#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 480 of 407
wstayman:
Yes, that's correct
You should look at your textbook or notes
Anyway, use the same logic for Q(5^(1/4))
wstayman:
That's what's written as a definition in my notes
What have you tried furbo?
wstayman:
thanks
Must a finitely generated group where the orders of the generators are finite, be finite? I could see it going both ways but I can’t even think of an example where the order of the group exceeds the product of the order of the generators so maybe it can’t even go above that
sure, take free product of like, Z/2Z and Z/2Z
(this is a counterexample, group is infinite here)
Oh so just tautologically you consider words in 2 or more generators
That’s simple enough
yeah basically
Then I guess the question remains for finite groups, does there necessarily exist a set of generators the product of whose orders are the order of the group or lower***
hmm not necessarily for non-abelian groups
Yeah that was my thought too
the quaterion group should be a counterexample i think
Just looked that up, you’re right. Good call
I don't understand what R is and how to interpret R, I just know it is a commutative ring
Like for first bullet point, I already don't know why 1-1 imply isomorphism
do you know what a ring is?
JohnDoeSmith:
how does injective imply surjective though
the important part is with its image
f is always surjective onto its image, by defination
heres how he defined f
I don't understand it
like how its surjective
what if R is like the real numbers or something
we are not saying its surjective to R, but to its image, which is {n*1_R| n\in Z}
ohh
For the second bullet point, the subring {n*1_R | n in Z} would actually be a finite set right?
because presumably 1_R = m*1_R + 1_R if I am correct
np
for cyclic group like in this q, is it safe to assume d>0
like could I say wlog d>0 and why?
I sort of think you can but I just want a concise way to explain
0 doesn't divide any number other than 0
n can't be 0 because a group can't have 0 elements: it needs to have an identity
Yeah order is always positive
is there always a generator in any group?
and if so,
what if there is more than 1 generator
If a group is generated with 1 element then it's called a cyclic group
Klein four group is the smallest example of a group that is not cyclic
So not all groups have a single generator
is klein 4 Z/4Z?
No
Z/nZ is the cyclic group of order n: any cyclic group of order n is isomorphic to Z/nZ
alright, Z/nZ is not cyclic though I think, since for instance Z/6Z has generator [1]6 and [5]6
Well, the definition says that it's generated by a single element
It doesn't mean that it's generated by only that element
Yeah
i misinterpreted the def
In fact, the cyclic group of order n always have other elements that generates it
Um
Every non 0 element in Z/pZ generates it
By lagrange's theorem
For the cyclic group C_n generated by x, x^i will generate C_n if and only if gcd(i,n)=1
ic
How does your book define normal?
@graceful peak which part are you stuck on?
For the forward direction, you need to prove that the group axioms hold. For the reverse direction you should think through what it means for a product of right cosets to be a right coset, and then think about what it means for a right coset to have an inverse.
Ok so this is alittle bit long but I have these 2 pages
In the 2nd image, they say "Start with 1; reading the cycles from right to left, find the first cycles that moves 1 (1 -> 7)"
What do they mean by "Find the first cycle that moves 1 (1 -> 7)?
Permutation notation is always a pain and is not standard across the board, which leads to this type of confusion
The idea is to take the permutation (1 4 3 6)(2 8 7)(2 4 8 5)(1 7) and "apply" it to 1
What this means is that you start at the right, and find the first cycle containing 1, in this case it is (1 7)
So you know that 1 is sent to 7, but we're not done with the permutation. Now we need to take (1 4 3 6)(2 8 7)(2 4 8 5) and see where it sends 7
(2 4 8 5) doesn't contain a 7, so we can skip it. Then we get to (2 8 7), which sends 7 to 2
Finally we need to see where (1 4 3 6) sends 2, but it doesn't contain 2 so it sends 2 to itself
Therefore 1 gets send to 2.
One way to think of this type of permutation notation is like function composition. You think of each cycle as a function, and the permutation written out as their composite. Then in order to apply it to an element, you read the functions from right to left. Hope this helps! 🙂
See where it sends 1
where (sigma)(tau) sends 1?
Overall yeah that's what you're trying to find, but you can decompose (sigma)(tau) as a product of cycles (which I'm saying you can think of as a composite of functions) and then see where 1 is sent by starting with the rightmost cycle
So our rightmost cycle in the expression (sigma)(tau) is (1 7)
Yeah
Err
I get how to go and do the first part where you treat it as a compositiont of sigma and tau
Like sigma(tau(x)) and get a new table and then make a new cycle from that
But I don't understand how they're getting it directly from the cycle notations
In step (1), they write the cycle notation for sigma, followed by the cycle notation for tau
But this needs to be simplified, and the way you can do this is how I described - start with 1 and see where it is sent, by reading the cycles from right to left
So we see that 1 is sent to 7
And then we walk to the left and look for the next cycle that affects 7?
Yeah exactly!
Which we see to be 2?
Yeah therefore (sigma)(tau) sends 1 to 2
And then we see that if we go further left there are no more cycles that affect 2 so we conclude that (sigma)(tau)(1) = 2
Oh ok I think I see it now
And you continue that to get the one line notation
And from the one line notation you get the cycle notation for (sigma)(tau)
So they're not directly getting the cycle notation for (sigma)(tau) from the 2 cycle notations written side by side
https://youtu.be/MpKG6FmcIHk this video explains the notation very well imo
Cycle Notation gives you a way to compactly write down a permutation. Since the symmetric group is so important in the study of groups, learning cycle notation will speed up your work with the group Sn. In this lesson we show you how to convert a permutation into cycle notat...
