#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 497 of 407
When I use the Orbit-Stabilizer formula |O| * |N_G(H)| = |G|, I'm getting that |N_G(H)| = |G| which seems clearly wrong:
(one sec)
arvindr could you wait a bit?
we're having another discussion about a different question right now
(if neither boti nor matplotlib responds in the next 5 minutes -- go for it)
okay, it's clear now 🙂 thanks a @oblique river
great!
(okay arvindr you can go now lol)
I'm getting an orbit of 1 (since H is normal), so the formula gives that the number of conjugates is equal to |G|
Which doesn't make sense
I feel the number of conjugates of a normal subgroup should be 1
the orbit is the set of conjugates
those are the same thing
that's not anything to do with the orbit-stabilizer theorem
that's just hte definition of orbit in this case
Wait, so what are the orbit and stabilizer in this case?
ohwait
oh i'm clear now
yeah all the elements of G fix elements of H, so the stabilizer has size |G|
makes sense
also the second question is independent of the first btw
you're not supposed to assume H is normal anymore
in the second bullet point
oh yeah mbad
May I continue with the previous question please ? (and thanks again for the explanation !)
yeah go for it
Similarly to the fact that k[V] is viewed as the set of polynomials on V, is its field of fractions k(V) viewed as rational fractions defined on V ?
yep
Okay, thanks !
it's also often called the "function field"
Moreover, in the example you gave with V:X²+Y²=1, one may use the 1st isomorphism theorem to show that (if I'm correct) k[V]=k[X,Y]/(X²+Y²-1)≅k[a,a⁻¹]. How to interpret this isomorphism in terms of the analogy with polynomials on V ?
I don't see where that isomorphism comes from
what is your map from k[x,y] to k[a,a^-1]?
I read that k[X,Y]/(X²+Y²-1)≅k[X,Y]/(XY-1), I don't remember how to apply 1st iso to obtain this now ! :x
hmm I think that's true over an algebraically closed field
but I can't find a proof that shows it's true over R, for example
Perhaps they assumed k was algebraically closed ? I have no clue... My question makes no sense, sorry !
haha it's all good
any polynomial in the y_i will have a denominator that is a product of the g_j
but the denominator of h^(-1) is prime to all of the g_j
Okay, so you get a product of g_j = h * some polynomial in x_1,..., x_r
which means that product of g_j is in (h)
mhm
if the product is 1, then we get a contradiction as h is not a unit
if there is at least one g_k in the product, we get that 1 is a multiple of g_k
I guess we should require that all g_i are non-units in the polynomial ring
units in a polynomial ring are just the nonzero constants
👍 :)
can i have one more quick question?
so, we defined the coordinate ring as k[V] = k[X]/I(V), but it can be defined as k[V] = k[X]/J, where J is the radical ideal of the ideal I, as well because of the strong of the Nullstellensatz, right?
I(V) is a radical ideal
thanks!
@vestal snow the statement that units in a polynomial ring are the non-zero constants is only true for being over a field btw
Yeah I figured
Over a general ring once can show that a polynomial a_nx^n +... + a_1x + a_0 is a unit iff a_0 is a unit and all a_i for i > 0 are nilpotent
The general statement is the units in R are the units in R[x] right?
Nope
It gets really weird with nilpotence
Yeah
Altho tbh I have never once used this fact lol
But it was on an old quals at my school haha
So maybe it’ll end up on my quals eventually
Just out of curiosity, have you seen the computation of cos(2pi/5) using galois theory?
I don’t think so
I’ve seen sort of a different direction
That some angles aren’t constructible with compass and straightedge using Galois theory haha
It's a pretty interesting proof
My algebra professor put it on our final last semester
In general, you can compute cos(2pi/p) for all p prime and p = 2^(2^n) +1
Oh huh those are mersenne primes right?
Using galois theory and the quadratic formula
Yup
I think that's what they're called
Ohhhhh
the virgin taylor series vs the chad galois theory
I think this might be related to the fact that the uh
Regular n-gons that are constructible are exactly the ones for n a mersenne prime or something
Or uh
A product of mersenne primes
Or something like that
I don’t quite remember but mersenne primes are related to constructibility of the regular n-gon
Maybe you're right
I think galois theory and group theory have been my favorite subtopics in algebra
Yet
Group is bae
Groups are nice
I like commutative algebra now
After doing AG
There’s something I find satisfying and refreshing about it
After like... seeing hard stuff in AG just reduce to commutative algebra
Cannot concur
group actions >>
I’m not really one that cares about “motivation” per se, but I like applications
AG just seems
I don’t do well with like “oh commutative algebra is important for AG” I like to see how it’s important
Messy
applications 
I’m actually actively turned off when people say it’s applicable to like... bio stats or some shit lmao
Not as messy as attaching a distance function 😫
Banana, are you doing A-M for ANT then?
Im sorry my numerical algorithms are applicable to anything bro 
Instead of using Hartshorne, I'm planning on using Quing Lui's book
Yeah
Though I plan on studying AG too
I see. Rip, have to learn AG anyway
I mean to do ANT you learn ANT, and then you also learn AG lmaoo
Ill probably never have to learn AG 
Don’t take a class on it then
but I have interest in AT
I didn’t think I’d want to do it, then took a class and schemes were too fun for me to quit 
Varieties can schlob on my knob tho lol they suck
if you want schemes, go to CT 
I'm considering taking classes in universal algebra as well
Lol does your school have one?
