#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 551 of 407
switzerland has a french part
is this channel open?
yeh
right, so EPFL is in the French part, and some of the courses are in French
less and less as you advance in the degree
for example, I no longer have any French courses at all in my 3rd year
ah, i think i figured out my question. Let $F$ be a free module of infinite rank. Then $F$ is not reflexive since a map $$f : \bigoplus_{i \in I}R_i \to \prod_{i \in I}\operatorname{Hom}(R_i, R)$$ is not even bijective when $I$ is infinite.
kxrider
R_i being copies of R
nice!

but
""""subset""""
in a SES 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 it might not be the case that A is literally (i.e. set theoretically) subset of B, but the second arrow is an injective map of A into B
so saying "subset" is a little rough but is understandable, especially if you're making some identifications
(im not sure if that's a common convention, so please excuse me if im wrong)
i don't know enough about ring theory to answer that, sorry
well id guess so
im just uncomfortable answering
okay wait
what's the origianl qeustion
this is where I come in
I see SES and Noetherian
O_O
yup
In an SES 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0?
oh yeah, so this is true. So Noetherianness is stable under "sub object"
basically by definition
It should be equivalent to saying all submodules are finitely generated
then the injection 0 -> A -> B idetnifies A with a submodule of B
so A is Noetherian
And then actually like you said,
C is iso to B/A
by this SES
and then you can apply the correspondence theorem to show ascending chains stabilize
The interesting thing is that
if A and C are Noetherian
then so too is B
Umm, maybe
I'm trying to find the proof in Matsumura haha
I think this might be right
the proof in the book uses some result which is like
kinda messy to type
but basically comes down to some intersection thing, and I think the second iso
Actually, I guess I'll type it up,
M' < M, N_1,N_2 < M such that N_1 < N_2, and N_1\cap M' = N_2\cap M'. If N_1/M' = N_2/M' then N_1 = N_2
Where N_1/M' is the image under the quotient map
So it suffices to show N_2 < N_1 since we assumed the other direction, for that you take x in N_2, then we know that x + M' = y + M' for some y in N_1, then since N_1 < N_2, x - y is in N_1. Note that by that equality, we also know x - y in M', so that x -y in M'\cap N_1 = M'\cap N_2. Thus y has to be in N_2, else x - y couldn't be in N_2
(since x is in N_2)
from this, you can apply this result to an increasing / decreasing chain (for Artinian) of submodules of M
So if you have N_1 < N_2 <... in M, you also have N_1 \cap M' < N_2\cap M' <... < N_k\cap M' = N_{k + 1}\cap M' = ... by Noetherianness
Similarly, you have N_1/M' < N_2/M' <... < N_j/M' = N_{j + 1}/M' =...
so you can apply the previous result for all i >= max{k,j}
and then you get that the N_i are equal past that point
The same argument runs through for a decreasing chain and Artinian
You might be able to do it a different way!
I'd explore your idea too
if you feel like it
You can use the ascending chain condition to
If f : B -> A is the injection and M0 <= M1 <=… is your chain of submodules in B then f(M0) <= f(M1) <=… is an ascending chain in A, so stabilizes since A is noetherian. Injectivity of f implies the original chain stabilizes at the same point
So let's say A^ is the I-adic completion of I
if you have an element x in A^, is there some a in A such that x - a is in IA^?
so like x looks like (,...,a_2,a_1) where a_n is in A/I^nA
under the condition that a_i = pi_i(a_{i + 1})
when pi_i is the quotient map A/I^{i + 1}A -> A/I^iA
I believe an element of A is to be interpeted as
(,...,a,a)
where all the components are the same
wait...
for power series this seems mad easy
if you let a = a_1 you're done
...
gaaaaaaaaaaaaaaahhhhhhhh
can't you just do (..., a_1, a_1)
x minus that
I was thinking this
but like...
I was struggling to see how this was in IA^
but this seems obvious for pwoer series
but for a general ring for some reason my brain doesn't see it
like...
a_2 - a_1
err
so the element
(...,a_2 - a_1,0)
should live in IA^
but why is that?
So for power series a_i is the (i - 1)th coefficient
so like an element
a_0 + a_1x + ...
turns into (,a_1,a_0)
in this case I = (x)
so if you subtract (...,a_0,a_0)
you can write this as
We have π1(a2 - a1) = 0, so a2- a1 is in I(A/I^2), right ?
lol

owned
Hmmm
Bro I can't want to do comm alg next quarter
today I will fucking k-word myself
Very hyped
can't want
can't want
I've been neglecting algebra
> want
Can't wait for you to become better than me at CA
man :/
I don't like completions
horse
it feels unwieldy
I wish I could not dive into the actual construction so often
Like... if it followed by "is a direct limit" or something maybe it would be better
or is it inverse limit
I think the latter
but I find myself having to go into the construction as a subset of the product so often
and it makes me want to k-word
Isn't there a topological way of thinking about it?
yes but
for the stuff I've done I don't know how to get around it
fwiw I try to handle the case of k[[x]]
as the completion of k[x] at (x)
to try to get intuition
Like, A is I-adically complete if it's complete wrt the metric d(x, y) = least n such that x-y in I^n, right ?
Ah okay
I was wondering whether you could prove the thing you just did via cauchy sequences
I had to go into the construction so often
I hope!
If you could that would be better I think
I'm scared I'm thinking about it the wrong way
but Matsumura won't tell me that haha
If x in A^ then there's an a in A such that x-a is in IA^
If A^ is the I-adic completion, x in A^ then there's an a in A such that x - a in IA^
yeah
But A isn't I-adically complete so like
So x is like a limit of a cauchy sequence in A
right
x = lim an
I suppose so yeah
Choose N such the an-am in I for n, m >= N
That's annoying
is d not actually a metric?
