#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 498 of 407
Yeah I figured something like that would screw it up
x = 1*x = 0*x = 0 for every x in the module
abelian groups are really shitty modules over the trivial ring
true 
Not funny
Oh update on that question about the CRT from yesterday.... turns out that the prof hadn't finsihed making his lecture videos and that we covered that in the lecture video that he posted today
@lean blaze it looks like your homework would be more appropriate for the physics server. See #old-network for a link
@shy bluff haha nice
no it's all goods i solved it
it did seem odd that it was assigned as a homework problem
what about the localization one though
oh i just meant that the question wasn't true as written
so we all speculated at what was actually meant
ah
Let $\sigma$ be an $m$-cycle. Show that $\sigma^i$ is an $m$-cycle iff $i$ and $m$ are relatively prime. \ \
I proved one direction like this: if $\sigma^i$ is an $m$-cycle, then $k = m$ is the smallest number such that $m | ik$ which implies that $\gcd(i, m) = 1$.
Sorry whatâs k?
ehh, just a dummy variable. It was that or say "m is the smallest number such that m | im"
Oh I meant the k in the statement
oh oops, that should be an m
kxrider:
anyway, I don't really know of a good way to characterize m cycles for the other direction of the proof. In the direction I wrote above, I could just use the fact that the order of an m cycle is m, but ofc that is not a sufficient condition to prove a permutation is an m cycle
i think you can just use the isomorphism of <sigma> with Z/mZ
m-cycles in <sigma> correspond to generators of Z/mZ
maybe that implicitly uses what you're trying to prove
I understand what you are saying, but I am interested in the sort of lower-level interpretation. This question comes from D&F who doesn't even introduce homomorphisms for a few more sections I think
Hmm I think I got it, and the argument is kind of similar. If $\sigma = (a_1 \dots a_m)$ then for any $k$ we have $\sigma^{ik}(a_j) = a_{j+ik}$ where $k + ij$ is reduced modulo $m$ whenever it exceeds $m$. Since $\gcd(i, m) = 1$, the smallest value of $k$ for which $j + ik \equiv j \pmod m$ is $m$.
kxrider:
TFW youâre gonna have to learn what the separable closure and perfect closure of a field is to do a Hartshorne problem đ
On that note, are those widely used notions in like, ANT or something???
II.3?
Idk abt ANT but I also encountered those stuffs while doing AG and yeah II.3 is really wild lol
Yeah
I was told like half a year ago by an upperclassman in the dept that II.3 was really hard compared to II.2 and he showed me the problem which involved the perfect and separable closure and was like âyeah Iâve been stuck on this foreverâ
I use separable closures a good bit.
like if you're working with k(t) as your ground field, you really don't want the algebraic closure because it isn't Galois.
What's the separable closure?
Like,
can you view it as a subfield of the algebraic closure
with everything that's separable over the base field?
Yes
Okay, nice
Is there like a nice theory around it?
Like with integral extensions / integral closure
since I'm trying to judge how much I need to know to do the problem
everything about integrality over fucntion fields is messed up
if you're thinking about integrality, you should probably be using algebraic geometry instead
Like maybe it can fall out jsut by the definitions, but maybe it'll involve theory I don't know
Sure, but we have theory around integral extensions
is there theory around separable extensions too?
And I can't even guess what the perfect closure is, I feel like maybe I heard a definition of an element being perfect like 8 months ago but I don't remember lmfao
yeah I have not heard that term. Basically, I just think of hte separable closure as being the thing I mean when I intuitively want the algebraic closure
I have a guess as to what the perfect closure is, but if I'm right I don't want to think about it haha
but all of this is in Dummit and Foote I think, about how to deconstruct an arbitrary field extension into a transcendental part and algebraic part, and then the algebraic part into separable and inserpable
Hmm, okay I'll look into it
I sort of figured that separable closure
probably appears in ANT
it's just "so you use Galois theory"
because to me weird parts of comm. alg that don't seem like they show up in AG I just classify as "probably show up in ANT"
I mean, it depends on what ANT means. If ANT is the study of number fields, then it literally never comes up
Idk ÂŻ_(ă)_/ÂŻ
ANT to me might as well be Commutative Algebra \ stuff used in AG
LMAO
but as soon as you're looking at function fields over finite fields then you can't not look at it
but to me, function fields, though you can give them an ANT interpretation, are fundamentally geometric in nature
Interesting
I still need to figure out what "geometry" even is
To me morally it's like the Euclidean geometry stuff
and then I've forcibly put in what people say
so like manifolds, or "consider different sheaves"
but I would be completely lying if I said any of it felt geometric
So AG to me is totally like
Pretend it's algebra
something like "the study of function sheaves"
and then I use topology to glue togehter
I just
don't see how that relates to what I feel geometry is
like the euclidean stuff
but that study is fundamentally motivated by Euclidean geometry, and all the intuition comes from that
I realized topology kind of fucked it for me
like obviously
a curve isn't a line
curve meaning, curvy
in like a euclidean geometry sense
but topologically who cares
so for AG stuff
I really struggle to find the middle ground where it isn't as rigid as euclidean geometry, but not as fluid as topology
to me the distinction between topology and geometry is hazy. I can draw the line in specific contexts, but in general the two are very closely connected
My teacher said geometry = topology plus structure
so like the sheaf provides the structure
which like, i guess restricts it
