#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 485 of 407
Oh ok
every finite group is finitely generated tho but not by 1 element
Ah, ok yea thats' what I was thinking
with the obvious G=<G>
but uh yea no idea how to do this
okay
I thougght that it had something to do with Laggrange's TheoreM?
My reasoning so far is that if |G| = 4, then there are only 3 possible subgroup sizes
either its subgroups are of size 4, 2, or 1
Right?
What do you mean?
so we want to show this is an abelian group
what about the orders of the elements
they have to divide the order of the group no?
Z/4Z is abelian right
Uh
Order of elements have to divide the order of the group, yes this is true
Yes
okay so suppose if we have an element of order 4
then the group is cyclic hence abelian
right?
Sure
Yea
so with this
can you show that xy=yx
for all x and y in G
i think you maybe have done this b4
as an exercise
showwing that H = {x in G |x^2=1} is an abelian subgroup of a group G
Yea
Yes
first of all
if G had an element of order 4 it would have been isomporphic to Z/4Z right?
Yes this is true
so that solves the first part of the problem
okay
so assume G is not cyclic
define the function f:Z/2 x Z/2 --> G as f(a,b) = x^ay^b
x and y in G
is this an isomorphismm
Hrm
lol do you know the theorem that index 2 subgroups are normal?
a = 0, b = 0, then you get ee = e, a = 1, b = 0 then you get xe, a = 1, b = 1 then xy and yea that looks like a bijection which is an isomorphism
@woven delta yes
okay cool
wait really
okay here's some facts
- if your group is not cyclic then every element has order either 1 or 2
- if an element has order 2 in a group of order 4, then the subgroup generated by that element has index 2
2 is just by definition oforder right?
it's because the index is the order of the group over the order of the subgroup
so 4/2=2
Yes
okay so we know that all the subgroups are normal
and we know that given 2 distinct nonidentity elements a, b, the subgroups <a>, <b> have <a>\cap <b>=e
why is that?
and we also know because of cardinality reasons that the order of the product of the subgroups is 4
because <a>={e,a} and <b>={e,b}
and a\neq b
Yes
okay so we know that <a><b>=G and <a> and <b> are normal
and they have trivial intersection
boom direct product
Ok
do you know the definition of the internal direct product?
Yes
and how it agrees with the external direct product
I dont' nkow what an external direct product is?
Is it an internal direct product but just with any group rather than restricting it to subgorups?
it's the one that given groups G and H we let GxH be the group with elements {(g,h)|g\in G,h\in H}
Ok
and the group law is (g_1, h_1)(g_2, h_2)=(g_1g_2,h_1h_2)
and it turns out that if there are 2 normal subgroups G, H of K so that G intersects H trivially and GH=K, then K is isomorphic to the external direct product of G and H
Ok
Im having trouble showing prime and irreducible are the same in this ring
how would I go about showing this?
Hint The given ring is an ufd
yea, I can see how that implies the thing I want to prove but idk how to prove that
also, this was in chapter one of the book im using and the term "ufd" hasnt
been introduced yet
Which book is this? Just in case like, it assumes background in algebra such that you'd know k[x_1,...,x_n] is a UFD
uh, my teacher wrote it. So, Im not sure if that's something I should know
I'll just ask him if I should know this
Btw if A is ufd then A[x] is ufd
Could it be possible the question is design such that I should try to prove this?
Hint The given ring is an ufd
Btw if A is ufd then A[x] is ufd
oh, I see
I'll try to prove this
Do you know gauss' lemma
Given the context if you ask which one then probably you don't know 😂
A prime ideal is an ideal such that ab in P => a or b in P
To show that (f) is a prime ideal in k[x1,x2,...] pick ab in (f) so you know ab = fg for some g and show that a or b is in (f)
this will use irreducibility
hey
I need some help in this question
Prove or give a counterexample: if U is a subspace of V that is
invariant under every operator on V , then U = {0} or U = V .
I know one counter example and wish to know any simpler ones
Counterexample for one such problem can be given by the fact that ”Every operator on a finite-dimensional,Non-zero,Complex Vector space has a eigenvalue
operator here just means a linear transformation from V to V?
yes
In that case, I do not believe there is a counterexample
are you sure?
I agree that every particular operator on a finite dimensional complex vector space leaves a subspace invariant
but that's just one, where as your question asks about being invariant under EVERY operator.
we need not define every operator on V
(by under every operator, it means under every operator simultaneously)
yes
all operators defined on V
if we restrict operators we can find satisfying examples, but will this hold for every operator??
no, it won't.
