#groups-rings-fields
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It's VR, of course they can.
I actually have Valve Index so I have individual finger tracking
well me and a friend just played once or twice visting servers and trolling in voice chat
Oh shit
I get to flex on people by doing F and Y signs natively
Yeah it's really fun!
I have it
Oh you can't play it yet
But I'm a bit of a HL nut, I speedrun the first game and I have like 400 hours in it
Hell yeah!
I'm the pink hair on the right
this is so getting out of off topic and u gotta sleep but fuck it
Sorry right
damn
Not person in middle with pink hair.
๐
Not yet, just blew $350 dollars on fully body tracking for VR so I'm waiting a bit before buying more stuff.
only 22 hours 
yes I been avoiding that, there are so many videos about it
D_666
I'm not cracking it I love Id too much
I need to play through Doom 2016 again anyways so I wouldn't be playing Doom Eternal immediately either
#chill
@woven delta yea sure sorry
Anyways I should sleep but if you want to know more about the ASL stuff friend me on discord and I'd be happy to introduce you, the community is very friendly and actually way more wholesome than I'm used to online

The difference between the direct product and direct sum of R-modules is just that we require finitely many coordinates to be non-zero in the sum?
I guess this isn't specific to modules
@ripe crest
Yes. The reason why we make a distinction is that there are different properties between the two
Anyone know what the difference between an field and a sigma - field is?
I don't understand the difference between finite intersection and countable intersection?
do you know the difference between finite sets and countable sets?
I guess not hahaha
countable means in bijection with a subset of N
a set is countable if it is finite or if there is a bijection between it and N
in other words, countable sets can be infinite
the notion of countable intersection turns out to be a very important one
So countable can be finite but finite can't be countable?
I can list every fraction that exists. The set of all fractions Q is countable.
But I can't list every real number. No matter what strategy I use, I'll always miss some. The real numbers R are uncountable.
All finite sets are countable
Oh I got that mixed up, so all finite sets can be countable, but not all countable sets are finite
precisely
and you'll hear "countably infinite" for an infinite countable set
an example of such a set is N itself
because well, x |-> x is trivally a bijection
a more interesting example is the aforementioned rationals, Q
or even the set of even numbers
or the set of prime numbers
in general, countability is the smallest "size" an infinite set can have
I see
for an example of an uncountable set
consider R, the real numbers
you cant construct a bijection between N and R
(this is cantor's diagonalization theorem)
so in a sense, there's "more" reals than naturals
and hence "more" reals than rationals and etc.
Also, fields and sigma fields are very different objects
also yeah theyre just completely different like definitionally
sorry, neglected what this was about
ignore the fact that they share a word
the definitions are completely different
So, going back to fields v.s. sigma - fields, fields has 'less' intersections than sigma - fields?
fields has no intersections in its definition at all
again theyre just very different things
im not sure what definition of "field"
youre looking at
Ohh right, I forgot to the define my field
Its from Probability Theory
Suppose you have a set A. Then F is a field if it is a collection of subsets of A, closed under the operations of finite unions, finite intersections and complementation, along with containing A,ฯ. F is a ฯ-field if it is a field but now allowing countable unions and countable intersections.
So, how would you try to explain the difference using the finite intersection v.s. countable intersection?
oh a literal
field of sets
lmao
sorry been a while
usually people just say "algebra over a set" in my experience butw/e
anyway
i mean it might be best to explain with an example here
consider an infinite set $S$ and some $s \subseteq S$ where $s$ is the collection of all subsets that are finite or of finite complement
Namington:
then $s$ is a field, but not a $\sigma-$field
Namington:
this is the canonical example
but theres a few more
we could also consider say
well lets think geometrically here
sorry this is off-the-cuff but i think it works
Like if you were to give me a sigma - field example?
suppose we're thinking about subsets of $\bR^2$
Namington:
say we consider the field containing just the open boxes and their unions
this is clearly a field of sets
since no matter what open boxes you smash together with union/intersection, you get an open box or union thereof
but is it a sigma field?
