#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 482 of 407
???
(A not being in the center ofc for my arguement)
By that definition i think N(a) is normal
it is not. i just showed you a counter example
N_G(H) = { g in G |gHg=H }
real algebruh hours rn
no, that still doesnt do it. take the subgroup <A> with A not in center in SL again
did you read what i wrote at all?
go ahead
i mean if u assume S is a normal subgroup it works
no just subgroup
dude i just showed you a counter example...
I read the above definition as "every S in the group such that"
I think I should have read it as "every S in the subset S such that"
actually nvm that might not be true lol w/e (deleted a wrong statement oops)
Ueah ueah
but anyhow my counterexample holds
Its wrong then....at some stage..i have to assume commutavity..
In order to do the proof
well all subgroups of abelian groups are normal so lol
U reapeated wht i just said
in abelian groups the concept of normalizer makes little sense
(the normalizer will always be the whole group, which is normal)
If H is subgroup of Z(G)
i mean yeah
subgroups of the center are normal
and the normalizer of normal subgroups is the whole group
which is normal
To be fair, take a look at that definition provided above. It's not very clear that we're taking S to be a subset of S

One need to assume furthur conditions on S in order to be a normal subgroup
i am not even sure if there is a characterization of when the normalizer of a subset is normal
Even the single elment need to have only two conjugates in G for N(a) to be a normal subgroup
Man...i forgotten some theorem i think.
But i dont agrre...that its meaningless to define normaliser in non abelian groups.
U have the class equation waiting for u dude
it is, because the normalizer of every subset of an abelian group is the whole group
so you don't gain any information
U said on non abelian
Oh" little "is used in negative sense
so let me be clear: it only makes sense in non abelian groups
When does one learn catagory theory
In which level?
i think u need it firstly at AG or/and AT
basically dont learn it
untill u have to thats what i got as an answer to urq uestion
from the ppl who know
algebraic topology is the best place to learn it, because that is when the ideas historically first arose
but wait im using df
and i keep seeing arrows
in the modules section
is that category theory?
not really
you can use category theory everywhere, but it is just a different vocabulary
the meme that basicaly say that any math problem literally can be solved by categories
how true is that
Lol
and just because you draw diagrams, call maps arrows and use the word functor does not mean you are doing category theory
^
the meme is that category theory has no theorems
Also mo2men please don't repeat things you've heard and don't actually know about when people ask advice
That's bad form
a lot of "category theory" you will encounter is just re-phrasing of ideas
which can be useful, but you should always be skeptical why you are doing that
the things ive heard were frfom here 😐
That doesn't matter, you still shouldn't do it
you can read things like "X is just Y in the category of Z", but that is just different modes of thinking
It's usually not tbh
idguess thats subjective for like the ppl who know this stuff
Idk I tend to find it annoying when people say X is just Y in Z
Like maybe it's true but it's usually not helpful
ye, abstraction can be an extremely useful tool
2 different fields intersect?
like im talking about
coolness now not usefulness ;D
Like I think an example where this is good is like "abelian groups are just Z modules"
but at some point in your mathematical life you learn that just abstracting for abstractions sake is not worth it
^
@sharp sonnet
I said thst thing but they made fun why is that
About abstraction being a very powerful tool
what?
That's such a vague statement
this problem has rly stumped me. may I have some help with it?
I'm guessing F < K
But I'm not quite sure how to prove it
if we assume the cubic f(x) is depressed, than f(x) = x^3 + px + q and g(x) = x^2 + qx -p^3/27
that's a pretty vague question
how exactly is g popping up as part of solving f = 0 ?
if you did what I think you did then you fell in a pretty evil trap there
oh, I can show you how my book does it
derives the cubic formula that is
if you did what I think you did then you fell in a pretty evil trap there
wdym?
it's also possible that the writer of the question thinks that F is a subfield of K
because
it seems like if there is any justice in the world, it should be so
but alas
how do you know it doesn't have to be?
if F = Q(sqrt(D)) then it is Q(sqrt(-3D)) that is a subfield of K, iirc
a quick way to check if I'm drunk or not
is to go work on the cubic (x-3)(x+1)(x+2) for example
uh, K is Q then so, that isn't a great example?
well if you find that F is bigger than Q then you can't have F < K
yea
and combining them properly gives you roots that are in K
so it's hard to tell what answer they expect
if F = Q(sqrt(D)) then it is Q(sqrt(-3D)) that is a subfield of K, iirc
do you think this is what was expected?
"K cap F = Q" isn't much of a relationship
and that one is awkward to state
but it is the most precise statement you can make
no
you can also say that if the base field contains the cube roots of unity then F < K I guess ?
if F = Q(sqrt(D)) then it is Q(sqrt(-3D)) that is a subfield of K, iirc
uh, does this even work for the example you gave?
I think it does because D = -3 in that case
you can also say that if the base field contains the cube roots of unity then F < K I guess ?
