https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Galois_theory#A_non-solvable_quintic_example this is at least an explanation how one proves this about the standard quintic example
#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 481 of 407
yea, I've seen it done for the quintic before
aw alright
I just need a 5-cycle and a transposition, and, then I can conclude that Gal(K/Q) is S_5
it doesn't work for S_6 because when I use cauchy's theorem to note that an order 6 element exists in the galois group, it can be either the product of 3-cycle and a 2-cycle or a 6-cycle
but idk how to find a polynomial where I can conclude that it's a 6-cycle
What if you try something stupid and just guess an irreducible polynomial?
also I think there are nonsolvable transitive subgroups of S6
Exotic S5 maybe?
maybe reduction modulo p works to, if it's reduction modulo P isn't solvable then your polynomial isn't solvable
bc computing the Galois group isn't easy on Q
@latent anvil I did try that, but it was rly hard for me to nail down the Galois group
https://planetcalc.com/8372/ this looks like a really useful tool for your question
Online calculator. The calculator finds factors of a polynomial using Cantor-Zassenhaus algorithm
Is this true?
What If we consider Z/3Z in S_5?
Z/3Z is solvable (cuz it's abelian) but obv not in a group of order 20
@sour plume uhm, how will it help me?
You can try fixing some random nice degree-6 polynomial and see all the different factorizations in different finite fields without having to do it all by hand
And those factorizations potentially tell you what kind of cycles you have in the Galois group, right?
But tbh I've not engaged with Galois theory in a long time, your question just motivated me to stumble through it today
e.g. it seems that this Dedekind theorem is applicable to $x^6 - x - 1$ modulo 5 and 3; mod 5, it splits into a linear and a degree 5 factor, and mod 3 it's irreducible, hence the Galois group contains a 5-cycle and a 6-cycle; is that somehow enough to deduce something good about the Galois group?
Lartomato:
(i think you also have to make sure that your polynomial is separable mod 3 and mod 5, which needs some arguments with the formal derivative, but i think that's mostly standard)
(sorry that that doesn't answer your second question)
I feel like this should be pretty simple and easy, but I'm struggling here trying to figure out what exactly the first ring looks like in the first place
R[x] is, intuitively, R with an added set of elements x^n for natural n
what happens if you say "ok, but now let x^2 + 1 belong to the same equivalence class as 0, so x^2 + 1 = 0 in our quotient set"
"hence x^2 = -1"
"wait a second"
so the intuition behind this is that x = i
up to equivalence classes
this isnt a proof, but that should help you get an idea what it "looks like"
[this isomorphism imo is a really nice example of how "powerful" quotients are]
[in terms of versatility with how you can use them as "rules" to make new rings]
i guess it should be mentioned that the isomorphism, namely, is plugging in i for x in the modded out polynomials and sending it to the resulting number in C
sorry, doing some cooking; gimme a sec
yeah thats what the isomorphism looks like, i just wanted to explain what the ring looks like
so they coudl use that to construct the isomorphism
yeah u right
then it sounds like I just send x to i?
didn't even think about x^2 + 1 being in the same equivalence class as 0. I was trying to think about what belongs to the set, which would only consist of polynomials of degree <= 2 right?
that assumption seems a bit off
I think my understanding of quotient groups is a bit rusty
well, every element of the set is equivalent to an element of degree 0 or 1
more precisely: every equivalence class in the quotient has a representation of degree 0 or 1
oh right, strictly less than 2, not or equal to
since you can just eat any multiples of x^2
and spit out -1 instead
(or 1 if it's an even multiple, i.e. a multiple of x^4)
Or just establishing that P(x) mapsto P(i) is a ring homo and then first iso theorem @shrewd halo
so an isomorphism f: R[x]/(x^2 + 1) -> C would be f(a_0 x^0 + ... + a_n x^n) = a_0 i^0 + ... + a_n i^n
maybe that's a bit verbose
@mild oxide Well the domain is modded out so
its not verbose enough
you dont need to write everything symbolically, you can just
explain what it does
It's more like ax + b
"it maps x to i"
if you'd like, you can say "pick a degree 0 or 1 representation for your equivalence class, it always exists because [reason]"
"then f(a+bx)= f(a+bi)"
Maybe neatest is what I suggested
you can map R[x] to C and find its kernal to be (x^2+1), thats how i personally do these anyhow
okay, yea that makes sense
yeah the first iso theorem is definitely the "fastest" way
in fact, iirc this exact problem was used in my undergrad to motivate the first isomorphism theorem
i mean we'd already seen it for vector spaces
first iso theorem?
but this was used to demo it for rings
R/ker phi iso phi(R)
Coimage iso image
Guys when you shake your hand really fast it feels strangely like rubber
Like, claw your hand and wave, rotate your hand really fast back and forth
is this the first time youve discovered this
No but I just remembered
Probably when I was 5 or so I did it for the first time
Or my dad told me about it
I'm sitting here like an idiot shaking my hand all over the place trying to figure out what you're talking about
define "claw" and "wave" and "rotate" and "feels like rubber"
Like literally move your hand in any way but do it really fast
You can flap it back and forth too
Like, loosen your wrist and just flap it up and down
why
It feels rubbery
lol
You have to extend your fingers though
Idk I guess it's the changing force experienced by your hand
It makes it feel, I mean, pretty much rubbery is a good description
like, limp? almost numb in a way?
Sure
I think I know what you're talking about. Sometimes I'll shake my hands very vigorously after washing them to dry them when there's no towels anywhere.