as it turns out, no
we can take an infinite union of open boxes
and construct, say, an open disc
or some other similar object
that definitely istn an open box
for an example of something that IS a sigma field
i mean, theres so many
obviously the power set of any set applies
but that doesnt really motivate the definition
Aaah ok, so fields is when you mash together an open box with another open box and it becomes an open box, but sigma - field is when you smash an open box with another open box but it becomes something else but can be still an open box if it wants to, just more shapes?
i mean thats just one example
and its because an infinite limit doesnt necessarily preserve geometry conventionally
like the specific reason that isnt a sigma algebra is
if you take a limit of a union of open boxes
that "approximate" an open disc
you end up with an open disc at the limit
[i.e. after a countable amount of unions]
but clearly an open disc is not an open box
thats just one particularly geometric example
Ooh okk
So, an example of a sigma - field is a field containing all elements of N?
Like a field would be a 2n, and a sigma - field would be n?
@chilly ocean
you can talk in voice tho but anwyays
so all i know is S_n and permutations
cycle notation
and i am given now the definition of a 2-cyle
called a transposition
or no the other way around but okay
now im given this definition
(triangle symbol whatever lmao ) = product (x_i-x_j) where 0<i<j<=n
a permutation acts on this product
by permutating the indexes
are you talking about sign of a permutation?
yes
that definition basically takes a poly
and then you have a ratio of polynomials with the same factors (but not necessarily same sign)
and this results in a number +1 or -1
imo it's a quite convoluted definition of a permutation's parity
but it's also pretty cool
okayy
so an even permutation
is when a permutation doesnt affect the triangle basicaly
and an oodd is hwen its -1
Anyway uhh you said earlier you wanted clarification on even permutations and alternating group right
now what i dont know
is hwo to solve problems with alternating groups
how to find them
how to write them
like how do you find the set of even permutations on {1,2,3,4} forr exampl
A_4 ig
and more stuff
ok so first of all
Do you the definition of even permutation right?
(Without using the sign definition)
an even permutation when
is when a peprmutaion
can be written as an even number of transpositions
thats one
You can show that an even permutation is a permutation composed of an even number of transpositions correct
Ok cool
Can you see why even permutations would form a subgroup of S_n?
yea
Ok what's the order of A_4
yea
well ok there's a naive way to do this and a more complicated way to do this
i just wanna understand stuff
its the next section
after simple and solvable groups
and i gotta prove soon that A_n is simple
for n>+5
and later on
im going to know that this is somehow related to polynomials lmao
like wtf XD
well the naive way is to directly count the permutations
the more complicated way makes use of the fact |S_4 : A_4| = 2
im not that good with cycles lmao
Take any even permutation ฯ
S_4/A_4 is ismoprhic to Z_2
So for every even permutation we ahve a corresponding odd permutation right
yea
ok cool
do you agree then that there are at least as many odd permutations as even permutations
Now consider an odd permutation ฯ
We can similarly show ฯฯ is a corresponding even permutation right?
yea
yea
but wait
earlier we said there are at least as many odd permutations as even permutations!
this means there are an equal number of even and odd permutations
So now you know the order of A_4 (and why it's that way)
okay
and hence the number of even permutations right(?)
because all the even permutations in S_4 will form a subgroup of S_4
any questions now?
no no
so we showed
for every even permutation there is odd permuation
and the otherwise
so they are equal
now thas why |A_n| = n!/2
Yup
yea i totally get it
by that i getr that the index of A_4 in S_4 is 2
now how can we use that ig
well what do you want to use the index for
I basically just showed you why A_n has the order it does (and consequently how to count the total number of even permutations in S_n)
Well, I showed you how to find the order of A_n and why its that way :p
The permutation u is odd if and only if the number of cycles of even length in its cycle decomposition is odd.
now i get so fucking confused
oh shit this was one of my homework problems 2~3 weeks ago lmao
an m-cycle is an odd permutation if and only if m is even.