It's definitely symmetric and d(x, x) = 0
d(x, y) > 0 if x ≠ y by like Artin Reese but I guess not in general?
Something like that I think
yeah so
if you have I < J(R)
then they'll be unique IIRC
I worked this out
and that condition also let's you Artin-Rees
as long as cap I^n = 0 I expect
Yeah I belive so
hmm
So anyways
This
sure
Let a = aN
Them x - a = lim an - aN
It's a limit of stuff in I
hmm
Are the sets I^k A^ closed? Or even just I A^?
Ah nice
but in general ideals aren't closed
Then this is a proof
and this is a general thing I think
but it might be true that IA^ is alwasy closed
Idk I just like cauchy sequences
yeah i would try to work with them when A is I-adically complete
but when it isn't things get kinda spooky
Sure but you can always work with A^ that way right?
also I read the section like
ages ago
yeah
so I'm a little shaky on the topological stuff :/
Fair
Yeah haha me too
since you said you were exhausted too
Lmaooo
Seriously have a headache rn
I think I just need to sleep
👍
Also
general tip
maybe you have realized this at this point
Finitely presented is useful in 1 really crucial way I figured out
If you want to show that F(M) = something for M finitely presented, usually it works like this
F(A^n) is clearly isomorphic to what you want (usually this is a natural isomorphism, so you want to show F(M) = G(M))
You have a pretty clear natural morphism F -> G
Then you just take the exact sequence A^n -> A^m -> M -> 0
apply F, and you apply 5 lemma
in my brain this is why finite presentation matters
like... a ton of things boil down to this
and you can maybe think of a few examples, the Hom thing with tensor
the thing about pulling out direct limits I think from Hom
all of them hold for f.p. and the proofs are just this
Nice
chmonkey tip
Anyone learning Cech cohomology and sheaf cohomology rn?
I learnt a good bit ~ 2 months ago
this is probably dumb question
Normal subgroups are important because they (and only they) can be used to construct quotient groups of the given group. Furthermore, the normal subgroups of
Gare precisely the kernels of group homomorphisms with domainG, which means that they can be used to internally classify those homomorphisms.
it seems like normal subgroups have tons of ties to quotient groups but the "conjugation" requirement really throws me off
Basically if N is a normal subgroup of G,G/N is a group
The conjugation requirement is kind of like saying that the equivalence relation of cosets is compatible with the group operation
That's the motivation behind normal groups
All the examples in my head of quotient groups are like Z/nZ and R[x]/(some polynomial)
but like, since those are abelian doesn't that trivially satisfy the requirement
Consider the set G/N whose elements are left cosets where aN represents the set {an|n in N}.
The "natural" way to define group operation on G/N is aN.bN=(ab)N
now if aN=bN, aN.cN=bN.cN (for operation to be well defined)
Rewriting this gives you the conjugation condition
ok I understand everything up to the last line, I am so sorry
I am like, rly tired rn
how do you rewrite it to get conjugation? like where would the g and g^-1 come from
if aN=bN, a=bn for some n in N,i.e,(b^-1a) is a member of N
aN.cN=bN.cN implies (ac)N=(bc)N
Implies ac=(bc)n' for some n' in N
Now this implies (bc)^-1(ac) =n' is in N,i.e., c^-1 (b^-1a) c is in N
Now you can choose b^-1a to be any value in N(since aN=anN for all n in N)
Implying c^-1 n c is in N for all n in N is a necessary condition
Well,you can clearly choose a different c
So,This should be true for all c in G and all n in N
Ah i see, thank you so much
You still have to prove that the condition is sufficient
Not exactly subsets, but ideals of Z in a certain sense
Hi. Can someone give me an example of a ring, in which there are zero divisors, invertible elements and at least one element which is nor zero divisior nor invertible
some matrix or polynomial ring would fit this condition i guess, but i don't know how to build it up
i would guess u need a 'nonfinite' ring
for in a finite ring any element is either a zero divisor or non invertible
thats a start ig?
yes
exactly, it should be infinite
finite rings have the nice property that only zero divisors and invertible elements are in there
how about Z (neither invertibles or zero divisors) -> Z[1/2] (has invertible elements) -> Z[1/2][x, y]/(xy) (has zero divisors)
well there is no reason to introduce y i guess, just mod by some reducible polynomial in x
You have A(adj A)=(det A)I
So,If A is not invertible,A is a zero divisor
what do you mean by Z[1/2]
oh i guess you mean the ring &{a + b/2 : a,b \in Z}& right?
yeah
so Z[1/2] = {a + b/2 + c/4 : a,b,c \in Z}?
another very direct example is R[ε]/ε^2 "infinitesimal deformation of R"
1/128 is in Z[1/2]
what is R here? an arbitrary ring?
