fill in the details
i think that distinction only matters when u have an infinite number of rings in the product?
oh these are group homomorphisms btw
this was on an old exam tho before we learned rings
Wait upto n-1 or upto p^n-1?
lemme see
Are you familiar with the universal property of the direct product?
hmmmm i can
't seem to find one?
idk ima starting to feel like the condition isn't strong enough
Same
but idk wut other conditions are needed
X^2 - X + 1
(1,1,3,3)
I think
OK so my approach (a Hensel lifting-like argument) fails
Because X^2 - X vanishes mod 2
i found this paeper that seems to talk about this type of thing
but ima finding it really difficult to read
its here
it talks about smth related to "lifting" (namely cycle lifting) not too sure if thats the same as your hensel lifting thing
Hensel lifting is about taking a solution mod p^k and picking representatives for the coefficients mod p^k+1 such that you get a solution mod p^k+1
Only that's for solutions to a factorisation problem f=gh for g,h
But something similar seemed to be happening here
The problem is that you can't just adjust the choice of coefficients mod p^k+1
Or you get stuck trying to pick 1/3 for 1 and 0/2 for 2 to turn the constant polynomial 1 into a solution
You also need to allow yourself to add polynomials like X^2 - X which vanish mod 2 but not 4
so i think the origianl claim that tropshere proposed is not sufficient right
theres def a lot ore condition
No, their condition could be (and I'm guessing, is) correct. My approach to proving it was wrong.
How many such tuples are there?
(p^k)^p à (p^(k-1))^(p^2-p) à ⌠I think?
how did u get that?
and what is k?
my idea is that you have to start from the most "specific classes" and then "geenralize"
so take care of the p^{n-1}
then the p^{n-2}
and so on
that way they sort of form an "inclusion" chain nicely
n đ
p^n choices for 0ââŚ,p-1; p^(n-1) choices for p,âŚ,p^2-1; etc.
= p^(p^n + p^(n-1) + ⌠+ p)
oh shoot i don't think this works
in this paper
they show that the number of polynomial functions mod m is $\prod_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{m}{\gcd(k!,m)}$
JustKeepRunning
Don't think what works?
Our formula for the number of such functions?
yea
like polynomial functions
Or that these are the polynomial functions?
What's n here?
like the formula is not the number of polynomila functions
$n$ is the least integer such that $m|n!$
JustKeepRunning
what?
wait
no like
idk what you mean by morally infinity
but for example if m=6 then n=3
cuz 6|3!
but 6 does not divide 2!
oh yea i see wut u are saying
You could take the product upto infinity and get the same answer
Because all the factors are 1 for k >= n
but i am not sure that helps?
i mean ig u can
if that makes it easier to think about
No, it just reassures me n is not important
yea its not really improtant
Anyway
but like the point is
like then if we use the infinity notion
the product is $\prod_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{p^n}{\gcd(k!, p^n)}$
JustKeepRunning
but this is significantly less than $p^{p^n+p^{n-1}+\cdots +p+1}$ or whatever we had
JustKeepRunning
so that means theres a bunch of tuples satsifying troopsheres condition that don't yield actual polynomila functions
actually ima pretty sure i know the number of polynoimla functions
wait no nvm
the main problem that i am tryign to solve is determing the zero divisors of the ring of polynomial functions, and i feel like knowing which of these types of tuples "qualify" as polynomila functions would drastically help wiht solving it
I think it's true that the zero divisors in any polynomial ring are those polynomials whose every coefficient is a zero divisor.
Oh, in the ring of polynomial functions.
idt this is true
i mean basically u are saying any monic polynomila in any polynomila ring is not a zero divisor
Maybe; I might be remembering wrong.
That is true, and easy to see by looking at leading terms.