am i supposed to be able tro prove those?
if ur oging to ask
idk group actions yet
thats next chater and its a big one
lol you dont need group actions dw
okay XD
you only need to know about the symmetric group
yea i do know about it abit
Prove that pi^2 is an even permutation for any permutation pi
Show that Sn = ((1 2), (1 2 3 .. . n) } for all n :::: 2
these are a lot of questions
ugh srry
and I can answer exactly one
It;s kinda late here so I'll help with one and recommend asking the rest in #โhow-to-get-help
choose whichever one and I'll try my best to help rn
wow ur so good
umm
can you give me a hint for 2?
i was going to exhaust
everything
let pi be odd
then pi^2 is odd(odd) then its even
Question #2 is "an m-cycle is an odd permutation if and only if m is even." correct?
Ok so let's do some computations first
oh ok nvm lol
sure why not lol
Question #2 is "an m-cycle is an odd permutation if and only if m is even." correct?
now let m be even
Ok so let's write out an m-cycle in S_n
okaay
(a_1a_2a_3...a_m)
$\sigma = (s_1 ; \cdots ; s_m) = (s_1 ; s_m) \cdots (s_1 ; s_2)$
kakuhen:
in general we can write the cycle as a product of 2-cycles right
how many 2-cycles do we end up with?
in general we can write the cycle as a product of 2-cycles right'
why
i am fuzzy with
the mechancis here
of cycles
tahts why im bad
has your professor shown you that result yet
that you can write permutations as product of transpositions
if you dont believe this then just do the computation
multiply the individual 2-cycles in my equation above
and you should get the m-cycle back
okay just an example cuz im fuzzy with mechancis
e.g. (1234) = (14)(13)(12)
(1234)
okay so thats how you write a cycle
as product of transpositions
and this is unique right?
Not necessarily
what
okay
okay okay so
back to our problem
(a1a2a3....am)
=(a1am)(a1a2)
...
yea
okay
Given an m-cycle, how many 2-cycles do we end up with?
count the individual 2-cycles
let me think cuz im stupidi now
idk ugh
wait
XD
okay inm stupid let me do an example fuck it
oh okayh
m-1?
Correct!
is it bad
that i couldnt do this
on my own
and saw ur example
and counted?
lmao
i used thise.g. (1234) = (14)(13)(12)
my brain was too weak for the m case
lmao
yea
yeah that's fine that you needed some guidance
so if m is even
you got the right answer
m-1 is odd
hence number of transpositions is odd
lmlao
cool
cool af lmao
u up for another 1?
lmao
jk
is lcm(2,2) = 2?
oh
So you basically got the idea of how to prove that statement
Now let's go back to your "triangle thingy"
okay
so sgn(phi) = 1 iff phi(triangle ) = triangle
Notice that what you just did implies sgn(ฯ) = (-1)^m-1
sgn(phi) =-1 iff phi(triangle) = -triangle
so that's another way to see the problem
i dont think im able to do most problems
It wasnt uncommon for me to spend hours on some exercise and then ask a professor for a hint
and after that hint everything suddenly seemed so obvious and I felt stupid
lol
ur using df?
Nope
my professor made his own textbook
from*
but like these are standard exercises
ye aayea
everybody ends up doing them in algebra classes
give or take?
Yeah
That problem I just helped you on
When I was doing it myself for the first time ever
I think I spent at least 30 minutes
and that was the quickest exercise I've done
yea man cool
okay this is going to waste your itme
sorry but
is this triangle thingy
related to determinants?
thats outside the book but just wanna know more
no idea tbh
cool
oh
reversed nabla
huh
ig
interesting
wait
and yea its written up how wto write
something as transpositions
yea i suck
.