I'd rather shake 'em dry than get my clothes wet
I guess I have a bad habit of wiping my hands on my clothes
I do it all the time
It's a habit when I eat I guess
or do both, but get them not very wet at all because I shook off most of the water
also, is this what y'all were referring to as the first iso theorem?
I said it above
if $A\overset{f}{\longrightarrow}B$ is a homomorphism, then $A/\ker(f)\cong f(A)$
JohnDoeSmith:
R a ring, phi a ring homomorphism, R/ker phi iso phi(R)
oh okay
Here phi(R) is the image of R under phi
For example the map from R[x] to C by x maps to i is a ring homo
gotcha; thanks
I am not sure if this will be considered abstract algebra, but I would like to have someone check through this working, because it seems to be incorrect
lmao wasnt this just posted on sci
- the given translation matrix is not invertible
- there is no reason to consider 3x3-matrices rather than 2x2-matrices, because this is a fully 2-dimensional problem
- it's a bit ambiguous with respect to which point you should scale by 3, but i would assume you're scaling it with respect to the centre of the rectangle. hence, the order of operations should be: first translate, then scale, then rotate, then translate back
these are the issues i see off the top of my head @chilly ocean
ah, the 3x3 vs. 2x2 problem is probably because they're using homogeneous coordinates; that makes more sense then, but still the given matrix is not invertible
then, in any case, it's a bit of a problem that the person who wrote this doesn't mention that they're using homogeneous coordinates
(also this is rather linear algebra than abstract algebra)
right, this working was given by my lecturer, and i just don't understand it, the T matrix part specifically
ye, so they're using a trick; if you translate a 2-vector by some other 2-vector, that is not actually a linear operation, so you cannot straightforwardly express it as a matrix
(because clearly: (a + b) + v =/= (a + v) + (b + v))
so they're using homogeneous coordinates, so instead of considering a 2-dimensional vector (x,y), they consider a 3-dimensional vector (x,y,1)
and there you can actually express translation as a linear operation, as described here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Translation_(geometry)
only problem: the matrix in your screenshot has a zero row at the bottom, and hence is not invertible. if you followed the rule in the wikipedia article I linked, then your translation matrix should be given by the same matrix, but with last row (0,0,1)
does that help?
Yes, that does :)
I'm not surprised the lecturer made a mistake tbf.. he always does that lol
and confuses people @.@
How did the -3 come about? if i may ask
The center of the rectangle is in the point (3,3), so to move things into the origin of the coordinate system, you have to subtract (3,3)
right, but after scaling it would be 9,9 right?
so we translate first then scale
right then it makes sense
Yeah might be a good idea to pay close attention to the final translation
But I think you get the idea
In the last working line, the other T matrix is -3,3 is that a typo?
Alright haha, thank you very much for clarifying :)
what does it mean by respecting the natural pairing between V* and V?
how i understood the notation $\langle v^\ast , v \rangle$ is simply $v^\ast$ acting on $v$
xy:
but im not sure why $\rho^\ast (g) (v^\ast)$ acting on $\rho(g) (v)$ has to equal $v^\ast$ acting on $v$
xy:
well an orthogonal projection is a projection thats also orthogonal
@sullen island what they mean by "G should respect the natural pairing" is exactly the equality below that
if you apply the group element to both elements of the natural pairing, both transformations should somehow "undo" one another
it's like when you apply an orthogonal transformation to both vectors in an inner product, the inner product stays the same
uhm
im not understanding why, because a group element in general is not a planar isometry (which preserves length)
so the equality shouldnt hold in general 🤔
I just meant to use it as an analogy
If you define your group actions in the "right" way, this is what they fulfil
e.g. if you defined G to act in some way on the vector space V, usually how you define G to act on the dual space V* is by setting, for each functional $\alpha$, the functional $g \cdot \alpha$ to be $(g \cdot \alpha)(v) := \alpha(g^{-1} v)$
Lartomato:
And then, transforming alpha and v simultaneously by the same g is like doing nothing at all
It isn't required to do that, but that's what happens
because with the above definition you find $\langle g \alpha, g v \rangle = \alpha(g^{-1} gv) = \alpha(v) = \langle \alpha, v \rangle$
Lartomato:
could you give some intuition/motivation behind the definition? like why does the action of g on V correspond to the action of g^{-1} on V*
its pretty strange
One reason for that is, if you started with a left action on $V$, and you want to get a left action on $V^*$, you need to take inverses. If you defined $(g \alpha)(v) = \alpha(gv)$, then this would give you a right action
Lartomato:
So if you don't permanently want to switch between left and right actions, you need this inversion
But of course you don't absolutely have to do it this way, you could define different actions on the dual. It just very often turns out that this is what's useful to you
Or, that this is somehow just the most "natural" definition for the setting that you're in
uhhh
how is that a right action?
its still just alpha acting on some element of v transformed via left action on V
You could just try it out on a sheet of paper
which is also what $\alpha (g^{-1} v)$ is
xy:
hmm okay
@sour plume hey sorry, i've been thinking about it for the past hour and this is what i've got: $g(\alpha (v)) := \alpha (gv)$, then we have $g_1 (g_2 (\alpha (v))) = g_1 ( \alpha (g_2 (v))) = \alpha (g_1 g_2 (v)) = (g_1 g_2) (\alpha (v))$
xy:
which is still a left action? 🤔
You're applying the definitions wrong
(g_1(g_2 \alpha))(v) = (g_2 \alpha)(g_1 v)
you start by acting on the functional g_2 \alpha with the element g_1
You might have gotten that wrong because your bracketing looks misleading; for example, g_2 (\alpha(v)) makes no sense, because we have not defined how g_2 acts on the real number \alpha(v), it can only act on alpha or on v
it's good to struggle with these things, they're so fundamental that it's good to have them burnt into your head, lol
sorry, i just started representation theory
ye no problem
But basically the philosophy is that whenever you pull an action into the argument of a function, this reverses the behaviour of the action
i.e. turns left-actions into right-actions
And the way to counter that is by applying another thing which reverses the order of things
namely the inverse
okay, thank you!