Yep, I misread.
like basically there's this nice theorem in this paper
basically its just saying that if we restrict the first $n$ terms of $f$ to be less than $p,$ then next $n$ terms to be less than $p^2$, and so on, all the way up to $p^n,$ then we can generate all polynomila functions using these polynomials
JustKeepRunning
like this set of polynomila, if evaluated at every point, will give us all polynomila functions
but the problem is now I am trying to find when a(x)b(x)=0 from the COEFFICIENTS of a(x) and b(x) (likes the bounds that I have are all for the coefficients)
which is a lot harder to tell if the product vanishes because this notion of "multiplicativity" no longer holds
when I had tuples, it was true that (a(0), a(1), \cdots a(p^n-1))(b(0), b(1), \cdots, b(p^n-1))=(a(0)b(0), a(1)b(1), \cdots, a(p^n-1)b(p^n-1))
but for a product of polynomilas, the product of coefficients no longer has this nice sort of behavior
which makes it a lot harder to study
and since its polynomial functions, like, u can't just "match" the terms to 0 or to be zero divisors in Z[p^{n}] either cuz its not necessary for all the coeffs to be 0 in order to have a 0 funciton
can anyone help me with this? How am I suppose to prove the following?
it says its a corollary do u have like a theorem before it or smth?
The professor just give it away
but he mentioned something about hensels lemma would be a good approach in proving this but I just dont know how to start
In fact I retract what I said. I imagined one could find a Lagrange interpolation polynomial that vanishes at all but one of the elements coprime to p, but in the light of day that seems to be nonsense.
1-page proof of Peter Weyl theorem second part with not high level tools, machinery 
i mean the condition u gave is def necessary
but idt it is sufficient
Hello what does this notation stand for $B^{W_G}$ where $W_G$ is a finite group of automorphismes of B, B is the algebra of regular functions on a on algebraic torus and G is a reductive group?
kh
Do you have any context this notation is used in?
Hi! So apparently, given commutative rings with unity R, S with multiplicative set D in R, we have that $D^{-1}R$ is, up to isomorphism ,determined by the universal property:
For every ring hom $\phi : R \to S, \phi(D) \subset S^*$, there is a unique ring homomorphism $\psi : D^{-1}R \to S$ such that $\phi = \psi \circ \iota$, where $\iota$ is the canonical embedding into the localization.
I don't see how this property can determine the localization, as even R itself fulfils this property, but is not generally isomorphic to a localization over R. What am I missing?
AzarTheKas
You're missing the condition that the map $\iota$ itself satisifies $\iota(D)\subset S^\times$ where $S$ is the localization.
radiateur-man
With this condition the universal property determine the localization uniquely up to canonical isomorphism
Oh wow that condition is just missing from my exercise sheet
When we say that the localization map is universal among all maps $R \to S$ sending $D$ to units, that implies in particular that it the localization map sends $D$ to units đ
radiateur-man
Could you please elaborate on that? I don't immediately see how this is implied đ
Ok, it can only be viewed as the following statetement. If B is Ă complexe algebra and W a finite group of automorphism on B then B is a B^W module finitely generated
Hmmm.
probably the fixed points
Well, in general when we say that "X is universal among all Y satisfying condition C", that mean something like "X satisfy condition C and there is a unique map from X to Y for each Y satisfying condition C"
As in, the elements of the algebra fixed by all automorphisms in W.
We associate basis to finite dimensional vector spaces or is there any better word? (instead of associate)
Context?
Since V (space of functions) has finite dimension we can associate a basis of delta functions indexed by the elements of the domain of f in V
V is the space of functions X -> k with X a finite set?
Alright, I guess this makes sense. Pretty much the first universal property we have to prove and the actual meaning of universal hasn't yet been covered. Thanks a lot!
It's not really a formal meaning, but you'll see that pretty much everything we call a "universal property" has more or less this form.
yes
Your sentence is somewhat weird since it's more the fact that the delta functions form a finite basis which imply that V is finite dimensional than the other way around.
yeah I know đŚ
You can just say something like : "V has a finite basis of delta functions indexed by the elements of X"
can anyone explain the first equation
how is it the same as orthonormality of columns?
write out what "orthonormality of columns" means in terms of the entries
so the scalar product has to be zero, but why with the conjugate of the other vector's entries?
complex dot product conjugates the entries of one of the vectors
for $z, w \in \bC^n$, $$\langle z, w \rangle = \sum_{k=1}^n z_k \overline{w_k}$$
TTerra
thanks
Here is my solution, but I don't see where I usedd the assumption n>4 or if it's necessary
The aim of the second part of the exercise was constructing a polynomial of degree n with galois group Sn, so I suspect since we've classified galois groups up to degree 4 this is why they excluded it, but i'm not sure
ShiN
g_2,..,g_r are also irreducible
What is the general element of F(a_1,a_2,...,a_n)
My professor tells me its a ratio of polynomials, but I dont see it
I'm struggling with how to calculate an endomorphism
For example, say youre calculating EndZ(Q)
I think I'm struggling conceptually with what it actually means
by this, do you mean the set of endomorphisms from Q to Z, or the set of endomorphisms from Z(Q) to itself?
or even the set of endomorphisms of Q as a Z-module?