yea then its probably related to some higher shit
that we are ggoing to use later
ig
nah
trust me i've only seen that cursed polynomial like once
and never again
in my algebra class
lmao
No
yes
fuck
oh it depends on "it"
I thought you meant like "the sign of permutations"
i wanna do verify for my7 self
at least in an intro to group theory class
that A_n is kernel of the homomoprhism
you're only gonna see that cursed polynomial once
maybe in more advanced courses it'll reappaer
cool
what idea
you'll see it 2 weeks from now
the kernel?
uh that definition of a permutation's parity
when I first saw it I was like "wtf is this non-sense"
and understood 0%
and like 1~2 weeks later it suddenly clicked
lmao my professor straight up made a shittier copy of D&F then
you should confirm that the discriminant corresponds to the normal idea of a discriminant for quadratics
what determinant
i.e., if you let the x_i be the roots of a polynomial, then that equation gives you the determinant of your polynomial
b^2 - 4ac
its the right name
idk probably
liek if we write the permutation usingg array or matrix notation
and find the determinant
if 1 even
if -1 odd?
i think finding determiannt would be really hard ig
a problem that i attempted just wanna check if profo is right
pi^2 is an even permutation for any permutation pi
proof: pi is an m-cycle
if m is even then pi has odd number of transpositions
then pi^2 would have (odd number) times odd numebr of transpositions hence even transpositions
if m is odd then same
ig
is that irhgt argument>?
I'll follow @mild laurel 's advice and post my question here.
I'm trying to find the left cosets of $\mathcal{S}{n}$ in $H = \mathcal{S}{-1}$.
I've thought about it some more and this is my current reasoning: ($\mathcal{S}{n}$ : $H$) = $\frac{|\mathcal{S}{n}|}{|H|} = \frac{n!}{(n-1)!} = n$.
So there are $n$ left cosets. Now, by definition, $\sigma \sim \sigma'$ if $\exists \rho$ such that $\sigma = \sigma' \cdot \rho$. Since $\rho \in H,$ $n \notin Supp(\rho)$. Now here is where I struggle to rigorously write this: $\sigma$ is not equivalent to $\sigma'$ iff $\sigma(n) \ne \sigma'(n)$. Is this correct?
Smor Brother:
Okay, wait what does Supp(p) mean?
Oh, is the notation different in english? My bad.
$Supp(\rho) = { i \in {1, ... ,n}$ such that $\rho(i) \ne i}$
Smor Brother:
Basically all the {1,..,n} that are changed by the permutation
Ah no, that's standard, I had just forgotten about that
The $n$ from $\mathcal{S}_{n}$
Smor Brother:
Yeah, that statement isn't true

like if you take n = 3
then you can take the permutations f,g such that f(1) = 1, f(2) = 3, f(3) =2 and g(1) = 3, g(2) = 2, g(3) = 1
but these two permutations are equivalent since you can take the permutation h such that h(1) = 2, h(2) = 1, h(3) = 3
They're not equivalent though. There is no way to swap 1 and 2 in any of those to get the other 
and if you compoe this with g, you get f
so its not that easy

you're close though
actually, this example might be wrong
Yeah this example isn't right, your statement is correct
And its important you're looking at left cosets here and not right, for right cosets, my example would be a counterexample
Wait so I'm right afterall
?

i had the order of composition backwards
Damn I'm glad, cosets are weird man
permutation groups are weird
you should be a bit more rigorous, but the right idea is there
Like I don't think it's rigorous but I don't see how I can write it more rigorously though 
your statement really should be rewritten as
$\sigma$ is equivalent to $\sigma'$ iff $\sigma(n) = \sigma'(n)$
Zopherus:
but you can do it more rigorously by showing that both directions are true
Now the statement is of course a lot better 
double negatives were hard to wrap my head around
However I'm still trying to think how I'd rigorously write it.
Say I have $\sigma \sim \sigma'$. By definition, $\exists \rho$ such that $\sigma = \sigma' \cdot \rho$.
However $\rho \in \mathcal{S}_{n-1}$ so $n \notin Supp(\rho)$.