yea some ring
so basically it contains elements of a form r+sε with the multiplication rule (a+bε)(c+dε)=ac+(ad+bc)ε
think of ε as an "infinitesimal"
(1/2)Z = {1/2 * z : z \in Z} yes
it isn't a ring tho
ah you're right, i'm being a dumbass
ah right this ring does have invertibles huh
We usually call them units but yea
and units are precisely the solution to some pell equation
i recall something like this 🙂
but now that i think about it some more, Z[1/2] (in the proper interpretation of this notation as elements of the form a/2^n) is also a proper ring with units
yesh
aka localization away from 2
cuz you are basically forming a ring that specifically excludes the prime (2)
i should probably have studied more algebraic geometry, or math in general, i think i have some very basic familiarity with the terminology, but for example i never picked up why it is called a localization to take fractions like this (and now it is too late to get back to studying without significant effort)
why
why, as in why it is a significant effort? one thing is that on weekdays there is work, then from a more practical perspective there are other things that i should be studying, then this means i have little time to spend learning random things, which is not good in the sense that you need a decent chunk of time for context switching/getting back up to speed on your previous level of understanding. and at this point it is not exactly worth it
I cant even get out of bed without sginificant effort
the idea is that localization allows you to study "local behavior"
which really means
what happens near a prime
so like in context of say
functions on C
localizing at some point essentially means the ring of all functions that doesnt explode at that point
if I want to find elements of order $2$ in $\mathbb{Z}_{30}\times \mathbb{Z}2$, if $(a,b)\in\mathbb{Z}{30}\times \mathbb{Z}_2$ then the order is $\text{lcm}(a,b)$ since we want the elements of order $2$, we have $\text{lcm}(a,b)=2$ that means that $a=1,2$ and $b=2$ $\text{lcm}(1,2)=\text{lcm}(2,2)=2$ both $(1,2)\in \mathbb{Z}2$ so either $1$ or $2$ works for the choice of $a$. Now I want to find the elements of order $2$ in $\mathbb{Z}{30}$ which is just $\varphi(2)=1$, hence the elements of order $2$ is just $1\times 2=2$?
please request a new nickname
Hello! So I am trying to solve this problem but I am struggling with the very last part of this question (marked by the red underline). Any hints?
did you do the first two parts?
yes I did
so we know that degree of the extension is 4, and for beta = alpha^3 - 14 alpha, we know that degree of minimal polynomial of beta is [Q(beta):Q] which must divide 4. If you calculate beta^2, you'll see that this cannot be equal to a*beta+b for rational a and b (else alpha would satisfy a cubic which isn't possible). So minimal polynomial of beta has degree 4.
From there it shouldn't be too hard to find a degree 4 polynomial that has beta as a root.
Oh that's actually nice!
Indeed, on calculating beta^2 = -120 alpha^2 + 48. You know the minimal polynomial of alpha^2.... rest is just a simple scaling/translation

Oh okay, thank you so much!
having a moment...
S_4 has 1 element conjugate with (), 6 elements conjugate with (12), 3 elements conjugate with (12)(34), 6 elements conjugate with (123), 6 elements conjugate with (1234)
that's 22, what did I miss?
oh
8 elements conjugate with (123)
@rigid cave In general you can find a polynomial annihilating a polynomial $Q(\alpha)$, knowing that $P(\alpha)=0$ for a certain polynomial P, by computing the resultant $\mathrm{Res}_X(P(X),T-Q(X))$
Othenor
What is that last expression? Could you share a link about it?
I don't have any good resource on it off the top of my head
The wiki page is a bit of a mess but you could look at it
Hi, I have the questions in the pic.
Take question (a) for instance. Say the map from M to L is f. So to prove (a), I defined \bar{f} which takes a \otimes m to a \otimes f(m). The same for the other maps.
My question is, in (b), why wouldn't this method work? What makes the cases different?
consider this,
0 --> Z --> Z --> Z/2Z --> 0
first the map Z --> Z is multiplication by 2
what happens if you tensor with Q?
Let R be a commutative ring and P,Q two polynomials in R[X]. There exists an element $r\in R$, computable explicitly as the determinant of a certain matrix (the Sylvester matrix), that we call the resultant of P and Q, noted $r=\mathrm{Res}_X(P,Q)$. One of the properties it satisfies is a "Bézout identity" : there exists polynomials H(X), K(X) such that $P(X)H(X)+Q(X)K(X)=r$. If you take R=K[T], the polynomials in R[X] are actually elements of K[X,T], i.e. bivariate polynomials over K, and computing the resultant in X "kills" the variable X, so the resultant in X is a polynomial in T.
Othenor
Suppose now we have a relation $P(\alpha)=0$ and we are trying to find a polynomial that annihilates $Q(\alpha)$. Denote $r(T)=\mathrm{Res}_X(P(X),T-Q(X)) $. By the Bézout property, there exists bivariate polynomial H, K such that $P(X)H(X,T)+(T-Q(X))K(X,T)=r(T)$. Now evaluating at $X=\alpha, T=Q(\alpha)$, we obtain $0 + 0 = r(Q(\alpha))$, as claimed.
Othenor
I need to look up the Sylvester matrix...
Thanks for telling this cute thing 
This is really useful if you have some symbolic computation tool at hand
For calculating by hand the Sylvester matrix often gets bigs really fast so it's not that practical
Another method you can use is to express the powers of Q(alpha) in the basis (1,alpha, alpha^2, alpha^3) and try to find a linear combination that sums to zero, i.e. find the kernel of the matrix you obtain
For direct product of groups if I have a group G = (x, id) and x^2=id and im asked to list the element of G x G, am i just multiplying (x,id) * (x,id) ?
I get G x G = (xx, id*id, xid, idx)
but xx=id and id*id is just id, and xid = x and idx = x
so G x G = (x, id)?
Elements of GxG are tuples
What are all the possibilities for tuples ?
Forget about the multiplication for the moment
Also you might have a confusion coming from your notations. Let us write G={x,id}, meaning that as a set G has 2 elements x and id
Then by definition GxG is the set of tuples ${(a,b) | a\in G,b\in G}$
Othenor
with a certain law for multiplication
given by multiplication coordinate-by-coordinate
That is, $(a,b)\star(a',b')=(a\star a',b\star b')$
Othenor
so a tuple for that group would be (id*id,xx) ?
