#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 558 of 407
Don't tell me lax wrote a book on rings
which part are you trying to prove
I like Herstein Topics in Algebra, it's a little old school but I just get it
im doing the excersises in that book
theres a few differences
in notation
to me
@thorn delta could you explain what you meant - the ruler and compass constructions
why you cant double a cube
or square a circle
squaring a circle has to do with transcentality of pi, which might be slightly different than trisecting an angle or doubling a cube. But the basic idea is that in order to construct a cube with volume 2, you have to be able to solve x^3 - 2 = 0. This polynomial is irreducible over Q[x], so it gives you a field extension of Q of degree 3. But all constructible numbers (numbers you can reach with ruler and compass) belong to field extensions of degree a power of 2.
so the article that i just linked, saying it is possible to do it in euclidean space time
(irreducible basically just means you can't factor it over the rationals here)
does that mean that the field extensions do reach a degree of 3 in euclidean space time
i think these extension fields are beyond my reach
it looks really interesting but i dont think ill be able to understand it enough to write a whole paper
maybe my research is too superficial
honestly, idk enough physics to have a clue what's going on in a cursory scan
i mean, i think the nitty gritty part about field extensions would have to be handwaved a bit without some algebra knowledge. A big part of the proof though, is identifying the constructible numbers. This part is purely geometric (and elementary algebra i guess)
the reason why i think its mostly doable is this: consider the proof that you can't trisect a 60 degree angle:
its mostly stuff a high schooler can understand, UNTIL the very last part
but irreducibility isn't that difficult of a concept: it means you can't factor it (in coefficients of that field). Also, without knowing exactly what the degree of a field extension means, the degree of the field extension it defines is simply the degree of the irreducible polynomial you started with.
oh so this is how ruler compass stuff connects to field theory
@terse orchid but idk, you should choose whatever you feel comfortable doing. don't let me sway your judgement lol
i think non-constructibility arguemnt with field theory is refreshingly accessible for a high schooler
is sqrt(2) constructable
because u can just draw a right triangle with two legs of length one
giving u a hypotenuse of sqrt(2)
yeah, that's right
which agrees with sqrt 2
or
the rationals generated over root 2
is an extension of degree 2
yea, as long as your extension of Q is degree a power of 2, its np
shit
algebra is pretty cool ig
this is the first time I've seen it applied in a concrete wat
way
how can a group have more than 1 Sylow p-subgroup?
if a Sylow p-subgroup is the maximal p-subgroup
if I had two Sylow p-subgroups, then they must contain each other (right?), so they are equal
"a Sylow p-subgroup is the maximal p-subgroup" this is not right, a sylow p-subgroup is a maximal p-subgroup, not "the". or maybe a p-subgroup of maximal order
sure, but if it's maximal, it should contain all other p-subgroups right
no, that's not what maximal means
eg in the context of sets, a set A is called maximal with property P if there does not exist another set B such that B has property P and A is a strict subset of B and
there is another term, for the definition that i think you are thinking of, for any set B satisfying P to be a subset of A
hmm
so let's say P is a Sylow p-subgroup
then if H is a p-subgroup that also contains P, it must be exactly P?
yes
and this is clear from order considerations, since if |G|=p^a*m, then P is order p^a, so there are no p-subgroups with order strictly larger than that of P
but I can have a different p-subgroup K (which doesn't contain all of P) and this K may also be a Sylow p-subgroup, correct?
yes
towards the end of the proof, why does Lagrange's Thrm imply that H \cap K = {1}?
H \cap K is a subgroup of H and K, so its order divides the order of H and K, p and q by lagrange theorem, so it must be 1 since p and q are distinct primes
@south temple
(Also fun fact all groups of order n is cyclic iff n is square free and for any two prime divisors p and q or n we have the conditions p does not divide q-1)
ah right! I was trying to apply Lagrange's with the original group G..
and the order of xy is pq because order of xy is lcm(ord(x), ord(y)) right?
I'm not sure what you mean here, but the thing is we really can't say anything about the order of a product of two elements in a non abelian group
It can be literally anything
I'm referring to the last sentence of the proof I sent
there, they have determined that H and K commute
oh yeah then yes
x and y commute so the order works out nicely
(btw by literally anything, I meant for any positive integers m, n, r, there exists a group G and elements x,y in G such that the orders of x, y, xy are m, n, r, respectively)
Does anyone know what "F.K. derivatives" are here and where I could read more about them?
@prisma ibex Do you know anything about this?
have you checked the references
for something by schmidt
last reference here is in german lol
but i think this is the concept?
I did
And I got some other paper in german lol
What am I being asked to prove here? isn't ii the definition of i, being flat?
I don't understand what the theorem is trying to say...