$\Rightarrow \sigma (n) = (\sigma' \cdot \rho) (n) = \sigma'(n)$.
Smor Brother:
yeah
Can we reason via equivalence in my previous message there?
Say I have $\sigma \sim \sigma'$. By definition, $\exists \rho$ such that $\sigma = \sigma' \cdot \rho$.
However $\rho \in \mathcal{S}_{n-1}$ so $n \notin Supp(\rho)$.
$\Leftrightarrow \sigma (n) = (\sigma' \cdot \rho) (n) = \sigma'(n)$.
Smor Brother:
Is that still correct?
Hm, now its a bit more awkward what the second half of the statement means
Let me rewrite it then 
Say I have $\sigma \sim \sigma'$. By definition, $\exists \rho$ such that $\sigma = \sigma' \cdot \rho$.
However $\rho \in \mathcal{S}_{n-1}$ so $n \notin Supp(\rho)$. Thus
$\sigma (n) = (\sigma' \cdot \rho) (n) = \sigma'(n)$.
Hence $\sigma \sim \sigma' \Leftrightarrow \sigma (n) = \sigma'(n)$.
Smor Brother:
Not sure if I can already conclude an equivalence there is my question 
Or is it merely a one-way proof
its really only one way
Damnit 
starting from \sigma(n) = \sigma'(n)
you have to show that some rho exists so that \sigma = \sigma' \cdot \rho

Roughly speaking, I'd say I can just change the rest to my liking with a certain permutation rho.
yeah
However I have no idea how it's done rigorously there. Do you mind helping me a bit here?
if I have f,g so that f(1) = 2, f(2) = 3, f(3) = 1, and g(1) = 3, g(2) = 2, g(3) = 1
what rho are you going to pick so that f = g \rho
yeah, and how did you get that?

okay, maybe this is a dumb example because there's only one thing you could pick lmao
By looking I guess lol
since obviously the identity doesn't work
hm
maybe an idea is that
if f(1) = m for some m, then you have that g(k) = m for some k, but this means that you want rho(1) = k
so that g(rho(1)) = m
๐ค
Seems like this part is the hardest
So, given any two $\sigma, \sigma'$ such that $\sigma(n) = \sigma'(n)$.
Let $\sigma(1) = m \in {1,..,n-1}$.
Because $\sigma'$ is a bijection, $\exists k \ in {1,..,n-1}$ such that $\sigma'(k) = m.
Let $\rho \in \mathcal{S}_{n-1}$, if $\rho(1) = k, (\sigma' \cdot \rho)(1) = \sigma'(\rho(1)) = \sigma'(k) = m = \sigma(1)$.
Do I try induction here?

Oh whoops
Smor Brother:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
so now the functions match up at 1
but they have to match up everywhere
you know they already match at n, so you don't have to do anything about that but
basically do the same thing you just did for 2,..., n - 1
its not induction lmao
you don't have any base cases or anything
or inductive steps
So I just take i in {2, .., n-1} and prove they match up to i then?
since I don't specify i, then they match up for any i
you prove that you can construct rho so that it matches up

Alright I'll give it a shot and come back with a written proof for you to look at.
Thank you so much for the help you've already given me, this is not my strong suit 
I managed, thanks 
@stone fulcrum cool - thanks
If it were reducible, what would be the dimensions of the irreducible parts have to be?
yes
Ah, I misread what you said
You don't need to use an arbitrary vector, you only need to give an example of some vector that when you apply the matrices, don't give a vector thats a scalar multiple of the original one
If your representation is indeed the direct sum of two 1-dimensional representations, then the matrices applied to every vector will have to be just scaled
So if you can find just one example where its not scaled then
Let $G$ be a finite group with an even number of elements. Prove that $G$ contains $a \neq 1$ such that $a^2 = 1$.
downtown:
How would you approach this problem?
Imagine a group with n elements, n is even.
