#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 519 of 407
that might also work
you can move the lines to something like x0 = x1 = 0 and x2 = x3 = 0
using some matrix in PGln
Yeah... that's what @chilly ocean was suggesting
I don't actually know how to do a change of coordinates to do that though
another way might be to use the fact that L1 and L2 cant be coplanar
Yeah, I was wondering about visualizing this in three d space with a bubble around it, that's the "plane" at infinity or whatever
the lines would have to be skew
yeah and there's a unique plane containing L1 and P
same for L2 and P
and their intersection would be 1d
you can probably show that using Krull PID thm
the planes cant be the same plane as L1 and L2 would intersect
which can be shown either using Bezout's theorem or directly
Don't know Bezout's theorem yet
you can do it directly
P2 - L1 is affine
so L2 is affine and projective
which means it is spec k
so just a point
contradiction
the same argument shows that any two hypersurfaces in projective space must intersect
uhhh
first you can prove that the complement of a hypersurface is affine (reduce to the hyperplane case by taking a veronese embedding), and then use the same projective + affine argument
hmm ok, I don't know of another way then lol
Your linear algebra way works
there's a pretty nice way to attack these sort of incidence problems using grassmanians
No idea what those are, like either of them
projective space is lines in some affine space
grassmanians are varieties whose points corrrespond to higher dim linear subspaces of affine space
oh, so like planes?
ye
k dim subspaces of F^n
Is there some sort of duality when the dimension and codimension match?
Like lines in C3 and planes in C3?
sure, the dimension of the grassmanian of k-planes in n space is k(n-k)
i think
so the dimension of lines in C3 and planes in C3 would be the same
I meant it kind of like how 1 forms and 2 forms can both be thought of as the same kind of in R3
oh, i do not know
I think there's a typo after the second equality
but the idea is correct
it's pretty cool that you're TeXing up solutions lol
I've tried multiple times
and I give up after 2 problems lol
anyone know subrings?
Let K be a field. Given an algebraic extension F of K(x), show that K[x_1,...,x_n] is not a field for all x_i in F\K
The proof says that there is a place $P$ such that $v_P(x_i) \geq 0$
The formerly edible banana:
I don't see why that must be true though
Is it true that every proper subring is contained in some valuation ring?
Figured this one out
There are infinite places and v_P(x_i) is non-zero at only finitely many places
Is this the channel in which I'd ask about affine geometry?
It is not true that two affine subspaces that are not parallel must intersect. Does it become true if we consider affine subspaces of the same dimension? Can we say anything about the dimension of the intersection?
Intuitively I'd say that there must be a non-empty intersection and that the dimension will be smaller by 1, but I have no idea how to justify this
this is definitely not the channel for affine geometry
The Lie group of rotations in 3-dimensional space R3
is represented by 3 × 3 matrices
R obeying the relations R^TR = RR^T = 1(identity of 3x3 matrix), where T denotes transpose.
The orthogonal
group in n-dimensions is denoted O(n). Determine what type of matrices are the generators
of the corresponding Lie algebra, denoted o(n).
can someone give me a hint on how to answer this pls?
well, you have to determine the matrices A, such that exp(A) is orthogonal
i.e. such that exp(tA)exp(tA)^T = exp(tA)^Texp(tA) = 1 for all t
hint: ||compute the derivative with respect to t||
mhm okay. I forgot, but why do we use exp in this case again?
i assumed this is your definition of Lie algebra of a (matrix) Lie group
Yes it is
i.e the Lie algebra of a Lie group G is the set of all matrices, such that exp(tA) is in G for all t
there are different (more general) definitions, but i assumed you use this
yah we do, i just want some intuition behind it :x
well, it just turns out that the exponential function is the 'correct' way to translate between a lie algebra and its lie group
my (bad) intuition is that
a lie algebra is a vectors space, so it is 'linear'
a lie group is a smooth manifold, it is 'curved'
and the exponential function turns linear space into curved space
ah ok
like exp(R) = S^1
@sharp sonnet O
ok ok that makes ense
sense
exp(tA)exp(tA)^T = exp(tA)^Texp(tA) = 1 for all t. for this here, computing the derivative we end up using some product rule right?
yeah, you need the product rule
hint 2: ||the lie algebra will be the set of all skew-symmetric matrices||
||checking that all skew-symmetric matrices are in o(n) is easy, but the other implication requires the derivative||
ty sir, ok ill be back if im stuck 
Ok so i got $A^T exp{(tA)^T (1+(tA)^T)} + A exp{(tA)^T (1+(tA)^T)}$
!R. ¬:
which shows i guess its a skew symmetric matrix A^T=-A?
those are the skew symmetric matrices
right, so how does one find the generators of so(3)?
it's the set of all skew symmetric matrices ?
i mean so(3) = o(3), because SO(3) is the identity component of O(3)
maybe there is a smaller set of generators but i dunno
ive read in a textbook
R = 1_3×3 + iθ^iJ_i + O(θ^2)
for the rotations
no clue whats going on here
some infinitesimal transformations near the identity which is in the neighbourhood of 1_3x3?
and we are just looking at the metric so who cares about O(theta^2)?
figured it out! ty
what is |R?
the real set
ohhh hahah
Anything can be a vector, since vector is just an element of a vector space and you can declare anything to be in your vector space
yes but am I allowed to build vector space with sets
sure why not
Of course
as long as it satisfies the 10 VS axioms or whatever
Thanks guys I'll sleep happier
for instance, any Boolean algebra is also a F_2-vector space: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1884825/596135
Yeah, you've got an invariant subspace of a larger space
Once you are fully explicit about what that means, yes
So W is a subrep of V
Where the map is phi:G->GL(V)
Define phi':G->GL(W)
Which is just phi'(g) = phi(g)\mid_W
Are you thinking of it as a real or complex rep?