I don't rly see why this is true
yep, D is -3
my b
you can also say that if the base field contains the cube roots of unity then F < K I guess ?
uh, zef, why is this apparent tho?
I don't remember what's the nicest way to show it
it follows from "if F = Q(sqrt(D)) then it is Q(sqrt(-3D)) that is a subfield of K, iirc" anyway
except that instead of Q you put Q(sqrt(-3))
there probably is a formula that expresses -3(alpha^3 - beta^3)² as the square of some expression in the roots of the cubic ?
that's what it should boil down to
it follows from "if F = Q(sqrt(D)) then it is Q(sqrt(-3D)) that is a subfield of K, iirc" anyway
how hard do you think this should be to prove?
it's as hard as expressing -3(alpha^3 - beta^3)² as the square of some expression in the roots of the cubic
there probably is a formula that expresses -3(alpha^3 - beta^3)² as the square of some expression in the roots of the cubic ?
one last Q. soo, why does this imply Q(sqrt(-3D)) < K
because the D in F = Q(sqrt(D)) is (alpha^3 - beta^3)²
alright, I need to think about this
and so if you find -3(alpha^3 - beta^3)² = h(x1,x2,x3)² where x1,x2,x3 are the roots
wait, shouldn't the splitting field F just be Q(alpha^3)?
then sqrt(-3D) = h(x1,x2,x3) is in K
but the root of my quadratic is alpha^3?
wait which one is F and K again
who decided to call F the splitting field of g lol
yeah, that's kinda wack
In the textbook I'm reading, this is stated in the Groups chapter. Could someone tell me why this is always the case?
I'm thinking of two numbers x and y
all I'm going to tell you is that their sum is 15
what numbers am I thinking of?
15 and 0
I mean sure but how would you prove that rigorously
or prove it
in the first place
it seems like a very big claim
as long as the group is not the trivial group (in which case the only product is e*e = e) this is true
and not really that big of a claim
xy = (xyz)*z^(-1) for any element z
so if I just give you the product xy
how do you know if it was (x times y) or (xyz times z^(-1))?
just pick any z which isn't equal to y^(-1)
and those are two different "factorizations" of the element xy
there's the "proof" I guess
primes have nothing to do with this
also, more generally, for any finite group G, if you write out the multiplication table for G
every single column will have every single element of G appearing exactly once
which is to say that if |G| = n
then there are exactly n ways to write any element of G as a product of two other elements
so as long as G isn't the trivial group, this shows that you can't recover x and y from xy
I was just thinking that with primes you only have one factorization, would that still not count because you can have different orderings?
like if p is a prime and p is your product, it could be 1p or p1
I guess the group could be uh the integers?
the integers don't form a group under multiplication
(which is why the primes aren't relevant here)
this same thing is true in the group of nonzero rational numbers under multiplication where the "primes" still exist
but now, you can write 5 as 5*1
but also 5/2 * 2
neat
so you can't recover x and y from xy
I'm still kinda new to this stuff so I'll try reading that message with the |G| = n more carefully, thx
for multiplication table, do you mean the cayley table?
right
(btw that comment is still true for infinite groups, it's just that then your cayley table is infinite and it's not really as clear how to arrange it as a "table")
you mean the unrecoverable comment?
I meant the cayley table comment in particular
but yes, for any nontrivial group, it's impossible to recover x and y from xy
and it's exactly because of the "x*y = xyz * z^(-1)" issue
you said "then there are exactly n ways to write any element of G as a product of two **other **elements." I'm going to look into this a bit more, can you confirm that "other" is necessary?
I didn't mean anything with that word
there are n ways to write an element of G as a product of two elements of G
where n = |G|
is what I meant
The law of composition is not a function in the reverse direction. That is, given an element x of a group G, we cannot map it uniquely into the product space. As was said before, if we have the product (a)(b)=x, then we can assign x to the pair (a,b) in the product space. But we can also write (ac^-1)(cb)=x hence x can also be associated with the pair (ac^-1,cb) in the product space. It's probably not the best way of thinking about it but it is a way
tldr, law of composition is not injective and therefore inverse of the law of composition doesn’t exist
G={e}
(e,e)→e
e→(e,e)
Whoever:
think about it
Hmmm all I can say that it's a group with 6 elements
And I have the cayley table written out explicitly
Is it S_3
is the group abelian?
Lmao no
why not?
symmetric groups aren't abelian for n≥3 I remember
But that group up there is abelian
Yeah
There's only one other group of order 6
indeed
Thanks
Had to proof that if f extends to a continuous map $E^{i+1}\to X$, then f represents the zero class in $\pi_{i}(X; x0)$
Stephen:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
My attempt: Every element in $\pi_{i}(X,x_{0})$ it's a class of a map $(S^{i},) \to (X,x_{0})$. Via the extension $\tilde f$ of $f$ we would have that the same class is produced via $\tilde f\circ i:S^{i}\to E^{i+1} \to X$. But now we recall that $E^{i+1}$ is contractible hence an element in $\pi_{i}(X,x_{0})$ that comes as image of an element in $\pi_{i}(E^{i+1},)$ as to be $0$.