I am not really sure
From the definition I thought its the set of o s.t. o:Q->Q is a hom
But I dont see where Z comes in
I think it's just the set of group homomorphisms Q --> Q
do you know what a module is?
do you understand why Z-modules are the same thing as abelian groups?
he means a module over a ring
i'm not sure what a KG module is
oh its different then
anyway this is an important idea, and it means finding all the Z-linear maps from the Z-module Q to itself is the same as finding all the group homomorphisms from the abelian group Q to itself
Just found the definition, so from the way we've defined a module, they are all abelian groups with an action RxM->M
vector space over a ring
We've only defined left R-modules
So to find a Endomorphism, we need to consider where the generators of the module go? pls ping if you reply tysm â¤ď¸
this would work for something like problem 1.15 (the one below), but it's tricky here because Q doesn't have a minimal set of generators
In general modules aren't what's called free (aka act like vector spaces) so a map defined on generators will not necessarily be well-defined
In fact sometimes you don't even have a basis
Actually, Q is not even free
if you want a hint, ||suppose f: Q --> Q is an endomorphism; then f(n) = nf(1). what is f(p/q) in terms of f(1)?||
Yeah. Q is not a free Z-module
p/qf(1)
Because any two points x, y of Q satisfy nx+my = 0 for some non-zero n, m in Z
yes! which means every endomorphism Q --> Q is determined by the image of 1
(or equivalently, by the image of any other nonzero element)
which is why in the second q we can use where the generators go?
sorry I wasn't clear, this is only true in the setting Q --> Q
also, is f(n)=nf(1) true for every endomorphism, as in this is the definition?
no worries!! tysm for being so patient
yes that's true for any abelian group
This is from definition of Z-homomorphism
amazing ty
so overall for this question, can we write the answer as {f(1) st f(n)=nf(1)}?
{f:Q to Q : f(x) = xâ˘a for some a in Q}
whats x in that?
the argument of the function
ngl idk what that is
forgive me my first year at uni was covid year they just cancelled my classes
{f:Q to Q : exist a in Q, for all x in Q, f(x) = xâ˘a}
is this even uni-tier 
no need to shame me i'm trying to learn
argument of a function = input of a function
not shaming I'm just surprised is all
anyway, don't let me interrupt
Do you get this one?
I understand that x is the input but i meant is x in Q? And is x fixed?
Thank xdres
Thank you both so much!
So generally I can follow the method see where numbers go in f(n)=nf(1) and then this gives the set?
sorry if I patronised you a bit explaining what the input of a function is lol
no worries haha i've just never heard it called the argument before I've always called it input ahah
thank you so much for your help and patience
this was really doing my head in đ
i think i know how to do the second q
yeah, so in this situation we must have f(p/q) = p/q f(1) (this comes as a consequence of the endomorphism condition f(n) = nf(1), as well as how fractions behave)
which means all endomorphisms are of the form "multiply by something"
Great tysm!!
np
Ty too Blitz <33
You're welcome
bump, I don't see what i'm missing
IF I am missing anything
didn't you use the assumption on your third step, when you constructed a polynomial of degree n-3?
Well, if n=2, then i'm done since I can just take f_3=g_1, if n=3 I can take f_3= xg_1 and if n=4 I can take g_1 plus 2 degree 1 polynomials with distinct roots
So it doesn't really affect the final outcome
I did it like that because that was the assumption in the exercise, but it's not necessary for that part
I'm in F_5 so I have the freedom to choose 2 distinct roots
I will read this more carefully but I think it should be fine (?)
Same, I just dislike being given extra assumptions without justification
Makes me feel like I did smth wrong when I didn't use them
I think you have a typo in your next to last line, you mean f_3=g_1g_2x right?
yeah I get you
Yes
Indices can be confusing 
Yeah, I don't think you need the assumption lol
Does someone know how is the state of Differential Galois Theory these days?
heyyyyy so would anyone want to guide me through how to prove that Aut(Z_n) is isomorphic to U(n) where U(n) is the multiplicative group of integers modulo n?
look where the generators go
to generators
hint: an automorphism of Z_n is determined by where it sends 1
the other way around might be simpler
every element of U(n) gives an automorphism of Z_n, right?