As a complex rep 1d is just kinda meh
Some groups are manifolds, not all
So you can think of representations of the circle
And both are subreps but that's it
The problem is "A subspace of C"
It's just 0 and everything
So there's really nothing going on here
Okay let's consider the dihedral group then
No it's not a subset of the matrices, every single matrix restricted to a subspace
Or better yet I'll give the action of the symmetric group
So $S_n$ acts on $\mathbb{C}^n$ by permuting the coordinates
Yes exactly
Daminark:
I can't get this to work using induction, are there any combinatorics involved?
This isn't the right channel for this
hi, i was working on this problem and tried using $\mathbb{F}_3[x]/(x^2+1)$ as an example, but the monics in the field are $x,x+1,x+2$ whose product is $x$ instead of $\pm 1$, so i am wondering if this is an error of some sort
Rixia Mao:
oh, A in the problem is a polynomial ring over a finite field
if anyone can help that would be much appreciated
quick question, if an element of a cyclic group of size n has an order of n, does it imply that the element is a generator for that cyclic group?
yup
hmmm, i got a question in the textbook that asks for the order of 5 in Z_12, and the order of 5 is 12, but 5 isnt a generator for this group
this is it in particular
how tho, 5^i for any i >=2 is 1mod12
oh lmaooo
ok that clears alot of things up, thanks!
What if we modify the problem a bit, and take the product over all nonzero elts of A/P
A/P is a field
so the multiplicative group is everything except 0
and it is cyclic
so pick a primitive, and we are computing g^(1 + 2 + ... + n)
where n+1 is the order of A/P
so they did not demand f to be monic?
yeah it probably doesnt work with monic condition
yeah it was from rozen's number theory in function fields
that's kind of weird
well, anyways, thank you for confirming
i was going down a different route
trying to partition the ring with the leading coefficient
is there a char neq 2 assumption?
dont think so
oh I was trying to prove the corollary
yep
in general if you have a finite abelian group then the product of all elts. is the product of all elts of order 2
right?
oh hey that's even the same counterexample
Number theory in function fields interesting
Anyone have any ways to show $(xy-zw)$ is prime in $k[x,y,w,z]$
freeridebiker:
there is a handy CA theorem I suppose for rings of multiple variables over fields
i guess cause it's a UFD, and (xy-zw) is irreducible that would work right
Anybody here interested in a bit of combinatorial group theory?? This problem of embedding a free group of rank 3 in a free group of rank 2 was given by my instructor in class (as a food for thought)...i wrote up a proof based on the fact that reduced words of even length in $F_2$ is isomorphic to $F_3$... now i am curious about whether its possible to use the elementary version of ping pong lemma to cook up three disjoint sets in $F_2$...
Arpan:
For reference ...If $X$ is a nonempty set and $X_1,X_2,X_3$ are three disjoint subsets of $X$ and $a_1,a_2,a_3$ are bijections from $X\to X$ with $a_j^k(X_i)\subset X_j$ for all $i\neq j$ and $\forall k\in \mathbb{Z}\setminus {0}$, then $a_1,a_2,a_3$ generate a free group of rank 3 inside the group $Bij(X,X)$...this is the elementary version of ping pong lemma i am hoping to utilise...
Arpan:
@outer estuary yup cuz xy-zw is irreducible
alternatively consider k[x,zw/x,z,w]
Is it true for $M$ an $A$-modules that $S^2M \simeq \langle{a\otimes b + b \otimes a|(a,b)\in M^2}\rangle$ ?
Zak:
It is true for linear spaces bc I can get a basis but I wonder if it is generally true
@sturdy marsh Can you help me again? I'm super bad at this projective geometry stuff
@wind steeple If $A$ has characteristic 2, then you will miss all elements of the form $a\otimes a$
Icy001:
oh yes thx
One should note that $S^2M$ is the quotient of $M\otimes M$ by the relation $x\otimes y=y\otimes x$, and the symmetric tensors (elements of $M\otimes M$ such that the involution swapping the two factors fixes them) map to $S^2M$ by projection. In this case, even with $M=R=\bZ$ we have $1\cdot 3\in S^2M$ but is not the image of any $x\otimes y+y\otimes x$, since the image of any $x\otimes y+y\otimes x$ is $2(x\cdot y)$ and $1\cdot 3$ is odd.
Icy001:
(nor is it an integer linear combination of such images)
Oh yes I forgot that A is not necessarly a field lol
What's the best notation to state that a defined matrix has entries in the prime field F_p?
$(A)_{ij} \in \mathbb{F}_p$?
nix:
or why not something like $A \in M_{n,m}(\mathbb{F}_p)$?
88ddda:
or whatever the notation is for that (n,m, or nxm?)
oh thats sexy
yeah was going to type something along those lines lol
$A\in\mathbb{M}_{m\times n}(\mathbb{F}_p)$
$A\in\bR^{m\times n}(\mathbb{F}_p)$
nix:
$\bR^{m\times n}$ is often used for $m\times n$ real matrices. Here you'd have to type $(\mathbb F_p)^{m\times n}$
derivada.schwarziana:
$A \in \mathcal{L}(\mathbb{F}_p^n)$
Zak:
big brain time
ah right thank you
I need to proof: "Is the kernel of a lineair variety a lineair variety?" How would I approach this problem?
It is one of the questions of previous exams and it isn't proven in my textbook.
If $V$ is a vectorspace. A linear variety $L$ is a subset of $V$ in the shape of $$L=\vec{a}+W$$ with $\vec{a} \in V$ and $W \leq V$
OsamaBinNaughty:
what does the kernel of a subspace mean
It is a subset, I made a translating mistake.