but he posed this
if you take a variety
I mean, you can define the sheaf purely in terms of continuous functions
I'd be kind of inclined to say it's geometry once you can take derivatives
or talk about smooth functions
or whatever
Are these all isomorphic
So like my geometry brain would say
that if you mess up with the angles they can't be
but topologially all of these seem the same
I think in an AG context
you have like 1 degree of freedom
intuitively you can sort of like shift i
and like, rotate some stuff
to make the first two lines line up
by scaling you can get the middle lines also lined up
then the last one is just sort of free
so in some sense you get like a 1-dimensional isomorphism class
which ends up being right, I think
but like what's kosher and what isn't isn't at all clear to me
so it's hard to get an intuitive understanding of "what should be true"
The way I did this was all algebraic
There's also some like weird action of the automorphism group or something I remember him mentioning
I just feel so clueless on it overall
yeah, algebraic geometry, differential geometry, and topological manifolds are all quiet different
I've heard some people say after they did like, manifolds
that the idea of what geometry is made more sense
and a lot of examples in AG are motivated from that
like 1-dimensional locally free stuff is a "vector bundle"
or whatever
yeah, I think "manifold" is the fundamental object and everything is motivated by taht
I just feel like
I don't want to go into the like needlessly abstract world if I don't have to before it's the time to
And I feel like being so focused on algebra and not the geometry makes it easy to fall into that trap
I guess
haha well then Hartshorne is the wrong book haha
It feels less rooted
No I mean like
the Lurie vein of stuff
the derived AG stuff
It feels like if you don't see any "geometry" you just redefine geometry to mean "contravariant functor"
and go to infinity category land
and sites and stuff
Is the impression I've gotten haha
I am definitely very concrete in my thinking, and I only care about abstraction if it helps me answer a concrete question. A lot of AG people clearly just want everything to be as abstract as possible.
I think I slowly am starting to get it though
Maybe
I do draw pictures of schemes sometimes, except like it isn't a picture of a scheme, it's just two circles
I look at the sets
and draw a covering to try and guess at what might happen
but getting more familiar with the localization and how that plays in an affine scheme
sort of gives me some reallly fuzzy idea
I think it really helps to understand 19th century geometry stuff, and Weil conjectures stuff, before getting into this stuff super deeply.
I really recommend Miranda... like you can read it in like a day
for how AG is taught
and it does a great job tying all this together.
I think what also bites is that I hated varieties with a passion
I really did not enjoy them whatsoever
and that's supposed to give intuition for the geometry in what's going on with schemes
I think of curves as the fundamental object
and all other things are just different ways of generalizing them
hmm
sadly hartshorne puts the stuff on curves
after the two hard chapters on a general theory of schemes and cohomology đ
From the stuff in the class it really seemed like that's where things opened up
and got more geometric in flavor and like... cool in the applications
But it can be such a slog to get there
well youre not going to learn anything about curves from hartshorne. I more mean like, classical/arithmetic stuff about curves
and using that as your foundation, and then you can appreciate the abstraction
Can you expand on what you mean by arithmetic stuff about curves?
My knowledge on curves is like
if you do it right you have bezout's theorem for intersections
lmao
yeah, that's like, a neat parlor trick to me. It's oddly complicated to get right.
But all the divisor/line bundle stuff, Riemann Roch, the notion of genus, the various interpretations of (co)homology, all of that is super helpful to understand.
and by arithmetic stuff, I mean understanding the Weil conjectures. What do they say about point counting on curves in terms of genus? Why does a good cohomology theory imply them? etc.
You can talk about that with schemes though and the stuff at the end of our course in spring talked about that. It was just hard to understand like, what the genus really is, because it isn't the same as like, genus of a torus right?
well, I would argue, it is the same, but that definition is veyr narrow.
and so one has to generalize it so you can apply it in more contexts. E.g. for curves over finite fields.
I mean intuitively genus = holes
or perhaps for singular curves. There are a few different ways to generalize it (annoyingly)
But what does it mean for a curve to have holes?
well by "hole" you should be thinking "non-trivial element of H1"
haha, well at that point I lose the geometry
not if you're picturing, e.g., a torus and you literally picture two circles
Okay yup
they are non-trivial because they cannot be contracted to a point
sure
I guess that makes sense I think'
if I go to the complex plane
hole to me means like
not a simply connected domain
and I'm intentionally writing H1 insteand of H_1 or H^1 or whatever, because it shouldn't matter.
and the barrier to simply connected is holes
but also you can state it in terms of it not begin contractible to a point
or something about homotopy and homology which is the same thing right?
Yeah. And in the context of Riemann surfaces, that 2 there in the 2g has a very specific interpretation
namely it's coming from the fact that a curve over C is a surface over R.
okay
but that 2 is always there in algebraic geometry, although you lose track of that nice vision.
That makes sense how a 2 could appear there
e.g. the statement Dimension of H1 = 2g is still just as true for curves over F7
but of course you have no picture like this in that case.
wait Miranda i'm finding is 400 pagse
it's a long day.