They offer it as a topics course
what is universal algebra
Also come to think of it, I wonder what channel universal algebra best fits in for this server
I think this one
Abstract algebra and universal algebra seem so distant tho
Really?
Idk, I feel like universal algebra has a more categorical feel from my very very very limited knowledge of it
I haven't studied much of it, but someone said that universal algebra is similar to what the first week of a first course in group theory looked like
seeing the wiki definition, it seems way cooler than AA
but honestly, yes
this seems the right channel
Though you kind of have to restrict yourself with UA
Because you're not allowed to exclude specific elements from having a certain property
For instance, you can't study fields
Because all elements except 0 have inverses
Now that I think about it, perhaps it would fit in the model theory channel
Wait question
What is the difference between a prime ideal and a normal ideal? Like in my notes we've defined an ideal as such
But how does that differ from a prime ideal? Like this is our definitiono f a prime ideal
Are these not saying the same thing?
nothing says you cant get a,b not in I and get ab in I for an ideal
Hrmmm
Oh
So say for exmaple, the ideal 12Z, we have that 3 and 4 are'nt in it but 3 * 4 is?
Ah
So can I say that any time that I have a non-prime ideal I, that there must exist some a, b such that ab in I but neither a nor b are in I?
yep
that is the direct negation
and ofc
a in I, b in R
implies ab in I
(also with the right)
Id tell you the intuition behind prime ideals but Id have to recall them
but it should be immediate any pZ for p prime is a prime ideal
Ah
Oke
Yea that's what I thought was but i think it's just kinda confusing for me becauseit's like not just one element but like an entire set?
@shy bluff wym
Idk I'm having a somewhat hard time grasping ideals/rings/quotient rings/etc
You know how when you learn something you go from like "I know nothing -> I know the words but not the meanings -> I know the meanings but not what they actually mean -> I knoww hat they actually mean but not how to use them -> I know how to use them and what they mean -> I truly understand this topic"
I'm somewhere between "I know the words but not the meanings" and "I know the meanings but not what they actually mean"
thats maths 
Ok yes but this is harder than other maths 
look at what the ultimate chad told us
Im just kidding
try doing more examples
It's just kinda hard because uh this course is going really fast and I'm barely keeping up with lecctures which dont' have any examples
I assume this is your intro to proofs?
because you said it is harder than other maths
ye
but have you had "proof" subjects before
Yes
oh
I had uh one course on introduction to proofs and proof techniques, and a proof based linear algebra course ... which was fine
which book are they using
As I could wrap my head around the linear algebra course mostly?
Dunnit and Foote, but not really following it much
Prof teaches off of his own notes kinda
well
linear algebra can be extremely hard to ok
depends on how they give it
what part specirically are you having a hard time grasping?
I'm at the point where I don't know how to put into words what it is that I don't know 
I think that I'm having a bit of trouble at least with ideals and quotients
how long has the subject been going for?
Uhhhh since May? I've asked the prof for help several times and like.. it helps but the material piles on very quickly and he only has office hours once a week, so I get a rough understanding of the previous week's material and then we move onto the next week and it's based on the previous week's material and so it just gets worse 
my uh marks in this course are atrocious due to the fact that I'm basically guessing all the quizzes as they're due before his office hours happen 
dont rush it
And I've like been spamming this channel kinda asking for help with homework questions because uh I'm just not understanding them? Part of it is just because it's online though
give yourself more time
you seem to understand the definition
just need to get used to it
Yea I think so
you immediatelly understood the nuance
youre being unfair to yourself
practice more and youll do well
I could help, but I rushed af through rings
so Im not sure I could teach
I agree AA is hard
Is this a normal amount
true
I'm retaking the class in the next semester too rip
I feel like I'm just googling everything
I guess
No I'm staring at the wikipedia definition of something or reading 10000 stackexchange explanations of something
cant say I havent stack exchanged a lot of functional analysis 
Idk
I guess I'm just not used to this

Also like my marks are bad relative to the class
also, wiki can be rushed sometimes
may be helpful to get an online book or smth
Like I really want to take more because I think that the topic is very interesting?
But at the same time I'm pulling high 50s low 60s on the weekly quizzes and taking 2-3 days to work on them when theyare supposed to take a couple hours
a lot of undergrad subjects were like that
that being said, you need to practice problems and get used to assimilating definitions
getting a definition and being avle to apply it is a slowly developed skill
and depending on the def, it may take very long
maybe this is the lack of mathematical maturity that my friend said I had
Hrm
Ok well
Question
In order to show that something's a local ring I need to show that it has a unique maximal ideal right?
Yes
And a localization of a ring S^{-1}R means that all of S is the denominators, while all of R is the numerators?
I mean yeah but there is also a equivalence relation on S^{-1}R ie we say a/b=c/d (where a,b\in R ,c,d\in S) iff there is a s\in S such that s(ad-bc)=0
Oh
Wait what? Why the s in S such that s(ad - bc) = 0?
I get the first half
I don't know if I saw the 2nd half
I mean not all rings we encounter are integral domains that's why we include the second condition ... Like how do we define rationals?
We define them as a equivalence class of a/b such that a/b=c/d iff ad-bc=0 where a,b are integers.