Indeed. It doesnt make sense
relating to this question, is it the case that if every element of a cyclic group is a generator for the group, then no other subgroups for the group can exist outside the non-trivial subgroups?
also is there any significant difference between a cyclic group and a regular group? as far as I've seen the only 'difference' is that cyclic groups will often have a generator element that is given
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subgroups_of_cyclic_groups might be worth checking out
In abstract algebra, every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic. Moreover, for a finite cyclic group of order n, every subgroup's order is a divisor of n, and there is exactly one subgroup for each divisor. This result has been called the fundamental theorem of cyclic groups.
Moreover, for a finite cyclic group of order n, every subgroup's order is a divisor of n, and there is exactly one subgroup for each divisor.
is already a pretty strong condition
compare with something like S_3 (definitely not cyclic) that has more than one subgroup of order 2
i'm not sure that answers your question about cyclic groups vs other groups (and tbh i'm not sure if there's a right way to answer it)
oh that makes sense
relating to this question, is it the case that if every element of a cyclic group is a generator for the group, then no other subgroups for the group can exist outside the non-trivial subgroups?
you mean outside the trivial subgroup? (and the whole group ofc)
just wanna make sure i understand your terminology
because that sounds right
(you can also one-line this problem with lagrange, although if you're thinking of what i'm thinking then this might be reproving lagrange in a special case lol)
I just one lined it with Lagrange lol
are vieta's formulas still valid in finite fields?
for context im working on this problem
and the elements of $\mathbb{F}^*$ are exactly the solutions to $x^{p^k}-1=0$
if vieta's formulas work, i can just claim that the product of all the roots is exactly -1
Rixia Mao:
then you're probably being asked to prove that specific case of the formula
which is true in finite fields btw https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vieta's_formulas
Is this test simply not equivalent to the definition of a group?(Besides the fact that we're checking for a subset of a given group?) What would constitute a reasonable proof for this theorem?
That is the definition of subgroup?
You need to show associativity, existence of inverses, existence of identity and closure
Yes, that's what I think, I don't understand why Gallian formulates this as a theorem.
Well associativity follows from the group itself.
yeah
Inverses and closure are covered by the statement of this theorem, I guess it only remains to be shown that the identity exists?
a (a^-1) is in H
Yes
You also need uniqueness of inverse if you want to prove the converse statement
And without proving the converse the statement isn't really useful, because then if the criterion fails it could still be a subgroup
(I mean The definition of group doesn't involve uniqueness of inverse)
Yeah uniqueness is a theorem
Or of identity
Yeah, that follows as a theorem. I have proven it previously.
But if you want to prove the converse, then you need to show that a subgroup has the same inverses as the big group
Which is pretty easy, but has to be done
Since H satisfies group axioms and H is a subset of G, I suppose I can say it is a subgroup of G?
Oh, I see.
Because the a^-1 mentioned in the theorem is the inverse in G
One might think a subgroup could have a different inverse
But yeah, sufficiency is quite straightforward as you said
Makes sense, I will do that.
Just have to show identity is there really
No problems
This was stated in the answer to one of my problems, I don't completely believe the second to last equality
(I is an ideal of A of course)
Obviously the inclusion < holds, but I'm not so sure about the other direction
If I have some element in the intersection, then I can write it as a sum of element in I multiplied by product of n-1 elements in I for all n geq 2. But how do I know that each product of n-1 elements is also in M?
If it helps, I know that A is Noetherian.
If it helps, I know that A is Noetherian.
@woven obsidian Do you know the ring is local?
If so I think you apply Artin-Rees lemma
Nope, that's the follow up question, which says that if it is local then the whole thing is 0
Oh actually
You only need Noetherian for Artin-Rees
And then for Krull’s intersection theorem which says it’s 0 as a corollary you need local
Look up the Artin-Rees lemma
Hmm I'll check it out, we haven't covered it
If you have Lang it’s on page 429
it seems that it should be a triviality that IM=M
I think it’s in Atiyah-MacDonald
Once I know that you can just use Nakayama
But I think this is realy important, I think you legitimately need to know this theorem in order to show it
I don’t know an example it fails off the top of my head without Noetherian
But I think it does
I'll check it out, thanks for the help.
For reference I was looking at the same thing once and remembered I thought you need Artin-Rees
Aka I think your proof with Naka is how you do Krull’s intersection theorem
Which does need the Noethe hypothesis and uses Artin-Rees
Well this was from an old exam, it would be very uncharacteristic for this lecturer to give a problem requiring a theorem we haven't covered
It doesn't seem like the kind of lemma you come up with during 30 minutes
Yeah
You could try looking at generators of each ideal
There’s only finitely many
Yeah I thought about that, but I couldn't see how it helped
Yeah
Hmmm
It might be possible they covered the lemma in a previous time
When it was a bit faster
I might send him a mail, he has done mistakes in his exams in the past
No they've used the same book always, Reid's book
Is the lemma not in Reid’s book?
I’ve only looked at the beginning parts of Reid’s book
No, he doesn't say much about Noetherian modules
Huh
Most of the things he says are corollaries of that if 0->L->M->N->0 is a s.e.s, then M is Noetherian iff L,N is
@sturdy marsh Can you help me again? I'm super bad at this projective geometry stuff
@slate forum I don't know much either but I don't mind trying
Hi there, im struggling a bit with the symmetry group of the tetrahedron
At the moment just want to know the elements in that group to get the cardinality
I know its 24 but im just getting 18... I dont know why
well, it has to be a subset subgroup of S_4, so it divides 24
Indeed. But im just at the beggining of the study of this group. Im not supposed to know its isomorphic to S4
Just want to know the elements of the group 😂
Im counting eight vertex-face rotations (four vertex, order three each one), six plane symmetries and three edge-edge rotations
That makes a total of 8 + 6 + 3 = 17 plus the identity i get just 18
what are plane symmetrices and edge edge rotations?