LOL
For me, the story of algebraic geometry is that you start with this vast differential geometry theory for manifolds and riemann surfaces over R/C. You identify that a lot of the best examples of these are algebraic in nature. Indeed, in the case of Riemann surfaces, all of them are. You view that differential geometry has told you the "right" answer for all of these homology theories and genera and so on, but you try bit by bit to avoid using analysis/topology/etc, and see if you can strip away all references to them, and still get the same answers.
And once you can get all the same answers without any reference to the geometric/topological structure, then you can replace C with an arbitrary field.
so you can ask Diophantine geometry questions by replacing C with Q, or arithmetic questions by replacing C with F_7, etc.
For the differential geometry bit of that story, is a class on smooth manifolds you figure enough to talk about it?
If you're especially batty, you can try to replace all number theory questions by replacing C with Z
Yeah smooth manifolds and algebraic topology is what you really need.
There's hope then 
But yeah, Miranda is one of the few math books taht I think makes good bedtime reading. It is not a text where every sentence feels like a war fought over days.
Unlike some books...
haha yes, and those books have their place too
but that is what I think makes Miranda such a good supplementary book.
I'm bummed I didn't pay much attention to my riemann surfaces class
It was during spring quarter when everything moved online
and I was focused on staying on top of my algebra stuff so it just sort of entered the background
I believe I would've gotten a lot more if classes were in-person
I think a lot of professors were not good at that pivot
Which is fair
Theyâre people too and just as much as us had to suddenly just switch gears
yeah, they were not hired for their skills in this area.
For the uniqueness part of the proof, I feel like you need that $\cap a_i$ is a minimal decomposition to get that the $p_i$ are all the isolated primes belonging to the $0$ ideal
Have a Banana:
You can prove that it indeed is minimal, but I think that if you needed minimal, the book would've mentioned it
For what positive integer $m$ does the ring $\bZ/m\bZ[x]$ satisfy the unique factorization theorem
Whoever:
What's the unique factorization theorem?
Do you mean property?
Also like isn't a Z/m an integral domain iff m is prime (for obvious reasons) so Z/m [x] is a ufd iff it's a PID iff m is prime
@smoky cypress
Unless there is some other unique factorization thing you are talking about
Which makes this question nontrivial
Unique factorization for non zero divisors
So for Z/6Z[x], the unique factorization theorem holds for non zero divisors
Can you give me an example of a non unit non zero divisor?
Like x?
Oh ok
I was asking about in Z/m
Are the only 2 options units or 0 divisors?
I guess that follows from coprime stuff
Yeah
Can you show unique factorization in Z/6[x]?
x = (3x+4)(4x+3)
I think you can always do that for square free m
Sure
Liquid, you can strengthen that so that Z/m[x] is a ufd iff pid iff euclidean domain right?
whoever and I talked about this before for squarefree things
Yeah
if two rings R and S satisfy a unique factorization property for nonzerodivisors, then so does RxS
the irriducibles in RxS are of the form (r,1) or (1,s) for irreducibles r in R or s in S
I guess now we just need to look at when m is a prime power
I feel like once you have nilpotents that could just kind of ruin everything
I don't think that's true whoever since the statement buncho made is not an if and only if
I mean, then let's make it into an iff
Although the counterexample I'm thinking of is for Z/pq for distinct primes p and q
So maybe it's nicer for other cases
what is that a counterexample for?
Wait one sec
I'm a bit confused
Was x=(3x+4)(4x+3) not a counterexample to Z/6[x] having unique factorization?
Or was that supposed to be something else
Okay so I guess the statement that we want to prove is that if m and n are coprime, then Z/mn[x] has the property iff Z/m[x] and Z/n[x] do
that follows from the statement about products of rings
Oh ok
Z/mn[x] = Z/m[x] x Z/n[x]
Yes, but I thought only 1 direction did
Namely the n, m implies mn direction
I guess the other direction is obvious
From the embedding of Z/m[x] and Z/n[x]
Although actually maybe that's not so clear
One sec
Oh that's what you wrote lol
đ
Okay then as whoever said it's down to the prime powers
Do you guys have an example of a non unique factorization?
at this point, that is equivalent
if there is a nonunique factorization, it must come from some kind of nilpotence situation
if whoever had an example, that would answer his question
I guess something like $(1+px)^n = 1+pnx$ would be a problem
Merosity:
in Z/p^2Z[x]
I found a paper that says $$x^2+7\equiv(x+1)(x+7)\equiv(x+3)(x+5)\pmod{8}$$ where all the four factors are irreducible
Whoever:
I don't see how those are irreducible when you can factor $1 = (1+2x)^4$
Merosity:
oh right lol
That is the definition of a unit
I was telling myself they were nilpotent for some reason
unless the factors in the two factorizations of x^2 + 7 happen to differ by units
it seems like that might settle this
at lesat for things like Z/p^3
Btw here's the link: https://apps.dtic.mil/dtic/tr/fulltext/u2/a327984.pdf
Hello guys! It might be a stupid question, but if i have a polynomial ideal I in K[x_1,...,x_n], and G is its Gröbner basis, if i take two different polynomials from K[x_1,...,x_n] (which are not in I), can the normal forms of these two polynomials be equal to each other?
sorry!
they will if they are in the ideal I
but i'm interested in if they are not in the ideal
by p^n do you mean (p^n)
i still dont understand shit but good ;D
any artinian ring with nontrivial prime ideals i think will have that
like Z/nZ with n nonprime
This is what prompted that question
How do we know that a primary ideal q can only be written as a power of its prime p in just one way?