Very clearly explains how to read it
Wait but is what I said correct? that they're not getting the cycle notation directly just by writing it side by side, but that they're writing it side by side to generate the one-line notation to then go and get th ecycle?
I’m not sure what you mean with that
Like they're not directly going from (1 4 3 6)(2 8 7)(2 4 8 5)(1 7) to (1 2 3 6)(4 7)(5 8)
What do you mean by directly though?
I don’t think it’s as simple as looking at it and knowing, no
ok yea because thats' what I htought that they were doing lol
You can think about these cycles as certain elements of the symmetric group, and in this case (1 4 3 6)(2 8 7)(2 4 8 5)(1 7) = (1 2 3 6)(4 7)(5 8) is a valid expression in the group
It's not easy to simplify these things without working through where elements go though
The video I sent has a good algorithm for simplifying those I think
I thought that they had some sort of magic that let you easily go through it without working it out
Yea I'm watching it right now
There are some easy cases, for example (1 2)(3 4) = (3 4)(2 1) because the cycles are disjoint
And you can do stuff like (1 2)(2 1) = id is the identity element, fixing every element
Yeah! Glad you like it 🙂
I’ve always wanted to give this tip
this is uh my introduction to groups and rings class lol
Read cycle notation like a manga
lmao @chilly ocean I love that

How do you like algebra so far @shy bluff ?
I've been struggling with the following problem for a while now
Let $f \in \mathbb{F}_p[x]$ be a polynomial of degree $ d \geq 2$ and consider the Froebenius map on the quotient ring $R := \mathbb{F}_p[x]/(f)$; $\Phi(g) = g^p$
Azu:
Assume $f$ is separable. Prove that $f$ is irreducible if and only if $rank(\Phi - id_R) = d -1$
Azu:
I have already managed to do the forward direction, assuming f is irreducible. I have no idea how to do the backwards direction though
@wise grove fun so far
I think I have a proof that every unital PID has a lattice of ideals just like Z’s (I is contained in J iff J’s generator divides I’s generator). I didn’t want to spam the chat with the proof so could someone just tell me if that statement is correct?
@chilly ocean your problem is interesting. Can you tell me how did u get the forward implication?
@steady axle assuming $f$ is irreducible, let $\alpha$ be a root of $f$, so that $R$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{F}_p(\alpha)$; we do all work in the simple extension for brevity
Azu:
Actually I did get till here but could not proceed hereafter
Hi guys who wanna help me?

@chilly ocean in questions y
that is definitely not abstract algebra lol
Well i don't know what the hell abstract algebra is sorry...@chilly ocean
you should read the channel description then
@steady axle continuing, we know the Froebenius endomorphism fixes the base field, so the rank(blah) is less than or equal to d -1
Consider an arbitrary polynomial in $\alpha$ of degree $ 1 \leq n < d$
Azu:
Call this polynomial $g(\alpha)$
Azu:
@chilly ocean yes I am with u
I think there may have been an error in my earlier proof, I'm re-doing it right now
K
sorry lol
@steady axle I think I got it
We write $g$ explicitly; $g(\alpha) = c_n\alpha^n + c_{n-1}\alpha^{n-1} + ... + c_1\alpha + c_0$
Azu:
Suppose $\Phi$ fixes $g$; then $(\Phi - id)(g) = c_n\alpha^n(\alpha^{(p-1)n}-1) + c_{n-1}\alpha^{n-1}(\alpha^{(p-1)(n-1)-1} + ... + c_1\alpha(\alpha^{p-1} -1) = 0$
Azu:
The monicized version of $f$ must divide this polynomial
Azu:
That polynomial has degree $d$, so we have that $d|(pn)$ since the degree of the above polynomial is $pn$
Azu:
um
I don't know how to proceed from here, actually
I want to prove $d|(p-1)n$ or $d|(p+1)n$
Azu:
for which rings $R$ is it true that $R={0}\sqcup U \sqcup Z$ where $U$ are the units and $Z$ are the zero divisors
Bobbicals:
Sounds kind of hard
This doesn't imply localness, take Z/2Z × Z/2Z
Minimal prime ideals consist of zero divisors, but I don't think that's helpful here
The set of zero divisors (plus zero) will be closed under multiplication, but maybe not addition
If R is an integral domain then it's a field, but I don't think this property is preserved when quotienting so I'm not sure if prime implies maximal
as I said above, minimal prime ideals are only zero divisors, so if the dimension of R is 0 then maximal => minimal and so any element of R which isn't a unit is contained in a minimal prime ideal, and thus is a unit
Any artinian ring satisfies this I think?
@steady axle following up: $\alpha-1$ is a common factor of all the terms in that polynomial, so we can divide it out and the leading term will have degree pn -1, and $\alpha$ will still be a root, so $d|pn-1$ but this implies that $d|1 \implies d = 1$ since $d|pn$
Azu:
however, $d \geq 2$
Azu:
is this for the irreducible => rank is d-1 part?
yes
Do you know the classification of finite fields?
yeah, they're all isomorphic to F_p^n for some n
actually you don't need the classification for what I had in mind
since f is irreducible, the quotient ring is an integral domain
thus x^p - x has at most p roots
so the kernel is dimension 1, and the image is dimension d - 1 by rank nullity
Yeah I was about to say
what the f*** made me make that trivial mistake?!