There's no multiplication involved if you want to enumerate the tuples
GxG is a set
before being a group
and you're asked to enumerate the elements of the set GxG
knowing that G is a set with two elements
so G x G should have 4 elements since G is order 2
yes
im dumb sorry for the trivial question haha
I'll get a sequence of zeros.
So you mean that in the example you gave, using the above method, the induced multiplication map wouldn't be injective?
yea, you don't get a sequence of 0s
Z tensor_{Z} Q = Q and Z/2Z tensor_{Z} Q = 0
Ok nice.
So since Q is not free as a module over Z, we get that the induced multiplication map is not injective, resulting in the nonexactness of the sequence. Great example!
Well, I guess even without the injectivity thing, the sequence we get is obviously not exact..
Thanks! @rustic crown

So to be clear here, this doesn’t follow because Q isn’t free, you CAN tensor with a non-free / non-flat thing and preserve injectivity, it’s merely a requirement that Q be not free to even have a chance to not preserve it. In order to show the induced map isn’t injective you’ll have to do a calculation
For this specific example though... I’m pretty sure injectivity is preserved. The resulting map should be multiplication by 2 from Q -> Q which is still injective...
It also happens to be surjective which is why the Z/2Z turned into a 0
The sequence you get is
0 -> Q -> Q -> 0 -> 0 which is exact (the map Q -> Q is multiplication by 2)
For an example where injectivity isn’t preserved,
0 -> Z -> Z -> Z/2Z -> 0
Where Z -> Z is multiplication by 2.
Tensor this with Z/2Z, and then this will turn into the following sequence
0 -> Z/2Z -> Z/2Z -> Z/2Z -> 0
Where the first map is multiplication by 2, but this is the 0-map on Z/2Z, and the latter map is identity.
how are they getting this mapping? i understand that SO(n) has det=1 and Z_2 are the elements {0,1}, and since O(n) has det=/=0 we pick ad-bc=1, but still dont get how they've constructed this map, can anyone help?
is that K supposed to be an M
yes
okay, assuming K=M
I just found it to a solution stack exchange, and im just stuck
det M = \pm 1
yep
okay great
sorry i forgot to mention it
then det(det(M)M) = 1
yeah im confused where they're getting this det(M)M from
right okay
so if you have a matrix M
and if you multiply any column by a constant c
the determinant of the new matrix is (c)(detM)
in this case, you are multiplying all the columns by c = detM
so the determinant of the new matrix is (c^n)(detM)
but as n is odd, c^n = c = det M
so the determinant is (c^n)(detM) = (det M)^2 = 1
which implies that det(M)M is in SO(n)
did that make sense?
no
right
ahhh right ok
makes sense, and how does Z_2 just have
oh
right
think it just clicked
the (..., det(M)) part has to be like that since we exclude ad-bc=0
for Z_2
det(M) = \pm 1
yeah and -1mod2 is just 1
{1, -1} with multiplication as the operation is Z_2
and this is well defined because det(detM*M)=det(M)^n det(M)=(detM)^n+1 = 1
since n+1 is even, and det M = pm 1 for M in O(n)
ok ok ok this makes way more sense now, thank you
had a
moment
Can someone help me showing that X^3+X+1 is prime in Q[X]
How do I find the subgroup of a symmetric group of letters S_n given some n say 3 or 4
where the subgroup is defined by some f in S_3 and f(3)=3
what does it mean for f(3)=3 in the subgroup? Does that mean 3 maps to 3?
Yes
S_n can be considered as the set of all bijective functions from {1,2,....,n} to itself
Ok so for example S_3 is my symmetric group, and i define f in S3 with f(2)=2
Well, that doesn't define an element of S_3
there are multiple elements of S_3 that satisfy that
An entire subgroup's worth
would my subgroup just be the identity and alpha ''
where alpha '' = (1 2 3) ( 3 2 1) since f(2)=2
yeah
In general, the permutations that fix an element in S_n form the subgroup S_{n - 1}
mmm not quite sure what you meant by that
if you consider S_n as the group of permutations on {1,...,n}
if you take all permutations which don't affect some fixed k in {1,...,n}
this forms a subgroup of S_n which is isomorphic to S_{n - 1}
you can think of it as simply being the group of permutations on {1,...,n}\{k}
I'm having trouble thinking where to start. I know I need 3 things for a group? I'm just having trouble trying to think of the binary operaiton relating them? I would assume it is distance, so I'm just having a bit of trouble what I would define as a 'inverse distance'
The operation is composition
If you have two isometries S and T, then you can compose them to get another isometry
Like S(T(x))
ok yeah I get that
I guess I just got confused since it didn't explicitly outline that, thanks for clearing it up
say p is the smallest prime divisor of |G|, how do I show that |G : H| = p implies H normal?
I figure I gotta act on subgroups of G by conjugation but like how does p come into this?
oh hmm, the stabilizer of H includes at least H
so it's either G or H. If it's G then it's normal
if it's H then the orbit has p elements
not sure what next
Let G act on the cosets of H by left multiplication. We get a map f : G -> S_p via this action. Let K be the kernel. Observe that [G : K] = |im f| by the 1st iso theorem. In particular |im f| divides |G|, so any prime dividing |im f| is >= p. But also |im f| divides |S_p| = p!, and all the primes dividing p! are <= p (and there's only one copy of p). This forces |im f| = p or |im f| = 1. Observe that if x in K then xH = H, so x in H. Thus K <= H, so the index considerations force K = H. Thus H is a kernel
Does that make sense to you?