(by multiplication)
yes
a
Sanity check: If k is a field a polynomial in k[x] with degree d can have at most d distinct roots since k[x] is a UFD?
Is that not the fundamental theorem of algebra
Im thinking about the one that states that a polynomial of degree n (over a field) has at most n roots
This is basicaly because k is an integral domain
The same thing works in any integral domain
Cool to know itâs that general
Doesnt it have to be a UFD?
I mean any integral domain embeds in its field of fractions so it immediately follows from the field case ig
The proof for fields is the same as the one for integral domains as well as any ring with no zero divisors
So this is just complicating it
Hmm, the argument for fields I can imagine depends on polynomial division, which doesn't immediately work in an arbitrary integral domain.
We can form the field of fractions an do the proof there instead, though.
(As Potato said).
You can divide by any monomial
So in Z[x], what is x²-1 divided by 2x-2?
That's not a monomial
Oh, monomial.
How is dividing by monomials enough? The proof I know needs to divide by arbitrary degree-1 polynomials.
Hmm, but they can be chosen to be monic, which saves us.
Okay.
A "monomial" is a polynomial with only one nonzero term (but its coefficient can be arbitrary). A "monic polynomial" is a polynomial whose leading term has coefficient 1.
Right, so over any integral domain, any nonzero polynomial is a product of monic linear factors with a leftover factor that has no roots.
Every root corresponds to one of the linear factors.
Yes. And any ring with no zero divisors as well, since commutativity is not needed
Conversely, if R has zero divisors, ab = 0, then (x-a)(x-b) has at least three roots, a, b and 0
or a = b, 2a = 0 and a^2 = 0 I suppose 
So that (x-a)^2 = x^2
Then (x-a)(x-2) is as needed, or a = 2 (or 2 = 0)
So we're looking at a ring with 4 = 0
I wonder if you can push this further and show the converse
If 2 =/= 0 then (x-1)(x-2)(x-3) has roots 0, 1, 2, 3 which are all different
so we're looking at a ring "of characteristic 2", that is in which 2 = 0
I just realized it doesn't really make sense to speak of roots of a non-commutative polynomial
since if we have something like w(x) = ax, then x is supposed to commute with a, so w(x) = ax = xa
so roots could really only be defined for the center of our ring
so let's just assume it commutes
So we have a commutative ring with 2 = 0. Question is, if there are polynomials with more roots than their degree
something like x(x-1) over the ring of diagonal matrices for some big enough n over F_2 ? I didn't follow the whole discussion. not sure what you are currently trying to do
One context in which it would make sense is if the noncommutative polynomial has coefficients in k for some commutative ring k (could be a field for example). Then we can talk about roots of the polynomial in any k-algebra since by definition of a k-algebra the action of k commute with the multiplication in the algebra.
oh, sorry, I said something different than I meant. I meant if w(x) is a polynomial with coefficients in a non-commutative ring
Sure, though in most contexts coefficients are always from a commutative ring
Yeah, polynomial with non-commuting coefficients don't really work in the first place. They're not closed under multiplication.
Otherwise you get weird stuff going on, like how do you multiply the polynomials aX and bX? Is it abX^2, but to do that you have to commute b and X which isn't really desirable
I suppose it'll work as long as we only ever evaluate them on central elements as values for X.
2 = 0 and there is some non-zero a with a^2 = 0
Z[x]/<2,x²> does that.
In Z[X]/<2, X²+X>, all four elements satisfy a²-a=0.
this follows from the factor theorem and induction on degree right?
Yes
hmm... what's an example of such polynomial there?
I mean it satisfies 2=0 and x²=0.
oh, no, I meant it has to have all 3 properties
The polynomial T^2-T has more roots than its degree
in Z[x]/<2, x^2> ?