I think like
A priori flat means it turns a LES into a LES
But ii) says it suffices to look at SES
Which isn’t a fact about tensor, so much as a fact about exact functors
ahh
dang, I see
so when someone says "exact sequence", I should think "LES"
and I should use the fact that I can always break an LES into SESes to show that it suffices to be flat on SES?
Nice, thank you! I now understand what the question is asking 😄
Well that’s how I interpreted it since it said “all exact sequences”
Some sources define an exact functor as sending SESs to SESs
Or even just something of the form
A -> B -> C which is exact to an exact sequence
But they’re all equivalent
I have a question I'm hoping someone can answer

One second I was writing something down to illustrate my point
So I've got these stars here
Which describe the algebraic structures of various integers mod n under addition
I was playing around a little and noticed that if you draw a line through 0
Then the additive inverses for each number rest on either side of the that line of symmetry.
It worked for Z mod 8 and Z mod 5
But I'm curious if this is true in general
Like can I do that for every n pointed star?
I'm not quite sure what you're saying
So take Z_5
And draw a line through 0
Oh wait I think I understand
Yeah I think this is always true
I couldn't find anything about this specific property in the Google search I did
That's why I asked here
This is somehow representing the property that $-m\equiv n-m$ mod $n$
Have a Banana, Bitch
Hmm
There isn't anything very deep going on here
I didn't figure as much
I just wanted to know what was going on there.
It was just a neat thing I noticed while playing around on Brilliant's number theory course.
They didn't explicitly say that this is what the star was describing but I picked up on it and started playing
There's also apparently nice little ways to describe cosets with this as well
🍰
Is F*/(F*)^2, the multiplicative group of a field over all the squares, always {-1,1}?
That’s not true for most fields
Oh ok that’s much more wild
Ok what are some typical examples of F*/(F*)^2
For finite fields I realized that if the characteristic is not 2 then the quotient should still be 2 elements
acually i guess for all finite fields except in char 2 it is also Z/2Z
Though need not be generated by -1
Eg in F_5, -1 is a square
Yeah
For Q, the quotient is a countable direct sum of Z/2Z
Oh
For any field F the quotient will be a vector space over F_2 so the only question is what the dimension is
For C it’s 0, for R and for finite fields of odd characteristic, it’s 1, for Q it’s countable dimension
For the p-adics it’s 2 if p is odd and 3 if p = 2
Yes
It’s an abelian group on which “multiplication by 2” which is just squaring in this instance is trivial
the operation is multiplication, so instead of x + y you have xy
And instead of x + x you have x^2
A vector space over F_p is just an abelian group where “multiplication by p” is 0
This part
And sham congrats!
🥳
You can use this to prove some neat stuff in group theory whoever
Like classifying groups of order p^2
Ah ok
And this doesn’t just work with squares
You can also say quotient by all cubes is a Z/3Z vector space
Right
Yee
ig for non primes it’s only a module
In fact these are pretty important groups in number theory
They tell you a lot about the field
Whoever it's also interesting to think about what happens with fields that have an indeterminate
Like F2(t)
I mean
It’s countable so the quotient is a countable sum of Z/2Z right
Although that tells you nothing about how the elements are like
well, yes
Not necessarily, no. The algebraic closure of Q is countable but the quotient is trivial
But it is true in this instance
Yeah that’s true
I was just thinking it doesn’t tell you what elements are squares and what are not
I guess really I'm just thinking that F2(sqrt(t))/F2(t) is a neat/fucked up extension
Yeah
Well it doesn't if you only remember the dimension
But it does if you eg know a basis
Isn’t that the typical example of an inseparable extension?
yup
Nice
Can you elaborate more on this
Oh i guess just like in general they tell you about quadratic extensions of a field
Oh haha its fine i was going to mumble something about local class field theory
I would still like to hear it 👀
do you know any galois cohomology 
I hope you are not driving and discording
my friend is going to give a talk on algebraic number theory/maybe group cohomology stuff for our friend group
I'm very hyped
oh nice! i am sort of a "galois cohomologist" by trade so I find it super interesting
one thing I can say about why F*/F*^2 is interesting for some fields
take F = Q_p
local class field theory (huge blackbox if you've never seen it) says that Gal(Qp-bar / Qp) is isomorphic to the profinite completion of (Q_p)*
lmao gotcha
okay so what does that mean in practice
uhh none of those are profinite I don't think
(Q_p)^\times
I thought it was a dual
yeah sorry the notation is bad haha and I was too lazy to write \times
Alright I'm on board
so let's consider abelian extensions of Qp. for simplicity let's start with cyclic extensions Z/pZ
these are (surjective) homs from Gal(Qp-bar / Qp) to Z/pZ
yup, makes sense
by the isomorphism from local class field theory, since Z/pZ is a finite group, these are the same as (surjective) homs from Qp* to Z/pZ
Also makes sense! Neat
all of which factor through Qp*/Qp*^p
Right
So we're really looking at the dual of Qp/Qp^p
Lmao I almost asked
but was like
"he knows what he's doing"
hahahaha sorry yeah every prime is p
no but really the p in Q_p need not be the same as Z/pZ extension
so we could look at Z/17Z extensions of Q_5
Right
but yeah -- Hom(Qp*/Qp*^q, F_q), which is the F_q-dual of that quotient, tells you what Z/qZ extensions of Q_p there are
moreover, this isomorphism from local class field theory is functorial in extensions. All of this is true for any finite extension K of Q_p
with the absolute galois group of K being iso to the profinite completion of K^\times
And what's making this tick is the profinite completion thing
it wouldn't generalize to just some field
right, this is very specific to local fields
That's very cool
yeah!
