#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 484 of 407
yea cool
So that would complete my proof
so to make this proof look 100% better
write this using sum notation
sum(a_ib_i)
thats x^
but u get the idea
got it?
Got it
cool
Thanks very much :)
np
Go ahead with ur question
thanks
Prove that the ideal pZ/p^mZ is a nilpotent ideal in the ring Z/p^mZ
so id guess pZ/p^mZ = {pa(p^mZ) | for integer a}?
i dont know how that even looks like tbh
Can someone sanity check my exact sequence? https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3704264/exact-sequence-of-ideals-intersection-product-direct-sum-sum?noredirect=1#comment7612698_3704264
I'm really not sure I'm doing it right...
Is anyone able to do 3b/c
This is how far Iβve got I just donβt know how to finish it
@solemn rain you can just think of Z/p^mZ as taking mod p^m
What are the elements of (pZ/p^mZ)^n for some n?
(ap^(m),bp^(n)) ??
@golden pasture not sure at all
where a and b are integers
wait wait thats for n =2
so (a,b,c,....,n)
@final dove image of g is just (0,0). (-i,i) is in the kernel of h but not image of g
yea
smt like that
Like for example 2Z/8Z, this consists of elements (0,2,4,6)
okay so yea i think what is aid is right then
where a = px for some x in mod p^m?
[11:42 PM]
and so on ..
wait as in?
elements of (pZ/p^mZ)^n
ah yea i meant that as ideal multiplication
ohhh
cuz we're trying to show it's nilpotent
is it always ideal multiplication
in th context of nilpotency
lmao yea
okay
okay soo
so any element in (pZ/p^mZ) would be a number that is in mod p^m and a multiple of p right?
yup
okay so that to the n is
(pZ/p^mZ)^2 for example = {ab | a in pZ/p^mZ and b in same}
right?
just making sure
i think
(pZ/p^mZ)^m should be 0?? not sure at all
cuz like
its the set of all products
they all have p a common factor
so p(abcd....) where all these are mod p^m
yup
if a_i are in pZ/p^mZ, then a_i=pb_i for some b_i in Z/p^mZ
Product of a_i from i=1 to k is p^k <product of b_i>
yup
are you in a group?
You can take G = Z_2 x Z_4
and the two isomorphic subgroups generated by (1,0) and (0,2)
but the first quotient is Z_4 whereas the second quotient is Z_2 x Z_2
R/Z, [0,1]/Z
How does Z act on [0, 1]?
It shouldn't be
Hmm can you take 2 copies of R and define a funny Z action which sends (1, r) to (2, r+1) and (2, r) to (1, r+1)
you can find for diffeomorphisms, like that
Would that give you S^1?
and take the symetry action for both
it will make the same space, but these aren't diffeomorphic
yeah your example seems to work fine @woven delta
So the homeomorphism to R/Z is just [(i, r)] \mapsto [r]
You have to check this is a homeo but it's not too bad
Can anyone help with this question? I've been stuck on it for a while
I'm not entirely sure where to start; my groups&rings lecture notes are quite bad
part a?
we'd start with a ye
well (i) is just a computation, nothing to do with groups really
ah sorry I meant ii and beyond
I was given a definition of an isomorphism in my notes but I don't really understand bi/in/surjections well enough to actually understand isomorphism
aight, so injections are functions where if f(a) = f(b), then a = b
what answer did you get for (i)?
ie. when no two items map to the same output
what answer did you get for (i)?
pi*i
and surjections are functions where for any element k in the output set, there exists x such that f(x) = k
(simplifies to ln(-1))
that can't be right. theta maps into R+
i haven't done the computation but i'd wager it's ln(1) = 0
no
it actually helps with the second part, since you don't really need to show theta is a bijection in the usual way
it evaluates to y
@split knot so what does it mean if $\theta\left(\frac{e^y-1}{e^y+1}\right) = y$?
maximwebb:
uh
it is a lot of like brute forcing here but it is easier if you consider the map by tanh, so x=tanh(u), y=tanh(v)
I may be out of my depth here
alright, i'll give you a couple of pointers
so the first part basically shows that $\theta$ has an inverse
maximwebb:
ie. if we define a new function $\phi(x) = \frac{e^x -1}{e^x+1}$, then $\theta(\phi(x)) = x$
maximwebb:
(which is the definition of an inverse)
now bijections have two definitions - one is that they are functions that are both surjective and injective (which i defined previously)
the other is that they have an inverse
presumably they need to satisfy both
nah, they are equivalent definitions
so if a function is surjective & injective, then it is invertible
and vice versa
so we can write $\theta^{-1}(x) = \phi = \frac{e^x-1}{e^x+1}$, and conclude that $\theta$ is both surjective and injective
maximwebb:
So with injective and surjective, distinct x's correspond to distinct y's, every x corresponds to a y, so that means all x's have distinct y pairs which would make it bijective/invertible
And with the new function, you prove that it's the inverse of the original which means it's bijective, which then means it's also in+surjective
yeh that's right
it's worth writing out the full proof, as an exercise
but that aside, look back at the question
do you remember the other requirement for a function to be an isomorphism
theta : G -> H being bijective means theta is an isomorphism from my notes, our H here being this I think
(Sorry, idk how to type in latex)
an isomorphism is sometimes called a "structure-preserving bijection"
which means informally "things behave the same inside the map as they do outside the map"
$\theta: G \rightarrow H$
Eddie:
in symbols, that means for $a, b \in G, ; \theta(a * b) = \theta(a)\theta(b)$
maximwebb:
I think I see where you're going with that
for example, if you define a map $f: (\mathbb{R}, +) \rightarrow (\mathbb{R}, \cdot)$ by $f(x) = e^{x}$, then you can see that it preserves structure
maximwebb:
since $f(a + b) = e^{a+b} = e^a e^b = f(a)f(b)$
maximwebb:
functions that have that property are called homomorphisms. If a function is a homomorphism, and is bijective, then it is an isomorphism
so I need to prove that theta(x * y)=theta(x) + theta(y)?