Try to pair elements with their inverses
The identity pairs with itself, and now do the rest
Oh right and since $1$ maps to $1$ we will get $a$ maps to $a^{-1}$
downtown:
This should give you an idea of why the statement is true
for some a
play around with my suggestion and try to make a proof out of it
if u still cant then ask us about what youre stuck with
I see what you mean, the elements will get overloaded if you try to map them to something other than themselves
since 1 goes to 1
oh not quite, let me think
I understand it intuitively but I am having trouble formalising it
since a*a^-1 = a-1 * a you have some odd number of pairings
I can draw it graphically, and it makes me think there is a combinatorial argument
oh!
@chilly ocean if the identity is the only element that maps to itself then there is an odd number of elements right?
and we can get a contradiction this way
you dont need contradiction
but youre definitely have the right idea
elaborate more on that counting argument
then youre done
@chilly ocean it would mean that you can pair up elements that aren't 1, so there are an even number of elements not including 1
hence an odd number including 1
how would you say that formally?
Have you learned about the order of an element yet?
yeah
ok
so lets try to do this step by step
Your idea makes use of the fact that the order of an element equals the order of its inverse, right
uhh
does it?
Yes. Try to think where you used that fact when arguing that the group has an odd number of non-identity elements
Anyway for now try to write the proof since you have the idea in your head
hint: youre gonna want to talk about the orders of elements and the order of rhe group
I came up with a proof that doesn't use a contradiction argument
If we just take all the elements of $H = {g \in G: g \neq g^{-1}}$ we can show that it is even
downtown:
and then $G - H$ is even, and $1 \in G - H$
downtown:
I think that works, as long as you show why H must be even.
a little more convoluted than the idea i had in my head, but try writing a proof with that idea
if $\frac{G}{H_1}\simeq\frac{G}{H_2} $, does that imply $ H_1\simeq H_2 $
StevenDoesStuffs:
No
counterexample?
The first example that came to my mind was to take an infinite direct product of Z
This quotiented by one copy of Z is still isomorphic to the original
And this quotiented by two copies of Z is also isomorphic to the original
But obviously Z is not isomorphic to Z x Z
One's cyclic and the other isn't
if G is finite I think its still false but I haven't thought about a counterexample yet
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/40881/isomorphic-quotients-by-isomorphic-normal-subgroups
found this
if we're allowed to use trivial subgroups then uhh
D_3 โ S_3 โ S_4 / V but {e} isn't isomorphic to V.
where V is klein 4 group
Uh, wait I don't see how that example works, is G = S_4?
@golden pasture that question goes in the other direction
yea
i.e., does isomorphic subgroups imply isomorphic quotients
but gives a counterexample too
@soft elm what do you mean by constructed?
Do you know what a symmetry group is?
and the set elements are {a1,a2,a3...}
uh permutations something?
i havent studied it yet
So groups arise naturally as groups of symmetries of some object
hm
That's why they're interesting
like symmetries of an equilateral triangle
Yeah
so i was seeing the integers
Yeah that's a bad intuition
and then i saw that they can be constructed from 1
itself
and the identity element
then i saw that this is a cyclic group
Yeah
how would i get a group which is not cyclic
what is the basis of construction of the elements
So one example is the symmetry group of 3 elements
Ie the group of all permutations of 3 elements
hm
There are 3! = 6 elements in this group
yeah
And you can write them all out
Some good notation to do that is to write it in terms of cycles
suppose my set is {a1,a2,a3......}
hm
how would i construct a group out of these
with an operation *
Lol you can always make some dumb shit
lol
You don't want to make groups randomly
You want them to arise from something else you studied
Yeah given any set there are lots of group with that underlying set
in general we dont really care about the set of a group
like at all
we care about the group's structure
not what the individual elements represent
^
every group is just S_n ig
theres plenty of groups that arent S_n
Every group is just F_n
I think he means that one specific corollary of cayley's theorem
the one that's like every group is isomorphic to some subgroup of S_N
yeah but
isomorphism isnt equality
"a subgroup"
we say it jokingly
is a very different matter
but dont take it seriously
okayy
you lose a lot of information from the "sub-" prefix
I guess you could probably say something like "Every finite group is equal to some subgroup of S_n (up to isomorphism)"
like Q is a subfield of R but theyre not really that similar
their cardinalities are totally different for one
also yeah this only applies to finite groups
and finite group theory is solved anyway
RUDE
you might be thinking of cayley's theorem
like the actual statement
that applies to all groups
yea
im not sure how youd make an infinite group isomorphic to S_n?