It's some sort of generalisation of this idea
basically you want the same fractions to be the same fractions 
We could have just defined the relation for S^{-1}R just like we did for rationals ie a/b=c/d iff ad-bc=0 but the localisation S^{-1}R has the property that every element in the set S is invertible in S^{-1}R so we can "weaken" the condition " a/b=c/d iff ad-bc=0" to "there exist a s\in S such that s(ad-bc)=0" as we can "divide" by s in S^{-1}R this actually matches our usual intution for rationals ...
Oh
I think that it's because for us we assumed that R is an integral domain when we defined ring of fractions
wait another question, can I ... mulitply? a ring?
Like say for example I have S^{-1}R, where S = R - P for some prime ideal
can I multilpy S^{-1}R by P?
you can do it elementwise
but not sure if that will still be a ring
That's ok
I can just have it bel ike
If a/b is an element of S^{-1}R
Then PS^{-1}R is the set pa/b for some a in R, b in S^{-1}, p some element of P
Right?
Yeah but to be more precise it should be (p/1).(a/b)
oh ok
aww man i'm so dumb someone help me out
Aren't these tow statements contradictory?
Like don't we require that h(c) not equal 0 in order for c to be in D?
hrm
Like I'm not really sure what we're supposed to do
A friend of mine says that apparently I'm looking at it backwards?
[11:42 PM]
You don't start with g and h and see what f you get
[11:42 PM]
You start with f and see which g and h you get```
but uh I don't relaly get it still :x
and he gave me the example (x^2 - 1)/(x - 1) = x + 1
what do these words mean
I can't tel leither
I emailed the prof too
Yea
That's my question
Like can you even do that?
Ok but that wont' give you the same domain if g and h are different right?
Like g = x + 1, h = 1 versus g = x^2 - 1 and h = x -1 will give you the same f
Yea like those are two different rational functions
imo
But like they reduce to the same f?
And something about equivalence classes?
No
He says that g/h and f/1 are equivalence clasess??
Well from the notes we have the scerenshot above
And in the definition we've defined f = g/h
Err in the question
Or rather, by the notes, we havet hat f = g/h if and only if (f, 1) ~ (g, h)
Which is true if and only if fh = g1
Yea
Err
Oh wait yes it is
Oh
Yea
Wait lemme check the definition of K(x)
hrm
K[x] is the ring of polynomials over K
Yea
oh wait yea
By the equivalence class definition, x + 1 = (x^2 - 1)/(x - 1)
oh wait
Ok I see
ok yea so we have that (f, 1) is an equivalence class
And any (g, h) that satisfy (f, 1) ~ (g, h) is good, but that each pair (g, h) will create a different D(f)?
😦
wynaut
slimvesus:
oh ok
But what if we talk about it as being (f, 1) ~ (g, h) in K(x) instead of K[x]?
dwbi
oh
Ok
oh
Wait I'm still confused, why is 1 still an element of D(g, h) = D(x + 1, 1)? Is it because we can construct a different polynomial such that h(1) not equal to 0?
oooooooooooooooooooooooooooooh
So D((g, h)) is really the set of "c such that there exists some (s, t) ~ (g, h) such that t(c) nonzero"?
....
Ok
I see
Oke
That's all clear now
Thank you!
What is |Aut(Zp x Zp)|
Is it ||2(p - 1)^2||?
||(the number of ways you can map (0, 1) and (1, 0) -- either map them to (0, a) and (b, 0) or map them to (a, 0) and (0, b) for any 1 <= a, b <= p - 1)||
Just want to make sure -- I was wondering if I maybe undercounted
$(p^2-1)(p^2-p)$
WhyamIsohot?:
Wait, what's the construction?
Aut(Zp x Zp)=GL_2(Zp)
You can express any map from Zp x Zp to Zp x Zp by a multpilication by a matrix .....
Ah ok
||(the number of ways you can map (0, 1) and (1, 0) -- either map them to (0, a) and (b, 0) or map them to (a, 0) and (0, b) for any 1 <= a, b <= p - 1)||
@river fern you can map (1,0) to any nonzero element, which there are p^2-1 choices to pick from. Then you can map (0,1) to any element not in the span of where (1,0) was sent, which there are p^2-p choices. In total that gives (p^2-1)(p^2-p) maps
So I guess this could be generalized
Like |Aut(Zp x... x Zp (n times))| would be (p^n - 1)(p^n - p)...(p^n - p^(n-1))
And then something similar for Zp x Zq where p and q are distinct primes
Is there a well-known form for any finite abelian group?
Probably
You have Aut(G x H) = Aut(G) x Aut(H) when the order of G and H are relatively prime
oh rly
ok I think it's clear that Aut(G x H) contains Aut(G) x Aut(H) (since the same mappings that are done in G and H will be feasible in G x H)
You have Aut(G x H) = Aut(G) x Aut(H) when the order of G and H are relatively prime
@elder valley From the abstract of this (https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00013-005-1547-z), it seems like finding the automorphisms of the direct product of two groups of relatively prime order is nontrival
but maybe it's simpler if G and H are abelian?
yeah sorry i was assuming the finite abelian case still
although i'm not seeing why it's not true in general. if the orders are relatively prime then any element of G has to map back to G, and same for H. so it seems the automorphism would decompose into the "G part" and the "H part"
i think that paper may be using "direct factor" to mean something else, like some common subgroup or something
For relatively prime order it 100% is just the product of automorphism groups
why
It's definitely true for abelian (lemma 2.1 of https://www.msri.org/people/members/chillar/files/autabeliangrps.pdf)
is it true for non-abelian?