np!
if gcd(w,m) = 1
@chilly ocean Take (Z/mZ)^x. It has order phi(m). The order of w, d, divides phi(m) hence phi(m) = sd for some s. Then w^sd = (w^d)^s = 1 mod m
So for thtis question , part b), I'm confused so as to what counts as a subgroup of D_8
In our notes we have that
And
Does this mean that {e} by itself is a subgroup? What about {e, s}? Or do I need {e, s, s^3}?
First question you'd have to ask is: do {e} and {e,s} fulfil all the axioms from your screenshot? Have you tried checking those?
{e} fulfills the non-emptiness
ee = e = e^-1 and all of those are in {e}
I think?
Err as far as I can tell
Yeah! So the neutral element alone always gives you a subgroup in any group
So {e} is a subgroup of D_8
Does the same hold for {e,s}?
Yeah exactly
Oh ok
That should already give you an idea for what you have to look for in a subgroup
And then I could also go and make {e, s, s^2, s^3} a subgroup because s^2 is its own inverse
Thank you!
Exactly! Good luck finding all others. No problem
Oh and it should always include identity
Yep, that's also something that very quickly follows from the axioms
Is a group a subgroup of itself?
yes
For this question, what does "H = mZ := {mk : k in Z}" mean?
$H$ is equal to $m\mathbb{Z}$, which is defined as all the integer multiples of $m$
Lochverstärker:
{f(a) | a satisfies some conditions} is set builder notation, read as "the set of all f(a) such that a satisfies some conditions"
for example {2a | a in Z} is the set of all 2a such that a is an integer, i.e., the set of even numbers
or { : }
but in my opinion { | } looks cleaner
What is the canonical injection of Z/3Z into Z? Is it just [0] -> 0, [1] -> 1, [2] -> 2?
Uh, there is no canonical injection
^, check to see if that is a homomorphism
I see ... f: Z/3Z -> Z as I described is not a homomorphism since 3=f([1])+f([2])=f([1]+[2])=/=f([0])=0
Are there no injections at all?
no
What is the canonical injection of Z/3Z into Z? Is it just [0] -> 0, [1] -> 1, [2] -> 2?
@light spindle The obvious injection is what you say
it's an injection as kernel is 0
No, f(1)^3 =/ = f(1^3) (wrt group operation +)
But as far as I know injections don't need to be group homomorphisms
in the context of structures like this, all maps are homomorphisms
it does not have any meaning to just set-inject Z/3Z into Z
@upper pivot well then it's not a map
ok, who talks about set maps when it comes to groups/rings/top spaces what have you
Well if you're asking if it's possible to set inject, then yes it is
That's all I'm saying
anyhow my point is, clearly in context we are talking about homomorphisms
Sure
anyhow you can see that injections dont exist @light spindle , take a homo$ \bZ/3\bZ \overset{f}{\longrightarrow} \bZ$, and look at $f(x)$, then $0=f(3x)=3f(x)$ so $f(x)=0$ for all $x$
JohnDoeSmith:
(extend this reasoning as to why you cannot embed finite groups/torsion groups into Z)
There's also nothing canonical about that injection, even as sets
I'm lost here. Any homomorphism of (Q, +) is of the form x -> rx ? how am I supposed to find r?
Think about where 1 gets sent to
also, wouldn't it still be an automorphism if r = 0, since 0 is in Q?
.... 2m?
m/2
pm/q. so m would be our r. but that seems like defining a specific homom?
idk, would sending x -> r + x not be a homomorphism?
That doesn't send 0 to 0, for one
if that's just kind of obviously true that it has that form for any homomorphism, I'm struggling to see how I'm supposed to "show" that it has that form
also it doesn't satisfy the homomorphism property at all
oh, duh
I mean, look at what we assumed when we did this "proof" that every rational number p/q is sent to pm/q
only assumptions are that we're dealing with a homomorphism over (Q, +)
so that's just how we're defining our general homomorphism?
Any homomorphism must send 1 to something
okay, I just thought that if we define a homomorphism, we should be doing something I guess more general (like, p/q -> pm/q). that just sounds like sending 1 to something is specific
We're not defining a homomorphism
If you give me any homomorphism, 1 gets sent to some rational number
which we denote by m
okay, but we're dealing with them generally here
I meant defining an arbitrary one that we can work with
if that makes sense
not really
okay
Sorry if I'm struggling to get it here. Also, I'm really confused about the automorphism part. If r = 0, and so x -> 0, how is that not still an automorphism? 0 is an element of Q, so it's still a map from Q onto itself.
automorphism is a bijection f: G -> G with f(x*y) = f(x)*f(y)
homomorphism is not necessarily bijective
And if r = 0, is that a bijection?
http://prntscr.com/sjcae8
can anyone help me with this?
what would the points be
this is not abstract algebra.
how would I determine the number of order two elements in (Z/nZ)*
Chinese remainder theorem probably
<@&286206848099549185> ^^^
I'm mostly confident about everything except the last step
(But I haven't done this before so verification with respect to my whole solution would be appreciated)
Thanks in advance
Sorry the 3rd step in my matrix transformation is hard to read, it says "change of sign" (I just changed the sign of the first row)
(that that first plus in the last line should be one of these)
looks fine to me 👍
tysm!