As well as x+1.
but does it have a non-zero element a with a^2 = 0
Then look at Z[x,y]/<2, x^2-x, y²>.
wait, I got confused
I am trying to check if 2 = 0 and non-zero element a such that a^2 = 0 imply that there is a polynomial with more roots than its degree
so I should look at this and check if it works
ax has 0 and a as roots
this was easy
okay, this was actually really easy
if there are two zero divisors a, b then I can just consider polynomial ax
I was overthinking it a lot
but maybe it can be salvaged if we change the hypothesis to monic polynomials
which is a little stronger
so if there exist zero divisors, does there always exist a monic polynomial with more roots than its degree
and I've reduced it to case when 2 = 0 and a^2 = 0 for some non-zero a
Take the product of (x-b) for all nonzero b in the ring. Since the ring has zero divisors, 0 is also a root.
Hmm, no, that presumes the ring is finite.
Why not just (x-a)(x-b) for ab=0 with a and b nonzero?
Because we can have a = b
And all multiples of a are either a or 0.
I see.
If there's a monic polynomial with too many roots, then there's one that's a product of monic linear factors.
Polynomial division by monic polynomials is always possible; in particular, by (X-a), which gives you the Factor Theorem.
Then you can do the usual argument
p = (X-a1)p1 = (X-a1)(X-a2)p2 = âŚ
because (a2-a1)p1(a2) = 0 and a2-a1 is cancellative.
Oh, this was already posted. Sorry đ
I need help with 5i). From 4) I know that the symmetries of the tetrahedron are isomorphic to S4. So what I have done is paired two points with each edge and try to find what the symmetries do with these pairs of points. I thought I was going in the right direction but so far my answer doesn't match with the answer given
actually I think I've found the answer but i don't fully understand how it is right
I applied the elements A4 onto the colourings
then try to find the no.of orbits from there
but i'm unsure why I cannot include the transpositions
well how many elements are in a4
and how many rotations are possible with a regular tetrahedron
nope
@patent ocean i'm assuming you got the answer via burnside lemma?
@delicate orchid did i make a mistake?
hold on lemme make sure I'm visualising this right
yeah I'm pretty sure the reflections of the cube aren't rotations
yeah burnside lemma/ orbit counting formula
I think I get it because it isnt possible to get a transposition when applying symmetries to edges
you either get a 3-cycle or double transposition
ok i might have generalized so i'll take back that statement. What i was trying to say is that when you have a line passing through 2 non-intersecting edges in a tetrahedron, you get rotations of 180 degrees
yes that is very much true
thanks for the catch though
no worries 
through the middle of the edges?
ah yeah
does my reasoning make sense though
when applying the symmetries on the tetrahderon to S4
relating*
haha yeah and these are the elements of a4
thanks
could you give me a clue for ii) because I don't think I'm approaching it right
I'm trying to find the no. of colourings that have 0 monochromatic triangles then subtracting from the total
but my calculations are just wrong
total-(AnBnCnD) right?
the four faces being not monochromatic
A=face 1 not being monochromatic
B= face 2
etc
oh there's an easier way to think about it
how many ways can you color the edges in a tetrahedron?
with n colors
(n^6+3n^4+8n^2)/12 ''essentially'' different ways
oh just in general
the total ways you can color a tetrahedron(distinct coloring doesn't matter for now)
edges or verticies
edges
n^6
correct
so now find the numbers of ways to color the tetrahedron so that you have 1 monochromatic triangle
this is our application of PIE
no lets step back a bit
you have 6 edges
3 edges make up a triangle
Thus in order to have only 1 monochromatic triangle, two of those edges must be the same color as another edge
Thus there are n^4 ways to do this
(n)(n)(n)(n)(1)(1)
i think i kinda understand
given two edges that are connected together and the same colour
actually nah i'm lost
yeah
so 5 and 6 are not highlighted
right
in order to form a monochromatic triangle, 3 must be the same color as 5 and 6
yup
then the other three can be any other colour?
and 1,2,4 can be any other color
right yeah im dumb
nah its hard to understand unless you have a good visual
3 can be any other color as well but 5and 6 must match 3
so (n)(n)(n)(n)(1)(1)
since 5 and 6 can only be the same color as 3
yeah that makes sense
however we only focused on one edge (which was 3)
we have four possible triangles in a tetrahedron but we only focused on one
thus we have 4n^4 possible colorings with 1 monochromatic triangle
yup
Then you can try to find the number of colroings with 2 monochromatic tirangles
This one is a bit trickier
oh so then you do it for 2,3 and 4?