This trick of turning actions into homomorphisms and looking at the kernel/doing number theory is very common
Conjugation is a natural action to try but it turns out it just doesn't give enough information
@mild laurel so the elements are functions and the binary operation is function composition essentially?
wait wtf where is 
yes
so I'd need to prove all of those things, yes?
\begin{center}
Let $S$ represent the set of isometries in $\mathbb{R}^3$ We wish to prove 3 things.
\begin{itemize}
\item There exists a binary operation across $S$ which is closed across S. The binary operation is also associative (binary operation is function composition)
\item There exists an identity element in $S$, call it $e$ s.t. $\forall g \in S$ $e(g(x))=g(e(x))=x, x \in \mathbb{R}$
\item $\forall g \in S$ $\exists h \in S$ s.t. $h(g(x)=g(h(x))=e(x)=x$
\end{itemize}
\end{center}
Moosey
those are the things I would need to prove, all in all,yes?
you used e(x)=x before defining it as such
oh
otherwise yes
"identity element in S" doesn't automatically mean x mapsto x
yes
ahhh
i'm confused
oh
ohwait I should also say x in R^#
R^3
i'm dumb
What should I define as an identity element then
\begin{itemize}
\item There exists a binary operation across $S$ which is closed across S. The binary operation is also associative (binary operation is function composition)
\item There exists an identity element in $S$, call it $e$ s.t. $\forall g \in S$ $e(g(x))=g(e(x)), x \in \mathbb{R}^{3}$
\item $\forall g \in S$ $\exists h \in S$ s.t. $h(g(x)=g(h(x))=e(x)$
\end{itemize}
Moosey
like that?
are semidirect products fibrations
Im getting fiber bundle vibes
in the short exact sequence $A \to A \rtimes B \xrightarrow{\pi} B$ the kernel ($A$) acts as the fiber of of $\pi$
mniip
hmm, that might just be quotients in general
quotients are fibrations, semidirect products are fiber bundles?
Cease this conversation immediately
semidirect products are quotients which admit a global section (which is a homomorphism)
Do not
the sanctity of group theory
ie short exact sequences which split
With your filth
check aluffi
topologically G -> G/H is an H-fiber bundle for H a closed subgroup of a lie group G
(issues can happen in the purely topological category)
so you're definitely getting some things right
H need not even be normal
but I'm not sure about the fibration = quotient, fiber bundle = semidirect product thing, that feels wrong
right, I'm not sure how to reconcile the algebraic structure with the notion of a fiber in general
but kernel is a kind of fiber
other fibers aren't subobjects, but they're equivalent to the kernel in a way
this feels like what you want to think about tbh
hmm
modulo topological pathologies what you are saying is true
yea na I'm just getting dependent pair vibes from semidirect products
and dependent pairs are obviously fibrations
tfw foundatioomer
I think I sort of see what you mean
the fibers of the map decompose G into a partition of sets bijective with H
so G is noncanonically in bijection with $\Sigma_{x \in G/H} H$
Shamrock (not a furry)
or I guess you're just saying $G = \Sigma_{x \in G/H} x$
Shamrock (not a furry)
(which is true)
set theoretically yes
but can we lift anything useful to the category of groups?
the SES and split SES I guess
you can probably construct a semidirect product of two groups as single-point 1-types in HoTT
transport is the homomorphism from H to Aut(N)
If R is Artinian than any finitely generated R module is Artinian. If R is not Artinian there are counterexamples
(There are Artinian, non Noetherian modules)
This is mad weird
Such a module is necessarily non-finitely generated since in the fg case the Artinian => noetherian for rings gets it for you
k(x) has no gap numbers right?
why isnt the ideal (x, y) the entier set Q[x, y]
is there a counterexample i cant think of
xy and all the constants in Q can be written as ax + by (a, b \in Q[x, y])
are you sure the constants can be written that way
oh yeah i messed up
if we pick c \in Q
why is it that (c) is either the entier Q[x, y] or (c) is just the 0 ideal
since (c) = ac (a \in Q[x, y]), cant we miss some elements?
no, if c is nonzero and in Q, and p is in Q[x,y], then p = pc^(-1)c, which is in (c) since pc^(-1) is in Q[x,y]
oh, i see
In general, the principal ideal of a unit (u) is the entire ring

What is the transcendence degree of a field? And why does transcendence degree + characteristic describe algebraically closed fields upto isomorphism
this is not homework or anything I'm just working through a note set 
mhm
Call a subset S < L algebraically independent if any finite subset of S does not satisfy a polynomial over K
so here's an example
{sqrt{pi}, 2pi} are both trascedental over Q
right
but if you take the polynomial 2x^2 - y
if you plug in (sqrt{pi},2pi) this equals 0
so that set is not algebraically independent over Q
So it's stronger than just saying a single element is transcedental over the field
ohh okay I see
So the transcendence degree of an extension is the size of a maximal algebraically independent subset
This is well-defined and blah blah blah
okay I think I get that well enough
And you have something called a transcendence basis
the size = transcendence degree
and the point is that the basis elements basically act like variables
so say you have tr. deg 2
and transcendence basis alpha, beta
then basically the subfield of L generated by alpha,beta acts like K[x,y]
the alpha and beta have no relations over K
so they act like as if you adjoined variables
guess for subfield it should be K(x,y) not []
And then the point is
If S is a transcendence basis
Then L is algebraic over K(S)
jesse is an algebraist?!?!?!!?!?!