Here's a nudge:
if v1 and v2 are non-zero vectors in V, there is always an operator A s.t. A(v1)=v2.
ok
(The intuition here is that no non-zero vector in a vectorspace is special, they're all the same. The same is true of subspaces of a particular dimension. )
Consider Vector Space V(F^2)
ok, trying
consider u belongs to U
and v belongs to V but not U
Consider operator T(w) = v
then
T(u) = v which implies U is not invarient on T
😅
this is pretty dumb but does this qualify as a proof
yes
T(w) = v + a(w-u)
ok
pls have a look at this
can this help in proof
we can show that two operators have disjoint null spaces(other than 0)
ok, lemme try
actually I got confused due to something
see this
so we have subspace for each operator
we may have hope that their intersection is not {0}
that may be be invarient on all
😅
nope
I am just thinking
I was reading this book and wanted to see If I can prove
I want to prove this?
or have an idea what this means
9.8 says we have a subspace for each operator, so to have a subspace that is invarient on all operators we need this subspace to be in all subspaces
idk what I am thinking most the time it is wrong
can you pls help
yes
we need to show that there exist an opertor
that maps from u to not u
yes
we can take u, e1,e2,...en
and find an orthnormal basis of this
v is non zero cause v does not belong to U
so we have a basis of V containing u
in a way i think we must show Tu = 0
or belongs to U
ok we have two now
yes may be
or what about we take basis of U ={u1,u2....um}
extend this
what can be the linear operator, we do not need to define opertor just telling what it does mus be enough right?
T({a,b,c,d}) = {d,a,b,c} how does this look?
T({u1,u2,0,0}) = {0,u1,u2,0} which does not belong to U
does this sound like a proof ?
you can think of F^n
for now
cordinate system
you know we have a sad cat emoji 
whats the problem
whats the problem
@solemn rain https://discordapp.com/channels/268882317391429632/496784958430380033/718843240668987493
yes
what i was thinkig is any element in v ca be written as (given basis {u_1,u_2,..,v_n-1,v_n}) a1(u_1),a2(u_2)....
element can be written by {a1,a2,...a_n-1,an} and operator T({a1,a2,...a_n-1,an} ) = {an,a1,a2,...a_n-1}
@chilly ocean
is operator clear now
{1,1,..,0,0} belongs to U
yes sort of
{1,1,..,0,0} belongs to U
T({1,1,..,0,0}) = {0,1,1..,0} does not belong to U
atleast do I have a right idea??
can this lead to a proof

what is the portion needed for this?

:thankscat:
For this,
When they say that the order of [g] in G/N is min {n >= 1: g^n in N} do they mean any n in N?
@solemn rain any reference to the natural numbers in a math text should be groups for banishment
but it is perfectly reasonable, upon seeing a small n and a big N to assume the small n is an element of big N. That's how math notation usually works. It just so happens that here you're meant to think of n as an integer.
Oh it might be natural numbers
That would make sense
so this is asking me to prove that for any g in G that its order in G/N is going to either be that of the smallest integer that sends it to N or infinity if it isn't sent to N at all?
that's exactly right
Thank you!
And I'm just going gto hazard a guess here, the infinity one is just whenever G cyclic
Err isn't cyclic
Wait another question
Is the order of g just the result of taking q(g), where q is defined as q: G -> G/N, q(g) = gN?
The order of an element g? It's the amount of times you have to multiply g×g×g×g... = e
We write that concisely as gⁿ = e
Yes
Well
Here we want g^n in N
that'd just be .... Anything in N?
Or rather
All of N?
~_N such that for all a, b in N, a ~_N b?
Ok I don't know
A fun follow-up exercise once you get this to make sure you have it all down: A) Prove that if G has a normal subgroup N of index k, then x^k is in N for all x in G. B) Use this to prove that A_4 has no subgroup of order 6.
Yes
Oh
Ok
Yes
So are we looking for a way to write [N]?
e
Identity
What I dont' really understand is, what is the order of[g]?
Is the order of [g] n such that [g]^n = e?
Yes, the minimal n such that that happens
Oh then by definitino the order of [g] in G/N is min{n >= 1: g^n in N}
Ok but what's with the infinity?
Is that for when G/N isn't cyclic?
Or rather G isnt' cyclic?
Because if G isn't cyclic then wer''e never goging to get around to e right?
slimvesus:
Uh
You lost me on that last one
I'm somewhat sketch on the bit wrt infinite order
But the bit that's finite order makes sense
It's like
Let g be some element in G such that g^n in N
Then by definition of G/N, [g^n] = [e]
Right?
that isa good question
Uh
Not necessarily?
An integer?
Yea
Then g^{n - k} is not in N
Thus it's not equal to [e]?
Oh then it's infinite
I see
Is there a way to do this without a "tedious consideration of all cases"
it is much cleaner with generators and relations, but those are a more advanced topic.
Oh ok
I'm looking for a good book on Lie Groups and Lie Algebra. Any recommendations?
Just trying to build up my understanding to eventually get to a general notion of what an algebra is
do you know any differential geometry?
if not, Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifolds is probably a good place to look
the focus is, of course, on the diff geo content, but it also covers Lie groups and Lie algebras (since Lie groups are smooth manifolds)
if you dont want to do any differential geometry for some reason, you could try Hall's Lie groups, Lie algebras and Representations but
i think cutting out the diff geo content from the subject does it a fundamental disservice
Hall's text certainly has substantially less prerequisites and is more "focused", though
well, it's "focused" at least on matrix lie groups - i dont think it covers general lie groups
Big thumbs up for INtroduction to Smooth Manifolds
Loving Tu's smooth manifolds atm, finding it a bit easier than Lee. Don't know what the differences are yet
@scarlet estuary I know some differencial geometry, but I wouldn't say that I mastered it yet
From a quick search I'm also not exactly seeing the difference between a Lie Group and a Lie Algebra
As far as background. I've taken: Modern Algebra, Linear, Functional, and Differencial Geometry.