Yes
Of course it is true that Aut(G x H) contains Aut(G) x Aut(H) but I'm unsure how to prove the other dir
if f is an automorphism, then f(g,h) = f(g,0)*f(0,h), and f(g,0) has to be in G x {0} for any g if the orders are relatively prime. same for H
By coprimality any automorphism of G x H has to fix G’ and H’
Yeah basically what Auvera is saying
You abuse the fact that the order of (g,h) is the lcm of orders of g and h
Combined with the fact that order of elements of a group need to divide the order of the group
ahh ok makes sense^^
basically f restricted to G is an automorphism of G, same for H
and the value of f on G and H determine f completely
That’s a great way to put it
ok that makes sense, i'm unsure what this paper is about then: https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00013-005-1547-z
since it uses Hom(H, Z(K)) and Hom (K, Z(H)) to express Aut(G) where G = H x K
oh LMAO
The original one
@river fern so to get back to your original problem, if G is finite abelian, then decompose G into it's primary decomposition and collect terms to put G in the form of G_1 x ... x G_n with |G_i| distinct prime powers. then Aut(G) = Aut(G_1) x ... x Aut(G_n). so the problem is reduced to computing Aut(H) for H an abelian p-group
yeah looks ugly
Is it easy to show that p divides |Aut(H_p)|?
wait that's false for Zp
I wonder if it's true for everything else
well given that theorem you can find when p will be a factor
I’m pretty sure
Oh hmm
My friend found the order of aut(C_p^n)
But maybe he didn’t actually like, classify it
Oh the formula gives it away
Look at the rightmost product
If any of the ei's are > 1, then since we have that c_i <= n, (p^(ei - 1))^(n - ci + 1) is divisible by p
And obv it's true for a direct product of Zp's
I wonder if there is a nicer way to prove that p usually divides |Aut(Hp)|
you could try to construct an automorphism of order p
actually as you said, Aut(G) x Aut(H) is a subgroup of Aut(G x H), so if the group contains a copy of Z/p^nZ then the automorphism group contains Aut(Z/p^nZ). now let n>1
Given a field K, we have that K(x) contains K[x] which in turn contains K right? and that they're subrings of each other?
So the factorisation of the polynomial is given and it's immediately clear that we can form a relationship between the roots and coefficients. The roots of the polynomial are all roots of unity. We know that the coefficient a_n (which we dont know is zero or not) is going to be formed out of the sum of products of roots of unity taken n at a time. Now we must show this can or cannot equal zero.
We know the sum HAS to come out to something real as the coeffieicnts are real. Therefore all terms which are not 1 or -1 cancel out (since 1 or -1 are the only real roots of unity). So now I can write the remaining terms as:
(some big product) * a root + (some other big product) * some other root + ...
Where (some big product) is a root of unity, as multiplying roots of unity gives another root of unity. Every single one of these either comes out to 1 or -1. (ie, I'm only considering the products which are going to come out to something real)
I do not really know where to continue with this line of reasoning, could someone help? I feel like it's kind of a pile of BS
Was suggested to post this here
We now know my idea actually was BS
I'd appreciate any ideas on this
I was relatively sure I could use the roots of unity to solve this
But since there's an infinite amount of them
It's hard
Err yea
In this problem though k is a field but yea that makes sense for it ot be true in general
for any K[x], where K is a field, can I say that it must have an element of the form (x + a)(x + b), where a and b are elements of K?
x^2+(a+b)x+ab is always in R[x] for R a ring, not just a field
The polynomial ring is a formal object
ok epic
Like the elements of the polynomial ring happen to represent functions on K, but 2 elements of K[x] which represent the same function aren't equal
It happens to be they are in some nice cases
But the elements themselves are purely symbolic
@little tree this isn't an algebraic approach so doesn't fit this channel but one idea that comes to mind is that a_n is the nth coefficient of the Taylor expansion of P around 0, so a_n =P^(n)(0) / n!, which you can probably compute easily from P. My analysis sucks so I'm not sure how convergence and passing derivative through the limit will work
hrm
ok
for part c here I know that I have to construct some surjective homomorphsim from S^{-1}K[x] to D(c), but I'm not sure how/which one? I thought identity at first but I don't think that that works?
hmm. i don't see how that is true
I think
For localization
You want to show the other thing satisfies the universal property
In general
seems to me the RHS is K and the LHS is K[x]
@shy bluff what is your definition for S^{-1} R? because usually S needs to be a multiplicatively closed subset of R
ooooh, i misread the definition of S, i thought it was quotient
So D(c) actually isn’t just K
For example take c = 1
Wait nvm
Wait what is going on hmmm
yea idk
Because like D(c) means for the constant polynomial
Then for any x in K,
You have c= c/1
And 1 evaluated at x is not 0
I feel like maybe
yea
D(c) is supposed to read D(x - c)???
Yeah but
Read that D(f) is a subset of K
It’s the values for which f is represented as a quotient
Where the denominator is non-zero at that value
Oh yeah that’s true
for part c here I know that I have to construct some surjective homomorphsim from S^{-1}K[x] to D(c), but I'm not sure how/which one? I thought identity at first but I don't think that that works?
@shy bluff maybe try the evaluation map f(x)/g(x) --> f(c)/g(c)
may not be injective actually
Yea I don'tt hink that's injective
wait since D(c) is K, it's a field, but not everything in the LHS is invertible since the numerator can be divisible by x-c
also it's a localization so it's a local ring with maximal ideal corresponding to (x-c)
Yeah lmao
Maybe D(c) means all the elements f of K(x) with c in D(f)?