is the corollarly
oh huh
usually i see it as
every group is a subgroup of the symmetric group acting on that group
Wait, infinite groups should all be subgroups of a symmetric group with large enough cardinality too right?
im not sure how youd make an infinite group isomorphic to S_n?
The closest to an example I can think of is like the infinite dihedral group
but that's still not an example
well caayleys theorem is still like 3rd section
zoph i dont think thats true
so untioll i get tthere
but maybe im a dumbass
the statement of cayley's theorem is a statement on group actions
it just so happens that by considering a trivial group action
you get the corollary
i will get there
but only where it makes sense (i.e. in the finite case)
oh wait
gaillan didnt cover group actions
I think Zoph is correct
what's stopping us from applying a group action that's a permutation on an infinite group
or some shit
oh wait I see your point now
or maybe I do
the proof of cayley's theorem I recall works on infinite groups if you want to establish G being isomorphic to a subgroup of Sym(G)
but not necessarily S_n
like if G is finite then certainly Sym(G) is isomorphic to some S_n
but if infinite then idk
welp this is where I bother my grad student friends with random questions at midnight
lol
they're used to it
we often argue about random shit in math while drunk at pizza places near midnight
well, not anymore thanks to covid-19 but yeah
ok after thinking about it
I missed the forest for the trees or whatever
isomorphisms are bijections so you can't possibly have one between an infinite group and a finite group
so yeah the whole S_n thing should only ever apply to finite groups
i think you can play with cardinality
You can have infinite symmetric groups
right that's what I said earlier
but you wont have the case where like Sym(G) โ S_n for some S_n if G is infinite
and mo2men's question was isnt any group ismorphic to a subgroup of S-N?
ok actually I think I see your point Zoph
if the action is faithful then even if G is infinite it could be isomorphic to some subgroup of S_|G|, maybe
im taking way too much time to think about this than I should :s
Asking here because this feels a bit too low level:
I have $P\in R[X]$ where $R$ is a ring. I need to show that $P$ can always be written as a sum of the form $\sum_{i=0}^n c_i (x-b)^i$ for any $b\in R$.
How do I approach this? Induction?
Do I just slap on the binomial theorem and work from here?
Uh, I assume your sum should be c_i (x-b)^i
kuri:
But you can see that the degree d term in your sum only depends on the indices of the sum that are >= d. In other words, the degree n term only depends on c_n, the degree n-1 term only depends on c_n and c_{n-1} etc
map like x to x+b
Oh hey Ariana you're here as well 
yee
wow small world
So you can start at the top, if P(x) = a_n x^n + ... + a_0, then you can see that you have to take c_n = a_n, but then yeah, you use binomial theorem stuff. Comparing degree n-1 terms gives you that c_n * n + c_{n-1} = a_{n-1}, and you can just repeat this all the way down
I get that I need c_n = a_n but I wasn't really sure what to do from here
But in the end it's really just manipulating the binomial coefficients right
Thanks!
why not like
Let ฯ be a homeomorphism from R[x] to R[x] mapping R to itself as the identity and x to x-b
then just show it has a inverse
Wait does that work?
That's what I had in mind at first
An obvious inverse would be x+b right
well the inverse is trivial and you can get the coefficients from it explicitly if need should work
yup
Well this shows they're isomorphic
And I can just define the polynomial in x-b to be my polynomial in x composed with the iso right
yea
And obviously this works for any b in R since R is also an additive group so +/-b is always defined
ye
Thanks Ari 
And since you're here, thanks again for commutative algebra!