Well, a lie group is a group (and a smooth manifold) while a lie algebra is a vector space with added structure
that said, we built lie algebras from lie groups
(indeed lie algebras are tangent spaces at the identity of lie groups)
Okay, so for a Lie Group there aren't any other added axioms from regular groups
a lie group is just a "smooth continuous" group
Got it
the more proper definition is
a lie group is a group that is a smooth manifold
if you consider the tangent space of a lie group at the identity, you get a lie algebra
and the correspondence, by lie's third theorem, goes both ways
anyway uh, you could try reading some of the relevant chapters of the Lee text i mentioned
it sounds like you have the prerequisites
Yeah, I could try.
For that definition of (x,y) would the multiplication just be any regular group multiplication?
yeah, just the group operation
I think seeing it and DiffGeo along side eachother would be helpful to me too. Since I'm a bit more on the applied side
ah, lie is AFAIK a bit more on the pure end but it still might work
im afraid im not familiar with applied sources
No worries
It's just easier to follow the pure stuff if there is an application fo fall back on for intuition
I've had humprey's recommended to me for an introduction to lie algebras
but I think that it might be a problem because lie groups/algebras are usually studied using rep theory
Rep theory is something I'm also kind of interested in.
But it may be due to a misconception.
I tend to do a lot of fourier and wavelet analysis. Which feels like a "representation" of what I'm studying, but I'm guessing that it's not the same thing
Looks like Humprey might be a bit easier for me to stomach than Hall
I don't know a ton about this, but I've heard it said that fourier analysis is the representation theory of S^1 in some sense, so I don't think its too far off
Cool :)
I guess my last question is if there is a good definition of an "Algebra"?
My education of Abstract Algebra stops at Fields and vector spaces. Subtraction, division, and the cross product not being included in those is kind of what lead me to wanting to learn about lie stuff
an algebra is a vector space with a notion of "multiplication of vectors"
specifically a bilinear product
Ahh, okay. So, I'm almost there. Thanks @scarlet estuary
Yeah, I'm guessing the inner product would count?
Inner product doesn't work because you don't get another vector when you take the inner product (unless you're dimension 1)
Understood
Think like k[x] is an algebra over a field k
Okay, so it sounds like I need a book to be introduced to what an algebra is first. Then Lie algebra's would be a good second
Alright, thanks for answering my questions and pointing me in an interesting direction
Question
If we have a group G
With subgroup H
And we go and make G/H
Everything in h is removed from G/H right?
if by "removed" you mean "belongs to the same equivalence class as the identity", yeah
Ye athat
Ok then if I want to count the number of subgroups of G that contain the subgroup H
For one thing we have that G/H has to contain it H right?
Like my question is this
And we know that Z(D_16) = {e, s^8} right?
So I want all subgroups that contain s^8
Would that just be every subgroup that contains s^2, s^4 or s^8?
And yes, Finitely Degenerated, that's waht I meant
OH and subgrgoup that contains s too
liria there is a theorem
there is a correspondence between subgroups that contain a normal subgroup and subgroups of the quotient group
Correspondence Theorem!
The subgroups of G/H are in correspondence with the subgroups of G which contain H. So counting your subgroups is the same as counting the subgroups of G/H
Ah, that's what I was thinking I think
Or at least what I was thinking is that all subgroups of G/H will contain H
is there some result stating that every order p^n group has a normal order p subgroup
it sounds vaguely familiar but I can't quite pin the theorem down
the center of a p-group isn't trivial
could you elaborate, I'm not sure how to construct a normal order p subgroup using the center
bcp it is non trivial, you have a non trivial element of ordre p in the center, the subgroupe generated by this element is normal
oh yeah didn't think of that, thanks
Oh wait so the correspondence theorem says that the set of all subgroups of G containing N are in bijection with G/N?
if N is normal yes
ooh ok
How do I do part c here? I think that this has to do with the correspondence theorem?
That or the first isomorphism theoreM?
If you find a homomorphism from B whose kernel is N then the iso theorem tells you the image of that is iso to B/N
it could be B -> B or B -> GL_2(Q)
Oh ok
Q^x x Q^x could work too
Kernel being N would mean that any element of N maps to identity right
yeah
Yea I'm jsut thinking gthat mapping ot Q^x x Q^x would be easier because having something to gog from B to GL_2(Q) wouldn't tell me anything about Q^x x Q^x
I think?