(uhhh not * as in multiply, I mean the operation at the top of the Q)
ah sorry, yeah I got that they're both equal to:
oh that's not rotated properly
but ye I think that's correct
,rotate
thanks haha
yeah that looks fine i think
so in conclusion, because they're equal theta is a homomorphism and because it's also a bijection, theta is therefore an isomorphism
it's normally a bit neater to have one chain starting from f(ab) and ending with f(a)f(b) (or vice versa), but this is a bit of an annoying operation to work with so that's fine
yeah I was thinking about doing LHS = RHS downthe page, I just didn't have much space left
yup, but make it clear that (i) shows it's an invertible function, and therefore it must be a bijection
that's how I used to do trigonometric proofs
ah yeah above that I discussed how it's invertible
perfect
(((please ignore my handwriting lol)))
kinda ugly, slightly nicer solution:
Let $x=\tanh u$, $y=\tanh v$. Then $x*y=\tanh(u+v)$.
Recall $\tanh x=\frac{e^{2x}-1}{e^{2x}+1}$ and $\tanh^{-1}x=\frac12\log\frac{1+x}{1-x}$
ariana:
been a while since I've seen tanh surprisingly
same
such a neglected function :(
ngl I haven't touched hyperbolic trig in about 2 years i.e. not while I've been at uni
kinda sad :/
btw, which textbook are you using?
I'm not
oh right, so lecture notes?
ah sorry, ye
the module is called Algebra and Number Theory so it's split into groups, rings and number theory
the question comes from a specimen paper for an upcoming exam, I have 3 more on the other topics
this is what i used, it's generally pretty good either as a reference or for learning from
343 pages of loveliness huh
i used jacobson algebra
ahh I love it when PDFs have links
tbf that's 343 pages to go all the way up to galois theory
ah that's a module i can take in third year
v cool area of maths
I'll cross that bridge when I come to it heh
my lecture notes usually don't ariana π¦
idk how some libgen scanned books have
good ol libgen
none of my modules have textbooks so I never need it heh
aight so
I think I'm slightly more confident with part b because I actually know what cyclic means
spoilers lmao
oh oops
lol its fine, for a sec i thought you posted the actual answer lol
yeah e is sometimes used as the identity element
ah ok
I feel like this is probably useful but ngl my confidence is gone rip
turns out I'm not very good at this module : )
algebra is hard, dw about it
that theorem certainly helps
have you come across langrange's theorem?
That'd be this guy
ngl, I don't really understand how the fact that something divides something else is useful outside of proving something's prime
so the # of elements in A divides that of B... so what?
you can flip the way you think about it
we use divisibility results to ascertain facts about groups
so for example, say if I give you a group G of order 37, and I ask you to find all the subgroups of it
you might start by saying that the identity has to be included, so that leaves 36 elements to either include or exclude - so 2^36 different potential subgroups to check
or about 7x10^10 subsets
haha no i was making a slightly different point, but yeah that result is cool as well
but basically, lagrange tells you that the subgroup order has to divide 37 - so the only subgroups have size 1 or 37 (since 37 is prime)
which is a substantial improvement over checking 70 billion sets
smiley face π
well, I took the module because proving that a thing is what it is is cool
however
it's hard and hurts my brain
true lol
I haven't really focused on this module in my revision so it's definitely my weakest, plus this specimen paper is due in a day and a half
gotta crack on lol
rip
least I've still got a couple weeks till the actual exam
definitely spend some time on the basics once you've done this hw
for sure
ie. just bash out as many exercises from that textbook i linked as you have time for
I will mate, cheers for that link it'd be useful to have textbooks to go alongside my lecturer's notes
as I said the notes for this module aren't great, it's a pretty big module that got interrupted by 2 strikes and the coronavirus
yeah ig you
i do cs, and had a similar thing for our operating systems course lol
lecture notes with rhetorical questions on most slides, and blank spaces where i guess he would have elaborated if he'd shown up for the lectures lol
yeah that can be annoying if you just want to get through it
that's just because it's not examinable but like, other lecturers include stuff like that for interest
sometimes there's whole sections on non examinable but cool stuff
right anyway lol I wanna see how far we can get through this Q before I need to go to bed
ok so
To get the cartesian product of A and B in part b, I'm presumably gonna need abs(A)* abs(B)=abs(A* B), then because A=B, abs(A) divides abs(B) aaaaaaaaaand I've said a lot of things but idk how to actually use said things
the cartesian product is just the set of ordered pairs from the two sets
if X={a, b} and Y={c, d}, then X x Y = {(a, c), (a, d), (b, c), (b, d)}
|X x Y| = |X||Y|, which you should be able to see somewhat intuitively
so there are 9 elements in A x B
ok ye I see that
so AxB={(e,e), (e,x), (e,x^2), (x, e), (x, x), (x, x^2), (x^2, e), (x^2, x), (x^2, x^2)}
I think
maybe
don't get bogged down with A and B
|AxB| is 9
if H is a subgroup of AxB, what are the possible sizes H can be?