Otherwise D(c) being a subring of K(x) doesn't make so much sense
Oh that makes sense Liquid
That actually makes a lot of sense
Cuz then you’ve inverted everything except multiples of (x - c)
Yeah
This problem is just bad lol
Maybe there was a previous problem which made this clear?
nope
I have no idea
Uhhh last night I talked about this problem here too
As far as I can tell, D(f) means all elements c of of K such that there exist g, h such that g/h = f and h(c) != 0
Also like it can still be a subring of K(x) cant' it? like it's just constant polynomials?
Otherwise D(c) being a subring of K(x) doesn't make so much sense
@woven delta i don't understand what you mean by this
I mean by the interpretation you gave it makes sense because K can be seen naturally as a subfield of K(x), but it's kind of boring
And it doesn't seem like the sort of thing we would bother talking about
yeah i agree with that
seems there's a typo somewhere because from what i can tell (c) can't be true going off of everything that's stated there
I think my interpretation which I wrote above was what they meant to write
i think you're saying that in (b) and (c), "D(c)" should be replaced with "rational functions defined at c"
Yup
Yeah
Then it’s kind of intuitively clear why that localization is D(c)
Since you’re inverting everything not in (x - c)
Which everything without a root at c
Given a group G, is it true that all Sylow-p groups are isomorphic to each other?
(since they are conjugate to each other)
Oh wait i think that is true
Since the map x -> g^{-1}xg is an isomorphism
yeah, the conjugating element gives the isomorphism
yes
But uhhh I still don't really see how to find a surjective homomorphism between them?
well given the change we suggested above, it's kind of trivial. you can consider your S^{-1}K[x] to be a subring of K(x), and it's exactly the rational functions defined at c
so like you said at the start it's essentially the identity map
you'd need to show that everything in S^{-1}K[x] is defined at c for it to be well-defined
hrm
I'm stuck in part (a) (b and c follow trivially):
I know that AB = G, Ba = aB and Ab = bA (for any a in A, b in B)
||We want to show aba^{-1}b^{-1} is the identity. aba^{-1} is inside B so aba^{-1}b^{-1} is inside B. Similarly ba^{-1}b^{-1} is inside A so aba^{-1}b^{-1} is inside A||
lol
I'm not sure where the finiteness comes in at all
probably so that you can conclude that injective ==> surjective
Oh sure
ok cool makes sense
it's not true as stated for infinite groups
probably the last part: AB=G
and the exact issue is that the map might not be surjective
comes from |G|=|A||B|
I mean, it comes from the map in part b being surjective
for infinite groups, |G| can still equal |A||B| but you don't get AB = G
for example, take G = Z x Z x Z, A = Z x {0} x {0}, and B = {0} x Z x {0}
Oh I didn't even notice we were talking about Cardinality
how else would you make sense of "|G| = |A||B|" for infinite groups?
I thought we were talking about the standard definition of the inner direct product
Like G = AB
I thought you were asking why the "finite group" hypothesis was necessary
and so I gave an example of how this theorem fails without it
Serves me right for not reading the question correctly
Unsure how to do (c):
nono, this is a different question lol
For (a), ||you can basically show that there is either exactly one Sylow-3 group or exactly one Sylow-5 group implying that one of them is normal, the product of one group from each category will give a group of order 15.||
how do you know that those elements commute though?
like if there's a unique sylow 5-subgroup for example, and you take one of the sylow 3-subgroups
call them A and B
I don't see how that's enough to prove AB = BA
unless both A and B are normal
as in the previous problem we talked about
By "everything in S^{-1}K[x] is defined at c", do you mean just show that theree are no elements s of S such that s(c) = 0?
maybe it's fine, I haven't spent too much time thinking about it
For each b in B, Ab = bA
By "everything in S^{-1}K[x] is defined at c", do you mean just show that theree are no elements s of S such that s(c) = 0?
@shy bluff yeah that's essentially what it boils down to
why is |AB| = 15
|AB| <= 15 since each |Ab| has size 5
can't I just be like "S is all polynomials of K[x] except for the ones that have c is a root, as if a polynomial would have c as a root then it would be in (x - c)"?
15 | |AB| since |A| = 5, |B| = 3
why is AB a subgroup of G
if you write something like aba'b'
oh wait I think I see
wait no I don't
why is aba'b' in AB
oh I see, mayvbe it's okay because A is normal
aba'b' = aa''bb' or smth
so ba' = a''b
ah okay, so you only need one of them to be normal -- which I think you said a while ago but I didn't believe at first
I think for (b), since ||groups of size 15 are cyclic, the candidates are {phi(15), 2phi(15)}||
can't I just be like "S is all polynomials of K[x] except for the ones that have c is a root, as if a polynomial would have c as a root then it would be in (x - c)"?