you can also make this kind of explicit -- suppose we have some extension L/K of local fields
(I'm reading local field as finite extension of the p adics)
then G_L is a subgroup of G_K (with quotient group Gal(L/K) if the extension is galois)
EDIT nvm everything in this picture is abelian so everything is galois
yep
the corresponding map L^\times to K^\times is just the norm map
(or maybe some multiple of it becuase some choices are noncanonical)
Sorry what's this corresponding to? The case of a cyclic extension?
also im just realizing that ive lied to you -- everywhere I write Gal(Kbar / K) ir eally mean the abelianization of that
this thing with L and K is an arbitrary abelian extension
Right, but you said "the corresponding map"
I'm just describing like, we have these isomorphism between K^\times and G_K^ab
oh sorry, the map on the K^\times side which corresponds to G_L^ab --> G_K^ab
let me try to say this a bit better -- Under this correspondence, if we have some abelian extension L/K
then Gal(L/K) is a finite quotient of G_K^ab
which is canonically isomorphic to the quotient K^\times / N(L^\times)
where N is the norm map
Cool!
so -- K^\times corresponds to G_K^ab (with a profinite completion), and here is an explicit way you can also tie their quotients to each other
if we know L is cyclic of order p, then this in fact tells us that K^\times / N(L^\times) is a quotient of K^\times / K^\times^p
so this is a more precise correspondence than the one above -- the correspondence between Z/pZ extensions of K and Hom(K*/K*^p, Z/pZ) is "the kernel of such an extension is a subgroup, which is exactly the subgroup of norms from L"
sorry I know i'm kind of all over the place
Lol it's okay
it's been a while since I tried to explain this from scratch and I'm running into a lot of "oh i should say this, oh no wait but first I need to say something else"
this is actually really cool computationally though, like let's say I have some Z/pZ extension L/K and I know very little about it, but maybe I know some specific element x in L
and if I can calculate N(x) which lies in K^\times
in some cases that can completely determine the norm subgroup
which actually tells me everything about L
Woah
for example, let K = Q_p (again... not the same p... sorry... i'll switch to q for the other one) and let q be a prime which divides p-1 (or actually this is also true for q = p as long as they are odd). Then, Qp* / Qp*^q will be 2-dimensional over F_q.
so if we're looking at Z/qZ extensions
they should each correspond to some subgroup of this which has a quotient of Z/qZ
but because 2 = 1 + 1, this means that the norm subgroup of these extensions are all 1-dimensional
and therefore once you know a single nontrivial element, you know the whole subgroup
and therefore the whole extension
basically because Qp* / Qp*^q is 2-dimensional and every extension is some hom from this to F_q, we know that the kernels are all 1-dimensional
which means to know the whole kernel, we only need to know a single nontrivial element
Sorry I left to go get dinner
and now under the correspondence from earlier with the norm subgroup business, that means that in order to determine the kernel, which will determine the extension, I only need to find a single nontrivial element of Qp* / Qp*^q which is a norm from the extension
so if we happen to know even a single element of our extension which we can show has nontrivial norm
That makes sense
that tells us the whole extension
It's just like, functionals are determined by a nontrivial element + their kernel
yeah
and you're just lucky enough in how the dimensions work out
like, if Qp* / Qp*^q were 3-dimensional, then the kernels would be 2-dimensional, and so much harder to pin down (and impossible to pin down with only a single element)
Right
btw this exact argument is like, the proof of one of the theorems in one of the chapters of my dissertation haha
Oh no, I've made a grave mistake
or like, the theorem is "this extension is unramified if and only if some random quantity vanishes" and the proof is "by some magic this random element can be shown to be in the norm subgroup of this extension, and now by these kinds of games, this quantity completely determines our extension"
That sounds wild
I like it when math involves like, lots of weird ad hoc tricks that just about work
oh no
Tbh this sounds like the entirety of algebra and I’m terrified 
No I wasn’t driving if I was driving then I would’ve been able to charge my phone
sry having trouble finding it buried in this document
N and p are primes with N = 1 mod p
what kind of number is this lmao
a product of powers of factorials
whether or not these are pth powers modulo N tells you if some class group is trivial or not
just like, hardcore algebraic number theory probably haha
Wtf
yeah basically lol
god im looking through my dissertation now, in particular two sections which i had to like rush to write in the last 48 hours of the deadline and i have absolutely no memory of them hahahaha
it was a classic case of "ive written down the proof of this theorem in a special case and i'm rpetty sure the details work out in the general case as well, i'll figure it out later"
oh hahaha i do remember writing this line though
the restricted restriction map

ok sorry got off topic there :^)
i hope i was able to satisfy your curiosity a bit shamrock
regarding the F*/F*^p stuff
it was cool!
if youre curious about more or are still unsure of something feel free to ask or DM me :)
will do!