so like if you have transcendence degree n
i'm reading about model theory over fields tterra
you are algebraic over K(x_1,...,x_n)
so sort of i guess 
ohh okay
since then it looks more like something you might be used to
this makes sense I think
So like
geometrically there's sort of neat stuff going on
Here you're using () instead of []
so I'm a little less clear on the picture
but I think it's trying to say something like inside of L you have affine n-space over K
and then over that you're algebraic
so what does this mean really? idk
Tfw do AG for 1 year
know no geometry
Also fwiw
actually nvm you said your reason
I was gonna say this stuff isn't usually all that important unless you do number theory type stuff usually
the other important part was this for me: "why does transcendence degree + characteristic describe algebraically closed fields upto isomorphism"
Ah okay
I think this is mainly the "Is algebraic over K(S) thing"
I'm gonna assume char 0 just to try to reason for this one
Actually also
is this transcendence degree over Q?
just over an arbitrary field I think
mkay
last par
okay
so I can think about why it's true
so assume K, L are fields, algebraically closed, and transcendence degree n
Ah okay
so both are algebraic closures of Q(x_1,...,x_n)
so they're iso
they're both algebraic over this field, and algebraically closed
x_1,... x_n is the transcendence basis?
well...
not exactly so
Inside of K you have n elements, say alpha_1,..., alpha_n (this is the transcendence basis)
but the subfield of K generated by those is isomorphic to Q(x_1,...,x_n)
so you have an embedding of Q(x_1,...,x_n) inside of K (by means of the transcendence basis), which K is algebraic over
why is the subfield iso to Q(x_1,...x_n)?
You can map x_i to alpha_i
the fact that alpha_i are algebraically independent says this is injective
or something like that
Let me think a bit harder lol
I think you might be looking at the Q-span of them not the entire subfield generated by it
and K is algebraic over the embedding b/c of this?
Right
I can approximately see why this works
Here's a short pdf
which should have a rundown on it
it's like 6 pages, and it isn't too dense

also for the characteristic thing, I think this is basically just the following fact
If F is a field
You get a map from Z -> F
and the kernel is (p) for p the characteristic of F
this gives rise to a map Z/(p) -> F
if char p > 0 then this means a map from F_p -> F
and I think the transcendence degree you're looking at is over F_p
since that's initial among char p fields
if char p = 0 you have an injective map Z -> F
which gives rise to a map Q -> F by localization

This part is much more confusing but I think I lack the algebra knowledge to understand it
Z is initial in ring
you have a map given by 1 -> 1 and then extending linearly
the characteristic of a field F is th eorder of 1 in F
this is the same thing as the kernel of this map Z -> F
if the order is p, then p maps to p = 0
so the kernel of Z -> F is (p)
By taking a quotient by the kernel you get a map Z/(p) = F_p -> F
but if p = 0 (aka F is char 0)
then the map Z -> F is injective
then you get a map from Q -> F given by sending m/n to m/n inside of F
Does anyone here know what the group denoted by B_n is called? I have an assignment that has to do with this group but google keeps giving me unrelated results when I look it up
And it has to do with matrices
i googled "Bn matrix group" and i found something that referred to the group of invertible upper triangular nxn matrices as B_n

that's the borel subgroup, yes
it could be B for borel
although I think "borel subgroup" is something used much more generally and I'm not sure if B_n canonically refers to the borel subgroup of GL_n
strong lie subgroup theorem: any subgroup which is a borel set is a lie subgroup

My assignment had to do with B_2 specifically, and it looks something like the Borel subgroup
bijective homomorphism
homomorphic bijection
Hey guys, If I have a set A and set B a subset of A. With S a set of permutations p() of A such that for b in B, p(b) in B
Is this S a group?
So basically if we select a subset B of A, and we have a set of all permutations of each element in B. I feel like this does form a group because every permutation can be expressed as a product of disjoint cycles, and so we could say we need to have all related cycles present in the set, so every permutation that is in the group must have it's inverse also present.
Is this the right line of thinking?
I don't think it's closed?
If you extend this to say S is the set of all permutations of A which fix elements in B then yes, you're right
err sorry not fix elements
does it necessarily have an identity?
i don't think it necessarily has to have an identity
If you take all of them it will, since the identity satisfies p(B) = B
yeah ofc
but if it's just some amount of them, you have issues with identity and with being closed even
I believe if you have a set of size n + m
and you take the group of permutations moving those m elements only among themselves, you get a group isomorphic to S_n x S_m
you are indeed correct
because of bijectiveness
so the m elements move amongst themselves
but so too does the other n, by bijectiveness
and then you just look at what it does to each subset simultaneously
useful for Galois theory
by looking at what it does on the roots
countable symmetric groups
really you can state this as saying it in terms of looking at permutations of a set S
and any subset T

you get something iso to S_T x S_T^c
yeah, I think you want Set^OP?