@shy bluff yeah that's probably good enough. if you wanted to be more thorough you could use division algorithm to show explicitly that the value is nonzero at c
oke
And then I can just say that because it's all s(c) nonzero, the inclusion homomorphism is well defined, surjectiev, with kernel {0} and thus tehy'er isomorphic?
can there be two different subgroups of order 15?
maybe
there can't be more than 2
since all groups of size 15 are cyclic, implying disjointness besides the identity
how does that imply disjointness
like, if we call the generators a and b, why can't a^5 = b^5
for example consider the group G = Z/15Z x Z/5Z
the elements (1,0) and (1,1) both generate a cyclic subgroup of order 15
but those subgroups aren't disjoint becuase they both contain (5,0)
now, I know that example has size larger than 30, so maybe you can use the 30 to rule out somethign like this
in fact, the subgroups generated by (1,k) for k in {0,1,2,3,4} are all distinct
and all cyclic of order 15
hmm ok
So one thing I realized -- to solve (c), I think you mainly need the fact that there are >= phi(15) = 8 elements of order 15
There are a few cases:
10 Sylow-3's, 1 Sylow-5: The number of elements in G is at least 8 + 10 * 2 + 4 + 1 = 33
1 Sylow-3, 6 Sylow-5's: The number of elements in G is at least 8 + 2 + 6 * 4 + 1 = 35
Therefore, the group has one Sylow-3 and one Sylow-5
yay
if R is a ring and S is the group of units of R, then S^{-1}R is essentially the field of fractions of R right? because you're adding inverses to all the noninvertible elements
so what i'm getting at is that even if R is not an integral domain, you can still form the field of fractions in this way
S is the set of things you invert
so if S is just the units, then S^{-1}R = R
because inverting the units doesn't do anything
doh
i feel dumb
does taking the compliment of the group of units work? together with 1
inverting zero-divisors is always a bad idea
In abstract algebra, the total quotient ring, or total ring of fractions, is a construction that generalizes the notion of the field of fractions of an integral domain to commutative rings R that may have zero divisors. The construction embeds R in a larger ring, giving every ...
there's no reason to artificially exclude the units from S
adding them into S doesn't change anything
oh true. didn't think about 0
Question
If (p) is an ideal of R, then (p) contains all powers of p
and all multiples of p
Right?
Does it contain uh the sum of p with elements of R?
i.e, is a + p in (p) for some a in R?
the ideals sum to the whole ring
And the sum of two ideal sis always a ni deal?
Try to prove it by yourself, it's a good exercice
proof as an exercise is a very cool thing in algebra
I think it's probably the only subject where it makes me sort of happy
why algebra specifically?
I feel I'm way more at ease with the structure
I had a teacher that always said "this is straightforward", meaning it's just a matter of re-writing things and using the definitions
Usually it's just a tiny bit of abstraction but not a lot of huge reasoning
wait question, can I say "d | p" for polynomials d, p in R[x]?
does algebra have an equivalent to epsilon-proofs? ewww
The case of I,J ideals => I+J ideal is the perfect example
yes @shy bluff
That just means that remainder is 0 right
It just feels weird to say that when neither is a number?
just accept it @shy bluff
Working on it
i read that as 'divides'
Works for matrices, for holomorphic functions, for many things
if the ring is noncommutative is there a "left divides" and "right divides" though?
@shy bluff to accomodate to these notions, I advice you have a look at the ring of Gauss integers Z[i]
Yea
There are some fun exercices with showing it is Euclidian and shenanigans
if the ring is noncommutative is there a "left divides" and "right divides" though?
yes
Uhhhh no time to do that or else I would; this course moves too fast + other courses means no time to play with a lot of things
On the other hand I did manage to prove half of this question without any help
So
yeah fuck math like that
That's progress
math has no schedule
Not really the prof's fault, it's the other courses
do it at your own pace
scheduling conflicts
seems like "A divides B" when A and B are matrices is ambiguous
seems like "A divides B" when A and B are matrices is ambiguous
This is an example of left/right divisibility
You even have left/right/two-sided ideals
yeah but your previous comment was "works for matrices"
And left/right group actions
a polynomial dividing the other is just straight up them being a factor of the other
It works up to the group of units obviously
question: what are qbar and a_i bar?
the image of the elements in the quotient ring
Image of which elements?
qbar = q + (p_i)
I dont' quite nuderstand what that has to do with alll the different ones
i don't understand that comment xD
Err
I don't really understand what the question is asking me to show
So I'm given a set of coprime elements of R[x]
And a set of a_i... a_n in R[x]
What is the relationship between a_1... a_n?
there's no dependence between the a_i's
you have to find a single q which when you map it through the projection homomorphism phi_i : R[x] -> R[x] / (p_i), you have that phi_i(q) = phi_i(a_i)
for all i
And q is some single fixed element of R[x]?
yeah, you have to show it exists
true 
Wait another question, any coprime pair of ideals (p_i) + (p_j) = R[x], doesn't it? Because if they'er coprime they're comaximal?
that's what part (a) shows
Yea ok
That's what I showed 😎
Uhhh is there any reason that I cant' just let a_i = q = 1? THen we'd have that phi(a_i) = phi(q) = 1 regardless of the quotient ring?
you don't get to choose a_i, they are given
oh I'm given some a_i
and we konw nothing about a_i? They're just arbitrary elements that are fixed?
I'm guessing that this has something to do with Chinese Remainder Theorem maybe?