It's a big help having you give solutions to the project
yw<3
lol bored highschooler here xd
jesus you geniuses xD
anyone knows the basics of maclauray2?
so basically
I know what I have to do and how. I just don't know how to do it efficiently (for my time, not processor speed)
I know that to solve that, you compute the grobner basis for the ideal wrt. lex order
then you get one equation which is singlevariate
you find the roots, plug into 2 variable equation. Find roots, into 3 variable equation
and that's all fine and dandy but how do I do that in maclauray2 without wasting my time
I know how to compute the gb
and solve solves an univariate equation
is there anything to idk, solve the matrix that gens(gb(ideal... puts out? That matrix and searching for when is every term zero
i13 : S = CC[x,y,z, MonomialOrder => Lex]
o13 = S
o13 : PolynomialRing
i14 : gens(gb(ideal(x^2+y^2-z, x^2+y+z^2, -x+y^2+z^2)))
o14 = | z6+1.5z5+1.25z4+.125z3-.125z2-.25z yz2+.5yz+.5y+z4+z3+.75z2+.25z y2-y-z2-z x-y-2z2-z |
this
ping me if you know
or even matrix->list function would be a nice start
flatten entries works if anyone needs it in the future
A relation cannot be simultaneously symmetric and antisymmetric
Waht you guys think about it
what do you think about it?
||I can come with at least two examples of relations which are both||
@blissful ice idk but is sage avil lol if so just do like print(solve([x^2+y^2-z,x^2+y+z^2,-x+y^2+z^2],[x,y,z])) or if want to have nice latex code print('\n'.join(map(lambda x:latex(x),solve([x^2+y^2-z,x^2+y+z^2,-x+y^2+z^2],[x,y,z])))) and gives you closd form rightaway
gb=groebner basis? if so doesnt rlly work here its still quadratic
sage: x,y,z = AA['x,y,z'].gens()
....: Ideal(x^2+y^2-z,x^2+y+z^2,-x+y^2+z^2).groebner_basis()
[x^2 + 1/2*x + 1/2*y - 1/2*z,
y^2 - 1/2*x - 1/2*y - 1/2*z,
z^2 - 1/2*x + 1/2*y + 1/2*z]
gb is groebner basis yeah
I mean technically the exercise just asks for the points that solve it, but I wanted to get familiar with Macaulay2
I ended up throwing it in mathematica to solve it ๐ฆ
but you still kinda have to know how to use some of M2, I just started using it today
and wanted to learn more. It's good for AG and CA
at least my prof says it's really good, suggested us to learn it
a bit lost on some regards, not gonna lie
honestly yea the docs is kinda confusing to navigate
thats why i only know how to sage cuz its docs are so pretty
haha yeah I gotchu
that's the only reason I still use mathematica from time to time too
although I want to switch to sage. Much more free
mathematica is like nice for analysis and numerical stuff only tbh
Let a/b \in Frac(R). Is it true that a \in Frac(R) and b \in Frac(R)?
R \subset Frac(R), so that must be the case, right?
Where R is an integral domain
What are with these symbols
frac R like the fraction field of R?
Yeah
silent flower:
then yea, normally we just define it as a/b=(a,b) in frac(R) where a,b are in R
(btw need commutativity iirc if it isnt commutative then you need certain conditions and fancy constructions)
yeaa
R injects into Frac(R)
yeah, that's why I specified that it's an integral domain xD
thanks!
oops missed that ll
Hopefully this is right
Yeah
Ty
just X and 1/X
ah yes - we can get any a \in k via (X + ... + X)/X, where there are a Xs in the numerator,
thanks
Eh, that doesn't quite work, this only gives you the image of the map from Q to k
ah right whoopsies
hmmm
oh actually k(X) is not generated by X and 1/X
prof just responded
Consider 1/(X+1)
Ah hm you're right
Generated by x and 1/p(x) where p(x) is irreducible