I think thatâs not possible right @vestal snow
You mean it's not possible for p^k = p^{k+1} in such a ring?
So if p^n = p^{n+1} itâs easy to show that p^n = the intersection of p^n over all n to infinity. Localize at p, so that youâre in the local Noetherian case, then p is maximal, and then Krullâs Intersection Theorem says the intersection of the p^n is 0 which I think implies that the intersection of p^n in the non-localized version is 0
I think so
I havenât worked out the details
But this is my basic idea
I think there might be a simpler proof
So this implies p^n = 0 which is fake because itâs a domain
because krull hasn't been introduced yet
Sure, what is it?
Oh idk lol
Oh hahaha
I just said that there probably is one given that the book used this result
Maybe thereâs some other way to show that that intersection is 0
Or maybe thereâs a like
More obvious way to see it
One of things with this book is that it sweeps a lot of the stuff under the rug
I think that becomes common around this point
Maybe, this is my first graduate textbook
What does 9.1 say?
It could be hidden in that proof
Even if not stated explicitly
And yeah graduate texts will do that
I remember vividly Hartshorne says âsince f_1,...,f_n generate the unit ideal so does f_1^N,...,f_n^Nâ or something to that effect
You can prove this because if (f_1^N,...,f_n^N) were proper itâs contained in a prime which then contains all f_i, so it contains (1) so it isnât prime
But he doesnât say anything about it
And I was like !!!!
Haha
Oh so uniqueness follows from that
The p_i are all pairwise coprime
So theyâre different
Yes
isolated
Yes exactly
since they're maximal, none contains the other
therefore, each is isolated
Idk Iâm pretty tired so I might just be like mega off rn idk haha
Np
Anyway, this is around where my knowledge of stuff in A-M fades
O no
And I enter the Matsumuraverse which does things in a different order haha
I'm thinking of stopping here
doing the exercises of the previous chapters
and then continuing
3 more chapters
Though I think I'll only do 1.5
because the rest is mostly about algebraic geometry which I won't be doing at least until next year
Fair enough
Definitely cover the one which has Krull
Since it builds up like graded module stuff
And then does like I-adic completion or whatever the hell I forget
The like topology stuff
Seems cool
I only just looked at it to get Krullâs intersection theorem
Also, which anime is your pfp from?
Little busters
@next obsidian Found a solution
For every $p$, define $p' = {y \in Frac(A): yp \subseteq A}$
Have a Banana:
then p' is a A-module
and pp' = A
so you can "cancel" terms in the equality p^n=p^{n+1} to get p = (1)
which is bs
(2993x+14966)(2993x+17959)(2993x+26938)(2993x+29931)(18615x+33508)(18615x+43436)(18615x+21098)(18615x+31026)(29274x+16729)(29274x+42518)(29274x+698)(29274x+26487) = x^4 - 4 (mod 50881)
@woven delta
,w PolynomialMod[(2993x+14966)(2993x+17959)(2993x+26938)(2993x+29931)(18615x+33508)(18615x+43436)(18615x+21098)(18615x+31026)(29274x+16729)(29274x+42518)(29274x+698)(29274x+26487),50881]-50881
@glad juniper youâre welcome
Can someone help me proof verify the relationship between zeros of a system of equations and K-algebra morphisms? https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3766418/proof-verification-bijection-between-solutions-to-a-system-of-equations-and-k-a
@final dove it might help you out
i have another question regarding to this topic: here says that, not every bijective morphism is an isomorphism, and gives a brief example. My question is that, this assumption is based on the fact that there is always a bijective connection between the Mor(X, Y) and Hom_K(K[Y], K[X])? And if so, then in the given example that function is not an isomorphism, because the induced function between the coordinate rings are not bijective?
i guess i've found the answer
That is correct. If you like thinking about varieties over finite fields, Frobenius is always a bijection on points, but is never an isomorphism because the map on rings is plainly never surjective.
Thanks @olive mirage
This has a bunch of confusing consequences because it is so unlike other things I'm used to working with. You might even have a morphism that is the identity on points and is not the identity.
that sounds strange
can someone explain to me, why is the red framed expression true?