well |H| divides 9 so |H| is 1, 3 or 9
nice
is it correct then that the subgroup list is just [every combo of 1 element], [every combo of 3 elements], [the 9 element combo]
wdym by "every combo of 1 element"
ah sorry
I mean like {(e,e)}, {(e,x)}... then {(e,e), (e,x), (e,x^2)}, {(e,x), (e,x^2), (x, e)}... then {(e,e), (e,x), (e,x^2), (x, e), (x, x), (x, x^2), (x^2, e), (x^2, x), (x^2, x^2)}
an important thing with lagrange's theorem is that the converse isn't truee
err if that makes any more sense lol
"If H is a subgroup of G, then |H| divides |G|"
the converse doesn't hold though: "If |H| divides |G|, then H is a subgroup of G"
in your list, {(e,x)} is not a subgroup, because it doesn't contain the identity (e, e)
lagrange only tells you if a set isn't a subgroup
oh wait so
ok
{(e,e)} and {(e,e), (e,x), (e,x^2), (x, e), (x, x), (x, x^2), (x^2, e), (x^2, x), (x^2, x^2)} are the only valid order 1 and 9 subgroups because only they have (e,e) in them
...but by that logic there's like a l o t of order 3 subgroups, I think
there are a lot of candidates for order 3 subgroups
84 of them
well, technically only 28, as we know that they have to contain (e,e)
that's not with the (e,e) restru
ye
you posted before I finished lol
that;s a lot to write out
please tell me there's a shorthand/something I've overlooked ;_;
so remember the other criteria for groups
they need to be associative, invertible and closed
the third one is the most helpful here for ruling out potential options
that being with a and b being in AxB, a β b is also in AxB
just write ab
all of the order 3 subgroups are cyclic since they are prime order. so you can just look at each element
so <(e, e)> = {(e, e)}, <(e, x)> = {(e, e), (e, x), (e, x^2)}, etc
is that notation the same as the symbols around a and b in the question?
throwing out the identity, you have 8 elements that generate subgroups. some of them will generate the same subgroup
<x> is defined as all of the elements that can be generated by repeatedly multiplying by x
so <x> = {x^0, x^1, x^2, ...}
(where x^n is just xβxβ...βx)
ah so here I'd just go <(e, e)> = {(e, e)}, <(e, x)> = {(e, e), (e, x), (e, x^2)}, <(e,x^2)> = {(e, e), (e, x^2)}, and then <(x, e)> and <(x^2, e)> are sets 2 and 3 but flipped
(saves me writing them out if you get me)
careful though
because if we look at <(e, x^2)>
we have (e, x^2)^0, (e, x^2)^1, (e, x^2)^2
which is (e, e), (e, x^2), (e, x^4) = (e, e), (e, x^2), (e, x)
ahh sorry I misinterpreted your notation, right ye so the multiplication applies to the whole of (a,b) not just the part that's x
mb
yeah
or rather, that's how multiplication is defined in the cartesian product of groups
so because the group is cyclic, (e, x^2)^2=(e, x^4) would cycle through (e, e) to (e, x) right? That's how you got to (e, x)?
am I right in thinking it's like going from (e, x^2) back to (e, e) then (e, x) that is
yeah because it's like going 3 steps through 4 (1,2,3) then ending up at the first step again (1)
that's how I think about it anyway
so to correct myself (hopefully lol):
<(e, e)> = {(e, e)}, <(e, x)> = {(e, e), (e, x), (e, x^2)}, <(e,x^2)> = {(e, e), (e, x^2), (e, x)}, then <(x, e)> and <(x^2, e)> are sets 2 and 3 but flipped
sets also have no ordering on them, so sets 2 and 3 are the same
oh true
which would mean the latter two are also the same
(<(x, e)> and <(x^2, e)>)
yep
so actually I only have 3 order 3 subgroups
where'd the 3rd come from?
there are more than that
1 order 1 (identity), 2 order 3 ({(e, e), (e, x), (e, x^2)}, {(e, e), (x, e), (x^2, e)}) and 1 order 9, no?
well have you done them now lol
perfect
sexy
that was a whole lot of tedious writing for a 5 mark question though
is there no way of speeding that up? Or like some notation that summarises it?
yeh, i mean with practice you'll get quicker
(well, the Q asked for a "list" so maybe not)
true
plus I was writing on keyboard not pen and paper
also, once you're more used to the idea of cyclic groups and how they're generated, you'll spot straight away that things like <(e, x)> and <(e, x^2)> are the same group
yes, in a group of prime order, any non-identity element will generate the whole group. so <x> = <x^2> in your case, which implies <(x,e)> = <(x^2,e)>
yeah, now that we've gone through that question it seems pretty trivial to see how to cycle through the set now
like well yeah of course x^4 leads round to x
so for this next question, do you know what the order of an element in a group is
that's the same as the period right? I've heard that
(e,x)^1=(e,x), (e,x)^2=(e,x^2), (e,x)^3=(e,x^3)=(e,e) so 3
so an immediate result from lagrange's theorem is that the order of any element |g| divides the order of the group |G|
the order of an element is also equal to the order of the subgroup the element generates
the order of (e,x) being 3 means that ye it divides the order of the group, 9
and (e,x) generated a subgroup of order 3, so that works too
yep
(side note: sick album choice maxim haha)
lmao thanks
ok so now we test with (e,x)^2 I suppose
v chill listening late
for sure
i mean we're doing question c
bit more chill than TPAB lol
ah well I mean for like the understanding of what c is asking
ah right
oh actually it probably doesn't want examples from b when it says "give examples"
nvm back to generality lol
alright
it doesnt say G is finite
just that it's some group
ah shit true
Lagrange's theorem needs it to be finite, that seems like an issue
it's still worth doing the finite case though
can we then just extend the conclusion to infinite groups?