Id ont' really nudertand how to construct it bercause we don't have anything for what a_i are?
it's exactly the CRT for polynomial rings
Sorry so divisibility makes sense in UFD's up to the group of units
Sorry I forgot to mention the UFD part
hrmmm
it's kind of a tough proof to come up with on your own
So because p_1... .p_n are coprime, we can write R[x]/((p_1) cup .... (p_n))) = R[x]/(p_1) x .... R[x]/(p_n)?
at least to me it's not intuitive
well yeah but that's essentially the statement of the CRT
i think you use induction on n if i remember right
in the sense that it's the proof of the CRT yeah xD
Yea idk what to do about a_i and q
like all that I got uh is that
p_1, p_2 are coprime, so (p_1) + (p_2) = (d) = R[x]
And as (d) = R[x], we require 1 in (d)
and that there must exist some s, t in R[x] such that sp_1 + tp_2 = 1
yeah that's good so far. look at what happens when you mod that equation by p_i
The equation sp_1 + tp_2 = 1?
yeah
It just becomes uh tp_2 + 1 right? because the p_1 portion goes to 0?
t p_2 = 1 you mean
so instead of getting 1, we want to get a_i
so you can modify the expression "s p_1 + t p_2" so that you get a_i mod p_i, given that you know s p_1 mod p_2 = 1 and vise versa
what are the q_i?
Well I'm thinking that they're all relatively prime right
So we should be able to go and find some q_1, q_2... so on
such that they sum to 1? But instead make the sum a_1... a_n?
as they're relatively prime they have to be able to generate the entire ring
So there must be some combination of q_1... q_n in R[x] such that the sum of them equals to any element in R[x]
It's like if they're relatively prime then they span the space of R[x] right?
Wait first try the case n=2 .... You will get the idea of what to do from that .....
yeah i agree
well from the case n = 2 we had sp_1 + tp_2, if we go and take quotient of phi_1, we get tp_2 = 1
Right?
And I want to somehow modify this so that I get a_i mod p_i?
Yeah
yeah
so what I want is that I want phi_1(sp_1 + tp_2) = a_i mod p_i
phi_i
Liria ^(;,;)^:
Is this what I want?
yeah. in the i=1 case the sp_1 term is killed so effectively you can ignore it when trying to make it come out to a_1 instead
so basically, modify "t p_2" so that you get a_1 instead of 1
can't you just make it a_1t?
yeah
not quite but close
guess it depends what "it" was referencing lol
tp_2 becomes a_1tp_2?
yes
yup
or rather just mulitply everything by a_1
bceause it doesnt' matter what you multiply sp_1 by, when you quotient it the term poofs
Yea it on ly affects the p_2
Am I ... trying to shift a_i around such that we have something of the form a_ip_jq_j, where we would have q_1p_1 + ... q_np_n = 1, and wehave i not equal to j?
the indices will get mixed a bit. but i wouldn't really worry about the general case if you use induction. finish out the n=2 case and the induction step won't be that different
induction also gives a constructive proof for how to find q
assuming you use extended euclidean algorithm to find the bezout coefficients
D: I can't just say that they exist because they're coprime?
Ok so we have
I see
you're almost there
you are applying phi_i to different elements though. you need a single element q
oh
Oh wait what if I just multiply the entire thing by a_1 or the entire thingby a_2? that would givee us what we're looking for?
no
Wait question, is this bit of the CRT on wikipedia relevant
oh wait
oh
This is actually what the question is asknig for
Yes lol
i'm pretty sure the induction proof won't use the fact that your ring is K[x]. i think you just need commutative with 1
I was wondering if someone can help explain to me the Lie vector space isomorphism between the tangent space vectors at identity and L(g) (the vector field of left invariant vector fields over the Reals)? Im confused as to how the isomorphism is made.
you take f in L(g) and you map it to f(identity)
then how would you go in reverse?
Because if it is a vector space couldnt the vector be written as a composition of two different actions?
.... what ?
you go in reverse
by taking a vector x in the tangent space of the identity
and mapping it to the field
that takes a point g
and attaches to it the vector T_id(g)(x)
where T_id(g) is the differential at the identity of the multiplication by g map
maybe I shouldn't denote that multiplication by g map as 'g'
well, if g=e
the multiplication by e map is the identity
and so the differential at the identity is the identity of the tangent space at the identity
so you attach x to e
my god that's an awful sentence
I guess what im confused about is, how do you know a L(g) field exists that includes that specific vector at identity and how do you know it is unique?
write down what it means to be a left invariant vector field
That for all g within G it takes whatever the point gets mapped to and attaches the tangent vectors it originally had?
can i have something much much more precise
Sure X as a field is left invariant if for all g within G, Lg.(X(h) = X(lg(h))
Where Lg. is the pushforward
I think you forgot to quantify h
Where h is a point on the smooth manifold that G sits on?
and lg is left multiplication by g ?
yes
I don't usually make a difference between G and the smooth manifold
well then if you have decided on a value for X(e)
this constraint " forall g,h in G, Lg.(X(h)) = X(gh) " tells you, by plugging h = e, that forall g in G, X(g) = Lg.(X(e))
so you have no choice for X(g) once you have decided a value for X(e)
So then what makes the isomorphism injective? How can we map a vector at identity to a distinct vector in L(g)?
what
Any tangent vector at identity, a element of L(g) will map it to itself correct?
an element of L(g) is a left invariant vector field
yes
if it's a map it's a map from G to the reunion of the tangent spaces of G
I'm not sure I'm making sense of what you're saying
You said that forall g,h in G, Lg.(X(h)) = X(gh) right? So that means for any g which is an element of L(g), Lg.(x(h)) = X(g(h)) right?
Which means ALL elements of L(g) map the same vector to itself correct?
g as the left invariant vector field which is an element of the set of all left invariant vector fields
if you give the letter g to the lie group, to elements of the lie group, and to vector fields on the lie group then you're going to be confused
so g is a vector field on G ?
yes
Sure
so we can have "forall g,h in G, Lg.(X(h)) = X(gh)" ?