Like if I have this, its kernel is N right?
yeah that seems good
Wait but this is'nt surjective?
yeah it's not surjective
the image of this is a subgroup of GL_2(Q) but you can also see this subgroup as isomorphic to Q^x * Q^x
I can see that it's isomorphic visually and intuitively but don't know how to show it mathematically 
to demonstrate the isomorphism formally you can say (G, +) is isomorphic to (H, *) since we have a map f : G -> H that respects identity the operation and inverses
so in this case you'll be mapping [a, 0; 0, c] to pairs (a, c)
and verifying that the multiplication of matrices matches up with the multiplication you specify for the group of pairs
Wait question
So given the function that I defined above, we actually have that $B/N \cong Im(\phi)$ right?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
And now I need to show that $Im(\phi) = Q^x \times Q^x$?
Liria ^(;,;)^:
yeah
And how can I show that? Do I just have t oshow that multiplication of matrices matches up with the multiplication for pairs of integers?
showing that it matches up proves that phi is a group homomorphism, this was needed to apply the isomorphism theorem
then Im(\phi) = Q^x \times Q^x proves that B/N is isomorphic to Q^x * Q^x
but how do you get that Im(\phi) = Q^x \times Q^x?
Wait can I just go like "Let Phi: B -> Q^x \times Q^x" and then show that it's a homomorphism with kernel of N
yes
sorry I realize now you were talking about the phi earlier that mapped to GL_2(Q)
Yaaaa thats' why I was confused lol
Wait for this question, can you just go and use the correspondence theorem with the quotient map and map from K to K/N and G to G/N?
yes that will follow as an application of the correspondence theorem
Ok wait no I'm still lost
So we have that tho quotient map q: G-> G/N , with kernel N
Then we satisfy a here
And then we can say that phi(N) <= phi(K)
And we can also say that phi(K) <= phi(G) is really just K/N <= G/N
But that doesnt' establish the normality?
Hi! Could I have some help with this question. I was told earlier by someone on here to solve the first one with proof by induction and I kinda get it but I'm also still confused. Like how would I do a base case (plugging 1 in somewhere).
Here's the proof I think I need to do but I'm not 100% sure.
Also I emailed my professor about this, and he sent me back this if it helps any. "Just remind you that the induction might be only working for the positive integers k. That is, you prove this statement in the positive case first, and then use the positive case to show the negative case (just one more line, think about how). k=0 is trivial. Then you are done with the whole proof. "
Or well actually the base case is already proven to be true so never mind. ><
Well ywah so that's already done in the top part.
So I just need to do the induction part.
Commander Vimes:
Sorry I keep being dragged away by family @scenic sage
And kinda. Like I know that you distribute the -1. Why does it switch?
intuitively:
the definition of an inverse is that $xx^{-1} = 1$, right? where $1$ is the identity
Namington:
so $(ab)(ab)^{-1} = 1$
Namington:
Namington:
we can apply associativity to get $a(bb^{-1})a^{-1} = a1a^{-1} = aa^{-1} = 1$
Namington:
is ab not equal to ba though?
this isnt exactly a proof but it's the idea behind the proof
uh
this is a dihedral group
so $ab = ba$ is not necessarily true
Namington:
not all groups are commutative (aka abelian).
i'd honestly expect that to have been proved previously
but yeah, if not, it might be a good idea
it follows from uniqueness of inverses
He'll probably let it slide. Worst case scenario, I lose a point or two.
we can see that $(ab)(ab)^{-1} = 1$, and also that $(ab)(b^{-1}a^{-1}) = a(bb^{-1})a^{-1} = aa^{-1} = 1$
Namington:
so both $(ab)^{-1}$ and $b^{-1}a^{-1}$ are inverses of $ab$
Namington:
you can prove the other direction too, ie $(ab)^{-1}(ab) = (b^{-1}a^{-1})(ab) = 1$
since inverses are unique (not hard to prove, maybe the first proof you did), it follows that $(ab)^{-1} = b^{-1}a^{-1}$
Namington:
That makes sense. But how would that help with this specific problem with k?
Oh wait
I can just say that $(ba^k)^{-1}=a^{-k}b^{-k}$
Or wait
$(ba^k)^{-1}=a^{-k}b^{-1}$
Soulgiver831:
Right?
sure, what does that tell you
Well that would have to mean that $(a^{-k}b)^{-1}=a^{-k}b^{-1}$
Soulgiver831:
Or $b^{-1}a^k=a^{-k}b^{-1}$
Soulgiver831:
so a^k is equal to a^-k. I think.
Okay so I almost have this down. I'm on the last problem here, C.
since I already know the statement from part b, I can say that $ba^mb=(ba^m)b=(a^{-m}b)b.$
yeah thats the solution
Soulgiver831:
whats b^2
no
Or no, it generates a subgroup with 2 elements
yeah
We only had to do b and c. He said a was optional.
well dont skip it
Oh. Well okay.
alright so i will define order for you
JohnDoeSmith:
Oh wait so a^n =1.
JohnDoeSmith:
yeah
So you can multiply it by 1 which is the same as multiplying it by a^n
mhm
But wouldn't that be a^-nm?
like x^a multiplied by x^b is x^ab.
Or wait no it isnt
umm no
its fine
So that would be a^n-m
I got it.
what does that have to do with b^2 though?
Oh wait
b^2 is the identity element right?
Because it has an order of 2.
yep
umm remember (b)
Thank you ><
Also sorry for being so nudgy tonight I really just wanna get this homework out of the way. I think I got this one though.