well, it has to be a
subsetsubgroup of S_4, so it divides 24
@chilly ocean This work nice to get the order actually, thanks
But not quite to know each elements
Hmm
You know the tetrahedron has pane symmetries?
i'm not famliar with the terminology, but if you explain what a pane symmetry is i'd probably see it
(actually, i'm not even sure which transformations of the tetrahedron you are even allowed to do in this problem you are talking about. just rigid movements?)
choose an edge, cut the tetrahedron in two pieces going from that edge all through to the middle of the opposite face
Only symmetries allowed
then i would think the group is order 12, not 24
I got an order three rotation for each vertex right? That makes 8 elements
plus the identity 9 actually
And then there are six ways to cut the tetrahedron into two equal pieces. Those "Cutting planes" are reflection symmetric planes
So the order is at least 15 right?
yeah i think i agree with 8 elements from that, +1 for identity
i guess i don't really follow this stuff about cutting the tetrahedon
ah, so you are allowed reflections?
i didn't know this
(rigid movements would imply 12 i think)
yeah i see it now
The right side
Of course, reflections are symmetries too
i guess so, i will admit that i'm not super familiar with the technical terminology
Lmao its the first time hanging out with the tetrahedron too
Like, im trying to figure out its symmetry group
ok, so you know that it is order 24, you can probably find some elements that its' generated by, then show that they satisfy some multiplication that is satisfied in S4, then argue that it must be S4 (you're not allowed to use S4? just define it!)
I'll try to make the analogy with S4 thanks :)
what exactly is the power rule for D(f^n) supposed to be here lol
D(f^n) = nf^{n-1} D(f)?
yea it was that pretty sure
nvm
Hmmm does the chain rule hold?
yea i got it whoever it wasnt hard lol
its the chain rule p much
anyway am i just dumb or is theta^2 + theta like
not a root
of x^3 + x + 1
i get theta^6 + theta^5 + theta^4 + theta^3 + theta^2 + theta + 1 and when i reduce that gets me theta which is definitely not zero in F8

there should be no +1 right?
wdym
er, nvm, im a dumbass
ok here, is a try, $\theta^3=\theta+1$, so $x^3=(\theta^2+\theta)^3=\theta^3 (\theta+1)^3 =\theta^3 (\theta^3+\theta^2+\theta+1) = \theta^5 = \theta^2(\theta+1) = \theta^3+\theta^2 = \theta^2+\theta+1$, which is the same as $x+1$
88ddda:
ty think i got it
Let $G$ be a finite $p$-group and let $H \neq {e}$ be a normal subgroup of $G$. I want to show that $H \cap Z(G) \neq {e}$.
kxrider:
This is what I've done so far:
Z(G) being the centre of G?
yes
are you familiar with the class equation? (it's not actually necessary here but it can be used)
yes
alright, what have you tried?
If $G = H$, then the conclusion is clear. Otherwise we have $|G| = p^n$ for some $n > 0$ and $|H| = p^k$ for some $0 < k \leq n$. It follows that $G/H$ is a $p$-group, so it has nontrivial center. Let $g \in Z(G)$ s.t. $g \neq e$. Then $aga^{-1}H = gH$. We have $|gH| = p^i$ for some i \leq n-k$ so $g^{p^i} \in H$ and therefore $ag^{p^i}a^{-1} = g^{p^i}$ implies $g^{p^i} \in H \cap Z(G)$. But this doesn't work because $g^{p^i}$ could be $e$, and i haven't found a way to work around that.
kxrider:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
theres a really slick approach you can use here
hint: how many classes with one element does H have?
conjugacy classes? |Z(H)| many
yes
but in particular, H - being normal - is just a union of conjugacy classes
i claim that H contains at least two conjugacy classes with one element
(one of which is the identity)
and furthermore that these must be classes of central elements of G
can you see why those two claims are true? if so, that's the proof
(hint: what's the index of Z(G)?)
an alternate, less slick, proof is based off the class equation
its a similar idea
but a bit more computational
(consider a group action of H on G by conjugation...)
hint: what's the index of Z(G)?
probably not on the right track at all, but [G : Z(G)] is the order of the inner automorphism group of G lol
oh wait, i think im understanding it though. If H only contained a single conjugacy class with one element, then p would not divide the order of H.
@scarlet estuary Nice, though it’s essentially the same as the class equation approach.
If H only contained a single conjugacy class with one element, then p would not divide the order of H.
yep
this is the core idea
and regardless of whether you use the class equation method or my "slicker" one
this is the key fact of the proof
@steep hull yeah you basically just skip the computations
which is nice since writing out class equations is tedious
(though probably good practice)
Yeah. Anyway, the H=G case is good motivation for trying to use the class equation somehow.
That’s what gave it away for me
an alternate, less slick, proof is based off the class equation
its a similar idea
but a bit more computational
(consider a group action of H on G by conjugation...)
what's the idea here? When $H$ acts on $G$ by conjugation, you get a weird class equation. Something like $$|H| = |Z(H)| + \sum_i [H : C_H(x_i)] $$ with each $[H : C_H(x_i)] \geq p$.
kxrider:
oops sorry
i wrote that backwards
that should be G acting on H by conjugation
consider it, uh, extra practice writing the class equation
yeah
ah yea i see. Its reduces to basically the exact same proof that the center of a p group is nontrivial
``look at the class eqn mod p.'' sounds like good advice when messing with p-groups.
yeah haha
hard to go wrong
anyway yeah, as mentioned its essentially the same proof
youre just a little more explicit about it
and get the opportunity to show off your sick sigma-drawing skills, an essential trait for any mathematician.
Let G be a finite abelian group and H a subgroup of G. Prove that G/H is isomorphic to some subgroup of G
I found this proof online
I have a few questions about this
Why does it suffice to establish the result when G is an abelian p-group?