or would it require another method
just thinking it through
i mean i think it's actually reasonably straightforward
so the order of g is the smallest n such that g^n = 1
suppose n is finite
and consider (g^2)^n = (g^n)^2 = 1^2 = 1
so the order of g^2 is at most n
so no lagrange required actually
yeah the order of G doesn't really matter because you're only working in the subgroup <g>
should probably go to sleep, it's half 3 where i am lol
same for me^^
but yeah, hope some of that was helpful
ah why does g^n need to be 1? why not e?
two main bits of notation that are relaxed with groups
a o b is just written ab
and the identity is just written as 1, unless there's a good reason to otherwise (say when talking about addition)
anyway, night dude
night mate, thanks so much for your help! π
nw, hope it helped clarify things a bit
no problem
I'll definitely be here tomorrow with more from this paper so keep an eye out 
and consider (g^2)^n = (g^n)^2 = 1^2 = 1
hm so by this logic the order of g and of g^2 is at most n, but I'm asked to give an example where the order of g > the order of g^2
right
i.e. if they both have the same order, how can one be greater than the other?
if |g|=n, then that equation shows |g^2| <= n
because order is the smallest positive integer that gives 1
I'm not sure I understand why it has to be "at most 1"
is it just that we don't know what we're squaring so somehow it might be that the order of g^2 might be <n?
because all you've showed is that raising g^2 to the power n gives 1. there could be a smaller number that also gives 1
it will be more clear when you see an example. so try looking at the groups you know of and see if you can find one
i think that was part of the problem anyway
turns out it's quite hard to find a > example from part b ;_;
true, that one doesn't work
it shouldn't be too hard to find one. get some rest
@golden pasture is it possible to fix the exact sequence in (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3704264/exact-sequence-of-ideals-intersection-product-direct-sum-sum) wrt g?
anyone know calc 3
Is there a good reference for the representation theory of the symmetric group "from the ground up"?
I want the book to ideally assume I don't know what a representation is, and end with me knowing how to compute the irreducibles of the representation of Sn
@final dove i doubt so tbh
@golden pasture is it because IJ is "multiplication-like", which does not work well module-wise?
like, what is your intuition on this
not rlly like mapping I intersect J to I oplus J is kind of unnatural
going from a single element to 2 eleemts
hmm
but we do use f: R -> R oplus R; f(r) = (r, r) often enough right?
so that didn't seem too weird to me?
hm true
actually
maybe can try (a,b)->a-b
but then the image of f is not in the kernel of g
since g has trivial kernel
a - b is the same as a + b, no?
the kernel is not
Let Z[X] be the ring of polynomials with integer coeficients.
How is the ideal (2, X) of Z[X] defined?
I don't understand this notation.
elements of the form 2a+Xb with a,b \in Z[X]
Ty!
Try proving itβs not principal to see if you understand
@chilly ocean what you want to do is use the other inclusion
JohnDoeSmith:
JohnDoeSmith:
@upper pivot
I see, and proving this implication as false would be it, right?
yeah show both cannot happen
So, using my notation:
d(x) = c0 + c1Β·x + ... + cnΒ·x^n
Therefore:
2 \in d(x) => c1 = 0
x \in d(x) => c1 β 0
Therefore we reach a contradiction.
Is this it?
the first one is wrong
x \in (d(x)) doesnt mean c1 != 0
particularly x\in (1)
(but thats the only exception, otherwise its fine)
I don't get you.
My reasoning is as follows:
x \in d(x) = c0 + c1Β·x + ... + cnΒ·x^n => c0 = 0, c1 β 0, c2 = ... = cn = 0
I'm treating the inclusion as an equality so surely thre's my mistake, but I don't understand
So I'm saying x is a multiple of c0 + c1Β·x + ... + cnΒ·x^n
Therefore c1 != 0
Because if c1 = 0, a multiple of c0 + c1Β·x + ... + cnΒ·x^n will never be x
well as i said there is one exception, i.e 1
Got it!
2 = d(x)Β·p(x) => d0Β·p0 = 2, d0p1 + d1p0 = 0
x = d(x)Β·q(x) => d0Β·q0 = 0, d0Β·q1 + d1Β·q0 = 1
Which is a contradiction
I was misunderstanding the (d(x)) concept
Thanks @upper pivot
uhh whats your contradiction, btw you could just look at divisors of 2 and divisors of x
||The contradiction is that d(x) has to be Β±1 and therefore Β±1 = 2a(X) + Xb(X) with a(x),b(x) \in Z[X] => Β±1 = 2a0 which is a contradiction because a0 has to be in Z||
Is that reasoning correct?
yeah thats the idea i was going for
Thanks!!
btw you should spoiler that/delete cause i want him to work it out too
@chilly ocean you can see this easier as follows: 2 in (d(x)) means 2 = P(x)d(x) for some P, and then 0 = deg P(x) + deg d(x) => deg d(x) = 0. and then since x in (d(x)) it must be +-1
Nice alternative reasoning, thanks
btw you should spoiler that/delete cause i want him to work it out too
@upper pivot
Omw sorry
For this question, I've got an answer which is correct (99% sure), but my mate's method was different to mine, he wrote out a massive grid and somehow made conclusions from it whereas I used mod logic
I don't think I understand how to instantly draw the conclusion that 3 and 15 are irreducible from that mess of a table - are both methods equally valid? If so I'm going with mods π
Christ please don't write out a grid
It's pretty obvious which are which lol
It's a unit if it's coprime to 18
Ye I understand how you'd quickly find the units and non-units
I think the grid is for the purpose of finding irreducibles, though
You know, I said it was obvious, but now I'm having trouble sorting them out lol
I'm sure there's a few ways to make this quick. Let me think
sure
the units are easy, {1,5,7,11,13,17} and non-units {2,3,4,6,8,9,10,12,14,15,16}, I like the modulo method for separating (ir)redecibles I think
Quick way to get a few is the mapping Z β Z/18Z. Anything irreducible stays irreducible
By "a few" I mean "literally just 3 lol"
Actually also 2
are you saying you found 2 to be irreducible?