@plucky flicker where are you reading this from just curious
Computational Invariant Theory, by Harm Derksen and Gregor Kemper
It's a decent book, but a bit high tech
@plucky flicker
So basically
Consider that f = a_nx^n + ... + a_1x + a_0
Or ugh
There are multiple variables
But notice that J has g_i - x_i for all I in there
When you do f(g_1,...,g_n) - f
The first one puts a g_i in place of all x_i
So by like matching those up
This becomes a polynomial in the x_i - g_i
Which is then in the ideal
I got it, thank you @next obsidian
it's not very clear to me when products are involved. like f = x_1 x_2 leads to g_1 g_2 - x_1 x_2
f = x_1 x_2 leads to g_1 g_1. You just change the x_1 to g_1 and x_2 to g_2
you subtract f though
Yep. So take a simple example
Suppose f = x_1 x_2
Then f(g_1, g_2) = g_1 g_2
So when you subtract you get f(g_1, g_2) - f(x_1, x_2) = g_1 g_1 - x_1 x_2
sure, and i see that you can add and subtract g_1 x_2 to get f(g_1,g_2) - f = g_1(g_2-x_2) + x_2(g_1 - x_1) which is in J. but for a general monomial it's harder to think about for me
g_1 and g_2 are polynomials in x_1 and x_2
they are polynomials in y
Ugh sorry, yes
Hmmm
i think i see a proof
since f is a sum of monomials, if we show the statement works for monomials then we're done right
Yeah
I was gonna say I think it suffices to show for something like that, I thought linear ones but thatâs not true I think
so assume $f = x_1 ^{e_1} \cdots x_n ^ {e_n}$, so you get $g_1^{e_1} \cdots g_n ^ {e_n} - x_1^{e_1} \dots x_n ^{e_n}$
Auvera:
Yeah
add and subtract to get $g_1^{e_1} \cdots g_n ^ {e_n} - x_1^{e_1} \dots x_n ^{e_n} = g_1^{e_1} \cdots g_n^{e_n} - g_1^{e_1} \cdots g_{n-1}^{e_{n-1}} x_n^{e_n} + g_1^{e_1} \cdots g_{n-1}^{e_{n-1}} x_n^{e_n} - x_1^{e_1} \cdots x_n^{e_n} = g_n^{e_n}( g_1^{e_1} \cdots g_{n-1}^{e_{n-1}} - x_1^{e_1} \cdots x_{n-1}^{e_{n-1}}) + x_1^{e_1} \cdots x_{n-1}^{e_{n-1}}( g_n ^{e_n} - x_n^{e_n})$
Auvera:
use induction on the first term in parenthesis, and the second term in parenthesis is divisible by g_n - x_n
Ahhhhh I see
Yeah this kind of smelled like induction
But I didnât see how to reduce the number of variables, thatâs good
i messed up that equation, but the idea is there
why is x^2 + 1 and x^2 comaximal?
because you can get 1 by just subtracting them
oh
which means (x^2+1) + (x^2) = Z[x]
@next obsidian about the prime problem earlier, turns out you can do it using nakayama's lemma
Wait wait
Since x is not 0 and we're in a domain
How do you get there?
Let M be p^n
Yeah gotcha I see
That makes sense
Technically you need to know that x isnât 0 but
If it were then 1 in p
Which is bs
Hi ! Define G=]0,+oo[-{1}, and define âą on G as : aâąb=a^log(b).
Now this makes G a group whose neutral element is 1=exp(1), and where the inverse of a is e^1/log(a).
What could G be isomorphic to ?
I first thought of exp:R*âG
But it turns out it's not a group homomorphism, sadly
Oh wait
It is !
Sorry 'bout that, it's working like a charm !
I mean, you could ike
say it's isomorphic to G lol
but it's interesting that it is isomorphic to R*
I think i'm being a little dense here but I don't see how that's a group
1*a = 1^log(a) = 1
but that can't ever happen in a group unless a is the identity
but that equation is true for all a
no?
1 is not in G !
i think his notation excludes 1
The neutral is exp(1)
Discord didn't like the \
When I typed it in, it didn't render it, I think markdown screwed up trying to escape the curly bracket
Oh okay thanks !
T shirts are on sale for 20% off. Tasha paid $8.73 for a shirt. What is the regular price of the shirt? There is no tax on clothing purchases under $175.
Let p represent the regular price of these t-shirt. Which of the following equations is correct?
A
0.8p=$8.73
B
$8.73+0.2â$8.73=p
C
1.2â$8.73=p
D
pâ0.2â$8.73=p```
Consider the vector space $\mathbb{Q}$ of all quadratic polynomials with coefficients in $\mathbb{C}$. Consider the linear operator $T:\mathbb{Q}\to\mathbb{Q}$ defined by $$T(f) =f+fâČ+fâČâČ$$ Find a Jordan basis of $\mathbb{Q}$ for $T$
Konoha:
should be #linear-algebra but whatever, seems occupied right now
what have you tried @hazy leaf
find the eigenvalues
sorry, I still don't get it
@hazy leaf do you know how to find eigenvalues
lambda(f+f'+f'')=\lambda f
it's better to use the characteristic equation
find a matrix representing T first, then compute eigenvalues
does a solvalbe group always have a proper normal subgroup?
If you mean nontrivial then Z/p doesn't
ya but can we say that for non cyclic group?
@round lagoon
am downloading something is 5%/5 min how much more time if im 15 minutes in
sir

(the following is from a fall 2019 hw assignment:)
a) and b) seem to contradict each other
By a), shouldn't b) be false?
Since H is a proper subgroup of G
So the union of the conjugates of H must be a proper subgroup of G
So the union of the conjugates cannot equal G
a) says finite group, which GL_2(C) isnt
You can strengthen the statement of a) actually. No group is the union of all conjugates of a subgroup of finite index
In a finite group all subgroups are of finite index
@latent anvil did you know you can make some estimates on the number of generators of a finite A-module when A is suitably nice? As long as m-Spec A is a Noetherian topological space you can make an estimate, but I donât think computing it in practice is very practical, and the estimate seems hard to use even just theoretically
Itâs interesting though that you can say itâs generated by <= r elements for some r though which has a formula sort of. Itâs a supremum across some set, but itâs cool
Hi ! Does Boolean Algebra fit in this channel ?