well, or a contravariant functor, depending on your terminolgy
the idea is that coproducts become products
Well, actually I think the category you want is S -> T whenever S contains T
wait nvmd
the permutations of A union B aren't the permutations of A times the permutations of B
What you can do is the banality that if n <= m then S_n <= S_m as groups
but uh, yeah obviously
I wonder if this defines a functor though
I guess I can send cycles (ab) to (f(a) f(b)) right
i.e., that's the homomorphism you get out of a set map
I don't know if this is immediately a well defined homomorphism though
you probably need some condition on f
🤔
A -> S_|A|
f : A -> B goes to phi((ab)) = (f(a)f(b))
I don't know if phi is a homomorphism just like that though
where did the finite field question go 😢
the void
sorry I thought I solved it then I realized I didnt
I thought I was interrupting another question
back due to popular demand, the field is F_5[x]/(x^2-2)
Im not sure if direct calculation is supposed to mean find the generator and find all the powers of it to show it generates the group, or im just meant to do some kind of a proof using Lagrange's theorem and certain elements of the group
I've seen a few proofs that the nonzero elements of any field (especially finite fields) is cyclic
They don't seem that easy, but the most direct proof I've seen is the one which uses cyclotomic polynomials
do you mean finite subgroups of the group of units of a field
C^* is not cyclic
by cardinality reasons
yes
the argument I like is the one that uses the structure theorem for fin gen ab groups
or ig you don't need the full result in this case as you're only dealing with finite abelian groups
That is pretty high powered
The one I'm thinking of is: If the subgroup has order $n$, then $x^n-1$ factors into linear factors over the field, therefore so does $\Phi_n(x)$, and any root of $\Phi_n(x)$ has multiplicative order exactly $n$, QED
Icy001
that's pretty neat
Now that I think about it, Saintscratch's problem for a specific field was meant to be solved by direct calculation, which probably means that you're meant to explicitly choose some element of $\bF_5[x]/(x^2-2)$ and calculate its powers
Icy001
right so x^d-1 can have at most d roots so there can be at most d elements whose order divides d
only cyclic groups have this property
its really annoying to find which element is the generator :/
gonna just have to try a bunch of them I guess
I mean you won't be able to find a particular one, you can just say that there are \phi(n) order n elements in here and all of them have to satisfy x^n=1; so just pick a nontrivial root of x^n-1
why can't you find a particular one?
it's probably super tedious
but shouldnt be impossible?
I suspect nGroupoid is thinking the problem is to prove it for general finite fields
oh ok
is that phi(n) euler phi function?
sorry im taking a really weird set of modules where im doing rings 2 and groups 1 at the same time
and rings 2 requires more group theory than I have currently
yes
Hey guys, If I'm talking about proof of sets and their related permutation groups and subgroups. Can I just talk about permuting the sets {1,2,3,...} or {1,2,3,...,n} ? Like surely the actual elements don't matter right?
think so
this is formalized by group actions
specifically, permutations of an arbitrary set are simply actions of the symmetric group over {1, 2, 3, ... n} (of the appropriate size) on that set
and this gives you the symmetric group of the set
group actions like if you said "the binary operation is composition" or something
I think I understand what you're saying
I'm trying to prove that if we have a set X and a subset Y, consider the set S of permutations p of X such that for all y in Y, p(y) in Y
is S a subgroup of S_X?
So I think its like taking an arbitrary subset Y, and saying the permutation group contains all cycles including elements in Y
I feel like this is a subgroup
This leads me to the question, are there permutations that aren't in cycles?
Like aren't cycles a key part of permutations, like if you just keep applying permutations doesn't it have to "loop back around"
or am I all wrong
they do have to loop back around, if the set of things you are permuting is finite
er
i think that should be acacurate
eg what if we are permuting N, including 0, and we shift all even numbers up by 2, we shift 1 down by 1, and we shift all other odd numbers down by 2
hey so uh ive found an element that generates 23 elements of the group I mentioned earlier, but im almost certain this is impossible
and I double checked all my calculations so I have no idea whats going on
the group should have 24 elements?
okay yea thats not possible
yeah I have absolutely no idea whats happened because I just went through the calculations again, I guess ill check them again
if you can post i can check with a calculator
So its F_5[x]/(x^2 - 2)
So x^2 = 2 and everything is mod 5
Im missing the element 3
i think you calculated (1+2x)^6 wrong
In my algebra course the professor was discussing the fact that if you have an orbit of X the action of G on the orbit can only produce elements of the orbit, so the orbit inherits an action of G.
He pointedly said that because if we have an element of the orbit and we act by an element of the group we must say inside the orbit, so we have a well defined action of the group. But that in order to say we have a group action on the orbit we have to check that the identity acts trivially and that it's associative.
I'm not entirely clear on what the distinction he's making here is between well defined action of the group and there being a group action on the orbit
How can we have a well defined action of the group... on the orbit... without there being a group action on the orbit?
the only thing i can think of is like maybe there's a thing called an action of which group actions are a subtype?
like, an action just shuffles things, a group action shuffles things but retains like identity and group structure?
Hmm, well it was my impression that "action" generally isn't a well defined term, but "group action" is, which is my confusion
Alright, well thanks for weighing in. Although this now reinforces my uncertainty as to what distinction he's actually making here, lol
By well defined, I feel like your Prof is just saying that the action of G is closed in some sense
So the action actually takes an element of the set X to itself
That would be the same as saying it's transitive, yes?
Uhm, no nevermind
different idea
But alright, so I suppose he's saying that just because the action is closed doesn't necessarily mean it meets the criteria of being a "group action"
yeah
Tyty for helping my clarify that
are elements of a finite-dim C*-algebra self adjoint?
nvm, I mean I can't see any reason they would be
can't you take any matrix which isn't self adjoint as a counterexample?
eg
0 1
0 0
in M(2, C)
lmao yeah
where is edd at
we were proving that some map was completely positive last night, and I think we implicitly assumed that the stuff in M_n(C) was Hermitian
because we use rayleigh coefficients, which looks like you can only do if you know your thing is hermitian
I was wondering if someone can help me with this. I wrote all of this out, so I can show my thought process, but I’m not quite sure how to proceed without listing all the integers in the equivalence classes and then play a matching game
(I will use (p,q,r) to represent the integer which is p mod 5,q mod 7 and r mod 11)
Find integers a,b,c such that a=(1,0,0),b=(0,1,0) and c=(0,0,1)
Your required integer will be 4a+5b+7c
To find a, consider the number 7*11,This leaves a nonzero remainder with 5 and a zero remainder with other 2 numbers. You can then find a number p such that p*7*11 leaves a remainder of 1 with 5 since 7*11 is coprime to 5
Any doubts?