Oh wait fk no I did my logic backwards
should be 3 and 15 pretty sure
Hah you're right, factors become units
@split knot do you know about maximal ideals and quotient rings?
what theorems do you have available to use?
How do I give the addition and multiplication table of a field having 8 elements?
IamDerek:
I'm not sure how I'd even come up with that hint to begin with :/
IamDerek: the field of 8 elements is the splitting field of that polynomial over F_2
@bleak abyss So can I just say that 'a' is a root of the above polynomial in F_2 and use elements 1,a,a^2,...,a^6, as my non-zero elements?
Well, that's using one representation of the elements
But then the addition table becomes trickier
Yeah I'm seeing that
Try factoring this first and see what happens
Well, you won't do it into all linear factors
But factor over F_2
Into irreducibles
Alternatively
I think you can cite a theorem which says something like
x^{p^n} - x is the product of all monic irreducible polynomials whose degree divides n
Over F_p
So in this case
x^8 - x = x(x-1)(x^3 + x^2 + 1)(x^3 + x + 1)
If you didn't wanna cite this theorem you'd pull out a factor of x and x-1, and then you'd say okay, this polynomial is separable so there are no more linear factors. Well, the guy left over has degree 6 so that splits either into 3 quadratic factors or 2 cubic factors. But there aren't 3 irreducible quadratics over F_2
So it has to break down this way
The point here is that you can write F_8 = F_2[x]/(x^3 + x + 1)
Or F_8 = F_2[x]/(x^3 + x^2 + 1)
And now you have something concrete you can work with, just write out that
Makes sense?
I mean so, I gave the sort of sneaky ways to do it using higher up facts
In one case you're really just using that x^8 - x is separable over F_2, which is in principle a computation
And then just being clever
In another you're using a bit of a more high powered fact that x^{p^n} - x is the product of monic irreducibles over F_p of degree dividing n
But if you don't want either you can just do it by force
Like okay linear polynomials over F_2 are just x and x-1
I haven't covered separable polynomials yet. Does that just mean it's reducible?
Separable means that in an algebraic closure, it doesn't have multiple roots
Equivalently, coprime to its derivative
But yeah so there's a direct way
Let's start from 0
The linear polynomials over F_2 are just x and x-1
Both are obv irreducible, not much to say there
Okay let's look at quadratics
Well, if a quadratic polynomial factors, it has a root. But the possibilities for the root here are just 0 and 1
So really you can just say hmm, 0 is a root of a polynomial over F_2 iff the constant term is 0
1 is a root of a polynomial over F_2 iff the number of terms is even (since it's just 1 + ... + 1 mod 2)
So okay we need a quadratic with non-zero constant term and an odd number of terms. x^2 + x + 1
That's our only choice
Same reasoning for cubics
Wait
Okay, so you're saying that x^2 + x + 1 is irreducible over F_2?
(I think that's what you're saying anyway)
try 0 try 1 lol
Assume it factored, it'd have a root
0 isn't a root, 1 isn't a root
gg
And that's the only irreducible quadratic over F_2
Now let's see cubics
x^3 + ax^2 + bx + c where (a,b,c)\in F_2
Well again, the cubic is irreducible iff neither 0 nor 1 are roots. Well, for 0 not to be a root, c=1
For 1 not to be a root, the number of terms must be odd. So either a=0 and b=1 or vice versa
So the irreducible cubics over F_2 are x^3 + x^2 + 1 and x^3 + x + 1
Ah
So then I get x(x-1)(x^3+x+1)(x^3+x^2+1)
and I've factored that polynomial into irreducible factors in F_2
Yeah to factor x^8 - x, in principle the reasoning would be like
Okay without even thinking you can turn it into x(x-1)(x^6 + x^5 + x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x + 1)
YEah
And now the idea is to say hmm, well if I factor a degree 6
I either will factor it into 1+5, 2+4, or 3+3
This guy doesn't have a root so 1+5 is out
It's either a 1/5, 2/4, or 3/3
Well, in the 2+4 case, does x^2 + x + 1 divide it? You can try it and see that the answer is no
So it's gotta be 3+3
So then it must be a 3/3 if it's reducible.
Yup
So you can just try stuff until you're done
That's kinda the long way but it works
Okay, so back to constructing this field of 8 elements
I can take F_2[x] and quotient out by one of my degree 3 irreducibles
Ahhhhh
In the previous problem they ask for doing something similar, but with x^4-x over F_2. I now see I did it not as nicely π
Thanks for your help
Please correct me if I'm in the wrong chat for this, but is there a canonical way of generalizing the notion of a norm on a vector space, to any algebraic structure? Namely one that can be embedded in a structure that has an identity in each operation (I suppose, one that is a monoid in each operation in particular) (idk if it would be say: triangle inequality and positive definite in a fixed operation for instance), I mean to include even when the structure only has 1 operation. What about for 2 operations but not necessarily a vector space (I assume the canonical definition can just be "grabbed and repurposed" in that case, no?)
I just figure if I try to employ something like this ^^^ I should first decide if the canonical definition fits my purposes, then stray from that if not.
Sorry to cut you off, hoping this'll be a quick one - can anyone help out with this?
I have conclusions for A and B but I'm not 100% with them
Am I doing something wrong here?