Would the element just be a with order of 6 and b with order of 2 still?
ye, give your definition of D_n
i was about to ask if D_6 only contains 2 elements a and b?
Well the previous problem said this.
So that's why I assumed it only had two elements, a and b.
yes?
yeah
i mean, if you don't even know how D_6 looks like
and this is the definition you have
you first have to figure out what all the elements in D_6 even are
and how to represent them
Different combinations of a and b? Or are a and b even elements in d6?
a and b are elements of D_6
and all other finite combinations of a and b
but you can use the relation to simplify
and thus get a finite amount of elements
Loch do you think it would be a good idea to explain the free group word thingy
Since that's basically what this is
It might make it make little more sense
Yeah sure
Okay
and the hardest part here is figuring out how D_6 looks from the definition
When they say that D_n is the group given by elements a of order n and b of order 2
so i'm kinda thinking that they covered that somewhere?
Basically what they are saying is that elements of D_n are like "words" made out of the "letters" a and b
Maybe. I don’t have classes so we don’t really cover stuff. It’s more so just our professor giving us homework, the section to read and from there it’s all on us.
That makes sense.
so what "elements a of order n" and "elements b of order 2" means is that a^n and b^2 are the same as the identity right?
Yeah, the identity element 1.
Yeah
So what they're saying is that any time a sequence of 2 b or n a comes up
which we can shorten to b^2 and a^n
we can basically "reduce" our word by collapsing that string to the identity
so in the case of D_6 if we have like, a^3b^2a^6b
we can reduce this to a^3b
Does this make sense?
Yeah I remember that. Like how with permutations, to get the order of each element of like S_3 for example, we had to take the permutations of that group and multiply them by each other until we reached the identity element.
Yes
So if you had to square a permutation to get to the identity element, the order would be 2.
Okay cool.
Would it just be different combinations of powers of a and b?
I can’t say I have. (Mainly because I don’t even know what a geometric representation is ><)
It's as symmetries of the n sided polygon
I had this for a problem earlier.
Yeah it's sort of like this
Okay cool.
For reference when they talk about elements a and b
a corresponds to rotating our shape once
in this case it would be sending 1 to 2, 2 to 3, 3 to 4, 4 to 1
so it makes sense that we say that a^n = 1, because if we have an n sided regular polygon and we rotate it around the origin n times we end up exactly where we started, right?
So the possible combinations would be
a^1
a^2
a^3
a^4
a^5
1 (a^6 or b^2)
b^1
ba^1
ba^2
ba^3
ba^4
ba^5
So all 12 right?
Yep, should be!
Okay great!
So now the order of each one. Is the order just the power of a? (or the power of b in b^1)
the order of each element?
not quite
the order of each element g is the smallest positive integer n such that g^n = e right?
Ah okay so I just have to keep multiplying until its b^2a^6
Like a^2 would have an order of 3.
Right?
yeah
Cool
But you should remember that the dihedral group isn't abelian (for n > 3 anyway)
I know, from when I was doing b in the last one. (where I had to prove $a^mb=ba^{-m}$
Soulgiver831:
Well it has to be an even number.
like if you have ba^3 the order would be 2 since (ba^3)^2=b^2a^6. Right?
Ah okay.
Well I mean I did prove from before that ba^m=a^-mb
Oh wait.
All of them would have an order of 2 since ba^m=a^-mb so you'll always have $ba^{m}a^{-m}b=b^2=1$
Soulgiver831:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
Hold on ><
right!
But yeah ^^
(heads up texit bugs anytime you put in a ^ outside of math mode lol)
Ah I gotca.
^ in latex is something weird lol
Oh and sorry, I almost forgot. Thank you very very much @maiden ocean
Lol true.
I'm new to the whole texit thing.
<3
it isnt texit
Oh is it?
it's cuz it's rendered with latex
Interesting
latex ^ is special character for idk what
if texit parses latex wrongly that is quite a interesting problem cuz it literally runs vanilla pdflatex
I also thank John and Loch but I don't wanna @ them since they're offline ><
oh np
^^
Hey in an exam I just had I had to prove that for a normal operator f on a finite-dimensional space F, F is the direct sum of Ker(f) and the orthogonal complement of Im(f). It seems impossible since if you take f=0 it leads to a contradiction (both set are F in that case). Am I wrong ?
also sorry if that's the wrong channel I didn't know whether I should post it in #linear-algebra or here but there's an ongoing conversation there
umm f=0 has ker=F
(but the image of f = 0 is zero)
oh right
orthogonal complement
yeah hmm this doesnt make much sense, because orthogonal complement of im(f) contains the kernal(f)
in this case
why does it not? the orthogonal complement of the zero space is the whole space
I'd have to think about this a bit to prove it, but I can assure you that f = 0 is not a counterexample unfortunately
but that means the direct sum of the whole space and the whole space is the whole space which doesn't make sense right ?