Aggressive algebraic number theory
As opposed to light algebraic number theory
Ok I have a question
Which I was discussing with nGroupoid#5061
So you have a perfect field k
And a split torus T defined over k, that is, T is a finite product of copies of G_m = k*, the multiplicative group in k.
Say you have a representation of T on some finite dimensional vector space V
Why is it that this action can be diagonalized?
That is, why is there a basis of eigenvactors of the action of T
sorry so just to strip out the AG for my benefit, you have a perfect field k and a linear action of $k^\times\times \cdots \times k^\times$ on a finite dimensional $k$-vector space $V$?
and you want to simultaneously diagonalize everything
is that right?
Sham aced their analysis final
Yes, so that the matrix representation of each group element with respect to this fixed basis is diagonal
Here it is done for k=C, I have not read it carefully.
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/828359/proof-of-basic-fact-that-torus-actions-are-diagonalizable/828906
But I want to see if this is true for all perfect fields k, or if this author is lying
Ok, the proof above relies on the multiplicative Jordan decomposition, which according to wikipedia,
Over a perfect field,such a decomposition exists
Maybe that's the only place where the perfect hypothesis is used 🤷♀️
@latent anvil what is the coordinate ring of (k*)^n where k is a perfect field?
Does coordinate ring only make sense for algebraically closed fields?
I have a factor group (Z4 x Z12)/(<2> x <2>), and I think the order is 4. Is this true?
I think I'm struggling to understand what context the cyclic groups <2> are in, are they both subgroups of their respective Z4 and Z12 ?
because then I would have (4 * 12)/(2 * 6) which is how I got my answer
no I was just asking if I was on the right track
I'm kinda struggling to understand factor groups and cosets, that whole kind of relationship 🤔
I have a factor group (Z4 x Z12)/(<2> x <2>), and I think the order is 4. Is this true?
that was my initial question
an external direct product, they're not generators. <2> can't be a generator of either
wdym by external?
llike not related
not a generator
but like make their own subgroups
so like <2> in Z4 would be 0,2
and in Z12 would be 0,2,4,6,8,10
right?
2 is the generator of the subgroup <2> Marlin I think you just swapped some terminology
all good
you said order is 4?
yes
see, this is where I'm not understanding
more than 4?
do I use laganges theorem or cosets, like what even am I doing when I find a coset
what do cosets even represent lmao, I've only learned the formal definition.
im pretty sure its a normal subgroup, dont remember how much that matters
so like
G/H = {g+H | g in G}
it has to be a normal subgroup to form a factor group (Z4 x Z12)/(<2> x <2>)
what mo2men said, you're just using Lagrange's theorem and the fact about the order of a product of groups
oh
I think you did it right
and a subgroup being normal implies the left and right cosets are equal ?
just side question
Z4 x Z12 is abelian and every subgroup of an abelian group is normal
ah that makes sense
thats why its a normal group, but i think both statements are equivalent
among like 12 other equivalent conditions yes 
so, what am I doing when I form a factor group. I feel like the overlap of set notation and regular division/multiplication notations is messing with me.
is it almost like a set minus?
what is a set minus?
uh
like a reletive difference operations on two sets
nah
not really
not at all
its more like quotienting
ah
its like. there are 3 groups of 4 in 12
and using cosets of subgroup
and 12 / 4 is the number of those groups
in the same sense G/H takes the "groups" of elements of G wrt H (cosets) and then scales them to a single element
so, the cosets of a normal subgroup partition the main group (at least that's what I think I've learned) I'm struggling to take it one step farther into factor groups 🤔
cosets form a partition regardless of normality
ah, good to know
normality allows you to put a well defined group operation on the cosets
gHkH = gkH
ah, that is familiar yeah
tbh kinda confusing with direct products
atleast to me
as compared with not direct products
i think quotient topologies had same confusion on me with direct products
I think a nice way of getting used to quotient groups is just writing out examples of elements and actually doing some computation, like an element of (Z4 x Z12)/(<2> x <2>) is (3,9)+(<2>x<2>)=(1,1)+(<2>x<2>). We can add it for example to (0,1)+(<2>x<2>) to get (1,0)+(<2>x<2>).