Its in the field of quaternions, where F has characteristic 3
Idk how to go from what I have to "correct" values in F
Consider Z2ΓZ2, which has a normal subgroup Z2. It's clear that Z2ΓZ2/Z2 = Z2. Here we take the quotient of a non-cyclic and get a cyclic
Wouldn't 1/2 in R/Z under addition be an element of order 2?
Or any n for that matter
R/Z is best thought of as the circle. Going half way around is indeed an element of order 2
And yeah by that logic you can get any n order
shouldn't it be Z2 x Z2/ 0 x Z2 ?
I think that's the same thing.
ya there isomorphic, I was just asking for clarification
since we need a subset to mod out
Both notations are cheating in the sense that "we take whatever the subgroup is, we'll just call it Z2"
ya, makes sense, I like that notation, I just wanted to be sure I wasen't missing something
this is what I did for B and then A, seems I might've overcomplicated π
didn't do C or D yet
at least, my A is certainly over complicated
No need to explicitly compute Z2ΓZ2/Z2, you know it's a group of order 2, and thus must be Z2
Oh, and Z2 is a normal subgroup cuz abelian
Z2ΓZ2 is abelian β all of its subgroups are normal β Z2ΓZ2/Z2 is defined and is Z2
ok, gotcha
How would you show statement C? I'm not sure how to extend this to any n
R/Z is best thought of as the circle. Going half way around is indeed an element of order 2
(tbh I'm not sure I can picture it as a circle)
Basically R/Z is the fractional part of any number. Go past 0.99999 and you get back to 0.0001, where the circle loops
Anyway the element of order 4 is 1/4, because 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4 = 0
Just extend your method for order 2 to order n. It's the same idea
And you can keep going with that pattern
I shouldn't say "the", there's more than one.
so 1=0
1/2+1/2=0
1/3+1/3+1/3=0
.
.
.
I feel a sum notation coming on lol
I guess that's how you'd give a single statement to show it
I shouldn't say "the", there's more than one.
@stone fulcrum is there?
sum from 1 of n/n+1 I think?
I feel a sum notation coming on lol
Oh, yeah you're right
Rotating the opposite direction pretty much haha
oh actually maybe I don't need to sum because I just need to show that sequence of adding fractions goes on forever, I feel like induction might be too much for the marks tho
@split knot just do it for general n. What's an element of order n?
n(1/n)...?
well so n/n
which makes sense because using the "1=0" logic, it loops back round so anything summing to 1 is 0
You're confusing the element itself with the procedure for checking it's order
That's it
oh that does it, yeah π
ok nice
alright so for the last statement
not sure I recognise Ln(R)
GLn(R)
Is the general linear group of size n real matricies
So nΓn matricies with real entries
So presumably S in SLn(R) means it's a subgroup
SL is the special linear group. Same thing, except only matrices with determinant 1
ah
Maybe you've proven in class that SL is normal in GL?
is this what we're looking for?
Yes exactly
This was a while ago so I'm not sure what that <-but-not-< means
oh nvm tiredbrain
normal
this is the part of group theory where I started to not understand much
I understand them equating det(ABA^-1) = det(B) = 1 but I don't see why it's useful to know ABA^-1 is in SLn(R)
It's showing SL is normal using the definition
Definition of normal. If you take an element of SL, and conjugate it with any other matrix, you're still in SL.
SL is closed under conjugation and thus normal
so this subgroup SLn(R) is normal => GLn(R) is abelian?
Matrix multiplication is not commutative! So GLn(R) is not abelian
SL is, in this sense, special
sorry, I might be tiredbraining
but where is commutativity relevant in what we;ve done so far
Isomorphic you might say π
I'm still a lil lost
like, where exactly has we shown that GLn(R) isn't abelian? My only thought it that we kinda rearranged the determinants however we wanted because we knew det(B)=1 and that det(A) and det(A^-1) would cancel each other out so it feels a bit cheaty to move them like that
ok, true
Matricies themselves don't commute. In other words, GLn(R) is not abelian
oh hang on sorry
right so
big picture - because GLn(R) is a group of matrices, it doesn't have commutativity by definition
so even if you take out all the det 1 matrices, you've still got a group of matrices, so it still isn't commutative
You haven't really shown anything yet. The question is asking about the quotient group, not GL
so even if you take out all the det 1 matrices, you've still got a group of matrices, so it still isn't commutative
this is what we're after no?
if I'm understanding what a quotient group actually is, there
Quotienting isn't really taking out the subgroup, it's collapsing it to a single element
Yes SL is also not an abelian group
You can quotient a nonabelian group and end up with an abelian one
;_;
Take a group X, and one of its normal subgroups Y. Then the cosets generated by Y themselves form a new group we call X/Y
Where the group operation is coset multiplication
Specifically take a group $G$ and mod out by the commutator subgroup $G'={xyx^{-1}y^{-1}\mid x,y\in G}$
doctorkelp:
The commutator always exists, but it isn't always interesting π
my brain hurts
group theory's definitions make my life harder than it needs to be ;_;
you'll get comfortable with the definitions after playing with examples
I would sincerely recommend thinking about symmetric groups
they'll help you understand groups at large in my experience
You have 2 ways to approach the question: if you think it's true try to prove it, if not find a counterexample of matrices not commuting in the quotient
Braid groups are a pretty place to go after that π
ehhh I think I'll go back to calculus π
There are groups in calculus, too π
Solutions to homogenous linear differential equations form a group (underlying a vector space) π
next you'll tell me that ring theory is useful in ODEs
you'll eventually feel comfortable with definitions in abstract algebra after working through examples and theorems
it takes time
yeah I'd imagine i will
Yeah it actually is depending on how you'd like to approach the theory.
took a while to get used to "clopen" being a thing
yea point set topology is similar too
right sorry I inadvertently derailed a bit - so using that neither GLn(R) nor SLn(R) are abelian, can I say that the resultant quotient group also isn't abelian? Or does this mean that there's examples where non/non -> abelian?