Not all subgroups of A x B have to be of the form A' x B' where A' and B' are subgroups of A and B respectively
Why does it suffice to establish the result when G is an abelian p-group?
@vestal snow a finite abelian group is direct product of p groups
fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups
cyclic groups
That's true, but how does that imply the result?
Say we knew that the result holds for p groups
G = Z_p^a x Z_p^b ....
where a+b+... = p^x =|G|
iirc cuz im kidna rusty with fundamentla theorem
now show that if H is a subgroup then G/H is isomorrphic to some subgroup of G
given that this works for p groups
Let G be a finite abelian group and H a subgroup of G. Prove that G/H is isomorphic to some subgroup of G
Do you know there is a bijection between subgroups of G containing H and subgroups of G/H?
Yes
Show that bijection is a homomorphism
What?
Ok,nvm
hey i think u already said it lmfao
Not all subgroups of A x B have to be of the form A' x B' where A' and B' are subgroups of A and B respectively
@vestal snow give me a counterexample
where everything is abliean th
( as you know AxB abelian <--> A and B abelian )
fuck
yea
it works the other way around tho
if A and B is a subgroup of X and Y then AxB is a subgroup of XxY
Yes
so suppose the proposition holds
for finite baliena p groups
then for each of these 'factors'
there exists a subgroup bla bla bla
therefore they exist for the direct product
aka the group
right?>
I don't think the logic here is correct
We need to show that given an arbitrary subgroup, we can...
But you are only considering the subgroups which can be written as products of subgroups of the factors of G
what we have is that if G is a finite abelian p group and H isa subgroup then there exits a subgroup of G such that G/H is isomoprhic to that subrou
right?
Yes
now G is isomorphic to direct product of cyclic p groups
any G now
any finite abelian G
Yes, say G = prod Z_p_i^k_i
okay now each factor has a subgroup H such that (factor)/H is isomorphic to some subgroup of (factor)
right?
Yes
what happens if you product all these subgroups that are isomorphic?
Wait hold on
is it isomoprphic to G ( the original group ) quotient the direct products of all H's
H's being the subgroups of the factors?
I disagree with your previous claim
which 1
Or rather I don't get what you're saying
yes
and assume the prop holds for anyy p abelian group
now by fundamental theorem G is isomorphic to a direct product
of p abelian groups
say 3
AxBxC
now the prop applies to those 3
as they are finite abelian p groups
apply the proposition --> find the subgroup H such that A/H is isomorphic to some subgroup of A
keep doing this to B and C
and direct product them all up
Wait
" find the subgroup H such that A/H is isomorphic to some subgroup of A"
What does this mean?
what does your theorem say
for a finite abelian p group there exists a subgroup H such that G/H is isomorphic to some subgroup of G
right?
No
the other way around
yea
mb
for any subgroup H there exists a subgroup of G ,A, such that G/H is iso to A
right/
Let G be a finite abelian group and H a subgroup of G. Prove that G/H is isomorphic to some subgroup of G
[12:17 PM]
should be right?
Yes that's the thing I want to prove
now you are having trouble seeing
that if this works for p abelian groups
they work for anay abelian groups
( finite )
right
?
so take any finite abelian group call it G
G is iso to direct product of p abelian groups
for any subgroup H of each of these abelian groups there exists a subgroup such that this mod that is isomorphic to the subgroup
now can you like
direct product them all up
should get you isomorphic to G mod any subgroup
right?
We don't know if H can be written as a direct product of subgroups of the factors of G
really?
Yeah
Z/nZ x Z/nZ
<(k,k)> where k ranges over all elemnts of Z/nZ
this is a counterexample
can you explain to me how
this is ac ounterexample
show me there exists A and B such that A is not a subgroup of X and B is not a subgroup of Y but AxB is a subgroup of XxY
Okay
Z/nZ x Z/nZ
The subgroup {(k,k)| k in Z/nZ} is a subgroup
But you cannot express it as product of subgroups
@vestal snow suggestions for what?
Not all subgroups of A x B have to be of the form A' x B' where A' and B' are subgroups of A and B respectively
@vestal snow Pretty sure this is the case when the orders of A and B are coprime which is what's being done here
Take an element (a,b) in H which isn't equal to (e,e)
then |b| is coprime to |a| implying that you can find an n such that n is a multiple of |b| but is equal to 1 mod |a|, then (a,b)^n = (a,e)
and likewise you can find an m such that m is a multiple of |a| and equal to 1 mod |b|, so that (a,b)^m = (e,b)
so you actually get that H is equal to the direct sum of its A and B-parts
Let's say A and B are groups with presentations for
A=<a,b (ab)^2=a^4=b^3=e>
B=<a,b (ab)^2=a^4=b^3=e,ab=ba>
Can I conclude B is isomorphic to a subgroup of A?