actually i was thinking about the general case not the counterexample specifically
but i realize what i said is wrong
That's not what you have, though; you have the direct sum of the zero space and the whole space
because i made an error
Because the kernel of the zero map is the whole space, but the image of the zero map is just zero
the formula is $Ker(f) \oplus (Im(f))^\perp = F$
plougue:
Oooh sorry I misread
Yeah that doesn't sound right at all
i think they might mean just sum, not direct sum?
i am not sure if that works in general though
That's weird though, i remember a similar statement from a functional analysis course I've once seen. Lemme quickly go through my documents
I think the identity function is a counter example for the sum ? Both terms are {0}
this was the statement i remembered
(ignore the overline, that's infinite-dimensional stuff)
But yeah, kernel of the adjoint plus image, that's a thing you can prove
i think that's it it would be coherent with the previous questions
i will ask my teacher then ! thanks
Yeah it could be that the teacher miswrote when he put the orthogonal complement over the image, who knows
At least showing that ker T^* is a subset of the orthogonal complement of T is super straightforward, yeah
you're prolly gonna need a basis argument for showing that that's everything
it's also true that im(T*) is orthogonal complement of ker(T). I wonder if that's the statement that was meant to be on the exam
oh yeah right it's the definiteness of the scalar product
Isnt it really easy to prove that Ker T* = orthogonal complement of Im T?
@chilly ocean that was the previous question of the exam
yes ! that seems like a pretty straightforward consequence if that's what he meant
So I have two permutations here. permutation x which can be any permutation and r which is equal to the permutation (a,b,c). I need to prove that xrx^-1=(x(a)x(b)x(c))
Oh I forgot I can just pose the question too.
where does xrx^-1 send \sigma(a)?
Namington:
Okay.
baby sigma
So I do it from right to left though right? Like when multiply permutation AB, you go from B to A. So like if you have (123)(135) you see 1 maps to 3 and then 3 maps to 1 so the first part of that permutation would be
(1
(1
So like here first I multiply sigma inverse by r.
Given symmetric matrices $A$ and $B$, is it always possible to find some orthonormal matrix $Q$ such that $QAQ^TB$ is symmetric? i.e. if $C = QAQ^T$ then $C$ commutes with $B$? I ask this looking for representations of $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt p, \sqrt q)$ for non-squares $p$ and $q$
datorangeguy:
I guess that I should also add that A,B, Q, and thus C would have to be matrices with rational entries...
@chilly ocean
Please let me know if I should be asking this in a different channel, but I have a question about notation
Only mildly familiar with Group Theory, so I looked up what Z_2 is and found it's the additive group of integers modulo n, e.g. {1,-1} under addition.
However, in this context I'd need to promote the 1 and -1 to I_4 and -I_4 where I_4 is the 4 x 4 identity matrix. Does that mean Z_2 can mean different things under different contexts? Moreover, I'd need to consider the group operation to be matrix multiplication now
E.g. it's just a cyclic group of order 2, but the elements themselves are not necessarily integers?
So Z_2 here is identified with the subgroup {I,-I}
👍 {I, -I} under matrix multiplication
yeah
Thank you! So Z_N can have different realisations depending on context?
so this is a bit of an abuse of notation here
since wikipedia seems to call Z the additive group for integers and Z_N additive groups for integers modulo n
ah ok, I just got a little confused since it's so hard to find anything talking about this explicitly
you can kind of formalize this notation with group actions
the group Z_2 acts on SL(2,C) by sending a matrix M to -M
then you can mod out by this action, written SL(2,C)/Z_2
Does Z_2 only send M to - M or also back to M? i.e. M --> M and -M?
ok
and they just act by scalar multiplication
ooh wikipedia refers to Z_N as additive though
you should just thing of Z_2 as the unique group with 2 elements
instead of in any specific context
that makes me more comfortable with then using G/Z_2 in different contexts
I guess strictly the groups SO(1,3) and SL(2,C) themselves are more abstract than the 4 x 4 and 2 x 2 matrix reps but in some contexts the matrices are just said to form those groups.
In a similar way, Z_2 is more abstract than just {1, -1} and I was incorrectly seeing Z_2 as defined by {1,-1} (mostly because of the quote "Every finite cyclic group of order n is isomorphic to the additive group of Z/nZ, the integers modulo n" from wikipedia)
that helps a lot, thank you!
Is this correct?: Let R be a ring. Then any R-module is the epimorphic image of a free R-module. proof. Let P be an R-module, then let <P> denote the free R-module generated by the set P. Here I am using X to denote some basis of <P>. Here we may have X = P (and f = 1), and f^ being the natural projection epimorphism (<P> is isomorphic to R^(rank<P>) --->> P). Is it a problem that we don't know if <P> is finitely generated, even though it must be freely generated (no, right?) ?
(Yes I proved earlier that any R-module is the homomorphic image of a free module, that was trivial, this ^^^ idk if I'm using all the concepts correctly)
Should I just use the fact instead that <P> is an R-module containing the R-module P, so that P must be <P>/K for some submodule K of <P>, then just use projection <P> --->> <P>/K?