yup
in this way ,our final answer(using PIE) will be the number of colorings that don't have a monochromatic triangle
and then that quantity you subtracted from n^6 will be the number of colorings such that there is atleast 1 monochromatic triangle
wait how
i thought we were adding 1+2+3+4 monochromatic triangles
so how does that give no. of colouring that don't have a monochromatic triangle
my bad for being slow
4n^4 overcounts the number of colorings with 1 monochomatic triangles
if a coloring has 4 monochromatic triangles, it gets overcounted if we consider the number of colorings with 1 triangle, 2 triangles and 3 triangles
thus by PIE, we can guarantee that we don't overcount since we want different colorings
oh ok
does that make sense?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/688019/what-is-the-inclusion-exclusion-principle-for-4-sets
we're essentially doing pie on 4 sets
yeah 2,3,4 is overcounted in 1
yup
3,4 overcounted in 2
etc
yeah that formula is long af
It looks tedious to compute as well
well its a bit easier here since our sets are just the triangles themselves
for 2 triangles do I start with edges connected together or disjoint edges
so for two triangles, we can fix 4 edges
and 2 remaining edges can have n colors
so here, we're looking for pairs of triangles that are both monochromatic
oh ok
is it just 2 pairs of 2 edges that are joint
1 fixes 4 and 5 but 2 fixes 6 and 4
but there are also other possibilities
that's the only possibility for 2 triangles
remember an edge is connected to 4 other edges
thre are n^2 possible colorings for 2 triangles in a tetrahedron
since 4 are fixed and 2 can each have n possible colors
but there are (4 choose 2) pairs of triangles in a tetrahedrn
so 6n^2 in total?
i think I visualise it a bit differently maybe
I see that 5 sides must have the same colour and so there are n choice for these 5 sides and then another n choices for the remaining side that isn't within the monochromatic triangles
for 3 all edges but be same colour
so n possible colourings for 3 triangles
4n triples of triangles in tetrahedron
and 4 is just n
suck2015
First one says "Find the order of G"
but I have trouble with second one
"For which integers n ⼠1 is there an injective morphism ?"
Btw for first one I found that order of G is 6
I found that if f is injective, then n<=order(G)
so n is in {1,2,3,4,5,6}
By Lagrange, |Im(f)| divides |G| so |Im(f)| is in {1,2,3,6}. And Z/nZ is isomorph to Im(f) since f is injective so n is in {1,2,3,6}
If n = 6, Im(f) = G so Z/nZ isomorph to G and since Z/nZ is abelian so G too. Contradiction so n is in {1,2,3}
And I'm stuck here
Hope someone can help c:
For n=2, you must send 1 to an element x such that x^2=Id (this is possible)
It is also possible with n=3, (Hint: look at tau)
A flashy way would be to notice that the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{-5}$ is $x^2+5$ which is not irreducible over $\bF_3$
Icy001
You can even reverse-engineer this to produce a non-invertible element of $\bF_3[\sqrt{-5}]$
Icy001
Well maybe a more intuitive way is to just go through the process of finding an inverse for an arbitrary element of this ring and see which step will fail which will lead to a way to construct a nonunit. So you start by noticing that each element can be written as $a+b\sqrt{-5}$ where $a,b\in\bF_3$. If this has an inverse then $(a+b\sqrt{-5})(c+d\sqrt{-5})=1$ for some $c,d\in\bF_3$, so multiplying it out gives $ac+(ad+cb)\sqrt{-5}+bd(-5)=ac-5bd+(ad+cb)\sqrt{-5}$, so $ac-5bd=1$ and $ad+cb=0$. Let's just assume $a\neq0$, then $ad+cb=0$ implies $d=-cb/a$, so $1=ac-5bd=ac+5bcb/a=c(a+5b^2/a)$. Now if you want to solve for $c$ you need $a+5b^2/a$ to be not $0$, but if you think about it there is some choice of $a,b$ that makes $a+5b^2/a=0$, and such choice of $a,b$ will mean that $a+b\sqrt{-5}$ is not invertible.
Whoever
@chilly ocean
Try multiplying 1+sqrt(-5) and 1-sqrt(-5).
No problem and if you go through that whole thing you'll actually end up with 1+sqrt(-5) xD
Have you seen the concept of "zero divisors"?
A ring that has zero divisors can never be a field.