the / notation can be a little confusing at first but just remembering what the elements actually look like really helps
this is the intution i have for it
if u imagine it visually ur taking the elements of the coset and squishing it to a single element
topology brained
i assume Z2 x Z2
yeah, so like an easy one is partitioning the integers modulo into cosets
oh its zmod2?
those are the cyclic subgroups generated by 2 in Z4 and Z12 respectively as a product
i was thinking its Z4/Z2 x Z12/Z2
the context was from the problem
yes
if you imagine taking a number line and like grouping points together if theyre equal mod 3
you kind of get hte idea visually
quotient space moment 
tbh i didnt get quotient groups until i saw quotient spaces
lol
i also didnt get group actions until i did covering theory
other way around for me
i still dont understand group actions enitrely
i only had one of my friends explain stab to me
I literally just keep watching this video from 3:50 to 4:00 and I'm not understanding what she means 🤔
i feel like there's a bit of a jump there
idk
nah fam
just read a book that deals with the construction explicitly tbh
she just expects you to understand definitions
ur not going to understand it without going into the weeds and working it out
oh
speaking of going into the weeds
i have a quick off tangent question
if I were to prove that the galois group of a certain splitting field is non-trivial, I would have to show that the identity isnt the only homomorphism. To do this I need to make sure that some of the roots of the polynomial are able to be "permuted"
or something along those lines?
so like
if I have Gal(Q(a)/Q)
and need to show it is non-trivial
I just need to show that there exists an f in Gal(Q(a)/Q) such that f(a) = b for some homomorphism f?
you can always permute the roots of the minimal polynomial of a
it's a question of how many roots the minimal polynomial has
ya
hype to learn about Galois theory at the end of this semester in Abstract II, looks cool
the question i got had f(x) = x4+x3-x2-x+1 given that a is a root show -1/a is a root
i showed -1/a is a root
i was just gonna show that a potential homomorphism could take a -> -1/a
and that wouldnt be the identity
you def do have a homomorphism but what if the root is like i
then a = -1/a and you wouldn't have a nontrivial homomorphism
im confident atleast
yeah then automatically your poly doesn't have repeated roots
like you don't know if a != -1/a
it could be that you just plug in the same number twice
assuming your polynomial isn't reducible then it'll have at least 2 different roots

yea polynomial isnt reducible
it is irreducible
cuz its monic
and all coefficents are 1
and we in Q[x]
is it painmode
not painmode
its boring
it is boring
lmao
well you have some -1's in there lmao
src:me
but you can prob check some other way like the rational roots test
idk that
there are def no rational roots tho
i can confirm
is i a root of x4+x3-x2-x+1?
well i just need to give the homomorphism?
and i only have confirmed that a and -1/a are roots
so i need to show a != -1/a
but idk how m8
I'm doing research in diophantine equations and I have seen that there are a bunch of theorems relating Galois extensions to elliptic curves and the latter is what I am interested in getting more use out of to parametrize some classes of solutions
so still hype
ye i isnt a root
you should also check -i i think
-1
damn
uh it should be -i^3
1+i+(-i)^2 - i + 1
idk i would just plug into wolfram alpha tbh
bruh imaginary is too hard
,w i^4 + i^3 - i^2 - i + 1
-i = i^3 => (-i)^3 = (-i)^9
bruh moment
nice
what if a is 2i?
they'll be diff
what
cause a = -1/a iff a^2 = -1
2i = -1/2i?
ohhhh
im low iq xd
hmu if u want a favor
ty main man @small bison
np bro
Sorry I didn't get this ping
It should be k[x1,...,xn, 1/x1,...,1/xn]
wait... is this right?
Can you explain?
Hmm I'm not sure it is
okay let's do it a way I know to be correct
So first off, what's the coordinate ring of Gm = k\{0}?
🤷
Ah okay, my bad
So there's sort of a trick
You can see it two ways
the first way is to note that Gm is isomorphic to the vanishing locus of xy - 1 in k^2
just project down onto the first coordinate
That gives a bijection Z(xy-1) -> Gm
And the inverse is t |-> (t, 1/t)
Everything is a rational function, so these are (inverse) morphisms of varieties
does that make any sense?