<@&286206848099549185> ^^^
it seems that f^ is all you need
if P is infinite then <P> is not finitely generated
wouldn't <Z> = Z be a counterexample to that though?
my understanding is that the sums in <P> are purely formal. so e.g. in that example, 2+3 and 5 are different
yeah^
your map f^ collapses things down so that they become equal
f^ would map an element r_1 p_1 + ... + r_n p_n over to r_1 p_1 + ... + r_n p_n, which looks like the identity map, except that the sum in the domain is just a symbol whereas the sum in the codomain is the operation of the R module P
Ah ok that makes sense now
thank you
Are the sums formal for free objects in any category?
i don't know enough about category theory to answer that
On the last lap here (Until tomorrow when I get another thing of homework because summer classes suck.)
I know what permutations are in S_4 but I’m a bit unsure of how to do this. Lemme grab theorem 10 though.
I’ll be honest I just suck at notation reading.
do you understand how that group action works?
Group action? Like the binary operator?
S_4 acting on polynomials in 4 variables
for example (13) would map (x_1 - x_2)(x_3 - x_4) over to (x_3 - x_2)(x_1 - x_4). it just acts on the subscripts
Oh okay so I’m looking for a permutation that keep it the same then?
yeah, it wants you to find all of them
Or permutations that keep it the same.
I know one is the identity element.
Could another one be just (4321)?
what polynomial do you end up with when applying that
Wait sorry that would just make it backwards.
Oh could another one be (13)(24)?
Because it would be the same since it just swaps both of them right?
yup
there won't be that many
but here's a hint to make it slightly easier. what you're actually computing is called the stabilizer of that polynomial. and stabilizers are always subgroups
so at the very least, however many you find, it should divide |S_4| = 24
So a subgroup of (12)(34)?
a subgroup of S_4
Ah okay.
that also means that if you find 2 answers, you can compose them in S_4 to get another answer
take powers of them, or invert them
Okay cool. So right now I can’t do that though since the only ones I know are the identity element and (13)(24)
right. and there may not be enough of them to really need to do that. it's just for your info
the real point was that the number of them should divide 24
So if I somehow find 5 I know there’s at least 1 more.
exactly
Just being sure I get this, the subgroups of s4 are e,(12),(23),(34),(13),(14),(24),(123),(134),(234),(321),(431),(432),(1234),(4321),(4312),and (2134) I think that’s all of them.
those are the elements you are listing. are there are 24 of them
yes they are different
in the first case 3 is sent to 1, but in the second case 3 is sent to 2
Okay so then there’s also (13)(24), (12)(34), (23)(14). I can’t think of what the last 2 could be.
you missed 124
it would probably be good practice. you'll probably notice some shortcuts after you get going through them
Okay so how would (123) work? Like would it just map them as such so like (x2-x3)(x1-x4)?
yes exactly
Okay cool.
Idk if I’m doing this entirely right but so far I got that none of these outside of e are correct.
you found a non identity one earlier though
I know I just meant out of those.
oh. yeah should be correct
there are 2 others. they are a little subtle
2 that I listed?
So it has to be two more of the dual 2 cycles like (13)(24) was?
yeah check them again
(12)(34) would make it (x2-x1)(x4-x3)
And (23)(14) would make it (x4-x3)(x2-x1)
So it can’t be either of those right?
you did it right. but these are polynomials, so you are checking if the answer you get is equal to what you started with as polynomials
that would be one way. but manipulate through algebra, yeah
Ah okay.
Okay great all done with a.
How would the second one work? B.
I can post it again so we don’t have to scroll up.
it's just a different polynomial
that polynomial is (x_1+x_2)(x_1 + x_3)(x_1+x_4)(x_2+x_3)(x_2+x_4)(x_3+x_4)
Sorry but could you help me with this one? I know how to do it but I have to turn this in in 15 minutes.
there's probably some shortcut you can use, like applying a theorem or making some observation. but i think every permutation works there
it's a symmetric polynomial i believe
hm i wonder if there is a neat way with determinants
So for these first few questions, all I have to do is just tell if they're true or false but I'm a bit weary since he's marked it as "extra credit" for our upcoming exam next week. That is to say that we don't actually have to do these but if we do, extra points. But I also feel like because of that some of these are going to be really stupid trick questions, like the answer is super obvious and I'm going to end up over thinking it.
Like for that first one. It really really feels like that isn't right because I remember the one on the right was like the LCM of the two on the left but again, I might just be stupid rn.
Well try disprovingit
Well like the first one that popped into my head was p=3
But like the lcm(3,3) is still 3. So it is also isomorphic to Z_3 right?
No? Z3xZ3 has order 9 while Z3 has order3
Is your notation of Z_p the same as Z/pZ?
yea people use Z_n=Z/nZ ;-;
Yea then it's true
uhh
Okay that's what I was thinking. Idk where I was getting the lcm thing from.
I get it if you're talking on discord but on homework 
In any case, yes that is true, in fact I had that question on my assiggnment this week lol
it isnt lol maybe yours is a slightly different statement
Oh ok
Try what i suggested
Well z3xz3 is all combinations of (1-3,1-3) while z9 is just 1-9 night?
Umm this isnt a good way to think of this tbh
Oh sorry ><
The numbers dont really mean anything. Its the operation thats important
Oh is it that one creates a set of pairs while the other creates a set of just numbers?
