#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 473 of 407
The entries of the adjugate matrix are polynomial in the entries of the original matrix, and the entries of the product of two matrices are polynomial in the entries of the two matrices you started with
Okay that makes sense. The polynomial is just addition and multiplication. We could choose to "mod" the terms every time we multiply/add or just do it after all the computations are done normally. So there shouldn't be a difference.
Yeah that's exactly the proof that polynomial identities are preserved
Pretty much
So A adj(A) = det(A) I
Which means if det(A) is invertible, then A has inverse adj(A)/det(A)
This works more generally than Fp, but it does in particular answer your question
Alright very cool thank you.
I'm glad my linear algebra professor covered the adjoint and Cramer's rule so this stuff isn't super new. The professor whose class I tutor skipped over it :/
Quick question:\
Let $a,b \in \mathbb{Z}^+$ and let $d=\text{gcd}(a,b)$ and $m=\text{lcm}(a,b).$ In the group $G=\mathbb{Z}_a\times\mathbb{Z}_b,$ let $M$ be the subgroup generated by $(1,1).$ Find a subgroup $H$ of $G$ with $G = M\oplus H.$
wstayman:
@fading wagon I know $\mathbb{Z}_a \times\mathbb{Z}_b \simeq \mathbb{Z}_m \times \mathbb{Z}_d$ and that ${lcm(a,b),gcd(a,b)}$ are the invariant factors for both groups, but I'm lost trying to construct the subgroup theyre asking for
wstayman:
Well the subgroup generated by (1, 1) can only be Zm
@chilly ocean
and obviously since groups are abelian...
@fading wagon Could I argue that since $|M| = m$ we know $M \simeq \mathbb{Z}_m.$ Then if $\varphi$ defines the isomorphism between $G$ and $\mathbb{Z}_m\times\mathbb{Z}_d,$ the subgroup $H \leqslant G$ we'd need is the image (or preimage) of $\mathbb{Z}_d$ under $\varphi$? Or is that not the right direction?
wstayman:
Hey, let C be a category and X in C be of finite presentation if for every filtrant inductive system a, the natural morphism lim C(X,a) -> C(X,lim a) is bijective. I was asked to check that it's a good definition in Mod(A) the category of A-modules, i.e., M is a A-module of finite presentation it the sense of modules iff in categorical sense. But I've shown that if it is the case in categorical sense, then M is projective, it is a bit weird since for instance Z/2Z isn't projective but of finite presentation. Can someone check my proof or check if it is the good definition of finite presentation object in a category ?
@wind steeple I'll take a look at your proof
lol
(I was answering to Fadi)
Yeah np
its so easy but im stupid
ok so, if you take f:X->Y a morphism, the coker is a colimit
Yup
so if we have Coker C(M,f) -> C(M,Coker(f)) bijective, it is surjective
oh I see, C(X, —) seems to preserve colimits
but there's a restriction on what colimits it preserves. I think those are satisfied for cokernels though
filtrant colimits yes
cokernels are filtrant
so, if psi : M -> Coker(f), we have psi : M-> Y such that psi = p o phi where p : Y -> Coker(f) is the canonical projection
(by definition of the natural map and by surjectivity)
then we can generalize that since every surjective map p : X -> Y, Y can be seen as a cokernel
uh yes, phi : M -> Y
this shows that M is projective isn't it ?
So if C(M, —) preserves cokernels, M is definitely projective
yes
What's your definition of filtrant?
Maybe there's a condition that doesn't actually hold?
That's the only thing I can think of
not only preservation, the surjectivity of natural morphism suffices
uh ok
in the definition there is also for any parallel morphisms f,g : i -> j we have k and h : j -> k such that hof = hog
so it doesn't work for cokernel
okay yeah that'd be it
mh I didn't pay attention of this axiom, it is pretty weird
Sorry, I thought it was saying that you're taking the limit over a directed system
But I guess that's what the inductive part is
I'm not familiar with the terminology "inductive filtrant system"
inductive it's only the fact that the functor a is covariant, or whathever it is, you'll take the colimit of the functor
okay thanks then
Also isn't the natural map coker C(M, f) -> C(M, coker f) always injective?
I don't think so, the injectivity also looks like to some projective property
the map is just [phi] -> p o phi
if you see coker C(M,f) as C(M,Y)/Im(C(M,f))
Where p is the projection Y -> coker f?
yes
mh if M is projective then the natural map is bijective btw
so surjective => injective here lol
that's funny
Yeah okay, I think I was getting confused thinking that if a map has image contained in im f then it factors through f
But that's not true
yes
The kernel of the natural map is the class of everything with image contained in im f
that's truc if you can split of the domain
yes
uh no
wait
yes xD
yes, and you want to show that you can choose linearly an antecedent
a preimage ? idk what's the name for it
for a y such that f(y) = x
Yup. My definition of projective is that C(M, —) is exact, and it's always left exact, so this is pretty much by definition for me
in fact you should just need C(M, —) to preserve surjectivity
yes
Is row reduction limited/different when the entries are in F_p?
Which I suppose becomes the question 'are elementary matrices limited/affected?'
Don't mean to intrude, just gonna drop my question here as well.
Isn't this trivial by the definition of a normal subgroup, and the center of a group G? I'm worried my proof is too simple/I'm missing something.