Does this work for any field
yeah so you sort of need to clarify what context you're thinking of these things in
Are you considering Gm as a scheme?
if so it's not going to be set theoretically equal to k*
Like if k = Q you have a bunch of ghost points floating around from the algebraic closure
if you're working with them as varieties over a potentially non algebraically closed field then what I said is correct
The same maps work
(x, y) |-> x
t |-> (t, 1/t)
No, I'm thinking of it as a variety, so yeah I guess that's kind of the definition
That makes sense yeah
Cool
So with this in mind we see Gm is affine
Since Z(xy-1) is
And has coordinate ring k[x, y]/(xy-1)
This is really the localization of k[x] where we invert x
(we're just formally adding in an inverse y)
Right that makes sense, thanks
I'm always worried when I'm using algebraically closed or not
If you have a variety X in A^n and a function f on X, the set D(f) = { x in X : f(x) ≠ 0 } is affine with coordinate ring A(X)_f
where A(X) is the coordinate ring of X and we're thinking of f as an element of A(X)
The same kind of isomorphism of D(f) with Z(yf(x1,...,xn) - 1) works
anyways Gm^n is trickier. Do you know what the coordinate ring of a product of varieties is?
Actually, I might not know this....
(in the non algebraically closed case)
After thinking a bunch I agree with my original guess lol
What would it be?
Well I'm realizing it's tricky in the non algebraically closed case...
In the algebraically closed case you take the tensor product of the coordinate rings
But in the general case you might not get an integral domain back
Eg C tensor C over R
I think if you do get an integral domain it'll be the coordinate ring, and in this case you do get an integral domain
But it's not obvious to me
In all definitions of coordinate ring I found online, they take the field to be algebraically closed, so idk if what I'm asking even makes sense
I think it does. I know at least one way to treat varieties which aren't algebraically closed
I'm basically thinking in terms of kempf's AG book
Schemes are definitely a nicer setting here though
sorry ptyamin this might not be satisfying. I don't usually think about non algebraically closed fields and varieties at the same time
you should probably ask someone who knows AG (which I do not)
But I think k[x1,...,xn,1/x1,...,1/xn] is probably right
Yeah its fine
I probably should be thinking about schemes but I do not have that background
don't worry I don't either
This is good practice since chmonkey has roped me into a reading course on algebraic groups
I'm ready to be lost 

It’s my job to make sure you get a nutritious diet of all math
Meanwhile you watch as I get 400% my DV of algebra and no analysis
complex analysis is a daily vitamin for AG people
What are you reading?
Maybe I should read Humphreys Linear Algebraic Groups
I think that was one of the books the prof proposed
It's a big book
From Humphreys book
So X is defined over k means the radical of the ideal of X is generated by k-polynomials
When k is perfect, being defined over k is the same as being k-closed.
If X is defined over k that doesn't mean that X is a subset of "affine k-space" (products of k)...
Affine space is still over the algebraic closure of k. And X is a subset of that affine space over the algebraic closure of k.
The only thing X being defined over k means is that its radial ideal is generated by k-polynomials. If we wanted to talk about the subset of "affine k space" (or k^n) that X cuts out, that would be the k-rational points of X denoted X(k).
Omg. This makes so much more sense
@latent anvil look at the screenshots, it's relevant to what we were discussing 
i have a question about DGLAs
do you need (pro-)nilpotency of the DGLA anywhere here? i guess it has to do with exp(\ad_\xi), but that should always be defined if L^0 is a finite-dimensional Lie algebra, right? it's just the exponential of a bounded operator
oh maybe this is just a cheap cop-out for when you want infinite-dimensional L^0
Is a Borel field a ${\sigma}$-algebra?
Alpha7
Alpha7
There, the definition. ^
But, I would say yes... maybe the only note that there is not needed complement, but in the a sigma-algebra only need a stable complement rather than just to be needed. :/
Stable = closed (for this matter), analysis has infected me. 😄
What is confusing?
Well, a sigma-algebra of sets in a set $X$ is a collection of subsets of $X$ containing $X$ as a member, and closed (i.e. stable in the context of real analysis) with respect to the operations of complementation and forming countably infinite unions and it contains the empty set and the stability can be proved via De Morgan with respect to forming countable intersections and it is also an algebra.
Alpha7
Given this definition, is it a Borel field?
Well, I'm asking because I don't know much about that Borel field, I encountered that in an archaic textbook that is talking about French development in measure and set-theoretic probability theories.
OKay, after a bit of looking up, from the looks of it; it is a Borel set that belongs to the field, which are, afaic, algebras, so... 🤷♂️
discrete topology is the only one that matters
Yeah, they're defined in a topological space considering open or closed sets, but match the exact properties of a $\sigma$-algebra on their own.
Alpha7

Love me some knots, and fuck the rest of topology, especially homotopy and fuck type theorists for using it.
OKay, would it be better if I said, I like knots (only)?
(Especially invariants defined under HOMFLY, they're ingenues and cute.)
I don't think it matter though if it is an open or closed set, it still has the exact properties of said algebra.
I hate when I find some definition that is terribly outside my field or is old as shit.
Reminds me of the old Godel models of ZFC; okay, now I'm remembering some nightmares.
does pairwise commute mean each element g commutes with every other element? If so, I can't see how this matrix multiplication does this check
lambda is defined as follows
yep
hmmmmm
how does that show that G1 x G2 is isomorphic to G, specifically how does showing that A x B is isomorphic to G show that G1 x G2 is iso to G?