@latent anvil so, how do you jump from x^p -x having at most p roots to the kernel having dimension 1?
The set of roots is exactly the kernel
And so the kernel has size <= p
We know it's contains Fp also, so the kernel is Fp
Fp is 1 dimensional
Yeah sorry
It's ok
is sending Z to Z/mZ an example of ii)
Yes
ty
thanks for the response @latent anvil, it wasn't a problem that I was given but while working through an example my teacher assumed that if a nonzero element is not a unit then it is a zero divisors
and I was like "what the heck" so I thought there might be some nice rule to tell you when you can use it
the ring in question was the set of upper triangular 2x2 matrices with entries from Z_2
Oh well that is actually easy to see
Your condition is true for any finite ring
If r is an element of R, r is not a zero divisor (or zero) iff the multiplication by r function R -> R is injective
It's a unit iff that function is bijective
For a finite set R, a function R -> R is injective iff it is bijective
:O thanks
@chilly ocean we still have to prove the other way right?
@steady axle not anymore
@chilly ocean how
Somebody else gave me the answer, I can post it if you want
yeah I saw that answer but it answers only the forward direction right?
No, the other direction was on a different server lol
but it uses the Chinese Remainder Theorem
Do you want an invite?
that will do
Suppose I have single variable irreducible integer polynomials f1(t),...,fn(t) (which aren't unit multiple of one another). Is the ideal (f1(x1),...,fn(xn)) of Z[x1,...,xn] prime?
You have a map from Z[x1,...,xn] into C sending xi to a root of fi, but it's not clear to me that this has the right kernel
for part 3
what does it mean to be associative and closed
f(a) in H, f(b) in H, then f(ab) in H or f(a)f(b) in H?
and for associative, isn't it just inherited from the fact that the entire H is associative
Yeah, associativity is inherited; that's why some people don't include associativity as something you need to check separately in the definition of a subgroup
Yeah
so i assume I use homomorphism property there
sounds güd
in particular because you have nothing else that makes f special except this property
what part of this problem explains why bijective is needed
i tried to prove this and i never used bijective
an inverse function doesn't exist unless its bijective?
f needs to be bijective for f^-1 to exist
ok
but
the inverse function is defined, so what part of not being bijective contradicts f^-1(f(g)) = g?
But its not well-defined unless f is bijective
a function is invertible if and only if it is bijective
nothing fancy about groups here, this applies to all functions.
i.e., if you have g and g' \in G such that f(g) = f(g') = h, then what is f^{-1}(h)
@scarlet estuary I understand this concept, but im just hypothetically saying suppose f^-1 is a function is defined this way, without calling it an inverse, and I am asking why it cannot exist
zoph gave a counterexample in the case that f isnt injective
if f isnt surjective then
there exists a y in the codomain such that y is not equal to f(x) for any x
so what is f^{-1}(y)?
anyway there's a billion proofs of "bijective iff invertible" online
you can just google them
yea i know that, its just when I proved this I didn't use anything about bijective
so I thought it was weird
you're implicitly invoking bijective-ness when you start talking about the inverse
if you have "the inverse exists", then yeah, thats all you need
as far as "applications of bijectivity to this question"
the problem already uses the bijective assumption right
yep, in its statement
what does the triangle symbol mean
and G/N
I'm just curious, I don't think I can solve it
means N is a normal subgroup of G and G/N is a quotient group
ah ok
@graceful peak I think the answer should be that yes, G is finitely generated
Pick a finite set of generators for N, say n_1, ..., n_t and h_1N, ..., h_sN generators of G/N. Now each element g of G lies in some coset of N which can be written as v(h_1, ..., h_s)N for some word v
in other words g = v(h_1, ..., h_s)n for some n in N, using the generators n = w(n_1, ..., n_t) for some word w, thus g = v(h_1, ..., h_s)w(n_1, ..., n_t)
so, unless I'm missing something, this would mean that G is generated by n_1, ..., n_t, h_1, ..., h_s
I need help for questions
@hot bridge do you understand the question?
Do you know about cycle notation?
yes i know cyle rotation
for examle (132) means 1-->3 3-->2 and 2-->1
but i dont understand this question What should we do ?
Can you think of two other permutations that, when composed, produce this permutation such that one of them has order 3 and the other has order 4?
When I write two cylcle with 4 and 3 order will it give all of f ?
I need to find how many homeomorphisms there are of Z into Z10, can someone tell me how to start this problem?
we would need to take a look at the generators of Z and divisors of 10 right @solemn rain
-1 and 1 generate Z and the divisors or 10 are 1,2,5,10
Oh
not the divisors
Is Fun(X, X) basically like... "Name of set (Inputs, outputs)"?
( i am using Z_10 = Z/10Z )
So like if it were X x X -> X then it'd be Fun(X x X, X)?