Just to clarify g and h are group elements of the lie group G?
yes
We defined that for a left invariant field all vectors in the field are mapped to themselves correct?
no
a vector field on G is a map X from G to the reunion of the tangent spaces, such that forall g in G, X(g) is an element of the tangent space of G at g
forall g, the multiplication by g map is differentiable, so forall g and h, you can differentiate it at h to obtain a linear map from the tangent space of G at h to the tangent space of G at gh
and the field is left-invariant if when you apply it to X(h) you obtain X(gh)
for any g and any h
So wherever a point gets mapped to it is guaranteed to have its same tangent space (the map may move points around but the reunion of the tangent spaces is identical to their original points)?
I have no idea what you are saying
a point gets mapped - by a vector field - to a tangent vector
a point gets mapped - by the multiplication by g map - to another point
a tangent vector gets mapped - by the differential of blablabla - to a tangent vector from another tangent space
so since there are many maps around, please clarify which ones you are talking about
Sure, sorry I was just introduced to the topic today
A left invariant vector field is such that what a point is multiplied by g map it is sent to another new point.
But
Its tangent vector at that new point is identical to what it was prior to the multiplication of g.
no
a left invariant vector field is a map X from G to the reunion of the tangent spaces such that it satisfies (differential of (left multiplication by g map) at h) applied to X(h) = X(gh), forall g and h in G
So a tangent vector at a point before and after g map transformation is identical?
not sure what that means
At each point on G a tangent space is given with a vector given by the left invariant vector field
usually when you transform somethings it is no longer identical to what it was before
well a vector field is the data of a tangent vector for each point yes
Ok so if you transform G by the map g each point will be transformed correct?
the "left-multiplication by g" map is a map from G to G, it maps h to gh
ok so every point h gets sent to gh then?
I suppose ?
and whatever tangent vector was at h gets sent to point gh?
As per the definition of left invariant?
no
the differential of that multiplication by g map
at h
is a linear map from the tangent space of G at h to the tangent space of G at gh
the field is left invariant if forall g,h in G, Lg.(X(h)) = X(gh)
I really don't like your notation Lg
use whatever youd like my dude, im just appreciative that your helping me out!
maybe it should be T(mu_g)_h or something
mu_g : G -> G
defined by mu_g(h) = gh
T(mu_g)_h : the differential of mu_g at h
is a linear map from T_h to T_gh
if X is a vector field
X(h) is in T_h
you can apply T(mu_g)_h to it
and obtain T(mu_g)_h (X(h)), which is in T_(gh)
you can also consider X(gh) which is in T_(gh)
if it somehow happens that X(gh) = T(mu_g)_h (X(h)) for every g and h, then you say X is a left invariant vector field
(also T_g is my notation for the tangent space of G at g)
if X(gh) = T(mu_g)_h (X(h)) it is left invariant
The analogy im thinking is like an eigenvector with eigenvalue 1, that once the transformation is applied it remains the same
absolutely not
it's a bad one
well
hmm
you can push the whole vector field
say, (push_g(X)) is the vector field Y defined by
Y(h) = T(mu_g)_(g-1h) (X(g-1h))
then you can say X is left invariant if push_g(X)=X forall g in G
I think
something like that
lemme check if that makes sense
yeah
and like that you can define an action push of G on the set of vector fields
(i don't remember if it's a left action or a right action)
and then left-invariant vector fields would be vector fields that are fixed by that action
So then for left invariant vector fields, every vector when pushed forward stays the same? As in the vector doesnt change from T_g to T_gh
you can't compare vectors from Tg with vectors from Tgh
it makes no sense
you can't say they are equal nor that they are different
well it's more like they're different because they're from entirely different vector spaces
Suppose all r_i < n_i then their sum would be less than m
Like m is defined to be the minimal number such that this proof works
Because each r_i <= n_i - 1
But m = sum(n_i - 1) + 1
does m = sum(n_i) not work?
It will
Any m larger than theirs does
But for like elegance they went for the minimal m to make the proof work
I still don't see how their choice of m works
So suppose all r_i < n_i
like assume r_i < n_i for all i
Ah got it
But m = sum(n_i - 1) + 1
What I was doing was that I was summing it up before converting it to <=
Oh lmao
But from there
You can see why this is the minimal m
Since you get over <= by exactly 1
To push it into <
If that... makes sense lol
Aiyaiyai
Finite Field stuff is just so cool
if only we could all be so lucky
I hate finite fields
I would literally rather work with a general field
Even though then it applies to finite fields too
Only because finite fields are so nice that you can say more concrete stuff about them
But I just hate working with them
lmao
I love finite group theory, so the fact that I get to throw all that around is fun
I like finite group theory
I vividly remember one of my professors saying "Finite group theory is nothing but combinatorics"
and at the time I did not believe it.
everyone knows that combinatorics is just algebraic geometry over F_1
hahaha
I think I would mean "is" just as in, literally that's what combinatorics is. I think my combinatorics course is a lot of "how much can I have a semester long group theory course without ever saying the word 'group'?"
haha yeha
what I said was just a meme
which maybe I would understand better if my brain were big enough
n! / (k! * (n-k)! ) is just the orbit stabalizer theorem applied to three symmetric groups
I mean, I guess it kind of makes sense, since finite sets and group actions and stuff are vector spaces over F_1
gross!
Abelian groups are just modules over the trivial ring
abelian groups are Z-modules