Okay, if it makes it any easier btw, I can get into voice. I know it's easier to talk than type (at least for me it is <->)
alright back
Coolio
hmm so tell me what Z3xZ3 is, and its operation
The operation pairs the two numbers.
So for example if you had z2xz2 the set would be (1,1),(1,0),(0,1),(0,0)
Or wait no.
Yeah
(because we care about the classes and class of 2 is the same as that of 0)
now what is the binary operation
well every group must have a binary operation right
Yeah
well ok so ig let me make it clear
lets say we have $G, G'$ two groups with operations $\cdot_G, \cdot_{G'}$ then $G\times G'$ has the underlying set be the usual product of sets and operation $(g,g') \cdot_{G\times G'} (h,h') = (g \cdot_G h, g' \cdot_{G'} h')$
JohnDoeSmith:
Kinda. I think I'd understand it better with an example. Like Z2xZ2. How is it doing that there?
so operation for Z2 is addition module 2 right
Yes
so like 1+1=0, 0+1=1,0+0=0
so then you would have in Z2xZ2
(1,0)+(0,1)= (1,1)
and like (1,1)+(1,0)=(0,1)
Okay so you're just doing that with all the combinations?
yeah that is the group operation
Okay cool.
so do you know what the order of a group and element is
yeah thats order of an element
For a group I think it's the number of elements within it.
Yeah
so if two groups are the same, they must have elements of the same order right
Yeah I remember that was some sort of theorem.
(also its smallest n such that a^n=e just incase you didnt mean that)
well actually try proving it
precisely that the image of an element under an isomorphism has to have the same order
well (0,0) is the identity in Z2xZ2
then (1,0) has an order of 2, (same with (0,1) and (1,1)
yep
So 1 element of order 1, 3 elements of order 2
what about Z4
While z4 though has 3 which has an order of 4. 3,6,9,12 right?
yeah 3 has order 4
or 3,2,1,0
(so does 1)
Well there you go, they can't be isomorphic then right?
mhm
Okay perfect!
do you see how this exact logic would extend to all p
Well yeah since zpxzp will only have an order up to p but p^2 can have an order up to, well, p^2
yup
sure
its just ${13 n: n\in \bZ}$
JohnDoeSmith:
Ah okay.
and operation is addition ofcourse
Well then it's already wrong because the first set has 13 and the other set has 17 right?
They do both have infinite order I believe though.
thats not sufficient for an isomorphism usually i think
but umm do you know what an isomorphism is
It's a homomorphism that's also onto and one-to-one.
Just being sure, a homo is where phi(m)+phi(n) is equal to phi(m+n) or something like that?
Sorry it's been a bit,
yeah
Okay well that would be like phi(17)+phi(13) has to equal phi(30)
But how do I know what phi is doing?
17 is not in both sets
Oh it has to be an element in both sets.
JohnDoeSmith:
Isn't bijection like the onto and one to one part?
yeah
Well onto is like phi(phi(x)) is equal to x right?
and one to one is if phi(x)=phi(y) then x=y
umm one-to-one (aka injection) is that f(x)=f(y) => x=y and onto (aka surjection) is that everything in the codomain is in the image of f
image?
well the image of f, say f(G) is everything of the form f(g) for g in G
that means everything in the codomain is of the form f(g) for some g
Oh okay I think I remember that.
Well there's 0, the identity element since n can equal 0.
Right?
yeah
Okay so do I need to somehow prove it for all n?
Or if I can show 1 of them is that good enough?
So like a formula or something? Like f is taking 17n-4n to get 13n?
sure, just tell me how f maps each 13n to an element of 17Z
Is it that like you add 4n in that case? so if n =2 then 13n=26, +4n is +8 which would be 34 which is 17n.
i mean yeah sure that is the map, just more concisely say f(13n)=17n which is what i assume you mean?
Yeah
(another way to show instead of checking injective and surjective is there exists some f:G->H and g:G->H such that fg is the identity on H and gf is identity on G)
show this is a homomorphism now
and then show bijection by either what i said or what ari said
Well for homomorphism I need elements n and m that are in both groups right?
(try both ways it's good practice)
Okay. First for homomorphism though, like is that right?
oh umm homo means f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b) for a,b in the domain group
a+b by definition has to be in the domain since G is closed under the operation (+ in this case)
and yes they can be the same
That makes sense.
Well yeah it's the same because that would just be f(13n+13n)=f(13n)+f(13n)
So that would be f(26n)=34n which is on the right side as well.
So it's an isomorphism.
umm show f(13n+13m)=f(13n)+f(13m) to show its a homo
Well that would be f(26n) on the left which is 34n.
On the right f(13n)=17n and 17n+17n is also 34n.
n and m being disctinct
you need to show that f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b) for all pairs a,b \in 13Z
well yeah that covers them all because 13n is the whole set right? So no matter what you put in for n. It works.
yeah
and f is 13n to 17n right?
mhm
I'm sorry I just can't get this. What could I put in for all 13n for both a and b?
Other than 13n
so all elements are of the form 13n