You can quotient a nonabelian group and end up with an abelian one
There are examples
this question has driven me insane lol
I don't think I can actually get an answer to this
or well like
you said it's non-abelian but I still don't fully understand why
What's the simplest group that isn't abelian you can think of?
So abelian and commutative mean the same thing
An abelian group does xy = yx for any x and y
I guess just (G, β) with a,b in G where aβb =/= bβa
Yes, but What is G π
uh
what types of groups do you know of
my brain has imploded I think
maybe what is a example of a finite group
ok yup cyclic groups are a example of finite groups
and don't go crazy! You might want to consider counting up from a group of order 1, 2, 3, and ask about commutativity (abelian)
I'll give you a hint, you'll hit an example of order where things get interesting before 10 π
<i saw it mentioned here>
Maybe, depends if he's seen such a group yet
aren't all cyclic groups abelian tho?
yup
Soooo do you know of a group that isn't cyclic, and is finite?
oh I guess Z2 x Z2
Nice. So you're familiar with products.
guess so lol
theres a whole family of groups that are finite and mostly nonabelian
so we've established that there are non-cyclic, finite groups
Yes, and in particular we're hinting at that there are non-commutative (non-abelian) finite groups
I can't imagine trying to guess these if you don't know haha. The smallest non-abelian group is S3, it's of order 6
Haha
symmetric?
Then all Sn where nβ₯3 are non-abelian
yes
Like he said, he can't really guess it if he doesn't know. And it's not even the question he's trying to answer
Maybe more familiar is that $S_3$ is the same as $D_6$ or the group of symmetries of an equilateral triangle.
doctorkelp:
I recognise S and D
I definitely didn't learn that fact by guessing it
think we looked at them last year though
So try this experiment out
Let $G=S_3,$ that is, the set of all bijections from ${1,2,3}\longrightarrow{1,2,3}$, and compute $G'={xyx^{-1}y^{-1} \mid x,y\in G}.$ Show that $G'$ is a normal subgroup of $G.$ Find its quotient.
doctorkelp:
If this isn't helpful anyone here can tell me to gtfo π
I just haven't talked about math in a red hot minute and I'm really excited.
I think he should focus on his assignment right now lol
No no I get it haha. Group theory is bae
kelp
that looks like it'd probably be useful to do
however π
I have 3h left to do this and a couple more Q's, I need to sweat
You have MORE?!
Didn't know the context.
well
Sorry!
the one in #advanced-number-theory
np kelp, I'll look into what you posted tomorrow when the deadline's gone
but ye no more group theory questions after this I think
so uh
GLn(R)/SLn(R), huh
that's a group
Yep!
lol
Let's just keep it basic. GLn(R)/SLn(R) is what happens when you take every element of SLn(R) and say "why don't we just make that the identity?"
I reeeeally want to just say that they're both groups of matrices which are non-abelian, so taking a quotient doesn't really change that every element is still a matrix
uh
The problem is that Retro doesn't know how to take a quotient, and this isn't a good first example
^
Ohhhhh
I'm not entirely sure what a quotient actually does
except for when Auvera said it collapses stuff into one element
Yes
hang on you said it kaynex lol it's just setting everything to the identity ye?
You want to understand the kernel of a homomorphism
Take a group X, and one of its normal subgroups Y. Then the cosets generated by Y themselves form a new group we call X/Y
doctorkelp:
That's intuitively true.
There's two ways to think about this process lol, which is the first isomorphism theorem
Speaking of abelianizations, I'm trying to abelianize $G(Q_p^{tame}/Q_p)$. I'm looking at the tower $Q_p \subset Q_p^{un} \subset Q_p^{tame}$, which gives the s.e.s $1 \rightarrow G(Q_p^{tame}/Q_p^{un}) \rightarrow G(Q_p^{tame}/Q_p) \rightarrow G(Q_p^{un}/Q_p) \rightarrow 1$. I'm trying to show that it is right split and then write it as a semidirect product. My guess is a lift of the Frobenius elt. maps isomorphically onto $G(Q_p^{un}/Q_p)$. Is this true?
Brofibration:
;_;
So the determinant happens to take matrices of SL to the identity of which group?
That's fair! So the determinant maps GL into multiplication on the reals. It also maps SL into the identity, so this is what we want out of GL/SL
Basically if SL is squished to identity, the only remaining info about a matrix is its determinant
sure
well
the only remaining info about matrices with det = 1 is their det
oh I guess you meant just considering SL
Basically GLn(R)/SLn(R) becomes R
Multiplication on R I mean. Without the 0
wait but what about the non-det=1 matrices in GLn?
No? Do I have that wrong?
no you are correct that GL_n(R)/SL_n(R) is isomorphic to R^x
(Interesting related question, is there a field F and a normal subgroup N of GL_n(F) that's not SL_n(F) such that GL_n(F)/N is isomorphic to F^x)
I think R should be F?
@split knot any two matrices with the same determinant are equal in the quotient even though they may not be equal as matrices
Yeah I understand that i.e. "squishing" SL to the identity
Think about elementary row and column operations having determinant 1.
but I mean that GL has more matrices than just those with det=1
That's a good way to say that, yeah.
[1 0]
[0 2]
and
[2 0]
[0 1]
Are the same element in GL2(R)/SL2(R)
now I thought this question was about showing that the quotient group isn't commutative
and I don't exactly see how we're going to get that from this
I thought it was true or false
No the question asks if it is true that it is non-abelian
Which, the answer is that it is false. That is an abelian group
My bad.