Namely, if pq=0 and p is nonzero, then q cannot have an inverse. If r were an inverse to q we would have
0 = 0r = (pq)r = p(qr) = p1 = p
Find a polynomial $p(x)$ in $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ such that $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{5}})$ is ring-isomorphic to $\mathbb{Q}[x] /\langle p(x)\rangle$.
Ji
is p(x) the irreducible polynomial with degree n?
or is it something else?
p(x) is an irreducible polynomial. You have not defined n, but p certainly has a degree.
ah yeah sorry
In fancier terms you're being asked for the minimal polynomial of sqrt(1+sqrt(5)).
n is the deg($(\sqrt{1+\sqrt{5}},\mathbb{Q})$
Ji
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
ohh alright
thankss
can u post the full problem
CuriousTalon
use mathpix
CuriousTalon
are you sure they weren't $Z_5[x]/(x^2-3)$ and $Z_5[x]/(x^2-4)$? the first one you wrote doesn't make sense. the second one is like a localization
oh ok
Yeah thanks again for being patient with me
how might i go about showing (or disproving) that an extension by separable elements is separable
wait i think i have a counterexample maybe

I'm pretty sure it's true
One way is to prove lemma: A finite extension E/F is separable iff there are exactly [E:F] many F-embeddings of E into cl(F)
And then show that if you extend by separable elements, then this bound is met
yeah nvm i just dont know how to cube things lmao
You always have no of embeddings ⤠deg of extension
cl(F)?
Algebraic closure
we havent covered it yet but i guess i could try
Oh then idk how you'd prove this lol
huh i dont think we've shown this
oh i mean it's not an exercise i was just wondering
My prof for field theory did this one big lemma on like day 2 of the course
About when extensions of homomorphisms exist
And how to count them
And then the entire rest of the course is just spamming this same lemma over and over again
Here we are just counting the extensions of the inclusion of F into cl(F)
So ye this is pretty fundamental in my opinion lmao but idk some books seem to do field theory very differently
so what's the lemma precisely?
oh dont waste your time if it's that long haha
Don't have my notes from then with me
Nah I won't include proof
But will I remember all the cases he covered
yeah looking back at my notes i think the only cases of extending homomorphisms we've looked at is extending an isomorphism into the splitting fields of a related polynomials or into simple extensions
sadge
so just to be sure by F-embedding here you mean an injective F-algebra homomorphism right
Injectivity is redundant
I mean homomorphism that maps the copy of F inside E to the copy of F in cl(F)
Ye I think that's exactly an F-algebra homomorphism
that's not necessarily injective though right? or am i being stupid
In particular it is a field homomorphism
Fields only have 2 ideals
1 has to map to 1 so can't be in the kernel
So the kernel is the 0 ideal
cool lemma
omg yeah im dumb
if that can be used to prove entire galois theory
This is sort of a paraphrasing, there were like 4 cases that we studied specifically in this second part
oh you mean this is just counting the number of ways to extend to a particular field
But you can probably get the idea of how counting roots and counting extensions are similar, and this is why when discussing F-automorphisms (extensions of the identity) the roots and separability/normality results come in
yeah we didnt prove that but it's pretty intuitive
i thought you meant how many field extensions existed or smth
And there's value to having the lemma prewritten
like how many different E's for an F
Oh lol
No of homomorphism extensions not field extensions
So ye the earlier claim follows from this stuff rather quickly
This one
right that makes sense
That's the best case because Ί has all the roots and the polynomials are all separable
you're just looking at all the roots of min poly and checking that they each contribute to an embedding
Yes
okay makes sense
But in a weird way
Because this happens inductively
If you try the induction you'll see that you want minimal polynomial over F[a,b,..,something]
Like you've already extended a bit and have to extend more
right
So minimal polynomial is not over F anymore but things still work out lol
i see
and extending by one separable element, i have [E:F] = # of roots of min poly = number of F-embeddings so that shows extensions by separable elements are separable right
Ye

we agree that in part 3 we need alpha to be a root of f still right?