In case it does, is there a faster method to write all 2^4=16 binary operations on Z/2 as the binary operations given by the union, intersection and complement of sets, as mentinoned in https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3754822/259363, than verifying it by hand ?
[...] it is a simple exercise in Boolean algebra to build every binary operation on {0,1} out of the basic Boolean operations.
Does it suffice to construct all of the following four tables ?
Because summing them allows to make any table ? Do I also need the table whose last column is all zeroes ? Or am I missing something ? (I've never done any Boolean algebra before.)
Hrm
When given an arbitarry quotient ring, how does one tell if it's an integral domain?
Similarly, how does one tell if it's a PID?
Say for example, here
Clearly b is not a pid or an integral domain because we have 3 * 2 = 0 in Z/6Z
And a is clearly a PID because 5 is prime?
For integral domain itâs equivalent to showing the ideal is prime
I prime ideal <=> A/I integral
that's kind of neat magician
For a PID determining the ideal is maximal means itâs a field, so itâs also a PID
Besides that I think itâs kind of hard to show itâs a PID without something clever
You can try and show it isnât a PID though by constructing a non-principal ideal (kind of hard) or by showing unique factorization doesnât hold so it isnât even a UFD
Or by finding a finitely generated module which doesn't decompose as a direct sum of cyclic modules :P
Lmfao okay
One thing to consider is that any quotient of a PID thatâs an integral domain is a field because prime <=> maximal in a PID and that a single variable polynomial over a field is a Euclidean Domain, and this a POD
This isnât true for (0) though I guess haha
ÂŻ_(ă)_/ÂŻ
Usually the best way
Is to find a way to show that R/I is an integral domain via the 1st isomorphism theorem
But thatâs kind of getting circular
Thereâs some other ways, like if itâs principal that its generator is prime and such
Also I realized for my example if youâre in a PID that R/(0) is still a PID lol
So every quotient of a PID thatâs an integral domain is a PID
somewhat circular reasoning 
Lol
Which one do you have trouble with ?
Obviously deciding if an ideal is prime is hard
And depends on the situation you're working with
In general, if x is irreducible, then (x) is maximal, thus A/(x) is a field, thus integral
(or is it (x) is prime ? I'm never sure)
In any case, A/(x) is integral
If x is prime then (x) is prime
In a PID x irreducible => (x) prime => (x) maximal
Well those implications are iffs
uh
Yeah if you want to put it that way
No, maximal need not be prime
What? A maximal ideal is prime
Oh in a PID sorry
My question is, given an arbitarry quotient ring, how would I know if it's an integral domain, and possibly a pid?
And to tackle it on a case by case basis, I mean for ID itâs equivalent to the ideal being prime
Once you actually phrase it in a nicer way
You need inspection of the quotient, there's no general method
Computability?
For a PID I donât know any condition thatâs equivalent
Yeah
like I was given this
ANd I can clearly see that a is a PID, but b isnt'
Z:6Z isnât even an integral domain
Finite rings are integral domains iff fields
Is a good fact to know
Wait why is Q[x]/(x + 7) just Q?
That says x = -7
But in the example you linked, some things are natural, such as :
a) is a field, b) has zero divisors, c) is iso to Q with the 1st iso
d) Use the third iso to have it equal (Z[X]/(XÂČ+1))/2, e) is the same method
f) x irreducible => (x) maximal => A/(x) is a field (in this case it is Z[i] the Gauss integers)
Evaluate any polynomial at x = -7
Oh I see
Generally, the method to use is natural with some experience
So that the ideal is prime <=> maximal
Cuz youâre in a PID
So the quotient is a field
wait question
Matplot your f) is wrong
Is the "show that the polynomial is irreducible" thing valid for any uh polynomial ring?
Oh ok
Oh yeah what did I write x)
The two are equivalent
Yeah
We have'nt gotten to UFDs yet 
If you know pids then you're fine
what do youm ean by manually show that?
Also irreducible always implies prime right?
You show it exists
I forget if prime => irreducible or if itâs the other way around
Like
That you can do division with remainder in Z[i]
That shows itâs a Euclidean domain
The absolute value is a stathm on Z[i]
Btw, what was I missing to say A/(max) is a field ?
What's the additionnal thingy ?
No thatâs correct
stathm?
Oh so it's x irreducible => (x) prime then
Yeah
Okay !
So the absolute value
The norm on Z[i]
Actually gives a norm in the sense of the requirement for a Euclidean domain
So you can do division with remainder using it
A stathm (not sure about the terminology in eng) is some application on the ring to allow for Euclidean division (e.g. deg on R[X])
We call it a norm
Oh okay !
What language is stathm from?
"Stathme" is in French
Ah I see
I assumed it had latin origins and translated the same
What you want to think about when trying to prove it
Basically given two Gaussian integers
Like umm
I just wanna say z and w
You can form z/w as an element of C
Then z[i] forms a grid in the complex plane
You want to basically estimate z/w by the closest point on the grid
Then the remainder is whatever you need to shift by to get there
Is the general idea
^
This also works similarly on like Z[j] where j=exp(2iÏ/3)
I think showing that the remainder is smaller in norm
Is basically just Pythagorean theorem
But not in all the Z[sqrt(-d)] though !