H has two elements
one of them is the identity which commutes with everything in G
the other is an element call a
you knoww gag^-1 is H for all g in G ( normality )
H = { a^0 , a }
so its easy to just check
@azure grail good?
yeah I thought it was too simple, I pretty much just did that
thanks mo2 
this is a bit separate, but I'm confused why we need |H| = 2. Can't this just be generalized to any normal subgroup H in G?
gHg^(-1)=H just means the elements of H are permuted. The only reason why the argument works here is because e is sent to e, forcing a to be sent to a, but with more elements, this can’t be guaranteed.
ahh okay I see. When I think normal subgroup, I think of gH = Hg (rather than gHg^(-1)=H), and I forgot this doesn't mean that for every h in G, gh = hg, just that gh is mapped to some h'g in Hg
Is it possible to be able to reason out which elements will generate the entire group of $\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}$?
nix:
An exercise said to find generators for all the groups with p<20. So far I've been able to do it with 2 or 3. 2 had order less than p-1 for p=7,17 so far.
No
whats F_p
Prime field. $\mathbb{F}_p=\bZ/p\bZ$
nix:
multiplicative group?
Yes
Would it be satisfactory to prove $a^{p-1}\equiv 1 \mod p ; \forall a\in \mathbb{F}_p^{\times}$ with
$$a^{|\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}|}=1$$ since $\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}$ is a cyclic group.
$$|\mathbb{F}_p^{\times}|=p-1 \implies a^{p-1}=1$$
nix:
Hint, lagranges theorem
if ur talking about fermats little theorem
a^(p-1) = 1 ---> a^p = a
so yea
but ur missing a case
@toxic zephyr
oh i didnt notice
well
Right. So a^(order of the group) has to be 1. Since there are p-1 elements, a^(p-1)=1? @mild laurel
yes
this is mod p ofc
but if ur trying it prove fermats little theorem
0 is not in your group
so you have to do this as a case on its own
its easy tho obv
Yeah the exercise was to prove FLT using the fact that Fp is a group.
0 is not in F_p
Absolutely
It said integers which are not divisible by p, which 0 is.
Fermat's little theorem states that if p is a prime number, then for any integer a, the number a^p − a is an integer multiple of p. In the notation of modular arithmetic, this is expressed as a^p = a mod p
Lmao FLT
?
But yeah if the order of F_p^x is p-1, then what does that mean about the order of the elements
That's how you prove Fermat's little theorem as a corrolary of Lagranges theorem
In fact this argument immediately proves Euler's theorem
is this possible to prove from defn of psotive operator and that T* = -T
where T* is adjoint
but $-T^2=T^*T$ so I think from there you are done
Element118:
@lone niche
how can we prove that T applied to that generalized eigen space is contained in the eigen space itself
ok thanks so that shows T preserves the subspace G(lmabda, S)
No if you read it closer, it shows that its in the eigenspace itself
Are there finitely many polynomials in $\mathbb{F_{p}}[X]$?
PolyBeanDip:
because x^p = x mod p by fermat's little theorem and coefficients can only be 0,1,2,...,p-1
It would be kinda weird if a finite field corresponded to an infinite polynomial field
Follow up: if f(x) divides g(x^p) in Z, does that mean f(x) divides g(x) in F_p?
Or more simply, does g(x^p) = g(x) in F_{p}[X]
I would say so, yeah
ok cool
Fermat's little theorem again, right?
sorry to barge in but that's just false
oh ok
x^p and x are different polynomials in F_p[x]
F_p[x] is infinite
because it contains x^n for all n
and those are all distinct
it's not true that g(x) = g(x^p)
but it is true that g(x^p) = g(x)^p
in F_p[x]
Hmm
why are they distinct tho? isn't it true that x^p = x mod p?
yeah you can think of it like that
Thanks bananas
how do you know g(x^p) = (g(x))^p?
it comes from the fact that a^p + b^p = (a + b)^p in F_p
and the fact that a^p = a in F_p as well
oh, thanks
zoph it's more than that
it comes from the fact that a^p + b^p = (a + b)^p in F_p
This part is just binomial theorem, right?
it's not jsut that a^p + b^p = (a+b)^p for all a and b in F_p
it's that that statement is true in any ring of characterstic p
yes, by the binomial theorem
it's true in F_p[x] for example
okay yeah sure, I was just noting that this is the fact you need to prove the thing he stated
it's that that statement is true in any ring of characterstic p
Does every extension of a field of characteristic p also have characteristic p?
yes
oh yea, that's obv lol
ok may be im stupid but this doesnt make any sense to me :|
this book says that the ideal generated by a set $(a_1, \ldots, a_n)$ in an arbitrary ring is the elements of the form
Sloth:
$\sum_{i_1} x_{1 i_1} a_1 y_{1 i_1} + \ldots + \sum_{i_n} x_{n i_n} a_n y_{n i_n}$
Sloth:
but he says that if we let our ring be commutative, this formula just simplifies to
the set of elements of the form
$\sum_{i = 1}^n x_i a_i$
maybe im just dumb but 
Sloth:
you can use the commutativity to rearrange $x_{1 i_1} a_1 y_{1_i1}$ to $x_{1 i_1} y_{1 i1} a_1$ and then denote $x_1 = x_{1 i_1} y_{1 i1}$ because the product of these elements is always a member of the ring, and do this process for all the indices to get the sum of the required form
Jesse?:
I understand that, but shouldnt that get you something like, $\sum_{i_1} x_{i_1} a_1 + \ldots + \sum_{i_n} x_{i_n} a_n$
Sloth:
just use distributive property to combine the coefficients into one
so we let $x_1 = \sum_{i_1} x_{1 i_1} y_{1 i_1}$?