I wanna say no
I gotta think about it a bit more
In this specific case it looks like you're saying B would be the subgroup of A defined by like "the largest thing where everything commutes with everything"
and I feel like that doesn't work well
But I think this is a more general question about group presentations
Well,What I meant to ask was given a presentation,if you add more relations,will you always get a subgroup
and like "if every relation in one is a relation in the other, is it a subgruop"
where you have to think more abstractly but aaaa
My free group intuition isn't very good
So like
Okay the ideal way to do this is in your specific case
define a map from the free group on 2 generators by just a maps to a, b maps to b
uhh
Say A = F/N
and B = G/M
F and G are just the free group on 2 generators
so you wanted to define this by defining G -> F by a maps to a and b maps to b
then you compose with F -> F/N
then you want everything in M to die when you go G -> F -> F/N
then by universal property stuff you get a map G/M -> F/N
and for this to be injective you need the kernel of G -> F -> F/N to be exactly M
but it isn't even clear that everything in M dies when you go G -> F -> F/N
like... in your specific example with the A,B you chose
the relation ab = ba really is the element aba^-1b^-1
but there's no reason that's 0 in F/N
at least that's what I think is going on, so it seems almost as if the maps wants to go the OTHER way
but then this is clearly wrong as A isn't abelian (probably) while B definitely is
So maybe I've screwed something up (in fact you don't make A by F/N you have to take the normal closure of N and shit ughh)
But this makes me want to say no
A concrete example would be nice
Ok
I have an idea in my brain but this is the best way I can communicate it
also
concrete example
and free groups don't really go that well together I think 😅
You could try like
looking on group props
and looking at presentations of specific groups
and see if you can find a counterexample
but then this is clearly wrong as A isn't abelian (probably) while B definitely is
For B,The generators could both end up being identity because of some internal cancellations
What I'm saying is
Given this setup I suspect if you could show something is a subgroup, it would actually be A which is a subgroup of B
which is not good since B is abelian and A probably isn't
adding relations doesn't make a subgroup in general. it makes a quotient group. consider, say, <a> and <a | a^2>
So I've read the definition of a quotient group and I don't think I can quite make sense of it. From my understanding, it is the group whose elements are from the fibers of the homorphism. So the elements of a domain in a mapping that map to the same element in the codomain? This feels uncomfortable as a concept.
Does anyone have a better way of explaining it? Or perhaps an example that makes it easier to understand?
i feel like "set of cosets with a group operation when the subgroup is normal" is pretty clear, but from your wording i feel like you might be thinking of something else (fibers of which homomorphism?)
that feels better
You can also just think of it as the original group, but eg a quotient G/N, you can just let everything in N be the identity in computations eg g1 * n * g2 just equals g1*g2
@chilly ocean the way my book explains it, it seems to be more about homomorphisms
what book? im curious

so that definition was a bit confusing to me
top of 76
ty
@next obsidian Thanks for the help!
im in an algebra class that's supposed to follow this book and i didn't see that definition in class, so it'll be good for me to read i guess
One more question: why does Q need to have less than k summands?
I don't get why having less than k generators necessarily implies Q can be written as a product of at most k cyclic groups
@snow cliff in that definition you can think of the quotient group as being the set of all cosets of the kernel K (for instance, the kernel is the identity, it's the fiber over e_H)
can't go too much into detail rn since im on my phone
any normal subgroup of G the kernel of some group homomorphism defined on G, so this is the same as what i described
(i think, haven't had time to mull on the details yet)
the fiber of h corresponds to (is) the coset gK, where phi(g) = h, to be explicit
maybe that will clear the definition up a little
@vestal snow sorry if i buried your question, feel free to repost
It's all good. I'm sure someone will see it eventually
I don't get why having less than k generators necessarily implies Q can be written as a product of at most k cyclic groups
@vestal snow you need the “unit vector” for each summan
Basically like
Ugh how can I explain this easier lmfao
I think I get what you're saying
It’s not quite that easy but
But I think that the proof uses some stuff from modules?
Yeah lmfao
That’s what I was gonna say
But I think you can translate it to group theory
And we haven't done them yet
I think here’s what you want
Oh really
So like umm
I think if you have k - generators for the product
Blech
This is really gross
My brain is just yelling
Not enough
And telling me that’s rigorous lmfao
Yeah this problem is kinda annoying imo
Okay so observation 1
Requires the specific structure here
I think
Wait no
Still not true
Yeah I’m not gonna lie
The only thing I can think of is module theoretic bullshit type stuff where since Z is a PID it’s almost like a vector space
I guess you need to look really hard at alike
(0,...,1,...,0)
Since that actually make sense since we re dealing with cyclic groups
And figure that if you can get k of those you need k-generators
I think you can just say like
@chilly ocean ty I think I need to mull it over some more, may need to clarify later tho
there's a surjective map Z^k --> Q, look at the kernel which is a subgroup of Z^k so must be Z^m for some m
(in fact m = k because Q is finite but I don't think we'll need to use that fact explicitly)
the inclusion Z^m --> Z^k is given by a k x m matrix
put that matrix in smith normal form
I don't think we can do that
why not?
where have I said the word module :P
...oh
but wait
weren't you like asking class field theory questions or something at some point
am I just confusing you with someone else?
Unfortunately no
seems odd to me
also like, what math grad students don't know group theory? I thought that was like, standard required undergrad math course
@snow cliff yeah feel free to post it here, if i can take a look at it i will (it's good review for me)
sorry I'm just really confused about this whole endeavor haha
It is, but he wants us to use group theory only
or rather, the tools developed in class only
So here's something I tried
so... no linear algebra...
Let G be a finite abelian p group and let H be another group. Let G = prod Z_p^k_i and H = Z_p^m_i
There is a lemma that G contains a subgroup isomorphic to H iff k_i>=m_i for all i
k_i, m_i are ordered in decreasing order
So say H was a subgroup of G
them m_i =< k_i
So G/H = prod Z_p^(k_i - m_i)
Since k_i - m_i =< k_i, G/H is isomorphic to some subgroup of G
However, the problem with this is that G iso to K and H iso to L does not imply G/K iso K/H
So we cannot write G/H as prod Z_p^(k_i - m_i)
Maybe someone can fix this?
quick question:
when dealing with elements of a prime field, my text doesnt seem too bothered by writing numbers that are less than zero or greater than p-1. As long as it's clear the number we're dealing with is in the prime field F_p, is it understood that when I write a number 'a' outside of that range that it is exactly equivalent to a mod p?
For example, is it bad/improper to write 70 in F_13 or state that over that field 70^-1=8?
it's usually understood you're working in mod 13 so it's ok if somehow you need it
Yeah I'm dealing with a matrix equation over that field so numbers outside that range come up frequently
ic
Would it still be fine if I said 70^-1=-5?