Since you move less than 1/2 in both the x and y direction
Or I guess at most if youâre dead center
Yeah actually so given z/w let u be the like âestimateâ for it
Then the remainder is like r = z/w - u
So we get z/w = u + r
You want to show that |r| < 1
Then when you multiply by w
You get z = wu + wr
And then you show wr is a Gaussian integer
Then |wr| < |w|
So this is the Euclidean algorithm
I see
Matsumura is so crazy. They donât prove Noether Normalization except in some thing right at the end lol
They somehow prove stuff just without using it lol
Does anyone want to think about why for a polynomial ring over a field, A = k[x1,...,xn] that ht p + dim A/p = n?
basically this means @latent anvil lmao
Altho I think maybe youâre taking a math break which is totally fair
I donât really see how to use induction for it
Actually maybe you can do induction?
If p is ht 0 then itâs 0 so youâre done
If p isnât ht 0, quotient out by a ht 1 prime q contained inside of p
Then you have A/q which has dim < n??
Is that true hmmm
I mean, yes it is, by this problem but
Oh yeah it has to lol we know easily that ht p + dim A/p <= dim A
So you can extend this to saying that for a fg ID over a field, that ht p + dim A/p = dim A
By Noether Normalization
So A/q is still a finitely generated k-algebra and has dim < n
So doing induction I think you get the result
Hmmm I guess really we donât even need q
Wait hmmm...
Actually this doesnât work I think since weâd need to know that dim A/q = n - 1 I think
Ekdoekoddkoww
I guess you can get this by showing that dim A[x] = dim A + 1 for Noetherian A...
Does anyone want to think about why for a polynomial ring over a field, A = k[x1,...,xn] that ht p + dim A/p = n?
@next obsidian i thought this was immediate from the correspondence theorem
Like going up?
like take a maximal length chain of prime ideals that passes through p
This fails for other types of rings though
How do you know that that maximal length is n?
All you know is that thereâs some chain with length n
This gives you that ht p + dim A/p <= n
But equality appears to be a lot harder
the krull dimension of that ring is n though
Yes but
Thereâs no reason that for every prime ideal that maximal chains through p are length n
In an arbitrary ring
Krull dimension n means that there exists some chain of primes of length n, but it doesnât mean every one is such
It turns out if youâre an integral domain fg over a field this is true
By this theorem
So finding a counterexample will be annoying
I checked my classâs notes since we covered this and it just had a reference to eisenbud lol
Honestly Iâve never done it besides for Z[i]
It seems like itâd be incredibly tedious
And I guess a polynomial ring
like defining the norm? or computing the norm of an element?
If you know something is a Euclidean domain and you can embed it into something with a natural norm, like C or R or R^2 or something.
looks like they just pulled it outta thin air to me
I feel like it might be possible to use like a a^2 + b^2 norm there
Maybe??
It looks like that was constructed so that the norm of 1 + sqrt(-5) = 6 so itâs a nice number
Or maybe you do need that thatâs norm is larger than that of 2
Pardon?
Oh actually so
Thatâs the normal norm on C
If you write a + bsqrt(-5) = a + i(bsqrt(5))
Then the norm of that inside of C is a^2 + 5b^2
So thatâs where it came from
my vague recollection is that the norm is just the product of all the conjugates, and in cases like Z[sqrt(-d)] with d positive square free the conjugates are just the complex conjugates, so it's just the regular C norm
oh
i suppose there could be other norms. not sure. that's the usual one though
hey guys
how can i approach this question
Let a be a root of $f(x) \in F(\sqrt{\alpha})[x]$, where $a \in F$, then a is a root of some $g(x) \in F[x]$
F(âa) is a field
f(x) is a polynomial
I'm not able to parse f(x) â F(âa)
sorry i meant
I'm maybe missing something?
boat:
Oh yeah haha okay
haha sorry
so i took $f(x) = a_0 + a_1 x + ... + a_n x^n$, then substituted $0 = a_0 + a_1 (a) + ... + a_n a^n$
boat:
at least one of $a_i = \sqrt{\alpha} $
boat:
I'm assuming F is a field
Then any of the ai could be of the form a + bâ[α] ya
Where a and b are in F
Basically all of the elements in F(âα) look like a + bâ[α]
the elements of $F(\sqrt{\alpha})$ are of the form $\frac{b_0 + b_1 (\sqrt{\alpha}) + b_2 \sqrt{\alpha}^2 + ... + b_n\sqrt{\alpha}^n}{c_0 + c_1 \sqrt{\alpha} + ... + c_n (\sqrt{\alpha})^k}$
because it is a simple extension
boat:
It so happens that the inverse of âα lies in F[âα], and so that can be written in the form a + bâα
But I think I'm tangenting pretty hard. Hmm
hmm
but we learned that that simplifies to just the denominator part when $\sqrt{\alpha} $ is algebraic over F
boat:
i mean numerator
sorry
i am not sure why it will be reduced just to a + bâα
actually i can see why it is true in this case
(âα)ÂČ = α â F, so it fits into the a
(âα)Âł = αâα â F[âα], so it fits into the b
because alpha is in F
And that pattern continues
So we're easily down to
(a + bâα) / (c + dâα)
The next trick is realizing that there's some numerator version of 1/(c + dâα)
but since x^2 - alpha is in F[x], then its algebraic so we only need to consider the numberator
Which I'll ignore the proof if one can accept that F[âα] is a field
isnt a simple field extension always a field?