$F$ is a field, and $T$ is a finite subset of $F$. $$I(T):={f\in F[x],\vert,f(a)=0,\forall a\in T}$$ is an ideal of $F[x]$
Bobbicals:
I am trying to show that $I(T_2)\subseteq I(T_1)\implies T_1\subseteq T_2$ but I am having trouble formulating an argument
Bobbicals:
I understand the intuition, like if p(x) has roots at all points in T_2 then it has roots in all points in all subsets of T_2
I mean I assume that the intuitive argument I had ^ can be applied here but I don't know how to apply it
It's practically immediate by definition haha
i mean what you said
if p(x) has roots at all points in T_2 then it has roots in all points in all subsets of T_2
would suffice for a proof lol
oh
i dont think you guys are reading this right
well sorry thats the other side actually
idea is very similar to this
i mean yeah this works, although you did not need to go do all that
:D fuck yea
Displaying the factorizations themselves convey no info, lol. But yes you've got it
you could just have said that if $I(T_2)\subset I(T_1)$, then all polynomials in $I(T_2)$ are also in $I(T_1)$, so if $T_1$ annihalates every poly of $I(T_1)$ then it also annihalates all of the $I(T_2)$ poly
JohnDoeSmith:
oh yeah that's nice
I'm not familiar with algebraic proofing techniques yet, so I have trouble formulating these arguments even if I understand them
oh thats fair, practice and you'll get used to em
I don't know how to use chinese remainder to conclude this
like the theorem seems to be a bit different
a corollary I'm assuming I need to use is: if gcd(p,q) = 1, and a,b in Z such that x = a (mod p) and x = b (mod q), then suppose x0 is a solution then set of all solution is x= x0(mod pq)
I don't see how to use it
like when I use the theorem do I say let x = w be the solution to the system?
letting x0 = w^(de) satisfies both
still I don't see how using chinese remainder theorem helps @mild laurel
Like can't you just derive it directly, chinese remainder theorem seems to be directed to another problem
Letting x0 = w^(de) only draws the conclusion that the set of all solutions to x=w (mod p) and x = w (mod q) is x = w^(de) (mod pq)
does the second part to this question have anything to do with the structure theorem? sounds like a basic group theory question to me
<@&286206848099549185> can anyone explain how to use chinese remainder thm here?
assuming that you already know w = w^(de) (mod p) and w = w^(de) (mod q) and to conclude that w = w^(de) (mod pq)
Chinese remainder theorem gives you a bijection between (mod p), (mod q) and (mod pq) right
In one direction, if you have some number x (mod pq), then this gets mapped to x (mod p), x (mod q)
So in this case w^de (mod pq) gets mapped to w^(de) (mod p), w^(de) (mod q)
Since it's a bijection, that must mean that the inverse, in the reverse direction
w^(de) (mod p), w^(de) (mod q) gets mapped to w^(de) (mod pq)
we haven't learned the definition of the bijection but I think I know what you mean earlier
like I could replace x0 with both w and w^(de) to get the result
Hi can someone help me to understand to understand why for this group, the list of generators are [E,H,K,M,N,O]?
I understand why E is a generator but I don't see why H,K are as well
why are you saying that E is a generator
Since A,B,C,D,F can be written in terms of E
are you saying that E generates the whole group just by himself ?
so anyway
being a generator
shouldn't be understood as a property that an element can have
instead
it's a property that a subset of the group can have
and 2.
there are several subsets of the group that generate the group
so there is no "the" list of generators
and you don't say a list of generators because that will confuse everyone
In my understanding, E is just a subset of this group G that contains some of the elements. And I need to find other subsets that contain the rest of the elements. Then this subset is the generator?
instead you say a generating list
or a generating subset
E is clearly an element of the group here
Is the original question: “show that the set {e,h,k,m,n,o} generates this group” or something similar?
A list
the question should be "find a subset of the group that generates the group"
or possibly
"find a minimal generating subset"
Yes
Isnt a generating list the minimal subgroup?
no
a generating subset of a group G is a subset S such that every element of G can be written as a finite combination of elements of S (and their inverse if G is infinite)
So trivially G is a generating subset of G
Okay yup I have that definition
yes
and everytime someone writes "list of generators" instead of "generating subset", god kills a kitten
Haha well I'm not sure if it was my professor or the TAs who wrote these questions but maybe it's cause I'm studying in EU
so when we say that {E H K M N O} is a generating subset of the group
we DO NOT SAY that E is a generator
or H or K for that matter
Okay sorry
because {E} isn't a generating subset and probably neither are {H} and {K}
So can you please explain how the answer is correct?
well, can every element of the group be written as a finite combination of elements in {E H K M N O} ?
I guess but why is G or J not included?
well you could include them
G^2 = D, G^3 = J
H^2 = D, H^3 = K
if {E H K M N O} is a generating subset, then {E G H J K M N O} also is a generating subset
So is it safe to say that G^2 = D and H^2 = D, thus G^2 = H^2
That's why we don't need to include them
I suppose but I'm not sure where you're going with that
wait what
no ???
can you find a way to write G as a finite combination of elements in {E H K M N O} ? or even a finite combination of elements in {E H} ?