If A is iso to G_1 and B is iso to G_2, A x B is iso to G_1 x G_2
Let phi_1 be iso from A to G_1 and phi_2 be iso from B to G_2.
Consider the map phi:AxB to G_1 xG_2
phi(a,b)=(phi_1(a),phi_2(b))
This will be an isomorphism
Has anyone enumerated the families of infinite simple groups of Lie type based on affine Dynkin diagrams?
Super quick question, dont want to intrude on the question above ^. When this says "view U and V as k[x]-modules via alpha and beta respectively", what exactly does it mean. alpha maps from U to U, so im not sure how to use it to define the multiplication operation between K[x] and U
oh can I assume x is in U?
Sorry my notation is confusing. For u in U, $x\cdot u := \alpha(u)$
Othenor
ahh ive seen this before actually, that makes sense. Thank you!
Another way to say this : a K[x]-module structure is the same as a ring morphism K[x] -> End(U), where End is the endomorphisms as abelian groups
You already have a map K-> End(U), by the fact that U is a K-vector space
So you just need to specify what X maps to
and it maps to $\alpha$
Othenor
ah ha, thanks a million for the help!
oh is that so
alright I've got one for you
prove there are (p^2 +p)/2 monic degree 2 composite polynomials in Zp[x] of form (x+a)(x+b)
Pretty sure it’s just a combinatorics thing. Choosing values for a and b that give distinct polynomials
You can start with p choose 2 and add on the polynomials that are missed by that calculation
Am I making sense to you @bleak crystal ?
tbh
no
what i have so far is a=b and a/=b
(x+a)^2 and (x+a)(x+b), expanded
i'm not too sure how to proceed but i know that (x+a)(x+b) counts twice because of commutativity
i think
alright, so note that the value of a and b completely determines what (x+a)(x+b) is, so we shouldn't have to expand things out. Yea, so we have to make sure that we don't count twice for (x+a)(x+b)=(x+b)(x+a).
My suggestion is to first count the polynomials for a != b. You can use combinatorics for this. We are picking two values, a and b, out of {0, 1, ..., p-1}, and order does not matter (by commutativity).
what does combinatorics mean
From wikipedia: "Combinatorics is an area of mathematics primarily concerned with counting, both as a means and an end in obtaining results, and certain properties of finite structures."
ah
counting
got it
so uh
how do we count a? is a<=p?
wait it has to be...
so then how do we know how many combinations there are? p^2?
Nope. Do you know what $\binom{n}{k}$ means?
kxrider
like, if you have a bag of n things, n choose k is the number of way to choose k things out of the bag
oh i was backwards
n ways of choosing k things
i had a (BAD bad) probability teacher
so with a and b (for a != b), its like we want to choose 2 things out of a bag of p things
because you can't choose the same thing twice with n choose k.
The assumption with combinations is that there are p distinct things, and once you choose something out of the bag, its no longer in the bag.
right
i see why the number of things has to be p
okay i see why pC2 is relevant too
so if choose the number 3 for a for example, then I can't choose the number 3 again for b, just because of the way combinations work
ok, so there are p choose 2 ways to make polynomials for a != b. All that's left is to add in the cases when a = b.
i still don't get the a! thing
ohh, != just means not equal to lol. its more of a programming convention i guess
oof my bad
i always write not equal as /=
fuck that was the main reason i wasn't following ahhh
okay i need to reset
completely off atm
okay so when a/=b, we have p C 2 combinations, yes?
yep
rather, p C 2 enumerates all of the polynomials where a /= b
yea, that should be right
wait, why are all of those composite again?
oh
nevermind
ignore
i see i am a fool
nah its all good
is...is that it?
yep
p C 2 + p composite monic polynomials of deg 2
wait would it be (p C 2) /2?
since we were counting a and b AND b and a?
or did we account for that with the choose
yea the "choose" makes sure we don't count extra permutations
got it
uh
i don't remember the choose form, would you remind me?
its like something squared?
$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}$
kxrider
np
Ok don’t roast me
I cannot intuit M_P/M_P^2
Can anyone help me understand this, cause I get everything up to it
@thorn delta wait that doesn't equal (p^2 + p) /2 though
(p choose 2) + p = p!/(2!(p-2)!) + p = p(p-1)/2 + p = (p^2 - p)/2 + p = (p^2 + p)/2
welp i did something wrong
it's just the cotangent space 
forgot to take (p-2) factorial
that clears it up
oops
math is hard
i just need a confirmation that i'm doing this right
(3x+1) is a unit in Z mod 9 [x] with its inverse given by (6x+4)
is this good and also justified?