I think you'll have to show that $SL_2(\Bbb{R})$ is the commutator of $GL_2(\Bbb{R})$ π
Actually, no.
Just show that it's isomorphic to $\Bbb{R}\setminus{0}$ for any $n,$ by showing that the kernel of $\det$ is $SL_n(\Bbb{R}).$
doctorkelp:
You can really just use the definition of abelian
It doesn't seem easy to me to show commutativity using the quotient group directly.
It's pretty straight forward
can I not literally just say that GLn(R)/SLn(R) still contains matrices of det =/= 1 so commutativity still isn't achieved
pretty sure this should be a ~1 mark question
(except this is wrong because it is commutative lmao)
Hmm, let's F is an algebraically closed field of characteristic 2
Oh wait no
Nvm nvm nvm
I think this is 1 mark I'm ok with dropping
if I don't understand after almost 2h of work on it it's a lost cause methinks
Okay so uh lemme drop some random ideas Zoph
So let's say F is a field
And we have a surjective but not injective homomorphism F^{\times} -> F^{\times}
That'd do it
The discussion here side tracked you too much. If you still want to work on it, try using the definition of abelian to prove the quotient is abelian
You should be able to find an example using small groups
two elements
right so apparently I can find a solution in Z/pZ
@solid drum could you help me finish this one if you're around?
isnt the easiest way to define a quotient group for $N$ normal in $G$ is to define $G/N={gN|g\in G}$ with $aNbN=(ab)N$ due to $N$ being normal
ariana:
with $aN={an|n\in N}$ and $AB={ab|a\in A,b\in B}$
ariana:
isnt that the standard way to define quotient groups?
yea
@inland otter ok i have researched and i found a normal subgroup
basically the subgroup of functions that permute only finitely many points
Ah yes that seems to work
nice, may i ask what this is for?
Nothing, I was reading Algebra by Artin and got really curious
It does read really nicely yes
I was wondering what happens if you look at differentiable functions on $[0,+\infty[$ * and invertible
I was wondering if Schwartz functions maybe form a normal subgroup there
oh hmm
dadaurs:
i mean i would imagine not
because conjugation by something thats not C^infinity might make the functions not C^infinity
(but im just guessing so)
(i do encourage for you to research this further btw, analysis is definitely not my strong suit so good possibility my intuition could be wrong)
No what you say does seem correct, I'm playing around with chain rules to look at what conditions I could put on the group to make it well behaved
when you apply modular arithmetic m(x) on polynomial f(x) in a polynomial field F[x], is it just like finding the remainder of a polynomial?
like finding r(x) when f(x) = m(x)q(x)+r(x)
where deg(r)<deg(m)
You mean quotienting by the ideal generated by that polynomial yeah?
I mean like in this problem
So for instance would part i) be x^3+2 = (x^2+2)*x+(x+2), so f(x) congruent to x+2 in mod m(x)?
Yep!
ok, thanks
Why is the centre of GL_n this?
Is this because the only matrices that are commutative are diagonal matrices where each entry is the same?
I mean, that's what this statement says yes
where R and Z are the rings?
must be groups, since Z is not an ideal of R
additive groups?
$\bR / \bZ$ is the group formed by equivalence classes of reals under the equivalence relation $a \sim b \iff a - b \in \bZ$
Namington:
that is to say, it's the group where you take the real numbers, and say all the reals that are "an integer apart" are actually the same
one could think of it as the additive group of real numbers where we only care about "the part after the decimal"
(as well as the sign)
alternatively, you could think of it as what you naturally get if you say "take the reals, but now all integers = 0"
it's worth noting that there's a very cool connection between this quotient group and the unit circle
(in fact its isomorphic to the complex unit circle!)
(a proof is given here https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Quotient_Group_of_Reals_by_Integers_is_Circle_Group)
Wait what do you mean by "Take the reals but now all integers = 0"?
As in all integers are in the kernel?
we're dealing with a group
Sorry
Yea I think I see what you mean
Like if we had a map to go from R to R/Z
The quotient map
The kernel of the quotient map from R to R/Z is all the integers?
uh sure
(usually the term "quotient map" is reserved for a concept from topology but yeah)
oh interesting
i mean formally yeah this is a quotient map
i just dont usually see that terminology in an intro algebra class
it works though
Oh ok
Another question: If N is a normal subgroup of G, does that tell you antyhing about the number of subgroups of G that contain N?
What information do you need then?
cardinality of N and G would let you make arguments from sylow
Do indices have relationship to normal subgroups?
if N is a normal subgroup of G, then the index of N is the order of G / N
if N is a normal subgroup of G, then the index of N is the order of G / N
@scarlet estuary
Lagrange Theorem
this is broader than lagrange's actually
lagrange's only applies to finite groups
but this statement is true of all groups
Mmm.. you're right
but youre right that there's a very direct connection in the finite case
F a field, and p(x) in F[x] is irreducible if and only if p(x+c) is irreducible where c is some constant.
How do I show this?
I have that f(x) -> f(x+c) is an isomorphism
Is it enough to say that F[x]/(p(x)) is isomorphic to F[x]/(p(x+c))?
Is that even true?
What are they asking for in part b here? Are they aksing gme to show that if |G| = 4, then G is isomorphic to either either (Z/4Z) or (Z/2Z)^2? How do I show this?
can you prove that if |G| = p^2 then G is abelian?
and then use fundamental theorem of abelian groups?
@shy bluff
im p sure thats overkill tho π¦
do you know the fundamental theorem?
Parts c and d are related to what you just said though I think lol
What is f undamental theorem?
maybe I learnt it
a finitely generated abelian grouip is a direct product of just Zs
Nope
okay