Is it true that any 2 transitive subgroup of S_n with a transposition is the full group?
yes
Is this something easy to prove?
yes
write down what 2-transitive means
A subgroup H is 2 transitive if, for all a,b,c,d there exists f in H such that f(a) = c and f(b) = d?
almost
but yeah it means something like that
and you have a transposition
so what can you make out of that
(you have to require a<>b and c<>d in the definition)
Ah, right lol
wait actually it was correct
wait no
you can't find f such that f(a) = c and f(b) =d if a=b and c<>d
anyway that's petty matters
yea, I still don't really see what to do
can you find a way to write G as a finite combination of elements in {E H K M N O} ? or even a finite combination of elements in {E H} ?
@hot lake
I see it now!
Thanks
a lot
nice
oh, wait
I thought of somehting
cool
I think I got it
basically, conjugation was the key
if we have a transposition (x,y) in H and some f such that f(x) = a and f(y) = b, then f^-1(x,y)f = (a,b)
since we have all transpositions, we have the whole group
yes
so a polynomial can be defined over any field right>
sure
so, why does this imply the galois group is double transitive
if it wasn't it couldn't factor as 1 and (n-1) under any specialization
that second factor would always be reducible
How do I go and show
Given that I just have
And
Do I first show that identity is in S?
Do it by induction lmao
Like we already have that the operation is commutative for all elements of S
Is that not enough to show that it's abelian?
Pardon?
what do you mean do it by induction?
Okay so first add in inverses and identity to your subset
Then you want to show that any 2 finite products of elements in your subset commute
And you do this by induction on the number of elements you are multiplying together
@shy bluff here's an outline for the proof. First you want to show that if you take the set S and consider the set S' = S U {x^{-1}| x \in E} U {e} you need to show S' has the same property that all the elements in it commute
Next suppose that n is the smallest number st there is x= a_1 a_2 ... a_n and y = b_1 b_2 ... b_m (where n >= m) where x and y do not commute. You need to show that x and y commute
Then you need to show that <S> is exactly the finite products of elements in S' by showing that that forms a group and that any subgroup that contains S must contain all finite products of elements of S'
And that's it
This is really the sort of statement that is entirely trivial but requires a bit of bookkeeping to do
one thing to remember, S is not necessarily <S>
S is just a group of elements while <S> includes all the elements and all of tehir products rigght?
Like if S = {e, s}, and |s| = 3 or somethingg then <S> = {e, s, s^2} right?
S is not a group (in general)
Yea
Like if S = {e, s}, and |s| = 3 or somethingg then <S> = {e, s, s^2} right?
@shy bluff this is correct, but it's kind of a special case
wait why is it a specila case?
Oh
so this is really just a subgroup generated by a single element
i.e. a cyclic subgroup
Ah
which is a special case
Whereas say for example D_8 can't be generated by a single element right?
and its again a special case because s has finite order
so you dont have to include negative powers
e.g. s^2 = s^(-1)
Yea
D_8 is the dihedral group?
Yea
yes, it can't be generated by a single element
You need at least 2 elements
Oh ok
So uh about
Ok so b = gcd(a, n), then both n and a are multilpse of b, so there is k such that a = kb, and there is j such that n = jb
Why does a = kb imply that [a] is in <[b]>?
Is it because if a = kb then [a] can be generated by [b]?
Or rather that b^k = a?
can you tell me what [b] is?
I think the equivalence class of b
yes if a=kb then $[a]=[b]+\cdots+[b]-$ k times
bertwit:
is abstract algebra by lee good?
Def: A plane curve $F\in K[x,y]$ has a cusp at 0 if it has exactly one tangent and 0 and the intersection multiplicity $\mu_0(F)$ with that tangent is 3 and the multiplicity $m_0(F)$ of 0 (that is the the degree of the smallest homogeneous part that doesn't vanish) is 2.
I want to show: If $F$ has a cusp at 0, then there can only be one irreducible component that passes through $0$ (I guess by some casework using the additivity of the intersection multiplicity?) and i want to find a lower bound for the intersection multiplicity in 0 of two curves that have cusps in 0.
seeker of knowledge:
is 7 irreducible in gaussian integers?
@glossy crater Yes, otherwise, if I can find 2 complex numbers that multiply to 7, their norms must divide 49, hence norm of 7 which is impossible because 7 is not a sum of 2 squares
If R/I is simple, does it follow that I is a maximal ideal?
matrices over division ring are simple right?
So if R/I is a division ring it follows that I is maximal?
R/I is simple ⇔ I is maximal, yes. @fierce perch
If R is commutative, then that's Field ⇔ Maximal
I just argue that if J is an ideal that contains I then it is either 0 or R/I in R/I, which means it is is either I or R in R.
given an integral domain R and a unital subring of it S, if they have the same field of fraction, does that imply that R=S?
If im not mistaken you should be able to get an injection of Q(R) into Q(S) by the universal property which should give you an injection of R into S. Since S is a subring it ought to be iso?
sorry can u elaborate a bit
@glossy crater
No, since Q and Z have the same field of fractions
Sorry I was a bit late haha
I'm reading my notes on representation theory and after computing the character of the representation of the permutation representation of S4 acting in the edges of a tetrahedron and showing it is isomorphism to the trivial representation plus one of the 3D reps of S4 and the 2D rep it asks as an exercise to compute what these reps are as subspaces of the tetrahedron
Is a 3D rep of a tetrahedron then going to be one generated three different edges
The 2D one by two
And the trivial by one?