FUCK it's not
i hate life
WAIT IT IS I LOVE LIFE
3x+1 is a unit with its inverse given by 6x+1. is THIS good?
yea, it would appear that (3x+1)(6x+1) = 1
fantastic
thanks
"Show that every polynomial (except the constant polynomials 3 and 6) in Z9[x] can be written as the product of two polynomials of positive degree."
this one is stumping me
i have no idea where to even begin, shit
it's part of the last question about the unit in Z9[x] so i assume that was relevant
Maybe p(x)=(p(x)u(x))*u(x)^-1, where u is a unit
But perhaps we need to check that p(x)u(x) has positive degree
And I guess also u(x)^-1
So maybe for "most" polynomials you can do p(x)(3x+1) and 6x+1
im trying that rn
okay i am currently stuck
i supposed p(x) * 3x+1 was a constant (alpha)
since we need it to be deg>0
and obviously 6x + 1 has deg 1
so i have p(x) as 6ax + a
and the polynomials are given by that form, 6ax + a
by a = {0 thru 8 excluding 0, 3, 6}
now i'm finding myself asking "so what?"
What do you mean p(x) is 6ax+a? a is constant term of p(x)?
uhhh
p(x)u(x)u^-1(x)=a•u^-1(x) (a constant)
where u^-1 is 6x+1
because we want it to NOT be constant, right? it needs to be deg >0
"so what" lol
Well, you can say under certain conditions this decomposition works
Maybe you can find another pair of units that works when this condition fails
Or maybe not, maybe you can solve it a different way
Just throwing out ideas
i want to see this through but I don't get how..
because if a=1 then p(x)u(x)=1, a constant
we don't want that
you see what i mean?
Yes
This decomposition works (ie that thing is not a constant), in "8/9 cases" based on possible values of the coefficients of p
(8/9 in quotes, because really there are infinitely many polynomials p)
right
Er, actually maybe I undercounted. Anyhow it's something around 8/9
I catch your drift
Question:
if gcd(a,b)=1, a|c, b|c
Then: ab|c
gcd means greatest common divisor
a|c means a divides c
what's the question?
proof ab|c
well, do you know that ab/(a,b)|c?
i wish i could walk you through this but this was presented to me as fact
basically, if you multiply the two then "take out" what they have in common, you get the result you want
you mean a|c and b|c ?
also if you have ab|c, that means c=qab for some integer q, right?
yup
what if you divided ab by the gcd of a and b? what would happen?
what if they weren't
that is to say that cd=qab
does qab/d =c and thus divide it?
so ab|c
you could also say something like
Why not just lcm(a,b) ?
Oh sorry it's a long convo sorry
no worries
because I'm not familiar with that terminology xD
hop in if you want
Thanks :)
cd=cax+cby since d=(a,b) means d=ax+by
since b|c, thus ab|cax
and since a|c, ab|cby
so finally, ab|cax+cby
but cax+cby IS cd
so ab|cd
and ab/(a,b)|c so long as a|c and b|c
a|c means c = ak, but b|c means c = bl so ak = bl so a | bl but gcd(a,b)= 1 means (not a|b)(suppose a is not 1 pls) therefore a|l and l = aj so c = abj
What do you think of this one @bleak crystal @chilly ocean
what if a is 1
Nate gone :'(
no, i'm thinking the last part of @ebon osprey proof
Abstract hurty ?
i didn't get this part
gcd(a,b)= 1 means (not a|b)(suppose a is not 1 pls) therefore a|l
yes
So gcd(a,b) >= a
but both are prime numbers we can't say that
Therefore if gcd(a,b) < a then a does not divide b
Because a|bl and (not a|b)
now i get it
So a must divide l
thanks @ebon osprey
You're welcome !
good point
assuming this is meant to hold for all r
it is
Wait really
that was slightly tongue in cheek
i'm not familiar with this specific context, but i know that in some treatments of smooth manifold theory, the cotangent space is defined that way (but with smooth functions vanishing at the point or something like that)
so i wouldn't be surprised if the idea/motivation here was the same as the cotangent space
Ah
Even still
Trying to think about a quotient ring of an ideal with itself squared (?)
is wack
Jesus
yes.
abstract.
due tomorrow
I'm cutting so many corners
I'm just too tired and i have an educational psych test tomorrow too
alright I'm stuck on 10b), a+b is nilpotent
the hint he gives is "what can you say about (a+b)^n+m"
Expand and prove that it’s zero
are we supposing n=1=m
When you expand u get a^n and b^m which r zero
how do you get that
wait are we just supposed to say a^n = 0 when n = 1 thus a=0
this is so confusing i have absolutely no idea what to do
his hint for a is "you might want to choose the smallest positive integer for n such that a^n = 0"
well the smallest + integer is 1
so n=1?????
how would we know that
this literally makes zero sense
nothing I'm writing makes any sense either
so n=1 right? he literally said "choose the smallest positive integer n"
Wow wow
Ok let’s see
i got a