Sloth:
How is (I,x) = R ?
because I is maximal
why does that make it true
how can i prove that $sqrt(5)\notin\mathbb{Q}(5^{1/3})$
how can i prove that $\sqrt(5)\notin\mathbb{Q}(5^{1/3})$
Kraft Macaroni:
because (I,x) is an ideal @eternal furnace
containing I
and not equal to I
since I is maximal, (I,x) must be R
One thing I know for sure is that $\mathbb{Q}(5^{1/3}) \cong \mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^3 - 5)$
Kraft Macaroni:
doubt that helps I think
damn
I think its doable by playing with degree of the extension, like showing Q(5^(1/3), 5^(1/2)) is different from Q(5^(1/3))
ah that could be an idea
is it the case tho that Q(5^(1/3), 5^(1/2)) = Q[5^(1/3), 5^(1/2)]
Ohhhh @wind steeple thanks I get it now
one is a ring the other is a field
like [] means the smallest ring containing 5^(1/3), 5^(1/2)
and () means smallest field?
yeah
@chilly ocean Just in case you were interested we can prove it like this. For $L \subset K$ fields we write $[K:L]$ dimension of K as an L vector space. We know $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5}):\mathbb{Q}] = 2$ and $[\mathbb{Q}(5^{1/3}):\mathbb{Q}] = 3$. If $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{5})\subset\mathbb{Q}(5^{1/3})$ letting $n$ be the dimension we would have that $3 = 2n$ for an integer $n$; contradiction.
Kraft Macaroni:
yeah thats what I was thinking
Hi guys quick question. Is the answer to this question no because 3 and 2 are in the ideal but 3 - 2 = 1 is not in the ideal?
Yeah
Thanks!
prove that A_n is the commutator subgroup for S_n for all n>=5
i always struggle with finding explicit things for given groups
like iw oujldnt know how to find the commutator subgroup or like the center of a group especially a permutation group
any help
Commutator subgroup is normal
Only normal subgroups of S_n for n\ge 5 are 1, A_n, and S_n
S_n/1 isn't abelian
S_n/A_n is abelian, so A_n is the commutator subgroup
oh
okay
ty
got it
so for these kind of problems im not supposed to explicity compute stuff right/
I mean, can't say you're not supposed to explicitly compute stuff
It happens to be the case that knowing the normal subgroups of S_n for n\ge 5 makes life very easy
But like, in general S_n is generated by (12) and (12...n)
Also S_n is generated by transpositions, in fact adjacent transpositions
So in principle you could just exhibit elements of a nice generating set as commutators
cool
ty
just checking proof
prove that every non abelian simple group is perfect
proof: suppose G is a non abelian simple group
since H = <[x,y]| x is in G , y is in G> is normal in G
H must equal G
is that right?
Is {e,(12)} a normal subgroup of S3? Is {e,(123),(132)}
a normal subgroup of S3?
is there a better way to do this than just showing for all elements s in S3 sH = Hs?
so H is the subgroup given and then I show sh1 = h2s for every element h in H?
show that ghg^-1 is in H for all g in G for all h in H
conjugating in S_n isnt too hard
phi tao phi^-1 is just phi(elements in cycle of tao)
dk how to saay that ^ xd
@chilly ocean
and u can use some theorems too
like for example for the second subgroup that you have
you can notice something
consider [G:H] where H is the second group and G is your group
i struggle too with computing stuff but im learning ig]
Two elements are conjugate in Sn, if they have the same cycle type
So if you can show that the subgroup of {e, (12)} has an element that isn't just a transposition, then it's not normal

if you can show there's a transposition which isn't in there
normal subgroups are unions of conjugacy classes
Two elements are conjugate iff they have the same cycle type
So (23) can be made by conjugation, but that's not in the subgroup
so this has cycle type 3
And is conjugate to (123) but is not conjugate to (12)
thank you for your advice
i used the first possible input (123)(12)(132) to show the 1st sub group was not normal
and for the 2nd subgroup showed [s3:H] = 2 and H <= S3
so it was a normal subgroup of S3
a bit stuck on this. I have to prove that $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$ is countable and that therefore transcendental elements exist. Defining $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}n = {\alpha \in \overline{\mathbb{Q}} : \deg m\alpha \leq n }$
Kraft Macaroni:
i have shown that $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}_n$ is countable for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$
Kraft Macaroni:
im unsure how to extend this to $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$
Kraft Macaroni:
$\overline{Q}$ is the union of the $\overline{Q}_n$, thus the union of a countable family of countable sets
radiateur-man:
@woeful flint
All abelian groups of order $n$ are isomorphic $\Leftrightarrow$ the integer $n$ is square-free.
wstayman:
Have to prove the statement, my bad for not clarifying. I was able to show that if the integer $n$ is NOT square free, then we get 2 non-isomorphic abelian groups of order n, which in turn implies that all abelian groups of order $n$ cannot be isomorphic.
wstayman:
Do you know cauchy's theorem and internal direct products?
I know Cauchy's theorem, but not internal direct products..
hmmm
So I have the $\Rightarrow$ direction, just need to show that if $n$ IS square-free, then all abelian groups of order $n$ are isomorphic.
wstayman:
I'm not sure I know what you mean. One game of n?
yes, Z_n
So you want to show any other abelian group is iso to this
Here's my thought process
let n = p1…pk for distinct primes p1,…,pk
Note that Z/nZ ≈ Z/p1Z × … × Z/pkZ
So my instinct it to try and "pull off" a prime factor at a time
And use induction
Does the general idea make sense?
Couldn't we just say that since gcd$(p_1, \ldots, p_k) = 1, \ \mathbb{Z}{p_1} \times \cdots \mathbb{Z}{p_k} = \mathbb{Z}_n,$ which is cyclic. And then since "all abelian groups of order $n$ are isomorphic" $\Leftrightarrow$ "all abelian groups of order $n$ are cyclic, we can conclude that $n$ is square-free?
wstayman:
Don't you already know that if all abelian groups of order n are isomorphic then n is squarefree?
I thought you proved the contrapositive of that above
oh yeah duh
I meant we can conclude that all abelian groups of order $n$ are isomorphic. (If we assume $n = p_1p_2\cdots p_k,$ where each $p_i$ is a distinct prime)
wstayman:
I'll write it up nicely and post it here to see if you agree with it or not
Why can we conclude that?