it's not very clear that it keeps the hypotheses of part 1
here its saying in 3) that if L is the splitting field of f then the minimal poly of alpha splits in L
and part 1 tells us that the galois group permutes roots of f
in principle alpha is an arbitrary element of L an arbitrary extension, its only assumed it's a root of f in part 1
seems to me necessary for part 3 too though
What does corps mean
field or fields
I see
Ye you need f to have some root in L
Wait no
I mean you probably need alpha to be a root of f
yeah exactly thought so
this was confirmed in the proof, where at one point they say "because alpha \in L..."
someone asked me if every ring is a monoid.
i told them i wasnât sure if that question made sense?
because you have to pick under which operation either a ring would be a monoid under: + or *, and in the case of + itâs a monoid since under + a ring is a commutative group and under * itâs a monoid since rings are monoids under * with left / right distr.
so without specifying the operation of consideration it doesnât make sense to ask if âevery ring is a monoidâ
is my response correct?
Yes
thanks!
sidenote, to prevent italics, you can use \*
You prove this by induction one simple extension at a time, right?
If p_min(Îą) is q(X^p^k) where q is irreducible separable, then the number of extensions of embeddings of F to F(Îą) should be deg(q).
So is this inequality actually a divisibility relation?
With ratio of degree to number of extensions a power of the characteristic
I think divisibility will mess up in the inductive step
Because depending on what root you map the first generator to, you will get a different number of choices for the next one
[L:L^p] isnt necessairly finite right
i need a gut check, completed an exercise where i ended up showing midway that K is field-isomorphic to K^p for K a field of characteristic p>0
is this correct?
Ye frobenius map is an isomorphism
coolio
don't think so
You can have F[{x_i}]/F[{x_i^p}]
should be able to take something like F_p(t_1,t_2,....)
yeah
just cause it's one line, since it's clearly surjective, just show injectivity by x^p=y^p means 0=x^p-y^p = (x-y)^p so x-y=0, I think that should do it
yeah i mean i did prove it it just didnt sound realy right with my intuition
I guess I figured since you were unsure and didn't post your proof that meant your proof was really long or something weird was going on with it
better safe than sorry
yeh thanks
i hadnt proved it that way because i only really proved it as a biproduct of another result
i was uniquely extending automorphisms from K^p to K
In general field homomorphisms are injective so that isn't needed
lmao true
I worried about that, but it depends only on the minimal polynomial of β over F(ι), which doesn't depend on the choice of embedding of F(ι)
I think
Is the number of extensions 1 for a purely inseparable extension?
In that case, IIRC there is some separable/purely inseparable parts for any extension and the number of embeddings should be equal to the degree of the separable part, hence dividing the overall degree.
The number of embeddings of Q[sqrt2, 4th rt2] into R should be a counterexample
I mean the number of choices available for 4rt2 depend on choice of sqrt2
Isn't it supposed to be embeddings into an algebraic closure?
oh then you're good in any case
okay im gonna sound like an idiot but ive literally been staring at the polynomial x^p-a for about 1h trying to determine how to show it's irreducible when K is of characteristic p and a is in K\K^p
a hint is all i need
In its splitting field, it splits as (x-b)^p
sure yeah i did that
So the splitting is (x-b)^k (x-b)^(p-k)
yeah
why can you say this
constant term of one of the factors
I remember struggling with the same problem once lmao
Solved it together with saketh in the end 
aight well that makes me feel less bad lol
is there any particular reason we're choosing b^k instead of b? I mean we have k*(-b) in K since that's the degree k-1 coefficient of (x-b)^k so we would straight away get that b is in K since k<p no?
I guess that works better ye
so like could someone help me with this
pls
:>
The image of 1 under the automorphism determines the automorphism uniquely
Check which images of 1 give you automorphisms
it sends 1 to some a in U(n) depending on the automorphism
this is what I have written:
$$\text{Aut}(\mbb Z_n)={\sigma_a:a\in U(n)}\cong U(n)$$ where $\sigma_a:\mbb Z_n\to\mbb Z_n, \sigma_a(1)=a$
gmod
So, I have 12 characters from a group. But there's only 11 conjugacy classes. How could I find the one that's not from an irreducible representation?
yeah I did it
and its one
but shouldn't I have 11 characters? One for each conjugacy class?
what field are you over
Or am I missing something? We know there's the same number of irreducible representations as conjugacy classes. So, since every irreducible representation is completely described by its character. And I have 12 characters?
cause unless it's something bizarre then yes you should have 11
unless there's actually 12 conjugacy classes
its 11, the field is C
super odd