I'm pretty confuddled
so you have a vector space of dimension 6 and you need to describe 3 of its subspaces ?
" what these reps are as subspaces of the tetrahedron" really not sure this makes any sense
or maybe find some obejcts that S4 acts on that are like those representations
" what these reps are as subspaces of the tetrahedron" really not sure this makes any sense
@hot lake mmm? They are subrepresentations so they must act on a space that is invariant under their action
The question is what are these spaces as subspaces of the edges of the tetrahedron I think
This isn't homework or anything dw, but I'm looking at exercise 4.19
yeah, find the subspaces of V
so you want to find subspaces of V that are stable by the action of S4
no ????
And the space is actually the Three D complex space generated by these edges
being a 3 dimensional subspace of V has absolutely nothing to do with 3 edges
Mm? Well isn't V just the vector space generated by formal sums of the edges
yes
you are sounding as if the only lines in R² are the horizontal line and the vertical line
being 3 dimensional means you are generated by 3 vectors, and each vector is a linear combination of the 6 edges
Noooo but as far as I understand this is like labelling the edges of the tetrahedron 1-6 and then just thinking of V as the C space that is generated by complex sums of them
Aaaah I see your point tho
Yeah
I don't necessarily need to take subsets of the generators
Like <1+2> works, right as a 1D subspace
yeah that would be a line
I don't think it would be stable under the action of S4 no matter how you assign numbers to the edges
Hmmm
Aah wait, should I not be expecting these subspaces to be subrepresentations of the permutation representation?
no they are subspaces of the edge representation
they are subspaces of V
not of other random representations out there
I'm sort of confused because this seems to contradict what my notes say
????
what contradicts what ?
that question isn't even about the same representation as yours
but he has ordered edges
and your edges are unordered
so have you found a line inside V that is stable by the action of S4 yet ?
But I think it is fine for him to do that
it's fine for him to do what ?
Orientating the edges
he doesn't have a choice
and you don't have a choice either
and since you want the 1-dimensional representation to be isomorphic to the trivial representation, you even need to find a vector that is fixed by the action of S4
so have you found a line inside V that is stable by the action of S4 yet ?
@hot lake nope 😔
I guess maybe an axis? 🤔
Idk
Does the sum of all of them not work
yes the sum of all the edges is invariant by everything
Huzzah
Now I want a space that is generated by two vectors that is invariant under everything
🤔🤔🤔🤔🤔
not invariant, stable
Yeye
Ye
there is a tool in there that you might be interested in
in the proof
assuming it's proved the same as what I remember from the proof I had
The funky projection
yes
So are you thinking I use it with the subrep I already have
uh no you want to project V into the subreps that you haven't found yet
you compute the projection, then you look at its image and you win
because the image is what you want
Aaah we did it by projecting into the rep we have and using the kernel
that would give you the sum of the 2 irreducible representations
you would still need to decompose that
Yeah
But how do I project into exactly one irreducible subrep
Do I not need to repeat this?
=_=
Do it into the direct sum and then again
the two you want have different character tables
just look carefully at what those projections are, what they are made from and what they do
@hot lake what my notes say is if you know W, you take a basis for W, extend to a basis of V to get a projection, do the averaging trick to get a G homomorphism and then the kernel is a subrep
I don't see what I'm doing with characters atm
I really don't see how I'm supposed to get a projection into a stable space based off the character table
I need to see the details of those projections again I guess
I might be misremembering them then
you could still try to guess some stable subspaces
for example
the trivial rep + the 3-dim rep should be isomorphic to the standard representation of S4 on {1;2;3;4}
if you could embed that into V
aka find 4 vectors "1" "2" "3" "4" inside V such that S4 permutes them
then you could find - after removing the trivial 1-dim rep from it like you say - the 3-dim rep inside V
Do the integers act on the reals by multiplication ?
Well the integers also act on the reals in lots of other ways
they act as a ring in exactly one way
are there any techniques to prove irreducibility over field extensions of Q?
specifically, I'd like to prove (x^6 -10x + 5)/(x-a) is irreducible over Q(a) where a is a root of x^6 - 10x + 5
I'm not sure you want to prove irreducibility directly, as its not easy
I think it'd be easier to look at the degrees of the field extensions. I.e., if that polynomial is irreducible, then the degree of the splitting field must be divisible by 5, and this is a sufficient condition as well
I see
specifically, I'd like to prove (x^6 -10x + 5)/(x-a) is irreducible over Q(a) where a is a root of x^6 - 10x + 5
btw, does this result seem true to you?
nvm, I'm pretty sure it's true
yeah I have no clue
but maybe this isn't easier, because you'd want to show that the galois group contains an element of order 5, but reducing your polynomial mod 5 doesn't help
uh, what would reducing my polynomial mod 5 do?
Ah you might not have learned it, but there's a theorem that essentially says that
Given some integer monic polynomial f, you can reduce it mod p to get a polynomial f' in F_p[x]
ik that irreducibility in F_p means irreducibility in Q (that doesn't apply for extensions of Q tho)
Then, if f has no multiple roots the galois group of f' over F_p embeds into the galois group of f over Q
oh
Yeah, so you can try other prime mods, but I'm not sure they'd be helpful
actually, I think this helps. I don't rly care about this specific polynomial per say.
I should probs be able to find this theorem in dummit and foote, right?