If $|G| = n$ and prime factorization of $n = p_1p_2 \cdots p_k$ doesn't include any prime powers greater than 1 (i.e., n is square-free), then we know $G \simeq \mathbb{Z}{p_1}\times\mathbb{Z}{p_2}\times\cdots\times\mathbb{Z}_{p_k} = \mathbb{Z}_n$ (since gcd($p_1,p_2,\ldots,p_k) = 1). $ So then $G \simeq \mathbb{Z}_n$ which is cyclic, and we know that if this is true for every abelian group $G$ of order $n,$ then all these abelian groups of order $n$ are isomorphic, (by something I proved earlier in the assignment)
wstayman:
Why we we know G is iso to that product because the gcds are 1?
we know Zn is iso to the product since the gcds are 1.
Isn't every abelian group a direct product of it's Sylow p-subgroups? (I may be misunderstanding something, I'm very new to the Sylow Theorems)
and those sylow p-subgroups are isomorphic to Zp_i, etc.
Then yeah it's immediate
Perfect, thanks for the help!
Np
How did you prove that theorem about the direct products?
Basically the proof I has in mind was to show that result
But it involves internal direct products
Do you mean just the theorem of how every finite abelian group is a direct product of its Sylow p-subgroups? We
Yes
i mean, couldn't you also just show that product of Z/p is the same as Z/ prod p directly w/o throwing sylow at it?
proved it on an earlier assignment and can make use of previous theorems after we've proved them
No darkrifts this is for an arbitrary G
Yeah I was just wondering how you did it on the previous assignment
oh the G iso to the prod yeah you could throw sylow at it
Sorry, I don't mean to pry
i was thinking it was for cyclic iso to prod, ignore me am rart
All good, here's a picture of the problem in question if anyone is interested:
I have two variables:
- Number
- Speed
Each iteration speed is multiplied by speed coefficient which is 0.90 and adding to the number.
(Sorry for my poor english)
What i know:
- Iteration count which is 11 in example down below
- Sum which is 152.48356222222225 in example down below
7.747649999999999 + 8.6085 + 9.565290000000001 + 10.6281 + 11.809800000000001 + 13.122 + 14.58 + 16.2 + 18 + 20 + 22.22222222222222
sum = 152.48356222222225
you can see here what im trying to do is finding first speed(7.7476499999999) or last speed(22.22222222222222)
this is neither abstract algebra nor analysis
,w solve d/dx (x^2) = 2x for d
Well by definition, the identity element is in H and every element has an inverse
Ah yes associativity is obvious too
By definition yes
How do u define the subgroup of H
I mean G
Well do u get why it is associative?
I’m not sure of the top of my head how to prove that it has the identity element because that’s just the definition I learnt
the operation is associative, and its the same operation so of course its associativity is inherited
Yes
and to show that it contains the identity, use closure under multiplication
if x and x^-1 are in H,
Quick question:\
Suppose that $H, N \leqslant G$ with $N$ a normal subgroup of $G.$ Prove that if $H, N$ are solvable groups, then so is $HN.$
wstayman:
@chilly ocean do you know anything about the group HN?
I think I've worked it out. I will post a proof here
Since $H \cap N$ is a normal subgroup of $H$ and $H$ is assumed to be solvable, we know $H/(H\cap N)$ is also solvable. Since homomorphisms preserve ``solvability," it follows that $H/(H\cap N) \simeq HN/N$ is solvable. We have that $N$ is solvable and $HN/N$ is solvable, so it follows that $HN$ is solvable.
wstayman:
yeah, that's what I had in mind
Took me a while, I was trying to work with the "chain" definition of solvability for a while and didn't get anywhere
i had something too with solvable groups
Yeah I have a few more questions involving them as well
let G be a finite group such that if for all divisors ,n, of order |G| where (n,|G|/n) = 1 there exists a unique subgroup of order n then
G is solvable
I don't quite understand. Does n divide the order of G? If so, (n,|G|) = n (assuming you're denoting GCD). Although, I think I'm just totally misunderstanding you
oh sorry
(n,|G|/n) = 1
not |G| lmao
proving easy shit is hard for me too
quotient groups of solvable groups are solvable
is hard abit for me
So n divides |G| and GCD(n, |G|/n) = 1 implies G is solvable is the question?
And yeah same, last semester of algebra for me. I'm an analysis person
for each divisor of |G| , call it n, such that (n,|G|/n) = 1 there exists a unique subgroup of order n
if this happens G is solvable
lmao its even an iff statement
iirc no need for uniqueness
let me just get it cuz i buthcered it
The finite group G is solvable if and only if for every divisor n of IGI such that (n,|G|/n) = 1, G has a subgroup of order n.
Weird
So n and |G|/n are coprime iff n is a product of maximal prime power divisors dividing |G|
Which makes me think about sylows
Ohhh I was actually just looking at this theorem. Was going to use it to prove something else. Something along the lines of "If $[G:H]$ and $[G:K]$ are relatively prime, then $G = HK.$ I believe this is equivalent to what youre stating
wstayman:
lmao sorry for butchering it then wstayman
im new to this shit XD
weirdly this theorem isnt proved in the text
so dk
So for the reverse direction
We can go by induction on the order of |G|
If G is a p-group, it's solvable
Otherwise pick a prime p and write |G| = p^k m for p not dividing m
all good, I actually misread it the first time, wasn't your fault
Then m and |G|/m are coprime, so there's a subgroup H of order m. H is solvable by induction
Not sure where to go from here though, there's no reason for H to be normal
Why?