haha đ its so trivial that the prof forgot to mention it
i was quite shocked when i found out actually
It's actually pretty cool to show that such an extension always has inverses
Let me see if I can find it on this discord I know I was in that convo
Anyway I've talked a lot but we're not closer to solving this mb
haha đ
i have seen the proof in the book ( but only for Krockner's extentions tho), the book however says that you prove for general field extensions in similar way.
so i think i can seperate the terms a + bâα into two polynomials
one in terms of a and the other in terms of bâα
idk if that will help
If you know some basic field theory then its easy to see that adjoining $a$ to $F(\sqrt{\alpha})$ is a finite extension of $F$ since finite extensions are algebraic hence $a$ is a root of some $g(x)\in F[X]$
WhyamIsohot?:
boat:
I mean if you have field extensions $L\subset K\subset M$ then $[M:L]=[M:K].[K:L]$
Yes
texit dead rip
right
then M is algebraic right
ohh right
so we have $F \subset F(\sqrt{\alpha}) \subset F(\sqrt{\alpha}) (a)$
boat:
Yes and by given hypothesis $F(\sqrt{\alpha})(a)$ is a finite extension of $F(\sqrt{\alpha})$
WhyamIsohot?:
$[F(\sqrt{\alpha})(a) : F] = [F(\sqrt{\alpha}) (a): F(\sqrt{\alpha}) ] [F(\sqrt{\alpha}) : F]$
boat:
since $a$ is a root, there exists a polynomial of degree n. and so on so its finite
i see
boat:
but
Oh yeah that makes sense haha
i dont see why $F(\sqrt{\alpha}) (a) $ algebraic over F says there is a polynomial with root a in F[x]
boat:
that's the definition of being algebraic
im still kinda confused about that
ohh
a is in $F(\sqrt{\alpha})(a) $ so it is a root of some polynomial in F[x]
ohh i see
boat:
since its algebraic
thank you @timid hull
thank you @stone fulcrum
you guys were a lot of help!
This is a T/F question
I just came here to make sure this isn't a typo or something.
Like shouldn't it be (h'^-1)h' in H?
Oh wait, nevermind
This is for subgroups
I was thinking about groups lmao
(h'^-1)h' is always the identity
Yeah, that's what I was thinking about
But I was thinking about groups and not subgroups
what does it mean for a automorphism to have order 6? I understand the order with elements and groups, but i am not so sure how to conceptualize order with respect to homomorphism/ automorphisms
automorphisms form a group
it just means that if your automrophism f that f^6 = e
which means that for all x, f(f(f(f(f(f(x)))))) = x for all x
identity for automorphisms is the identity function
and the group operation is composition
for any element?
Do rings contains non unique elements? Weâre told the zero of a ring is unique. Arenât all elements in a ring unique?
Because if I think of the elements as a set, {0,1,2,3} is the same as {0,1,2,2,3}
it just means that if two elements satisfy
okay pretend you had two 0s
call them um
0 and o
No I get that proof
But arenât all elements in a ring unique?
no so
Err
by "0"
it doesn't mean an element labelled 0
it means an element that satisfies the property 0 does
like in an endomorphism ring
the 0 map is the 0
It means the additive identity
yeah
It's like even stronger than that though, since actually if x + y = x for anything then you know that y = 0
so you don't even need that y is the additive identity on everything
But if I look at polynomial rings, matrices, etc, arenât all elements unique?
yes but
it means you don't have two elements that both are the additive identity
if x + y and x' + y = y for all y
then x = x'
is all that means
0 in the way it's used here isn't like some specific element its just anything which when added to anything returns what was originally given
but the fact that it's unique
implies that it actually is a specifric element
but ai priori there's no reason to assume only 1 thing has that property
thats an interesting question. I always thought all elements were unique but all we every proved was the the identity element is unique
Like obviously if your set is like
{0,1,2,3,4}
cuz you're representing Z/5Z
then like obviously each of 0,1,2,3,4 are all unique
since they're literally different things
but this uniqueness is more about for variables
things that are like existential quantifiers or universal ones
this just say that since 0 is the "zero" in this ring that if you had x + 3 = 3 then x = 0
But this is sort of contrived since in that ring the thing that "acts as zero" is represented by the symbol 0
but you can have rings where 0 is jsut
$\begin{bmatrix}
0 && 0\
0 && 0
\end{bmatrix}$
Mathemagician:
So in that ring arenât all other elements also unique?
Bruh you're missing the point tho
0 in this sense isn't referring to that element
it's any 2x2 matrix A such that for all other matrices B, A + B = B
So itâs the property
Yes
but via proof
you show any 2 things that satisfy it are the same
so that 0 is unique
so that that matrix I showed above
is "the" 0
but in the proof you need inverses
Ya
so like
for algebraic structures without it
theoretically you could have two different elements
that "act as 0"
Or at least I think it's inverses you need
I forget lol
ÂŻ_(ă)_/ÂŻ
really I'm thinking about the stronger property that
if x + y = y for any y
Just any single y
then x = 0
Yeah
but this isn't true for rings under multiplication
if it holds for all
then you're the 1
Right
But then whatâs your other operation?
The identity is unique