Haha alright thank you
@vestal snow's question doesn't appear to have been answered btw if anyone can help them
#groups-rings-fields message
@vestal snow cant you just quotient away the generators for the other Z/pZ s?
kinda easier to think of it as modules ngl
So G/H = prod Z_p^(k_i - m_i)
@vestal snow I'm a bit confused, why is this true?
It isn't
The proof would have worked if it were
So i was hoping someone might somehow fix this
What are you trying to prove?
that G/H is isomorphic to a subgroup of G
G is abelian
finite?
yup
If you're allowed to use the lemma that you mentioned you're pretty much done I think
Assuming you've reduced to the p-group case
Let G/H be a quotient
then G/H is a p-group (not necessarily of the form that you've written above)
So it is of the form $G/H = \prod^{m}_{i = 1} Z/ p^{k_i}Z$.
Assume $G = \prod_{j = 1}^{l} Z/p^{r_j}Z$
ffs i cant latex today
okay
assume all in descending order
if you can argue that k_1 > r_1, k_2 > r_2, ..., k_m > r_m then you're done by the lemma
all of those should be > =
alrighty, so we must have r_1 < = k_1 as the order of every element in the quotient divides the order of the element of highest order in G
so the first summand of G has subgroup iso to first summand of G/H
hmm, im trying to see if there's any way to induct from this point
oh wait hold on there's no need to induct
assume towards a contradiction that r_2 > k_2
oh wait I got the notation the wrong way around, we need to argue k_1 < r_1, k_2 < r_2, ..., k_m < r_m
all < =
note m < = L is obvious
argument for k_1 < r_1 same as before (with inequalities flipped)
assume k_2 > r_2
then r_2G is cyclic, but r_2G/H is not (as the second summand has elt of greater order)
which means we have a surjection from cyclic to noncyclic
which is a contradiction
that should do it
image of generators of G generate G/H
Yeah but we can't use things from module theory
Why does image of generators of G generate G/H imply that the number of factors of G/H is less than or equal to G?
if a group has n factors, it cannot be generated by fewer than n generators
i think
p-groups btw
Yeah but the proof of that uses that these are Z-modules and Z is a PID
gimme a sec ill try to come up with an argument that doesnt use that
I don't think you really can without implicitly developing the theory for modules over a PID
there should be a way w/o modules over PID because this excercise was in my textbook before doing the classification
i ignored the problem thinking it was obvious lol
ooo i think I got it
assume we have decomp Z/p^k_1 \oplus Z/p^k_n
descending order
of G?
sure, just some group (im trying to prove fact on generators)
assume we have generating set of size 'r', r < n
now, each generator has order at most p^k_1
ah ffs nvm doesnt work
okay first we'll do a special case
assume we have Z/p \oplus Z/p \oplus ... \oplus Z/p (n -times)
assume we have k generators, k < n
each generator has order at most p
so I think the size of the subgroup they generate has order at most p^k < p^n
yeah now if you have that, then consider Z/p^k_1 \oplus Z/p^k_n
assume we have 'r' generators, r < n
we have a subgroup Z/p^(k_1 -1) \oplus Z/p^(k_2 -1) \oplus ... \oplus Z/p^(k_n -1)
the quotient is iso to Z/p \oplus ... \oplus Z/p (n -times)
the image of the generators generate below
by below i mean the quotient
which is a contradiction
this probably works
it shouldnt need the classification as it was in the groups chapter in Lang
Hold on
Do we even need to show this to begin with?
$G = \prod_{j = 1}^{l} Z/p^{r_j}Z$
Have a Banana Bitch:
$G/H = \prod_{i = 1}^{m} Z/p^{k_i}Z$
Have a Banana Bitch:
Then do we need to show m =< l?
Say we just fill the remaining slots, if they exist, with Z/p^0 Z
Since they are arranged in descending order
but those are just zeros
Yes
they dont contain a subgroup iso to Z/p^k_i
Oh yeah you're right
we will need to add zeros to G/H to use the lemma (but that's a triviality, not important)
Why can you not generate Z/pZ x ... x Z/pZ (n times) with less than n elements?
I wrote the arguement above
another argumentfor the same thing, if you're feeling fancy is that it is a Z/p vector space of dimension n
and generating as a group os the same as span in a vector space in this case
Ah I think you missed something important
"we have a subgroup Z/p^(k_1 -1) \oplus Z/p^(k_2 -1) \oplus ... \oplus Z/p^(k_n -1)
the quotient is iso to Z/p \oplus ... \oplus Z/p (n -times)"
I do not think the quotient is that
We know that there is a subgp isomorphic to $Z/p^(k_1 -1) \oplus Z/p^(k_2 -1) \oplus ... \oplus Z/p^(k_n -1)$ in $Z/(p^k_1) \oplus Z/(p^k_2) \oplus ... \oplus Z/(p^k_n)$
Have a Banana Bitch:
no I mean litterally take the unique subgroup of index p in each summand
and quotient
Oh okay
In general the problem of getting weird quitients arises only when there is a nontrivial embedding of the subgroup in the group
Like for example Z has a subgroup iso to Z such that the quotient is not 0
this is because we can embed Z ---> Z given by n -> 2n
which results in the quotient Z/2Z
I wrote down the entire argument above
I didn't really understand it
which part?
what do r_2G and r_2G/H mean
oh those should be p^(r_2)G
and p^(r_2)G/H
take an element
add it to itself p^r_2 times
In my course book it is mentioned that for modules M-->S^-1M has the universal property for homomorphisms of M to an S^-1A module
What does this mean exactly?
I understand that if I have a map M to an S^-1A-module N, then we should have a unique map from S^-1M ---> N that makes the diagram commute
But what kind of maps are these? Is the one from M to N an A-linear map, and the one from S^-1M--->N S^-1A-linear?