cuz its not proven in the text
maybe the proof is too advanced for me
like burnsides lemma
iw ouldnt know proving this would require rep stuff
and i would have just wasted horus tryign XD
hours*
i think this is the same case here
You'd probably think of some interesting strategies when trying
the only thing ik about solvable stuff is prob feit thompson
which i dnt know how to prove
Oh wait no, I think you're probably right. Take |G| = p^a q^b. Then G satisfies the given condition by existence of sylows, so this problem implies it's solvable
So this is strictly stronger than burnsides
yea see
fuck that shit
u maybe can do it
gl with it and hf
rep theory is liek chap 15
im struggling with semidirect products overhere
what is the heisenberg group?
when dealing with groups is it a valid operation to bring everything to the power of -1
for example a^-1 = xay a^-1y^-1=ay a^-1y^-1a^-1=y a^-1y^-1a^-1x^-1=e ayax=e^-1 ayax=e yax=a^-1
not unless the group is abelian
in general, (xy)^(-1) = y^(-1)x^(-1)
so if you wrote xy = z
it's not true in general that x^(-1) y^(-1) = z^(-1)
what would be true is that y^(-1) x^(-1) = z^(-1)
thanks 😄
is it valid to do other exponents?
like xy=z
x^4y^4=z^4?
or (xy)^4 = z^4
You can raise everything to the power 4:
(xy)⁴ = z⁴
But unless the group is abelian,
(xy)⁴ ≠ x⁴y⁴
i have 3 questions I need help answering ASAP
anyone know anything about the union and intersection of intervals?
This doesn't seem like the right channel
which would be the right one
probably #proofs-and-logic
Quick question\
Show that if $G$ is a group with $|G| = p^nq$ where $p > q$ and $p,q$ prime, then $G$ is solvable.
wstayman:
It's easy to see that G has a normal Sylow p-subgroup of order p^n, but I haven't made much progress outside of that
induct on n
anyway you could be more specific? don't mean to be rude, brain is just fried at this point
same lmao
but i mean
just induct on n
assume the result for all values less than or equal to k
show that its true for k
i had this exercise too
and i couldnt do it
and thats how i learnt to it
and apparently its from am uch stronger result
So suppose G with |G| = p^kq is solvable for all k < n, then use that hypothesis to prove its true for n?
groups of of order p^aq^b are solvable
yea
thats how strong induction works
but u ahve to prove
the base case first
namely n=0
okay the base case was handled in another exercise. if I write a proof up quick would you take a look at it
@chilly ocean p-groups are solvable
So take a sylow
It's solvable
And as you mentioned it's normal
I think my confusion lies in forming the chain that proves the group is solvable
Don't think of it in terms of chains
Use the result that G is solvable iff G/N and N are solvable
For any normal subgroup N of G
Okay so if the Sylow p-subgroup (call it P) is normal in this case, I would want to show G/P is solvable and that P is solvable?
Okay that does make more sense. Where does induction come into play?
Because |G/P| = q is prime so G/P is cyclic and therefore abelian
Yup
Now P is a little harder
P is just an arbitrary p-group
So we've reduced your original problem to "If P is a p-group, then P is solvable"
Right?
Right, I was looking at a proof of it earlier, and could mostly make sense of it, but the induction step confused me
Oh okay
This link in particular: http://mathonline.wikidot.com/every-p-group-is-solvable
Well, let's try to prove it
Don't look at the link
Suppose |P| = p^k
And let's induct on k
The base case is easy, right?
yes, because it'd just be cyclic right?
Right
Well, I was thinking of k=0 rather than k=1 but it doesn't really matter
So now assume all groups of order p^j for j < k are solvable
How can we show that P is solvable?
This is exactly where my confusion lies. I don't understand how the induction hypothesis is implemented
Sure, so if we want to apply it we need some smaller p-group
In particular, any proper subgroup or quotient of P by a nontrivial subgroup will work
So that suggests to me that we'll want to use the N & P/N condition
If we can find a normal subgroup N such that N ≠ 1 and N ≠ P, we're actually done
Could we just say by Cauchy's Theorem that p^k divides p^n so there exists an element of order p^k in G. Does it form a normal subgroup though? Or am I not looking at this right
I think your statement of cauchy's theorem is a little off
Cauchy's theorem only gives you an element of order p
Otherwise all p-groups would be cyclic
So you use Sylow p-subgroup of order p^k
It's a good idea though. Unfortunately the subgroup such an element generates might not be cyclic
Well the sylow subgroup is just the whole group, right?
oh right, i read your first statement wrong. So we want to find a normal subgroup N in G where |G| = p^k such that N != 1 and N != G?
Yup
Is the answer obvious? I might've overlooked something because I'm drawing a blank here. I know it has something to do with the center of G, right?
What can we say about the center of G?
Its a normal subgroup of G and nontrivial
Yes
And we're looking for a normal subgroup of G which is nontrivial and not the whole group
So what happens if the center is the whole group?
oh right, that makes sense. How do we apply the N & P/N condition once we're here?
True, but then it'd be abelian, so it'd be solvable anyway wouldn't it?
Yes, exactly
Okay, so we can assume our p-group has a nontrivial normal subgroup N = Z(P) which is not all of P
And we want to apply the induction hypothesis somehow and use that to prove P is solvable
We know Z(P) is abelian and therefore solvable, but do we know that P/Z(P) is solvable?
Or is that what we're assuming in the induction hypothesis?
That a group G with |G| = p^k is solvable for all k < n, right? or no?
Yeah
So our induction hypothesis that G is solvable forces P/Z(G) to be solvable? Is that what we're going for?
Right
Due to the iff statement
Why does our induction hypothesis apply?