@shy bluff Fun(X,X) = { f | f is a function from X to X }
np
so for a homomorphism
f: Z---> Z_10
f(1^k) = 7^j
thats for any function since any element in Z is 1^k for some integer k and any element in Z_10 is 7^j for some integer j
now notice that since f is as homomorphism u need |x| = |f(x)|
so u need to map generators to generators
now try to find ur homomoprhisms using all this
slimvesus:
slimvesus:
Well for a homomorphism $\varphi:\bZ\to\bZ/10\bZ$, the map is uniquely defined by the value of $\varphi(1)$.
Whoever:
@solemn rain Does this proof look about right?
yea
np
thank you guys
np
btw
In your original question
You asked for a "homeomorphism", which is different from a "homomorphism"
homeomorphism refers to something in topology, and not algebra
Uh @solemn rain how would I prove that the identity function Id_X is an identity for o?
I assume that the idnetity functino Id_x is a function such that
Id_x(x) = x for any element x in X
but what do they mean by "Id_x is an identity for o"
is an identity under composition
f(id(x)) = id(f(x))) = f(x)
for any f
for all x
np
I was going to go and d osomething like id((x o y)(a)) = (x o y)(id(a)) = (x o y)(a)
For any x, y in Fun(X, X) and a in X
Dose this make any sense?
yea u also need surjection but okay
I'm trying to proev that a function f is left-invertible if and only if it's injective
So uh
Surjection is for right-invertibliity
yea mb
But uh this looks right it's proving that it's left-invertible if injective?
yea
but this doesnt' work for empty set case?
what empty set case
if X is empty
Then there's no x_1, x_2, or y
Err
The entire proof doesnt' seem to really work?
if X is empty then whats in Func(X,X) ?
Yea that's what I mean
Oh wait
Actually yea
That makes sence
You can't have Func(X, X) be empty
if X is empty
Or rather, if X is empty
the only possible function is x-->x
Identity function?
its bijective
if H and K are subgroups of a group G
H intersects K is a subgroup of G
if H and K are of order m and n respectively
what do u think would be the order of H intersects K
( think of lagranges theorem )
@graceful peak
H intersects K is a subgroup of G
also a subgroup of H
and also a subgroup of K
the order of H intersects K must divide H and K
if H has order n and K has order m
then order of H intersects K must be lcm(m,n)
but Ha is subgroup
it must be ncluded inverses element
then Ha =H
but i dont understand too
what did you find the answer @solemn rain
this question dont want to A intersection B
we have to find Ha intersection Hb
Ha and Hb are subgroups of G of order 6
does there exist elements in certain groups such that a*b = a, where b is not the identity?
oops
i mean in rings
hm i think in rings you can do this right?
ab - a = 0
then use distributivity
2 * 3 = 2 in Z/4Z
Yeah, for this to be possible, a must be a zero divisor, since ab - a = 0 implies that a(b -1) = 0 like you described
Ok so part c) here
I did part a and part b
And I'm somewhat? stuck on part c)
So far what I have is that, for the left-invertible case
- Let f be an element of Fun(X, X) which is left-invertible.
- By b) we know that if it is left-invertible it is injective
What I think that I have to do is show that it is not necessarily surjective
And then show that there must be an element of X that f does not map to?
Does that sound about right?
oh but it has to be an arbitrary f
hrm
I'll think on this some more and try some stuff in the morning
thank you for confirming that I'm heading in the right direction though!
np!
Hrm what about the function x^2
Since X is infinite, x^2 is in X
It's uh injective but not surjective I think
That makes no sense
What if X is the set {cats, dogs, 1,2,3,4,5,6,....}
what's cats^2
X isn't a group
Oh this is true
anyone enlighten me on how to approach this set of problem
I know what all of them means, I just cant connect together
just play around with it
take some ring with characteristic 0 like Z, take some ring with characteristic p like Z/pZ
see if you can do the things they describe
ok, ill try
improvise, adapt, overcome
if char(R) = p is R finite
No
Uh, maybe the easiest example is taking (Z/pZ) and taking an infinite direct product of it with itself
what do you mean though? I thought in Z/pZ there was always p elements
Yeah, but like, you know what (Z/pZ) x (Z/pZ) means right
lol
oh well
Polynomials with coefficients in Z/pZ
what do you mean?
Like the way they define char(R) is related to f:Z->R and whether its 1-1 or smallest element that is in kernel
if R was F_p[x], how do you construct something like x^2+x+1
I'm having trouble understanding what you mean by construct
If R is F_p[x], then x^2 + x + 1 is an element of R
ah I see yeah
it will only be surjective for a small number of rings
Z and Z/nZ for any positive integer n
actually i heard of power set, but not power ring
yeah you can put a ring structure on the powerset of any set
it'll have characteristic 2
don't worry about it though
I mean so far i did iii) and iv)
nvm
i only did iv) which is f:Z/pZ->Z is a homomorphism
or it may not be..
like I don't even know what are the typical ring homomorphism
ok, I know f:Z->Z/pZ is ring homomorphism
so iii) is true ii) is false, leaving i) and iv)
Ok, I cannot think of how to find out if i) and iv) is true
1 looks true but I don't know how to prove, and 4 looks false but then same problem
can't prove
Well, if you think its false then you need to come up with a counterexample
No
for iv) it says there can exist
but then I'll have to prove there can't exist
thats why i could do ii) and iii)
bodied zoph
LHC, what have you tried for iv?