If we replaced that $x\equiv 7 (\bmod 11)$ with $x\equiv [something] (\bmod 35)$, then we should still have the same solution set, right?
beeswax
x=7 mod 11 and x=19 mod 35 would be the same x as in the given system of equations
Wait, how did you get the 19?
x=4 mod 5 and x= 5 mod 7 implies x=19 mod 35
Well,I just checked manually
If you want a more methodical approach ,15=(0,1) and 21=(1,0) (first is modulo 5,and second is modulo 7)
So,your required x will be 155+214=75+84=89 mod 35=19 mod 35
Haven't seen the calculations, but notice that the congruences tell you (2x-3) is divisible by 5, 7 and 11. Hence 2x-3 is divisible by 385. hence 2x = 3 = 388 (mod 385) => x = 194 (385)
so you get 194 and 194+385 as the two incongruent solutions mod 770
Thank you @rustic crown and @carmine fossil for the help.

It's okay now I think
yep... more precisely, action of G on the set A, is same as a group homomorphism from G to Sym(A).
yep. but i like to think the other way.... "all the elements you can get from a"
Perfect
this seems a bit backwards
for example, when you say the orbit of earth you mean all the points the earth can go (in this case the transformation is rotation around the sun)...
x = bh for some h is H is same as saying b = x * (h^-1) for some h in H
this can be written more succinctly as [x] = {h*x | h in H}
we often use the notation H*x instead of [x] to refer to orbits specifically
(typically with a \cdot, not a *, but discord)
b would be any element of A there
so its the set of all b in A such that there is some h in H with b = xh
oops
A
not X
sorry you were using x so i misremembered the symbol
but yes, the set
in other words, its the set of all action-products xh
sure.
huh?
im saying that the equivalence class [x] is the set of all products of the form x*h
for some choice of h
what do you mean by that
h can be any element of H
in either definition
like okay
can you see why the following sets are equivalent:
{x | x=5} and {5}
if so, same reasoning here
{x * h | for all h in H} doesnt even make sense
i mean the other definition doesnt make sense either
youre quantifying but you dont have a statement associated with your quantifier
okay heres another analogy:
ugh
internet dying
here are two ways we can write the even integers:
{b | b = 2n for some n in Z}
{2n | n in Z}
its the set of all products x*h, where we can choose any element of h.
so if H = {1, 2, 3}
it'll be
{x*1, x*2, x*3}
again youre not really quantifying over a statement
so that declaration doesnt quite make sense
its the set of all xh SUCH THAT h is in H
?
{A | B} = the set of all A such that B
i feel like youre missing a fundamental concept with set builder notation here
you can phrase this using quantifiers but you dont have to
thats my point
{A | B} = the set of all A such that B holds
so:
{b | b = 2n for some n in Z} is "the set of all b such that (there exists n in Z such that (b = 2n))"
{2n | n in Z} is "the set of all 2n such that (n is in Z)"
yes, those a would be the elements of your equivalence class
(assuming the a are meant to be distinct as well)
er wait
hold up
it should be the a's and b's
also it should be 1*b, not b*1
since you dont have abelianness necessarily
have you proved ~ is an equivalence relation yet?
it might help with intuition here
okay, so a ~ b iff there is some h such that a = hb
meaning that if H = {1, 2, 3}
a ~ b iff at least one of the following holds:
a = 1b
a = 2b
a = 3b
a and b are fixed here
but if a ~ b
then they belong to the same equivalence class [a]
so the equivalence class [a] is the set of all b such that a ~ b, i.e. such that either:
a = 1b
a = 2b
or a = 3b
idk what it means for the b to be "distinct" in this context
i get that
i still dont see how it fits in
why
what if A is the set of one element
then 1b = 2b = 3b
for sure
okay sure, the size of this equivalence class is the number of images of a under (group action) multiplication by elements from H
hence, at most the number of elements from H
you might
again, if your set has 1 element
or 2 elements
well you can come up with examples for any cardinality
depending on how your action is defined
its just "forced" for sufficiently small sets
yo does anyone know about some book/paper that explains alternating groups well with describing its properties?
If R[x] is a euclidean domain, is R necessarily a Field?
yes
in fact, if R[x] is a PID, then R is a field
this is a decent exercise; it can be done in like 3 sentences
Let's see:
- Irreducible elements in a PID are maximal
- x is irreducible
- R is iso to R[x]/(x)
- R is a field
And I guess Euclidean => PID because you can do the standard proof where you pick the minimal degree polynomial in an ideal, and use the division algorithm
this is the slickest proof
rather, the end of it
and yeah euclidean -> PID
also this of course requires R a comm ring
otherwise R being a field doesnt make sense
do you ever talk about euclidean domains in a non-commutative setting?
yes i just mean
my claim it suffices to prove this for R[x] a PID
does require R to be a ring
but since youre discussing euclidean domains, thats given anyway
I can grok complicated conditions on Rings
but non-commutative variants of these require too much juggling for my head
yeahhhh working in noncommutative settings is kinda hellish
its not much HARDER in terms of like, actual reasoning skills required
its just a massive pain
and easy to get criss-crossed
you have to be careful about a lot of stuff I guess
idk, I feel like working with modules is the more natural setting?
this is a bit of a hunch, but I feel like the internal structure of a non-commutative ring is less well behaved then the external structure
that is to say like, the category R-mod