Still not quite sure on that. My understanding is we're assuming |P| = p^k is solvable for all k < n. Then we can guarantee a nontrivial normal subgroup, Z(P), that is solvable, then by the induction hypothesis, we must also have that P/Z(P) is solvable because of the equivalence relation.
its some power of p, less than or equal to p^(k-1) wouldn't it be?
does that 'lie' in your induction hypothesis
or lay
or whatever i have bad english
I'm not sure.. could you explain
ok yes it does i see. OHHHHHHHHHHHHHHH
I see now!!
Z(P) is a P-group so our induction hypothesis applies to it as well, I was overlooking this
Yeah was just double checking I understood it all. It's all good. Thanks again @latent anvil @solemn rain
I can help with your question
try to at least
nvm i got it anyways
i am not getting semidirectp roducts and am jusut going to sleep on it
and work for them tmrw
ty tho
no problem, I haven't looked much at those either.. good luck!
thanks u2
@chilly ocean you're not applying it to Z(P)
Well you could, but Z(P) is abelian and thus solvable
You're applying it to P/Z(P)
Yeah that was a typo, meant to say P/Z(P) is also a p-group with order that falls within our induction hypothesis
pls help
This is not the right channel
Try looking at H^2 of the keys?
I mean yeah nobody's got it, it's a terrible question
What is a "triple"? Do they mean three key rings interlocked? Is any possible pattern allowed?
What is "left" and "right"?
@mild laurel what's the best channel for this?
it looks like algebraic topology to me, telling knotted rings apart
lmao
lmao
lmao
honestly the problem description is just so bad and so vague that its impossible to tell
Can anyone explain in English what prop 2.9 is?
do you know what it means for a sequence to be exact
I'm asked to show that C[[x]] is a unique factorization domain. Does this just follow from the fact that every non-zero element is a unit?
if every non-zero element is a unit then it's a field !
All fields are UFDs?
trivially so
tyty
by the way
just making sure I'm understanding the definitions correctly
oh wah
In this notation, is i the column number? Because usually I have seen the product to be written as sum_j a_ij e_j (which translates here as sum_i a_ji e_i)
I assume you're asking because e_i are column vectors or something?
it's technically irrelevant so long as you know what it's representing, rows and columns are just notational devices for putting numbers into boxes for computation
Yeah I am trying to clarify the notation whether here i represents the column or the row index for a_ij
so what are e_i
They are just denoted to be basis vectors
ok
so you have now a linear combination of them, one for each j
if you decide to place them as columns or rows, it is up to you for whatever is convenient
you just have to stay consistent with your choices once you make the choice
I am trying to interpret this in terms of matrix multiplication.
it's like asking where the positive x axis is in the real world
look in your book if you want to stay consistent to their convention
I can't answer that for you
This is all that is said
you should be able to see how to put it into a number box to line up with how you want it to be multiplied with matrix multiplication
It seems like this notation wants me to think of matrix multiplication as multiplying a column vector in a matrix with a column vector e_i
Which seemed a bit unconventional
do they use a_{ij} somewhere else
This is just the start of chapter
maybe they pick the backwards convention for some reason
So I just wanted to clarify, it is backwards right, just wanted to be sure I wasn't misunderstanding anything
write it as a_{ji}^T if it helps you
Yep yep that's fine, I had this doubt that maybe I forgot the conventional notation
cool
can some1 prove with me
if N is a normal subgroup , H is a subgroup of G and H intersects trivially with N
then HK = G
and i think HK = H x K for someee conditions also
can some1 help mew ith those theorems
Well
Then HK is a subgroup of G
If you also know that |H||K| = |G| then you know HK = G lol
I'm pretty sure it was implicit somewhere in the theorem/problem statement and you missed it
it was a lemma yes
wwo ur genius
it said i think
anay element of G can be written as hk
for some h in H k in K
the profo was leeft as exercisee
and for some reason once is aw that i couldnt follow the rest
i was put off
when is the external product = internal
whne is HK ~= HxK
If both H and K are normal
thats it?
col
now im going to try to define a semi direct product if nayone would correct me that would be amazing
I've kinda got stuff to do so don't rely too much on me
nvm i cant wtf
can u like do a TLDR on semi direct products?
b4 u leave
i would really appreciate it
What's a semi-direct product? Lol
its like a generlization of a direct product
you define a map Pi H ---> Aut(N)
h--> f_h where f_h is the inner automoprhism induced by h on N i think
no onot H fuck
N is a normal subgroup of G and H is a subgroup of G
so now you use this function to define an operation
on GxH
i really butchered shit here so idk im sorry
So my teacher writes p1 ≊ p2 in the second part instead of p1 =p2. One can prove that p1(s) o (f - λ) = (f-λ) o p2(s) if it was the case that p1 = p2. How can one do it for the case p1 ≊p2? where λ is the eigenvalue of f?
I think you're overthinking it. If p1 and p2 are isomorphic you can treat them as the same
Can anyone explain in English what prop 2.9 means?
you've asked this multiple times but you've never clarified what's confusing you
do you know what it means for a sequence to be exact?
Oh you've actually bought AM
M,N are modules
Hom(M,N) is the set of all module homomorphisms between them. Hom(M,N) is itself a module over the same ring as M and N
Basically, if you have an exact sequence, you can construct an exact sequence using hom modules onto some unrelated module N. It goes backwards.
English for this is weird, lol
but note that these modules all have to be over the same ring
otherwise it doesnt make sense
The beauty here is that hom(M,N) isn't always easy to capture, but you can still easily describe an exact sequence using them
yeah, this proposition partially motivates the very definition of exact sequence
at least in the context of modules
The first line of 2.9 is just a sequence of transformations that eventually results in zero?
look at the definition of a exact sequence
it is stricter than eventually 0
So like you should be able to find what is Im v
So it’s a series of transformations where the image of the previous module is the kernel of the next module
The image of one, is the kernel of the next
Images and kernels really belong to the homomorphisms, not the modules themselves. But there's semantics here. Point being that the arrows are very specific
image and kernels are for functions not modules btw
yea
like a simple example
$$0\rightarrow2\mathbb Z\rightarrow\mathbb Z\rightarrow\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z\rightarrow0$$
is exact while
$$0\rightarrow4\mathbb Z\rightarrow\mathbb Z\rightarrow\mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z\rightarrow0$$
isnt exact
Ariana:
Hmm ok so sequence 4 is is exact only if sequence 4' is exact. So does 4' means that M, M', and M'' are all homomorphic to N?