Uh, I know it's in Lang, not sure about dummit and foote, but yeah its probably in there
the first answer here gives a couple examples on how this works, and the question cites the theorem from lang
Im trying to show that if $I$ is an ideal of $R$ and $\overline{J}\subset R/I$ is an ideal then there exists $J$ an ideal of $R$ such that $J/I = \overline{J}$. My idea is to use the natural homomorphism $\sigma:R\to R/I$ and let $J = \sigma^{-1}(\overline{J})$. It seems to work but I'm not entirely sure. Any thoughts?
Kraft Macaroni:
why are you not sure?
it comes out nicely but it feels finicky
Plus i just doubt myself when it comes to working with quotients more directly
well write out the proof, if it works it works right
sure
,rotate
right that should work
ill add two remarks
if we have a homo $A\overset{f}{\longrightarrow}B$ and an ideal $\mfk{b}$ of $B$, then $f^{-1}(\mfk{b})$ is always an ideal(we dont need surjectivity), and is called the contraction of $\mfk{b}$ in $A$, often denoted $\mfk{b}^c$
JohnDoeSmith:
Ah thanks so much man
and second is that once you found J, you could just say by defination $\sigma(J)=J/I=\bar{J}$
JohnDoeSmith:
and skip most of the working you did in the last part
(altho working through it is good if you are uncomfortable with the ideas)
yeah np
For a cyclic group, does # of generators = # of subgroups? Is there a relationship between the two?
there is a relation, but thats not it
Oh
Orders of?
group and subgroup ofcourse
Ok so the order of (Z/nZ, +) is n
The order of the subgroup is just the number of elements within itself
well can you say more about the orders of subgroup?
It's at most n
i guess you havent learnt lagranges yet? if so thats fine
We haven't, no
What do you mean?
exactly what i said, think about what the subgroups will look like
Well say for example we have (Z/3z, +), then the whole group has {[0], [1], [2]}, and we can make (Z/2Z, +) I think? {[0], [1]} is non-empty, closed under productsand closed under inverses? And we can make (Z, 1Z, +) too but that one is the trivial subggroup?
its not closed under addition nor does [1] have inverse there
note Z/2Z has a different + operator
Oh wait
so it doesnt make sense to say this
Ok Z/12Z, we have {[0]... [11]} as the actual group
Trivial subgroup is always one of the subgroups, but otherwise I don't think that there's anything that satisfies closed under products?
Because say we want [10], then we'd need [10] to be in the subgroup right?
I’m sorry I’ll wait
yeah
ok ill umm guide you in the right direction
first prove this
subgroups of cyclic groups are always cyclic
I think it has something to do with divisors
yeah
Divisors form subgroups?
So the Is <2> a subgroup of Z/12Z? It's closed under addition and inverses and contains identity
yep
<5> is not a subgroup of Z/12Z
it is
Oh
<5> generates the whole group though
<a> = <b> when both a and b generate the same set right?
I'm not sure
consider ||gcd||
Wait can you give me an example of <a> = <b>?
<2>=<10> in Z/12Z
actually let me give a better one
<5>=<10> in Z/25Z
yeah this is better, now try proving this
gcd(10, 2) = 2, gcd(10, 5) = 5; gcd(2, 12) = 2, gcd(10, 12) = 2; gcd(5, 25) = 5, gcd(10, 25) = 5
gcd(a, b) = gcd(a, n) = gcd(b, n)?
forget the first example btw
just the last equality is needed
try proving it
ill be going to sleep now, ill just tell you this then, all subgroups of cyclic groups are also cyclic, and as you showed is that if they have the same gcd then they induce the same subgroup. so the possible values of gcd uniquely determine the subgroup, how many values of gcd are there?
what do you mean by "how many values of gcd are there"?
given n, how many different values can gcd(a,n) take for arbritary a
(no need for explicit answer, just a description will suffice)
Isn't there only one value that it can take on?
That's the definitionof gcd isnt' it? The largest number that divides both?
note i said arbritary a
i.e what are
like for 6
gcd can take on 1,2,3,6
depending on the value of a
that's the number of divisors of n
I feel that it has something to do with coprimeness
But not sure
ok so umm lemme show you one case
we know Z/nZ = <1> right
generated by 1 that is
take any a that is coprime to n
we know there is some integer k such that ak=1
because inverses
can you carry this on
(i am actually going to sleep this time, sorry if my explanation was messy i was p sleepy the entire time)
nah you are fine, you werent obtuse i realize my explanation was a bit messy
let $H$ be a normal subgroup of $G$, and $f,g,f',g'\in G$ so that $g g'^{-1}\in H$ and $f f'^{-1}\in H$. I'm having trouble showing that $gff'^{-1}g'^{-1}\in H$
exele:
can anyone give me a hint?
but g and g' might not be the same
JohnDoeSmith:
sorry what?
umm multiply something to this to get the thing in your problem
okay, so you can use normality to get that g f f'^(-1) g^(-1) is in H, right?
So JohnDS is asking how you get from that to g f f'^(-1) g'^(-1)?
I think the other way around? But that's the idea
oh right k ty
Hi I have this question
And I did this
But I’m confused why 12 bar goes to 65 and why 5 bar goes to 31 instead of the other way around? Is it because we do the multiplicative inverse so both swap?
????
At the bottom of the 2nd picture
31 * 21 - 10 * 65 = 1, yes
The equivalence class part
ah well the equivalence class part is pulled out of thin air
Where I put in brackets next to it (12 bar goes to...)
not sure what any of that means
that looks more like numerology than mathematics
I mean it's an application of some kind of magic rule that we are not told about
so I can't really comment on the "so the class is ..." part
if you are going to obtain the result by computing 12 * a + 5 * b for some magic numbers a and b, what should a and b mod 31 and 65 be ?
anyone have a hint on this?
yeah
show B^G is ||integral over B||
( i did this exact exercise a few hrs ago in atiyah macdonald lol)
would anyone be willing to verify this?
lemma 17 btw
also, ik g could be factored slightly differently, but using a similar argument, we can show that the obtained system of equations doesn't have solutions
@brisk granite perhaps post this in the #advanced-number-theory channel
ok
@upper pivot I mean isn't it obvious that B^G is integral over B?
you mean integral over A right?
or sorry i meant B integral over B^G
ah
I'm sort of confused about this. Does G being {1} in C mean I'm only looking at scalars for X, if so isn't the only continuous map into 1 the constant map, so in this case this works?
You are looking at scalars, but your argument for why the Lie algebra should be that doesn't check out
Isn't the only continuous map into 1 the constant map, so the actual Lie algebra should be 0
What other scalar has exp(x) = 1
Haha, happens
No problem ❤️
When I'm calculating the degree of an extension using
[M:K]=[M:L] * [L:K]
Is [M:L] the dimension of the vector space of M in L?
🤔
ofc it is... I'm dumb
why does my book say the characteristic doesn't divide n?
I don't understand the reason for this constraint
Weird things happen if the characteristic divides n, i.e., that's how you get inseperable extensions
I see
Like this is basically the standard example of a non separable extension
Take F_p(t) for some indeterminant t
Then consider let a be the p-th root of t
Then the minimal polynomial of a is just x^p - t = (x - a)^p
and so the irreducible polynomial x^p - t isn't separable so your extension isn't galois
in Q(13), do you think they mean D is not the sum of squares in Q
like, D can be represented as a^2 + b^2 for rational a and b
or do they mean integer a and b?
oof, that makes it harder
Ah
Actually even easier, there's no ambiguity
A positive integer is the sum of two rational squares if and only if it is the sum of two integer squares
You're going to have to use https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sum_of_two_squares_theorem
In number theory, the sum of two squares theorem says when an integer n > 1 can be written as a sum of two squares, that is, when n = a2 + b2 for some integers a, b.
An integer greater than one can be written as a sum of two squares if and only if its prime decomposition cont...
Is there a reason why we never talk about the field formed by adjoining all reciprocal polynomials to a polynomial Ring?
What? People talk about that all the time
it's the field of rational functions (assuming the ring was an integral domain)
You're totally right. thanks.
so, this a problem I'm working on
and some of a solution
So, I can solve the problem when n is odd, but when p_1 = 2, then I'm not rly sure how to find d
notice that the only way to get more d's is to add more prime factors
just increasing the power of a prime doesn't change anything
(unless you're increasing it from 0 to 1 for odd primes or 1 to 2 for p = 2)
well actually I guess 2^3 actually gives you one more than 2^2
can you find the quadratic subfields of Q(zeta_8)?
can someone give me an example of two groups having more than 1 one isomorphisms between them
Z/3Z and Z/3Z
but if they were different groups
then they wouldn't have any isomorphisms between them
S_3 and D_3
[or D_6 if you use that convention, the symmetries of a triangle]
i mean this applies to
literally every pair of isomorphic groups
but the S_3 and D_3 one, just relabel the corners
intuitively you can map S_3 into D_3 by just labelling the vertices and rotating/reflecting the triangle appropriately
change the ordering of the "starting state" and each element of S_3 is mapped to a different combination of rotations/reflections, hence a different isomorphism
arent they essentially the same
yes, groups are isomorphic iff they are essentially the same.
that's the whole point of an isomorphism
the point is that different elements of the domain are mapped to different eleents of the codomain
like under the first drawing, {2, 3, 1} would be mapped to two clockwise rotations
yeah im just being dumb
whereas under the second, {2, 3, 1} would be mapped to a reflection and two clockwise rotations
thanks i get it
p* ?
g(1,p)^2
it's a quadratic gauss sum
so p* is either p or -p when p is 1 mod 4 or 3 mod 4
@brisk granite yep the answer is correct!
cool, thanks
Just wanted a quick clarification, the normalizer is a uh normal subgroup of G right?
I see the proof there that it's a subgroup. It is also normal by its definition
As the definition of a normal subgroup is "closed under conjugation", and the normalizer is the largest such group.
gH =Hg is refered as conjugation?
ghg' is a conjugation of h by g
So that element
We say a subset is closed under conjugation if, when it's conjugated by anything, is still in that subset. We write this (kinda with cheating) as gSg' = S
gS = Sg works too
Okay...that exact term
We have not been introduced
We generally say a subgroup is normal
If its left cosets and corresponding right cosets are equal
So when S is just a subset..till now it means nothing special to us.
Us mean all students who are studying with me in the same college
He said.and i quote".its clear that its a subgroup and that property which he is calling conjugation
Is the culprit behind making it a normal subgroup"
I am pretty sure that if S has a single element its normal but not sure when S has more...need to verify
what
Yall wat?
how is the normalizer normal?
just check any 2 elements subgroup of S_3
the normalizer of that is itself
which is not normal in S_3
Wdym
I think you just said "check any subgroup that isn't the normalizer, it won't be normal therefore the normalizer isn't normal"
no he gave a counterexample
the normalizer of {e, (1 2)} in S_3 is not normal in S_3
you should re-read the definition
I'm reading it
It contains more than 1 so i am fine
I think you're putting in a definition not equal to that one
you are wrong
Did it go wrong then kaynex for more than 1 elements in S