like, suppose you have a map f : S -> R?
why does this feel wrong?
i don't know what to try
I want to relate Z-> R to R->S
but how do you do that
Z -> R is 1-1 is what i know
R must be infinite, bu then as shown from F_p[x] this can also be infinite
so there's two things I think would be useful here
the first is to think about the more concrete definition of characteristic
the characteristic of R is the order of 1 in the additive group of R
the second is that there's only one map Z -> R, so Z -> R must be the composition of the maps Z -> S and S -> R (if you have a map S -> R)
ohh
now it makes more sense
thanks for reminding me of the unique map thing I forgot about it
but how do you show the map is unique, our prof didn't show it
he just stated it as proposition
prove it
ok
Say that i want to show that the fifth cyclotomic polynomial is irreducible in F_2(X). I am given that x^2+x+1 is the only irreducible polynomial in F_2[x]. I have prooved this by proving that [p] generates the group (Z/nZ)*, where n is 5 and p is 2 in this case.
However, can it be proven by checking if x^2+x+1 | fith cyclotomic polynomial? If so why / why not?
@mild laurel what if I have that f is some function that takes the nth element of x, and maps it to the 2n-th element of X
Or does that also not work because it assumes ordering of your set
But uh assuming that a set is ordered I believe that that is injective but not surjective
Like let f:X -> X be the function that maps f(x_n) = x_{2n}, whereby n denotes its position in the set X
Since X is infinite 2n is defined and an element of X
And this is injective because f(x_i) = x_{2i} = f(x_j) would require i = j
how to prove i)?
map everything to 0?
the issue with that I think is f(1_R) = 1_S and 1_s ≠ 0_s
please I need help, this is due very soon
I just realized i) is false,
can anyone confirm, because I used the example f:Q->Z/pZ
and f(1/3+1/3+1/3) ≠ f(1/3)+f(1/3)+f(1/3)
solved
does this follow by definition of injective object and considering cokernel of d_i-1
@vale coral you mean that X2+x+1 is the only irreducible polynomial of degree 2
Consider the fifth cyclotomic poly. If it is reducible what should be the degrees of it's factors?
Let us name the fifth cyclotomic poly q. Deg(q) = 4, so then say f,g are factors of q then deg(q) = deg(f)+deg(q) right? @steady axle
right. but you can say more. do you know what the polynomial is?
what is your definition for nth cyclotomic polynomial
Also degree of product is sum of degrees
@steady axleMy definition is: \prod_{1\leq k \leq n, gcd(k,n) = 1} (X-e^(2\pi i k/n))
So the fifth poly becomes x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x + 1
can i make it like z5xz5?
yeah the rank of ZxZ/H has to be exactly 1 by tensoring with R and applying rank nullity lmao
and then you just have to compute the torsion
If I have the congruence x^3-x+1 ≡ 2 (mod 5) and I wanna rewrite it to a congruence of the form x ≡ y (mod 5) for some y \in Z. How do I get rid of the exponents. I understand the case where there is a coefficient e.g. the congruence was 2x ≡ 3 (mod 7, here I would just have to multiply by the inverse of 2 mod 7. If someone could explain for the exponentation part it would be amazing.
hmm I can only think of very ugly ways to do this
but also you can't necessarily do this obviously
yeah theres no general method here
and i cant see of an immediate path in this case
I think you want to look at x^3-x-1 \cong 0 mod 5 though
Oh right that still factors
x-2 is a factor of that
lol
yeah thats the only thing i could see but fuck modular factoring
lol
It is a congrunce in a system of congrunces. Not sure if that helps?
Von Hage, compare with the equation x^3 - 3x + 1 = 2 over the real numbers
you can't get it into the form x = something
x^3−x+ 1≡ 2 (mod 5)
2x^2 ≡ 1 (mod 7)
x ≡ 7 (mod 11)
is the entire thing and I have to use CRT on it in the exercise.
lmao
Honestly I would probably do the first one explicitly
And find that x = 2
Like, just plug in all 5 possible values of x
there are some little tricks you should think of I guess
like fermat's little theorem and shit
yeah honestly for small modulos
but they don't apply here so much
It is from an old exam set so I think I have to use some tricks to make the system applicable of CRT.
ah
I don't see a way to do that for the first one except doing it explicitly tbh
i was gonna say "for small modulos just pretend youre in Z/nZ and test all possibilities"
i think this still holds actually
yeah
Aight. For this one 2x^2 ≡ 1 (mod 7) would it work to take inverse of 2 mod 7 and multiply the equation with that and then do sqrt on both sides?
No
Kind of
What does sqrt mean, is the problem?
Yes you should first reduce to x^2 = 4 mod 7
And in this case you know what the solutions are because 4 is a perfect square over Z
and get x = 2 mod 7
No
You could have x = 5 mod 7
Also, how would you solve something like x^2 = 6 mod 13?
You can't take the squareroot of 6
That is true
(i didn't actually check if that has solutions, but sometimes it will)
So you can say x^2 = 4 mod 7 has at most 2 solutions
And then you can say "oh 2 and -2 are solutions"
Which tells you x^2 = 4 mod 7 implies x = 2 mod 7 or x = -2 mod 7
Does that make sense?
np
So to recap
For the first one, you really just need to try all the possibilities
Which sucks but there's only 5 of them
For the 2nd, multiply by 2^(-1) = 4 and observe that x^2 = 4 mod 7 implies x = 2 mod 7 or x = -2 = 5 mod 7
For the last one, it's already x = 7 mod 11
So you get two possible systems
One system would be with x = 2 mod 7 and the second system would be with x = -2 = 5 mod 7 right ?
Yes, exactly
And then you can apply CRT to get two possibilities for x mod 5711=385
actually the fact that x^2=4 has only two solutions is a bit nontrivial if you don't know Z/7Z is a field
Yeah I originally said "by, uh, reasons"
lol
yeah
yes
yeah that's an iff
What's an example of a quadratic with too many solutions mod n?
what about Z/1Z liquid
Oh is that the field with 1 element?
yes

Z isnt a field you fucking idiot

lmao
From my department lounge chat
just shoves in morally
yeah
Z's morally a topological space
this is the motivation behind the p-adics
the one they dont want you to know
So for this question, I'm trying to go and prove it in the direction of assume that pi is order 2 and show that it cannot have any cycles larger than 2
Now if pi has a cycle that's longer than 2 then it has a cycle of length k that takes on thef orm (a_1... a_k)
And when we do pi^2 we see that all cycles other than this cycle map to their origin? Map to their respective identities? that is, all 1-cycles nothing changes and all transpositions are returned back to the original form
But I don't know how to deal with this (a_1... a_k) term
Like I know that this term would only go and map any input element twicee
So it'd map whatever you throw at it to a_3
I think that makes sense
If there's a cycle of length > 2, there's some element which you apply the permutation to twice and not get that element back
A good exercise (more general than this) is to determine the order of an arbitrary element in terms of its disjoint cycle decomposition
What do you mean
Suppose you have an element π in S_n
And you know the cycle decomposition of π
So e.g. π is a 2 cycle times two 3 cycles (all disjoint)
What's the order of π?
that's true in this case, but why?
2 * 3 = 6, we have 1 2 cycle and we have 2 3 cycles
And in general, if you have n_i number of k_i cycles, what's the order?
All cycles are disjoint
So that means that you can cycle the 3 cycles back to their initial positions with 3 appliacitons of pi
What about if you multiply π by a disjoint 6 cycle? What's the order of this new element?
Yup!
Oooh
Yes
I dont' think that I can actually use that result in her ebecause we have'nt learnt it yet
But tht's interesting!
Oh yeah I just think it's worth knowing about
Yea
It is
Learning about it beforehand will make learning it in class in a month much easier haha
Is there a generalization of the prime numbers to more general algebraic structures with the notion of a product and the notion of a multiplicative identity?
More specifically, this question came up naturally to me while studying some ODEs. And I was thinking about a way to generalize the natural numbers to the real numbers.
Or maybe even the complex numbers or more general Cayley-Dickson constructions if I could.
But for now, let's just stack to the question of trying to generalize the prime numbers to the real numbers.
Interesting that you should ask, as this question is very central to abstract algebra.
In mathematics, specifically in abstract algebra, a prime element of a commutative ring is an object satisfying certain properties similar to the prime numbers in the integers and to irreducible polynomials. Care should be taken to distinguish prime elements from irreducible e...
though perhaps https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Irreducible_element is a better analogue
In abstract algebra, a non-zero non-unit element in an integral domain is said to be irreducible if it is not a product of two non-units.
(the naming is for historical reasons)
Ohhhh
But in particular, could I generalize the prime numbers to the field of the real numbers using either of these two definitions?
We have a common structure called a ring. You get addition, subtraction, and multiplication, but you don't get division for every element.
Elements in rings factor. When they don't factor anymore, they're called irreducible.
anyway, if you use either of these definitions, R doesnt really have anything of the sort
Sadly not this way, since the real numbers are a field, and doesn't have elements that don't divide.
yeah indeed, fields in general dont really have any structure comparable to primes
but rings do
this is fundamental to galois theory
That's sad
Because I was here trying to think about properties of the prime numbers that don't rely entirely on the idea of division.
thats what irreducible is meant to capture
Because what is really important to me, is the fundamental theorem of arithmetic.
not a product of two nonunits
So
FTA is very... R biased
Can I find a infinite subset of the real numbers, such that every real number can be written as a finite product of those?
its not much of a "fundamental theorem of algebra" so much as "fundamental theorem of the algebra of the real/complex numbers"
That was my first attempt to generalize prime numbers.
Srry
Fundamental theorem of arithmetic
ah okay
Lmao
i was kinda confused
It's not a well formed question, since R itself can be that infinite subset
Silly mistake
anyway, yeah, theres a lot of deep theory in ring theory about exactly those questions
What about a countable subset of R?
Ooh now you're talking
i'm assuming you mean
countably infinite
anyway, no, since that would be a bijection between that set and R
Set theory strikes again
Wait how? Haha I think I got lost
theres a bijection between the naturals and finite strings of naturals
hence if you have a countable set, theres a bijection between that set and finite products of elements of that set, which then surjects into R
[if we assume the condition]
sure, take R \ {1} for example
nooooooo
as long as it contains 0
I need more restrictions in order to make this problem interesting
I like where your head is at, and there's definitely something interesting here
and of course there are uncountable sets where the converse is true
such as [0, 1)
you cant write 2 as a product of elements of this interval
no matter what you do
what other properties do the prime numbers have that could be used to generalize them to the field of the real numbers?
if we could do something like that, we'd have already done it
besides FTA
Needs to be better than countable, but worse than a proper subset
Continuum Hypothesis lmao
the definition of a prime element in a ring is
p | ab implies p | a or p | b
then p is a prime element
this isnt true for any nonunit/nonzero element of R so
yeahhhhhh
You're definitely more interested in an irreducible element. Has no non-unit, non-associate factors
well actually
let me state that more precisely
R is a field so every element is, formally, a unit
except 0
so uh
this means that something like the FTA holds, yes
but... its a trivial statement
:/
as in it doesnt say anything
In mathematics, a unique factorization domain (UFD) (also sometimes called a factorial ring following the terminology of Bourbaki) is a ring in which a statement analogous to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic holds. Specifically, a UFD is an integral domain (a nontrivial c...
we call R a UFD, but trivially so
more interesting is UFDs that arent fields
Oh :/
I feel we're straying pretty far. You wanted to talk about R
Ultimately the problem with R is that every element "looks the same" when it comes to division
Screw 0, gotta be a snowflake
Maybe I could better formalize this problem if I gave myself more time
and knew more about modern algebra
I literally just thought about this 10min ago and thought it would be a fun concept lmao
there are certainly other properties of the primes you could try and apply to R but
besides properties like "is equal to 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ..." or whatever
which are obviously "cheating"
i dont think theres a good way to make them apply to R
without applying to all nonzero elements of R, or none of them
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Maybe with some more restrictions this could be made a more fun non trivial problem
but idk
surely would need more time in modern algebra to deeply think about this
anyway
thanks
thanks y'all @stone fulcrum , @scarlet estuary
Np thanks for asking! Come back with more
Hi, I was having trouble proving a certain result. If the polynomials (x² - a), (x² - b), and (x^2 - ab), are irreducible in F then √b ∉ F(√a). To get a better understanding I've tried thinking of examples and came up with, the case F = Q (rationals), a = 3, b = 5. This amounts to proving √5 ∉ Q(√3). I tried proceeding by contradiction and assuming √5 = c + d√3 where c, d ∈ Q but can't seem to proceed. Could someone please give me a hint?
assume sqrt(b) = c + dsqrt(a). Then, 0 = c^2 + d^2a - b + 2cd sqrt(a).
so, now, you now either c or d is 0?
so, see what happens in each case
Oh alright, this makes sense. I was initially trying to arrive at a contradiction by showing one the polynomials to be reducible. Once I couldn't proceed even in the example case I realized I was missing something more fundamental. Thanks a lot, this clears things up!
np
Could I have a bit of help with this Q?
I've been told this result is false, but I've made a proof for it: Let K be the splitting field of x^4 + ax^3 + bx^2 + cx + d over Q. If Gal(K/Q) is Z/4Z, then a = c = 0.
proof: Suppose Gal(K/Q) is Z/4Z. Then, K has a quadratic subfield — Q(\sqrt(D)). Since [L:Q(sqrt(D))] = 2, there exists alpha such that L = Q(D, alpha) and alpha^2 belongs in Q(\sqrt(D)). [Q(alpha):Q] = 4 since Z/4Z only has one group of order 2. Then, L = Q(alpha).
Let alpha^2 = a + b(sqrt(D)). Then, (alpha^2 - a)^2 - b^2D = 0 and alpha^4 -2a(alpha^2) + (a^2 -b^2D) = 0. Hence, L is the splitting field f(x) = x^4 -2a(x^2) + (a^2 -b^2D).
so, is there something wrong with the proof or is the result true?
please invoke latex, this is really hard to read
(just put some $ around the formulas)
yeah, but gotta use mathrm and stuff for things like Gal(K/Q)
I've been told this result is false, but I've made a proof for it: Let $K$ be the splitting field of $x^4 + ax^3 + bx^2 + cx + d$ over $\mathbb{Q}$. If $\mathrm{Gal}(K/\mathbb{Q})$ is $\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$, then $a = c = 0$.\
Proof: Suppose $\mathrm{Gal}(K/\mathbb{Q})$ is $\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$. Then, $K$ has a quadratic subfield — $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{D})$. Since $[L:\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{D}] = 2$, there exists $\alpha$ such that $L = \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{D}, \alpha)$ and $\alpha^2$ belongs in $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{D})$. $[\mathbb{Q}(\alpha):\mathbb{Q}] = 4$ since $\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$ only has one group of order $2$. Then, $L = \mathbb{Q}(\alpha)$.
Let $\alpha^2 = a + b(\sqrt{D})$. Then, $(\alpha^2 - a)^2 - b^2D = 0$ and $\alpha^4 -2a(\alpha^2) + (a^2 -b^2D)$ = 0. Hence, $L$ is the splitting field $f(x) = x^4 -2a(x^2) + (a^2 -b^2D)$.
so, uh, is the proof wrong?
@somber bramble btw, is this better?
PolyBeanDip:
does being the splitting field of a polynomial of that form exclude being the splitting field of a polynomial that is not of this form?
provided the arithmetic at the end is correct I don’t see any other mistakes but it’s been a while since I did galois theory
so I might be missing sth obvious (e.g. that the subfield is ℚ(√D) is the only possibility, right?)
the existence of K follows from the fundamental theorem of galois theory, right?
uh I mean of the subfield of K
it follows from "the galois correspondence" according to my textbook
ah ok
I have a question again. I asked it very similarly earlier but I think I said something unclearly and only now noticed, when I wanted to look at the answers more closely, so I’ll ask it again but be more specific :P
does being the splitting field of a polynomial of that form exclude being the splitting field of a polynomial that is not of this form?
actually, I think this isn't true. So, the proof doesn't work. Eg: x^3 + x^2 + x + 1 and (x - 1/3)^3 + (x - 1/3)^2 + (x - 1/3) + 1
I have a sequence of free groups $G_n$ whose generators I will write as $x_\alpha$ where $\alpha$ is a binary sequence of $n$ elements. So e.g. $G_2 = \langle x_{00}, x_{01}, x_{10}, x_{11} \rangle$. I also have injections $i_n \colon G_n \to G_{n+1}$ defined via $i_n(x_\alpha) = [x_{\alpha0}, x_{\alpha1}]$. Finally, $G = \lim_{\rightarrow} G_n$. I need to argue that $G$ is free.
Now in the previous discussion the assumed situation was that the bases of the free groups I have could be chosen coherently (i.e. in such a way that the injections restrict to maps between the bases). But as far as I can tell this is not the situation here, as there is no element $x$ such that $\langle x, [a,b] \rangle$ is the whole of $\langle a,b \rangle$. In that case the proof was pretty straightforward because you could choose as the basis just the direct limit of the bases. I’m not really sure how to procede here. As before I don’t actually have to prove this, providing a reference would be enough.
Sascha Baer:
it should be correct
it’s the fundamental group of the exterior of alexander’s horned sphere
which is supposedly free
if it's true it would be the free group on countably many generators, and it would be equal to its derived subgroup, which seems obviously false to me
ah hm maybe I managed to confuse my advisor into lying to me
I also misremembered a claim from another paper here’s what it says there
so not free but “locally free”
which if my googling is correct means that every finitely-generated subgroup of it is free, but it need not be free itself?
yes that's obvious
Q is my favourite non-free locally free group
I'm not sure what it means to not have finite rank for a locally free group though
(with some “abelian” thrown in there you mean?)
I suppose it means that there is no finite generating set?
ah maybe
that much is true, anyway
yes
May I have some help with problem 13?
So far, I've been able to show all Z/4Z extensions of Q are splitting fields of some polynomial of the form x^4 + ax^2 + b
So, now I think we can do something with Kaplansky's Theorem
But, uh, I haven't been able to do anything beyond this
may I have a hint?
you mean Kronecker's theorem ?
Uh, no
I don't know of any Kaplansky's theorem
this one
anyway, maybe this isn't the way to go
cuz I have no concrete idea about what to do with this theorem
well you have to use it
if you know that every potential extension can be generated with a polynomial of that kind
Btw, the converses of points 1 and 2 are true as well
Do I also have to use the sum of squares theorem?
well you have to use it
I'm not sure how tho
is it true that any Z/4Z-extension can be generated with such a polynomial ?
Um, Zef, you still there?
can anyone suggest some reading material for understanding/solving this please?
I know I have to use smith normal form and tried reading up on it in dummit & foote and had trouble understanding it/relating to my question
Row reduce it, lol. That will give you the kernel of your group
Can i say any Aut(G) for G of order n is isomorphic to S_n
Hello I have a the following question:
Say S = F_p[X] / <X^3 - X + 1>.
I need to show that S is not a domain if p = 5.
To do this I was thinking about finding a zerodivisor in S, because if one exists S is not a domain.
The elements in S can be expressed as b0 + b1X + b2X^2.
However I am unable to find a zero divisor from this?
I know that x^3 - X + 1 is reducible if p = 5. I have a feeling that this fact is useable however I don't see how.
take Z/pZ, Aut has order p-1
well what does it mean to be a zero divisor in the reduced ring
in terms of the ideal and original ring
@vale coral
(oops i gtg, but basically if you have x^3-x+1 is reduable in F_5, then x^3-x+1=f(x) g(x), what happens when u reduce this mod)
np
aut(G0 is a subgroup of sym(G) tho
Does anyone know where I can find some resources on how commutative rings can be embedded into fields or skew fields (this is mentioned in K-theory, no?)
(e.g. even a recommendation for a K-theory pdf/book would be appreciated)
(yes I have tried googling for articles and pdfs, not much luck)
I'm looking for how specifically commutative unital rings can always be embedded into fields (If I have that right)
Uh, at least for that last statement, you need to assume that your ring has no zero divisors, since fields don't have zero divisors
Ok yeah I forgot about that
But then, in this case, all you need is to just embed your domain in its field of fractions
So this
thanks!
Just going to use this to try impose some conditions on a lower bound for the smallest PID containing a given ID then
hoping that will encode some information about the original ring that wasn't obvious before, I get that sounds vague but yeah
where does one go after a first course in algebra
there are tons of ways to go
galois theory/commutative algebra are probably the most popular choices
@red imp
you should do it then, atiyah macdonald is a very fun book
thanks I was wondering which book to buy
because even if I don't actively do any algebra study after my course I just want to have a book on my shelf that I can look at when I feel interested