Just means that the map M to the S^-1A module factors uniquely through S^-1M
That’s not even quite what the universal property is, in full generality given M -> N, if every element of S acts as an automorphism of N, aka if mult. by s in S is an automorphism of N then you get a unique map S^-1M -> N through which M -> N factors
Yeah I know that, my question wad what kinds of "maps" these was
For rings they're just ring homomorphisms
So my guess was that the maps from M to N was an A-linear map and the one from S^-1M to N was an S^-1A-linear map
if I have a group of order $p^\alpha$ where $p$ is some prime and $\alpha$ is some positive integer, $p^\alpha$ is finite and so my group is finite? Just want to double check this. I think this should be true since $p$ is also a positive int and they should be closed under multiplication.
Edit nvm, no inverses, so I can't say closed. Does this mean an int to some power can become infinity?
camolot457656:
If it has an integer order then it is finite
I guess what I'm confused on is does $p^\alpha$ have to be finite?
camolot457656:
Um
What do you think
It is an integer
So it is finite
But we don't say finite integer because by definition infinity is not an integer
So ints can never reach infinity?
again that's not really rigorous
the integers can be arbitrarily large
but infinity is not an integer
okay ty
I successfully proved the first part of this problem. What worries me is the way I approached the deduction.
This is what I did:
Assume H is a subgroup of G (G is our group of order p squared) s.t. the index of H is p.
This means that the order of H is equal to the order of G divided by p. The order of G is p squared so the order of H must be p. Furthermore, we proved in the first part that a subgroup with an index of p is a normal group, thus H is a normal subgroup of G of order p.
My concern:
My textbook says that a subgroup of order p does not necessarily have to exist. Therefore I am worried that my initial assumption is invalid and instead I have to prove that the group of size p squared must have a subgroup with an index of p. And if that is the case I would say that a hint is appreciated, as I am not sure how to approach that. I think I should examine cosets of H in G and find a contradiction if there does not exist a subgroup of index p, but I'm not seeing much light there.
A group of order p exists, that is Cauchy's theorem
A subgroup of order p exists
I'm trying to prove that U(8) is isomorphic to Z/2Z x Z/2Z, with operation component wise addition. U is given by U(n) = {0 < a < n | gcd(a,n) = 1} (the relative primes of n), so U(8), the set would be {1,3,5,7}, and if Z/2Z is cosets 2Z and 2Z+1, i don't really know where to go from there
uh
So...
hmm
how long have you done group theory?
based on the answer and some other factors I have 2 different suggestions
I'm first confused as to what Z/2Z x Z/2Z would be
One of them is really general and you get this as a special case
not long
oh okay so maybe not
Z/2Z is just pairs (x,y)
okay uh
G x H for groups G, H
is just pairs (x,y) with x in G, y in Y
and (x,y)(x',y') = (xx',yy')
that make sense?
oh yeah
lmfao sorry
yeah I mean
it doesn't matter, I just mean in each component you do the operation
ok
ok yes
so Z/2Z x Z/2Z has 4 elements
(0,0)
(1,0)
(0,1)
and (1,1)
and the multiplication table is pretty easy
oH
yeh
Sounds like something clicked haha
Do you wanna try to prove this again yourself and come back if you still can't get it?
more like im just stupid and didn't understand Z/2Z x Z/2Z
It's fine lol
my second level of not understanding is proving the isomorphism
The isomorphism is pretty not that bad
how would {1,3,5,7} be isomorphic to {(0,0),(1,0),(0,1),(1,1)}
because 1,3,5,7 is under multiplication
so like 1 has to go to (0,0)
since you gotta send the identity to the identity
hm yes
(1,0)+(0,1)=(1,1)
😮
so maybe send 3 to (1,0)
and 5 to (0,1)
and see if that works?
(clearly 7 goes to (1,1))
wdym see if that works
like is that a group homomorphism?
You've defined a map one way
You took the 4 elements of U(8)
and said where you want to send them
so show that's actually a group homomorphism
and boom, it's an isomorphism since it's bijective
i mean didn't i just just do that
I mean there's a few other combinations
call the map phi
is phi(3*3) what it should be?
Spoiler
this map works haha
because thats just same as phi(1)
yeah
(2,0) is (0,0)
so maybe you can figure out a way to reduce how much you need to check
but that's up to you
I'll leave you with one thing tho okay
This is higher level but
if you tink about it maybe it makes it more obvious what's going on
Z/2Z x Z/2Z can be written the following way
{e,a,b,c}
where a^2 = b^2 = c^2 = 1
and ab = c
bc = a
ca = b
and it's abelian
just let a = (1,0), b = (0,1), c = (1,1)
but actually, (you should do this)
ANY choice of the three non-identity elements for a,b,c work
the same is true of U(8)
the elements 3,5,7 can all be a b or c
so like if you view it more abstractly like that these groups behave exaclty the same
maybe that's a bit confusing rn, but if you mull about it for a while and maybe remember it in a few weeks it'll make a lot of sense
so in a proof i should specify that my assignments are arbitrary and could be in any combination
no it make pseudo sense
i understand what you saying
rn im just getting caught up definitions and my monke brain go plop when i deal with real numbers
what function would work here
at first i was thinking that obviously i^2 = -1 and i^4 = 1 so i can use that for b and -b
but then i realized (i+1)^2 still isnt an element of the real numbers
I think you send a + bi to exactly that element
IIRC from my complex analysis course this is a way to phrase complex mult
And it’s useful for defining what complex analytic actually means in terms of what it means for matrixes or some shit
Or conversely given a matrix of that form send it to a + bi
Take a matrix of the form in the photo you sent
send that to the complex number a + bi
That’s the map
but it's C-> M right
This is M -> C