And therefore they are all homomorphic to each other
What does it mean to be "homomorphic"
Homomorphism isn't an equivalence relation. Two things can't be "homomorphic"
Well I know in topology it means you keep a similar shape like a donut is the same as a coffee cup
What
Oh wait thats homeomorphism my bad
I said homeomorphic by accident cause autocorrect ignore that
Sorry if I confused you
But definitely know what an algebraic homomorphism is. That's important stuff
So Hom(M,N) just means that the operations are preserved between M and N?
Abirr, what context are you looking at this in? It seems like you're missing some background knowledge
Honestly, atiyah MacDonald can be kind of hard to read if you've never seen these things before
Honestly I think thats what it is. I know this textbook is like 40-50 years old so its hard to understand all the semantics
Uh, I'm not sure that second thing has anything to do with it
There's a reason it's still the most recommended commutative algebra book
But you'd be expected to know abstract algebra before commutative algebra ofc
Have you seen like
space of linear functions from a space to another
before
aka Hom(U,V)
if so this is basically the same thing
also yea learn abstract algebra from another book first
Yeah I have taken abstract algebra but that was about 1.5 years ago so im a bit rusty
is this the first time you've encountered modules or like have they appeared in the alg class
not exactly sure if the book is suitable rn
A module homomorphism is a function between two modules
φ : M → N
that splits over addition:
φ(x + y) = φ(x) + φ(y)
And scalar multiplication:
φ(ax) = aφ(x)
The set of ALL module homomorphisms between M to N is itself a module. We call it Hom(M,N)
Starting to do a first pass at representation theory with a teacher during quarantine. This shit is incredible. That is all
boom gl hf
I tried. I can try again. I know character theory gets lit
How could I actually go about doing this factorization?
isn't this just gaussian elimination?
Get your matrix into reduced row echelon form
Then get the new matrix into reduced column echelon form
The only matrix in both forms is one as depicted in (a)
And applying elementary column operations to a matrix in row echelon form will keep it in row echelon form
Actually that's fake but you can be careful about it and like work left to right and then it will stay in ref
Can anybody help me out with this?
For the following problem, I must use the definition of $K/F$ being Galois if every irreducible polynomial with a root in $K$ splits completely in $K$ and is separable
Azu:
The problem: Let $K$ be a field with automorphism group $G$ and assume $K/F$ is Galois
Azu:
Part a) is to prove that $K$ is the splitting field for a separable polynomial in $F[x]$
Azu:
Part b) is to prove that $F$ is the fixed field of $H$ for some finite subgroup $H \leq G$
Azu:
@chilly ocean
a) is the definition of Galois
@stone fulcrum Galois has several equivalent definitions
Oh shoot, no it isn't
Part a) is ok, I finished it already
Oh pfft you did get it. I apologize I can't read
Part b) is the real problem - we also aren't allowed to use the fundamental theorem of Galois theory or any of its consequences either
The assignment prompt is that for this problem we aren't allowed to use any of the results from Dummit and Foote 14.2 - 14.9
Wait, what's a splitting field of a group?
Azu:
Oh I see
You can pretty easily show that the automorphisms that preserve F is also a group, and it would naturally be a subgroup
Yep, but how to prove that F is exactly the fixed field?
And not just a subfield of the fixed field
This feels weird, since you can take G itself to be H
G is the automorphisms on K, not the Galois group of K/F
oh
Yeah in that case, you want to let H be the subgroup of all automorphisms that fix F
This problem has stumped me for 5 hours because of the artificial condition that you can't cite results from Dummit and Foote 14.2-14.9
Is the fact that it might also fix larger fields really a concern?
Yes
Hol up I need to visit my definitions
Anyways, you can use the galois property to show that its exactly F, and no more
Well I mean, you can write it out yourself
By Galois property, are you referring to the definition that we have to use for this problem, or the fundamental theorem of Galois theory?
the former
Hmm
Ok so we have that every polynomial with a root in K must split completely in K
And be separable
This led to our result in a)
We must then have $|H| = [K:F]$
Azu:
Let $U$ be the fixed field of $H$; then $F \subseteq U$
Azu:
@mild laurel not sure how to proceed
take an element in U, show there's an automorphism that doesn't fix it
U was defined to be the fixed field of H
Ah sorry, I mean ttake an element of K\F
Aut(K/F)?
no
Oh, an element of K not in F
@mild laurel thank you
I'll try and do it now
@stone fulcrum does your solution involve the polynomial construction over all of the outputs of the element under the automorphisms of H?
Yes I think it does
I basically just found a way to get an automorphism for any choice of K/F
That clearly doesn't work for a member of F
ahhh
hold on
I may have the solution ready
Let $m_{\alpha,F}(x)$ be the minimal polynomial for some $\alpha \in K\F$ in $F[x]$
Must have degree >= 2 since $\alpha \not\in F$
Azu:
Let $\beta$ be another root of $m_{\alpha, F}(x)$
Azu:
Then we can define an automorphism of $K$ that leaves $F$ fixed such that $\alpha$ gets mapped to $\beta$
Azu:
But this has nothing to do with the Galois property... am I missing something @stone fulcrum ?