Stephen:
does this sounds ok?
What do they mean by "Either G is cyclic or G is isomorphic to (Z/pZ) x (Z/pZ)"? Isnt' (Z/pZ) x (Z/pZ) cyclic?
Every element in (Z/pZ) x (Z/pZ) has order p, so there can't be a generator
Wait is a generator just one elemnt of (Z/pZ) x (Z/pZ)?
Yes. So like, in the case of (Z/pZ), 1 is the generator
Yeah exactly
Sorta like how R^2 needs two elements of a basis
Exactly. In general you can talk about a "generating set"
A generating set, but yes
err yea
I don't see why the degree is required to be odd
is it used somewhere in the proof?
In the real numbers, a counterexample would be the polynomial x^2 + 1
So yeah it's probably used
I require the added constraint that a and b are non-zero, right?
no
no
oh ok
what if my R is F_2 and b = 0 and a = 1?
b = 0 = au = u. But u is supposed to be a unit.
nvm, Im dumb
this is how my book defines integral domain
but, uh, there is no reason an integral domain R has to contain a multiplicative identity, right?
so, in that case, doesn't the above question not work?
Maybe this is one of these books which always works with "Rings with identity" but just calls them rings
It's pretty common; but in any case, yeah, units of rings only make sense if your ring has a multiplicative identity
In the real numbers, a counterexample would be the polynomial x^2 + 1
ohh so it's to ensure that g has deg >= 1 so it has a root?
It's pretty common; but in any case, yeah, units of rings only make sense if your ring has a multiplicative identity
ok, cool
how can i prove that there always exists an element of order n in a group of order n^k where n is prime
pick element from grp
its order divides the order of grp
consider cyclic subgrp generated by this element
yes you are right but then you can do something to fix this
consider cyclic subgrp generated by this element
@steady axle !
the cyclic group will have order p^2 then
how can i say theres always a cyclic subgroup of order p
i have to prove the existence
ik the order divides p^k
think about this for a moment
take an element of order n^k and raise it to the n^(k-1) power. Now when you raise this new element to the n power you get the identity
just kidding
lmao
wait mero that might work actually,from lagrange order of any element is p^m where m<=k now
(x^p^(m-1))^p=e
lol
you werent kidding

surely I'd know if I were kidding
i found something else
if a group has order as a multiple of a prime
then it has an element of order p
tis stronger
you'll enjoy the sylow theorems
Sylow is mega cool
Definitely one of the coolestand most unexpected results
is there a change of signs when you change order of a dot product
?
does -xVector * qVector = qVector * xVector?
I figured
If your inner product is on a complex vector space, you usually complex conjugate it
$(x_1,\dots,x_n)\cdot(y_1,\dots,y_n)=\sum_{k=1}^nx_k\overline{y_k}$
Whoever:
@vast gale
@hot lake, I remember we talked a few days ago about a question I was working on, and I was wondering where I could read more about the result you were talking about. I tried looking for it in dummit and foote but I couldn't find it. (sorry for the ping)
how does one determine whether the ideal generated by a polynomial is a prime ideal
for example I have the ideal $\langle x^7+x^5+1\rangle$ in $\mathbb{Z}_2$
Bobbicals:
what I'm really trying to do is determine whether $$\mathbb{Z}_2[x]/\langle x^7+x^5+1\rangle$$ is an integral domain
Bobbicals:
If the ring is a field (which it is here), and your ideal is principle (which it is here), its the same as asking if the polynomial is irreducible
:O
i.e. k[x] is pid
also how do you get black or white background in texit
i always get the default grey
,tex --color white
is there a nice way of determining whether something is irreducible in Z_2
not really in your case
big sad
its easy to check that it has no roots
so it must be the product of a polynomial of degree 2 and degree 5, or degree 3 and degree 4
but you can just write down all the irreducible polynomials of this degree and show thats not the case maybe
wew
my teacher put that question on a test and idk how he would have expected us to have done it in a reasonable amount of time
thanks for your help
there are some others that fucked me over as well
$T$ is the set of square 2x2 matrices over $\mathbb{Z}_5$ of the form $\begin{pmatrix}a&b\0&0\end{pmatrix}$
Bobbicals:
is there a factor ring T/I that is isomorphic to Z_3?
so you're thinking of T as a ring under matrix multiplication?
yeah
absolutely nothing I was like "uhhh no because T/I can't commute" but I had zero idea about anything
idek if T/I commutes or not
I mean
T/I is commutative at least when I = T
but there is something much simpler you can say
I basically don't know anything about quotient rings, including how to find their cardinality
well I know things but I have no level of comfort with them
we're not goign to be finding any cardinalities of quotient rings
@red imp take a moment and think about what buncho said
how does the size of T relate to the size of T/I
this is a pretty fundamental fact about quotients of rings and groups
I think you should spend some time reviewing lagrange's theorem
is lagrange's theorem the one that involves groups
we haven't covered groups yet, only ring theory
the order of T is always divisible by the order of T/I
oh, that's odd
have you not talked about this for rings?
if |T| is finite then |T| = |I| * |T/I|
maybe you didn't use that name
but that fact that I mentioned above
is pretty fundamental
okay I'll try to cram it into my little brain
how can you cover rings before groups
lecture 32
damn my lecturer's a little cunt
giving us a question that we needed future content for
is there not another way of going about it?
so I tried looking in the rings section
to see if this was discussed there
before it was discussed for groups
but I can't find anything
massive RIP
so, here is another approach
that doesn't require any cardinality concerns
so there is always a surjective map from R to R/I
namely a --> a + I
*surjective homomorphism
so we can try to show that there are no surjective homomorphisms from R to Z_3
oh sorry, T instead of R
I'm just used to calling all rings R haha
although even this is kinda subtle though
I would show that any element t in T is equal to 3*t' for some other element t'
where by 3*t' I mean t' + t' + t'
this is not too hard to do: the matrix (a, b) (i'm just omitting the 0s on the bottom row since they're not too relevant right now)
is just equal to (2a, 2b) + (2a, 2b) + (2a, 2b)
so suppose we had some homomorphism from T to Z/3Z
then the element (2a, 2b) of T must map to something
let's call that something x
(so x = 0, 1, or 2)
but then (2a, 2b) + (2a, 2b) + (2a, 2b) must map to x + x + x
but x + x + x = 3*x = 0 no matter what x is
so therefore (a,b) must map to 0
therefore the only homomorphism T --> Z/3Z is the trivial homomorphism which isn't surjective
so like, that is an argument but seems like a lot of work to come up with that approach and that particular method
also just fyi I really don't understand these lecture notes. the order of everything is just... off... to me
my lecturer isn't the one who wrote them, he just follows them. maybe he somehow forgot that we don't know about lagrange's theorem yet because we learn things in a weird order
yeah that's possible
imo, lagrange's theorem is a pretty important fact and I would talk about it earlier than later
how accurately is he following the notes?
maybe he talked about it in-class?
I've heard of things like this, like "I'm gonna talk about stuf fin class that's not in the book and then test you on it so you better come ot every class and take notes"
he literally puts the notes up on the screen and reads from them, he's completely useless
what are your thoughts
have you ever encountered the ring F[x,y] before?
nope
so one way to think about it is the ring of 2-variable polynomials
another way to think about it is "polynomials in the variable y, where the coefficients are polynomials in the variable x"
so the fact that F[x] isn't a field means that you can't conclude immediately that all the ideals in this ring are principal
do you know any examples of nonprincipal ideals in other polynomial rings?
like, do you know an example of a ring R and a nonprincipal ideal in R[x]?
not that I can think of immediately
can you give me an example of any ring R with a nonprincipal ideal?
(also, I did find this: http://prntscr.com/spx157)
(example 7)
ohh yeah
and right below this
I remember reading that now
so if we just took the set of all polynomials in F[x,y] such that the constant term is 0
that would be a non-principal ideal
yep
awesome
although honestly i think this is another terrible test question
it's basically "do you remember one line from the notes"
when was this test btw
reasonable complaint
one last question
remember the ring T of those matrices? one question asked if there are any non-trivial ideals in T
and I was like "nah" just because I couldn't think of any
I can think of at least one
oh wait it said non-trivial maximal ideal
I didn't even read that word at the time
god knows what a maximum ideal even is
in the lecture notes when defining a maximal ideal it uses the term "proper ideal" which isn't even predefined
does it just mean an ideal and not a left- or right-ideal
yep, except for the ideal composed of the entire ring
(which is pretty trivial and unimportant)
which means that the question of whether something has a maximal ideal basically comes down to whether or not it has a non-trivial ideal
did your T ring even have a unit ?
oh your definition of ring doesn't require the multiplicative identity
but it does say that (R,+) is an abelian group
yeah something like that
and (1,1) is only an identity when multiplied from the other side
.... wait that's impossible
no they are identities for the same side
or any (1,x)
that ring is weird
oh you're right
I don't normally work with noncommutative rings
it's a left identity but not a right one
i don't normally work with rings without a multiplicative unit
so you got a definition of ring that talks about abeliangroups without having ever talked about groups before ?
does it actually
I'm sure it only puts that in as a remark
oh it's because we've seen the definition of groups in our previous classes but never worked with them extensively
like in linear algebra using matrix groups
but not actually doing any group theory
Question when you Have a pure Quaternion ( W Scalar = 0 ) why is the Conversion from Quat to Axis Angle Only Pi?
the value of the angle is locked at Pi
Ex Quaternion [x, y, z, w] [ 0, 0, 1, 0 ] = Axis-Angle {[x, y, z], angle (radians)} { [ 0, 0, 1 ], 3.1415927 }
what is k in this question?
A field I suppose
short question: does every equivalence relation induces a congruence?
If your definition of congruence is like on wikipedia, i.e. "an equivalence relation on an algebraic structure (such as a group, ring, or vector space) that is compatible with the structure in the sense that algebraic operations done with equivalent elements will yield equivalent elements.", then no, not necessarily
For example on the integers, you could define an equivalence relation by saying "a and b are equivalent if they have the same sign", i.e. all positives are equivalent, all negatives are equivalent, and zero is equivalent to itself
But this is not compatible with addition, for example; 3 is equivalent to 1, but (3 - 2) = 1 is not equivalent to (1 - 2) = -1
right, thanks
np!
that cleared some ambiguity
hey guys, I have a question that states:
Let $\phi : R \to R^\prime$ be a surjective homomorphism and and $I^\prime$ an ideal of $R^\prime$. Show that the preimage $\phi^{-1}(I^\prime)$ is an ideal of $R$ and that it contains the kernel. I may have done something wrong but i didnt use surjectivity anywhere in its proof. Thoughts?
Kraft Macaroni:
Show your proof, surjectivity should be needed.
If $x,y \in I = \phi^{-1}(I^\prime)$ then $\phi(x), \phi(y) \in I^\prime$ and as $I^\prime$ is an ideal $\phi(x) + \phi(y) \in I^\prime$ and so $\phi(x + y) \in I^\prime$ i.e. $x + y\in I$. If $i\in I$ and $r \in R$ then $\phi(i)\in I^\prime$ and $\phi(r)\in R^\prime$ and as $I^\prime$ is an ideal $\phi(r)\phi(i) = \phi(ri) \in I^\prime$ i.e. $ri\in I$. So $I$ is an ideal.
We have that $\ker \phi \subset I$ as if $k \in \ker \phi$, $\phi(k) = 0$ and as $0\in I^\prime$ we must have that $k \in I$.
Kraft Macaroni:
sorry it took long didnt see the message
I think that should be fine; iirc, if you want to show that the image of an ideal is an ideal, you need surjectivity of the morphism, but the preimage should always work
Quick math proof: Consider the induced morphism $R \to R'/I'$. The kernel of this morphism is exactly the preimage of $I'$, and hence automatically an ideal
Lartomato:
I'm confused about seperability and inseperability. I understand that you need a char =/= 0 field for inseperability
I found this example p(X) = X^6+X^5+X^4+2X^3+2X^2+X+2 over Z/3Z
What are you confused about, exactly?
this polynomial is not irreducible, it factors as (X^2 + 1)(X^4 + X^3 + X + 2)
maybe even factors more over Z/3Z
yes, finite fields like Z/3Z are perfect, which means that every finite extension of them is separable
oh
so if you want an inseprable extension, you need a finite characteristic infinite field.
thank you
So to answer your question
I want to work out an example of an inseperable field extension
and i want to compute its degree and the number of homomorphisms from L -> k^bar
Would you like me to give you one?
So, take the field $F_3(t)$ of rational functions in the variable t over the field $F_3$
unknownknight:
($F_3$ here just being Z/3Z)
unknownknight:
Are you happy with that, or do you need some more explanation?
I understand that
So then the polynomial x^3-t is irreducible
but when you let, say, $\gamma$ be a root of it, then it suddenly factors as $(x-\gamma)^3$
unknownknight:
I see. (x - gamma)^3 = x^3 - gamma^3 because we are in char 3
Exactly!
and recall that you can grab the repeated roots of a polynomial f by calculating $gcd(f, f')$
let k = F_3(t), P(x) = x^3-t, L = k/P. I think L has degree 3 and there is only one homomorphism from L into k^bar
unknownknight:
and what has gone awry here is that $f' = 0 $ even though f isn't constant.
unknownknight:
oh interesting
So, here is where there is another subtlety
L is actually isomorphic to k
in general, k(t) has both infinitely many subfields and infinitely many extensions isomorphic to itself
woah, what a weird field
but, for example, k(t^2+1) is a subfield of k(t) that is also isomorphic to it
So yes, weird things happen with function fields because of this.
this is great
but, if you buckle down, and push through it, what you should really be looking for is not just a a homomorphism from L into a kbar, but one that fixes k as a subfield of L
and once you add that restriction, then you're right, there is only one.
oh that is a detail i had not considered at all
(and that corresponds exactly to the fact that $\gamma$ is the only root of our polynomial in kbar, so it is the only place I can possibly send it)
unknownknight:
It is a detail that you just never think about when you're used to thinking about, e.g., Q, because Q doesn't have any subfields at all, much less one isomorphic to itself.
One thing I am a bit unsure about is [L:k] - I define this as the vector space dimension of L over k - I want to say it's 3 because the polynomial has degree 3 but because the weirdness of gamma and stuff I'm not certain
You're right, it is degree 3.
will i simply have [L:k] = 3 since P is irreducible
1, $\gamma$, and $\gamma^2$ are linearly independent over k
unknownknight:
I get it! I think I finally understand a bit about inseperability - thanks very much!
And what you said about fixing k also just clicked for me, that's why I am reading about k-homomorphisms and not just homomorphisms
No problem. Fortunately, every field of characteristic zero, and every finite field is perfect, so tehre are no inseparable extensions at all, so that means you don't encounter these things "in the wild" too often.
yeah it seems like a very obscure part of the theory and I think that's why it's been hard for me to grasp until now
really, the reason you need to talk about it at all in an intro course/text on this topic is that if you don't, you can't do any of the proofs, because you need this hypothesis. It just so happens that this hypothesis is automatic for most cases you care about .
Of coruse there are times in research where this comes up.
If you're interested, I think a very helpful exercise is to look at the polynomial $f(x) = x^p-x-t$.
unknownknight:
over F_p(t)?
f'(x) = p x^{p-1} - 1 = -1 so the gcd(f,f') = 1 i think this one is seperable?
So, suppose one of the roots is $\gamma$
unknownknight:
what are the other roots?
and then, if you know what a Galois group is, what is the Galois group of this polynomial?
wait does fermats little theorem apply, x^p = x ? or would that only be true of constants
that is only true of constants
I wanted to pull in roots of unity, $(\zeta_p^i \gamma)^p = \gamma - t$ is almost another root but not
skymoo:
there are no pth roots of unity other than 1 in characteristic p
because x^p-1 = (x-1)^p
good to know!
yeah, you'll often come across the fact that you can't meaninguflly take square roots in cahracteristic 2 and cube roots in cahracteristic 3
if a^p = a then gamma + a is another root, so we can just take a = 1,2,..,p-1
it's interesting that they are all of the form gamma + a, usually the there roots would be combinations of powers of gamma
I guess the galois group would be the cyclic group for this reason, but I'm not really sure
Yeah, so now prove the opposite: If $\gamma$ and $\gamma+1$ are conjugate (e.g. the roots of the same irreducible polynomial) then the characteristic of the field is finite
unknownknight:
Let P have degree d. this one's a bit tricky, I'm thinking of expanding out P(gamma + 1) and taking away everything from P(gamma) leaving me with a degree d-1 polynomial = 0
which shouldn't happen in char 0
Hint: Think about the Galois group.
oh that's so neat, if the galois group is cyclic of order m then the roots are gamma, gamma + 1, gamma + 2, .. and then we must get back to gamma so we gain a relation some m = 0
exactly, otherwise we get infinitely many roots, and whoops
If you want, I can drop a collection of 100ish algebra questions like that I put together to help grad students study for comps
(I think most books in algebra have terrible problems)
oh yes that would be great!
That would be great! I probably wont do all 100 but I found these extremely helpful for my understanding
Enjoy! There are a lot of problems I really love in there
and also some problems about flat modules.
awesome, and thanks again for helping me earlier!
no problem, this is easily one of my favorite courses to teach/help with (-:
wow thats nice, saving that
Oh
It does have 105 problems
I'm dumb
For each section the number starts from 1 again
I see
Sorry
anyway, I have no shortage of abstract algebra questions if you ever really want more about a particular topic, I likely have them laying around in an old test or homework set or whatever.
@olive mirage
a problem in ur pset: : If all proper subgroups of a group are cyclic then the group is abelian
consider Q_8 ( the quaternion group )
counterexample?
perfect
got it
. Let G be a group and let K be a subgroup of G. Give necessary and sufficient conditions for K to be
the kernel of a homomorphism from G to G.
it's definitely one of those results that just sounds very believable
K has to be a normal subgroup?
Z is a normal subgroup of R, but it is not the kernal of any homomorphism from R to R
so necessary, but not sufficient
ohh
it has to be from G to G
missed that
i was abotu to say R --> S^1
okay let me think :d
@olive mirage can i just say G/K must be a subgroup of G?
also?
Well, not be a subgroup, but be isomorphic to a subgroup
So now question: is that enough to prove that K has to be a direct summand of G?
That is, does it follow that G = H x K for some H.
no
Example?
well idk about examples but like
H is a subgroup
wait idk wait
gcd(|H|,|K) need not to be one
hence cant be direct product
right?
wait what no
XD
sr
Q_8 x D_8 is a perfectly fine direct product
yea yea
(even if no one agrees what D_8 is)
So have we said enough to conclude that H is normal?
wdym
so in other words if f:G -> G is a hom with kernel K, is there always a normal subgroup H in G such that G=H x K
you seem skeptical, but if its not true, give me a counter example (-:
Yeah, that's what I'm asking
is the image of a homomorphism automatically normal?
phi(K) is normal in G yea
It is actually not true that the image of a homomorphism is always a normal subgroup
but the theorem you want about the image of a normal subgroup being normal requires the homomorphism to be onto
Maybe look for a counterexample in a class of groups that has a famously small number of normal subgroups?
okayy
im really bad at constructing homomoprhisms from my mind
but id say like
A_5 has only 2 normal subgroups , so if there is a homomropsih the kernel would be either 1 or A_5 ---> any subgroup would have to intersect in 1 atleast hence it fails the conditions to be a direct product
so id say A_5
is a counterexample
with any homomoprhism
Well, sadly, all nontrivial homomorphisms from A_5 to A_5 are onto
But how about a homomorphism from S_5 to S_5 with kernel A_5
how did u get that?
yea
yea ur right
but how did u know all homs are onto? ( in A_5)
Exercise: If G is a finite simple group, prove every non-trivial homomorphism f:G \to G is onto. [Hint: consider the kernel]
fuck yeaaaaaa
yea yea
yea cool
yea yea i got it
tysm
cool pset
im going to be a nuisance for you checking for answers : sorry
😐
haha no problem!
@olive mirage
- Prove every group of order 105 has a subgroup of order 21.
we look at sylow 5 subgroups?
Warning: this will require understanding semidirect products.
So, what do the Sylow theorems say here, about the number of each of these subgroups?
what about the other primes?
yeah, so if there is no subgroup of order 21, what does that tell us about these numbers?
so, why can't n_5 be 1?
it can
yea i forgot to write all cases lol sorry
so
n_7 = 15 or 1
n_5 = 21 or 1
and n_3 = 7 or 1
Claim: If n_7 = 1 OR n_3=1 then the group has a subgroup of order 21.
so remember that n_p=1 <==> the Sylow subgroup is normal.
yes
so say n_7 is 1, then we have a normal subgroup, call it H, of order 7
ok
and we have a subgroup (not necessarily normal) K of order 3.
yea
Claim: HK = {hk| h in H k in K} is a subgroup of order 21
that's in general true of the product of an aribitrary subgroup and a normal subgroup.
well, that HK is exactly what a semidirect product is.
but I will admit, this is not the qeustion I thought it was 😛
isnt that an 'internal' product?
or external*?
iam fuzzy with the terms
if u can educate me herfe
it's an internal semidrect product
whats a semidirect product
I fear that is deeper tahn I can go in text chat.
(g,h)*(a,b) = (ga,phi(h)b) something like that
i dont remember correctly
where phi is some auto or homo
i really dont remember xd
okay i will review for that later
tysm
I would say Chapter 4 of Dummit and Foote on group actions is a great thing to really, really focus on if you have it available to you. It goes in depth on group actions, which make understanding all of this much easier.
I don't think so!
i am using hoffman now for lin algebra
as i learnt algebra b4 lin algebra which is supposedly bad
anyways ty for the pset agian
Absolutely!
I'm currently drilling through notation trying to figure out how to make Euler-Maclaurin seem lucid and natural 😛
gl
Is there a simple way to determine if an element of a permutation group is a member of a subgroup of that permutation group?
Haha got an example?
im thinking about iwth the rubik's cube
and thistlewaite's algorithm
is there any easy way to verify if an element is in G1 instead of G0
Oof haha. So first, the rubik's cube doesn't form a permutation group. It's pretty difficult to talk about the individual elements in general
The rubik's cube is a permutation group
hmm I guess it's not exactly a permutation group because 1/12 random permutations are invalid
To be more specific, it's not a group that contains all of the permutations of a set
It's a subgroup of a permutation group, but so is every other group so ehh
haha so probably not the best avenue to go down
I've been mulling over how to implement this algorithm for ages
oh lol this is terribly hard
but basically you make sure that each piece can be reached to the correct spot first
then check parity of appropriate pieces
am I right to say that for a polynomial f(x) with roots a1, ..., an, its splitting field is F(a1, ..., an)?
it seems like the only way to get a different splitting field is if the roots lie in some other field
That's right yes
I see thanks
the name "splitting" field comes from the fact that the polynomial splits into the linear factors because you have those roots
yep
does anyone have a recommendation for an abstract algebra textbook (around first course level) if my focus will be completing exercises?
I'm confused regarding when ppl refer to a splitting field without reference to a particular polynomial
some take it to mean a 'splitting field over some polynomial' while others see it as 'splitting field over some set of polynomials', but aren't these 2 definitions different?
for e.g. Q(2^(1/2), 2^(1/3), ...) is a valid splitting field under the second defn but not the first?
@chilly ocean
Dummit and foote is the common suggestion
i would suggest artin
which one moves faster?
dummit and foote has too many exercises
I know the basics and would like to do harder exercises
then go fir herstein but i have only read group theory from that book
herstein is good for problems yeah
i recommend agains df
its too slow and unfocused imo
artin has nice problems too, and it has nice topics
Theres like 5000 intro alg books so just see what fits
yea
the example of non-normality i have is Q(cbrt(2))
and of inseperability I have x^3 - t over F_3(t)
they have a strong similarity
in the insep. case one root is a triple root
in the non-normal case something weird happened too, but we only got one root
i don't know if there a connection between the two that im missing or not
doesnt the nonnormal case have 3 distinct complex roots?
if it's just one root the polynomial wld be (x-cbrt(2))^3 right?
the problem is that when we form the quotient Q[X]/(X^3 - 2) we cannot express the complex roots in terms of X
so we need to add cube roots of unity as well to fix this
oh yeah my bad, I forgot while normality was for a moment
haha are you just learning this stuff
kind of - I tried to learn galois theory before but ignored these parts and it didn't work out
funny enough I just started learning this like yesterday
oh cool
is there something like a notion of a "dual" of a vector space for magmas, semigroups, monoids and other group-like structures?
I know that set+operation like structures don't have scalars, but there could be defined some "fuctional" that maps monoids to some semigroup of functions (they are isomorphic) that take numbers as inputs/outputs. All in all, that "functional" could map whatever elements of a monoid to some field.
if G is an abelian group
consider Hom(G,Z) where Z is group of integers
i think thats how far u can go with the concept of dual for groups
oh interesting!
wow thats really advanced stuff
idk 🤷♂️
i read about duals in hoffman kunze lin algebra
Prove or disprove: The set of squares in a group is a subgroup.
counterexample : any non abelian group ?
wow thanks @uncut girder
@uncut girder my question arose from somewhat similar example. I had magma G = (G, & ) , a nonempty set S and operation * : G^S x G^S --> G^S, (f * g)(s) = f(s) & g(s). Question was to show that (G^S, *) is magma and that magma (G^S, *) is commutative (associative, with neutral element) iff (G, &) is commutative (associative, with neutral element)
I tried to check if the two magmas are isomorphic, or at least find epimorphism from G to G^S (that would ensure the answer to the whole question, since homomorphic image of a magma (that is com., ass. or with neutral) is also a magma (com. ass. or with neutral), but couldn't find an appropriate isomorphism)
Question about part c here, what is ker s? I know that it's the set of all elements that map to identity, but can det (phi) even go to 0?
do you understand what I meant by saying that it was a homomorphism to Q^\times?
That for x, y in GL_n(Q), det(xy) = det(x)det(y)?
With regular matrix multiplication on the left and multiplication under the rationals on the right
Multiplication?
Yes
so, what is the identity element?
yep :)
So A_n is the set of all x in S_n that would send s(x) to 1?
But is'nt 1 also part of the image?
of course, the identity is in the image of every homomorphism
Ah wait that's not a problem
Yea sorry
Image is just everything that something can map to
And the kernel is specifically the identity
it's the things that map to the identity, yes
Err is specifically everything that maps to identity
you should try to compute some examples on your own here
try S_3
and look at the permutations (12) and (123)
write out the corresponding matrices
and find their determinants
S_3 has 6 elements, see if you can figure out how many of them (and which ones) are in A_3
oke
Thank you!
So if we call an element of S_n t, then Phi(t) creates a permutation matrix with number of swaps = |t|, i.e, the number of columns to swap
And then because s = det(phi), it just becomes (-1)^|t|
So then ker(s) is just all elements of S_n of even order?
nope
you should actually write out the matrix corresponding to (12)
as an element of S_3
what you said at first about "number of swaps" is relevant
ker(s) is the elements of S_n which require an even number of swaps
but the number of swaps doesn't really have anything to do with the order
for example, (12) and (12)(34) both have order 2 in S_4 but one of them is 1 swap and the other is two swaps
I get uh $\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 \ 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}$
Liria ^(;,;)^:
It's -1
I'm curious how do you define the determinant of a matrix in the first place
yes
correct
Does this have somethingg to do with the number of cycles too?
yes
well, kind of
not just any cycles
you can write any element of S_n as a product of transpositions (2-cycles)
and it's the number of those transpositions
that matters
the bit about trasnpositions?
Yea
I mean, that's not a problem
because you're defining A_n this way
like, just because there's another way to think about A_n doesn't mean you're not equipped to think about A_n this way
but you definitely understand the other point of view when you said earlier it's about how many flips you need
each flip is just a transposition
Yea
how have you defined determinants without using signs of permutations ?
Uh
you can define determinants inductively using the row expansion thing
or you can define determinants as "the unique alternating multilinear map on (R^n)^n which is normalized so that det(I) = 1"
ah