If alpha were the only root, then alpha would have to be in F, since the minimal polynomial is in F[x], and just look at the coefficients if alpha were the only root
Uh, that doesn't really make any sense
Why can't it be a poly with a double root at α?
consider the extension Q(cube root of 2) and the minimal polynomial x^3 - 2
the only root of the minimal polynomial in the field is cube root of 2, the other two roots are complex
Oop that's a great example
Any irreducible polynomial has to split in K
why
This is part of the definition of galois they're using
I mean yeah
I'm just trying to get them to realize where they used the galois property
oh sure, sorry
god, I'm so stupid
Now you also need seperability
$\psi: K \mapsto K$
A poly that just has a double root at α would be a problem
Azu:
Defined uniquely by $\psi|_F = id$ and $\psi(\alpha) = \beta$
Azu:
it might not be unique
oh, right... it would be unique for $F(\alpha)$ mapping to $F(\beta)$
Azu:
I don't know what you mean by that
There could be many automorphisms that map \alpha to \beta
I mean, have we established existence?
I think we have
@mild laurel again, thank you so much
It's frustrating that I wasn't able to do this relatively simple exercise
@oblique river
i didn't "pick 3"
it has to be true for all x in G
so e*3 = 3
e*6 = 6
e*9 = 9
e*12 = 12
@static seal
9*9 = 6 mod 15, so 9 can't be an identity
also , please verify this, if you find an element that works, then you don't need to check other elements
by uniqueness of identity (for all groups) theorem
i.e. if you find that a*6 = a for all a in G
you dont need to check that there may be another identity-like element that exists
oh i kind of gave away the identity
@oblique river
also it is not necessary to verify 6*a = a for a a in G, since you get that for free by a theorem
the group axiom is for all ain G, a*e = a and e*a=a .
oh nevermind, we don't have to use proposition 2, since G is commutative. therefore ae = ea =a
can I ask a question
also it is not necessary to verify 6*a = a for a a in G, since you get that for free by a theorem
sorry, how else would you show that 6 is the identity?
you already did
yes, a*6 = a is sufficient
right ;o
i think its sufficient because (G,*) is commutative
yep
but there are situations, nonabelian groups, where it isn't so obvious that ae = ea
meethonoob go ahead
you can find them online very easily
@oblique river also do you agree it is not necessary to check, if you find an element that works as an identity, for another identity-like element
so if you happened to start checking with 6, it is not necessary to check 9 or 3. since identities are unique
yes
a simple computation
Hm, I'm not sure its easy to calculate where you can get that answer
But it tells you to verify that its true
x(x^3 + x^2) is -1 though
yeah
anyways yeah, I'm not sure in general there's an easy way to find this polynomial. It's finding a root of an irreducible polynomial in a finite field so
Well that's what I was saying
The simple computation is about verifying this fact
Which you can do easily by plugging x^3 + x^2 into f_2(x)
The computation isn't about how you would find this polynomial
oh I see
you can use the (imo easier) definition for D_2n
D_2n = < r,s | r^n=s^2=1 , rs=sr^-1 > = {1,r,r^2,.....,r^(n-1),sr,sr^2,.....sr^(n-1)>
any element in D_2n would be of form sr^k where k is in {1,2,3....,n-1}
using the relation given it should be easy to do operatiosn
that's clearly not the intended solution
and I think really misses the point of the problem
plz help me
plz post in the correct channel
read #❓how-to-get-help
then post in the correct channel
i need help as well, but i don't spam the abstract algebra channel
either #prealg-and-algebra , #precalculus , or one of the #❓how-to-get-help channels
honestly just cut out a triangle to do that exercise @leaden finch
got it loll
if H and K are normal subgroups where H intersects K is the trivial subgroup
is G = {hk | h is in H k is in K} or is that another assumption you would need
to say G ~= HxK ?
Need some help
what have you tried
i know that for it to be non abelian it is not commutative and, I also know that S4 is non-abelian
And what's the order of S_4?
S4 is the group of all permutations of 4 elements (so it has 4!=24 elements).
So what exactly are you unsure about?
Im not sure how to prove that group of order 24 is a group
Noob question. It is proven that no algebraic formula can exist for finding the roots of a polynomial of degree 5 or higher. Are there proofs that such formulas are impossible if we include differential operations?
so it's that all to proving this question
I think you just brained right and found an easy example
Z24 comes to mind as well
Kind of a dumb question
Z24 = Z8 * Z3
@cobalt flume what exactly do you mean by differential operators
So if there is a derivative defined on the field.
Actually I think I’m mixing ideas from differential algebra. I’m going to do some searching then ask the question properly
Is it ok if I ask for a sanity check on a problem I am currently doing?
Problem: Determine the Galois group $Gal(K/\mathbb{Q})$ of the polynomial $(x^3-2)(x^3-3)$ and all the subfields of $K$ that contain $\mathbb{\rho}$ where $\rho$ is a primitive cube root of unity
Azu:
My reasoning is that both factors of that polynomial are irreducible, so elements of the Galois group must permute their roots, hence the Galois group must be $S_3 \times S_3$
Azu:
Here is where I need a sanity check: I assert that a subfield $U \subseteq K$ satisfies $\mathbb{Q}(\rho) \subseteq U$ if and only if $Gal(K/U)$ contains no elements with orders that are multiples of 3
Azu:
This is because $\rho$ would have to be fixed by all elements of $Gal(K/U)$; the elements of $Gal(K/\mathbb{Q})$ that permute $\rho$ have orders of multiples of 3
Azu:
I could be wrong
Well the Galois group permutes the roots but it doesn't necessarily apply any permutation to them
wait, no...
It helps to know what the roots are, then it should be clear which can be swapped with what
The roots of $x^3-2$ are ${^3\sqrt{2},\rho(^3\sqrt{2}), \rho^2(^3\sqrt{2}})$
Azu:
