#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 465 of 407
but now, in the quotient, we can replace y with x^2 + x + 1
so our ideal is (x-a, (x^2+x+1) - (a^2 + a + 1))
= (x-a, (x^2 - a^2) + (x-a))
= (x-a, (x-a)*(x + a + 1))
= (x-a)
basically when we quotient by "y = blah" it means we can basically forget abotu y
since we're writing it in terms of x
it's like in group theory if I tell you that a group is generated by a and b with the relation b = a^2
then we really don't need to talk about b any more
ah, I see
Hmmm I feel like I'm missing something
You're saying in the quotient, that we're just left with ideals generated by a single polynomial
Ah
And instead of just saying that it's isomorphic to C[T], you showed me by hand why it's true
I get it
π
lmao i had to figure out what was even happening
Okay, then going back to finding prime ideals
Prime ideals of the quotient are a subset of the ideals in the quotient, which themselves are (images of) maximal ideals of C[X,Y]
oh wait
that's not true xD
buuut! Prime <=> maximal in the quotient. So, the prime ideals are precisely the maximal ideals!
ayo let's go
haha
you know that prime = maximal in the quotient because it's isomorphic to C[t]
the other way to think about it is that prime ideals in the quotient are exactly the images of prime ideals upstairs
well actually taht's hard to think about since there are lots of those
that aren't maximal
yeah probably saying "iso to C[t] so prime = maximal" is the best way to go
oh? if we have a surjective homomorphism then maximal -> maximal, and prime -> prime?
yes that is the correspondence theorem
or sometimes given a "Nth isomorphism theorem" name
for some N
there is an inclusion-preserving bijection between {ideals of R containing I} and {ideals of R/I}
and that correspondence preserves maximality and primality
interesting. I knew preimages of ideals being ideals and images of ideals being ideals when the map is surjective - but didn't know about that
I guess it just follows from that
at least the maximality part does for the quotient ring
if J contains I in R, the image of J in R/I is J/I
right
and some other isomorphism theorem tells you that R/J = (R/I)/(J/I)
so if one of those rings is an integral domain/field, the other must be as well
^ 3rd
gotcha
there is an inclusion-preserving bijection between {ideals of R containing I} and {ideals of R/I}
^ fourth
and no one cares about the 2nd xD
yea thank god
also don't forget that if R --> S is surjective then S is of the form R/I
so this is all true for any surjective map
ah, by the 1st
it's even true for nonsurjective maps that the inverse image of a prime ideal is prime
but there the inverse image of a maximal ideal need not be maximal
proof: Let p be a prime of S and P the inverse image in R (for some hom R --> S)
then P is the kernel of the composite R --> S --> S/p
by 1st iso thm, this means that hte image of that map is iso to R/P
i.e. R/P is a subring of S/p
if S/p is an integral domain, then R/P must be as well
R/P might not be all of S/p since the original map wasn't assumed to eb surjective
we also see why it fails for maximal ideals: subrings of fields need not be fields
oh that's nice
R/P injects into S/p
that's actually quite clever
that composite map
I've seen that before, guess it's a useful technique
yep
it's the same way you prove the third iso theorem
consider the composite R --> R/I --> (R/I)/(J/I)
this is surjective as both pieces are
and the kernel is J
hence R/J is iso to (R/I)/(J/I)
How do we know kernel is J?
I guess we because J contains I first off, and then we mod out by J
the kernel is the things that map to 0 in (R/I)/(J/I)
i.e. the things that map to J/I in R/I
and yeah since J contains I
elliptic curve stuff?
I think about elliptic curves sometimes but it's not my specialty
I'm interested in class groups of number fields
and galois cohomology
sounds very cool - didn't really understand it on wikipedia π
haha
Are you planning to stay in academia?
I'm a little preoccupied right now but I'd be happy to give you a synopsis at some point
yeah though not in a pure research role
I'm taking a teaching-focused position next year
Preferably after my midterm : P
oooh very nice
In America?
It's fine if you don't want to say
goddamn
chicago math is known to be solid
all I know about st louis are the blues (hockey team)
ah gotcha
Here's a question: Find an idempotent element of R[X]/(X-2)(X-1) which is not 0 or 1
and apparently there's a way to relate this to the chinese remaiender theorem
But i dont know that, but i need to know it for tomorrow
what does CRT say about R[x]/(x-2)(x-1)
no idea - lemme look
R[X]/(X-2)(X-1) is isomorphic to R[X]/(X-1) x R[X]/(X-2)
oh cool
that's just R x R, which is R^2
and maybe the multiplication behaves like C
so we want z \in C s.t. z^2 = z
so it has to be on unit circle
π¦ if only
oh yeah duh wtf
;)
ok, there goes that plan of attack
still, we want (a, b) s.t. (aa, bb) = (a, b)
But, like R is an integral domain - so either a = 0 or a = 1..
hmm
1 would be (1, 1) and 0 would be (0, 0)
Oh
(1, 0), (0, 1)
those are 2 candidates for idempotents
yep
that are not 0 and not 1
Let me see..
What would (1, 0) look like in the original quotient ring
It's 1 under quotienting out by (X-1), and 0 quotienting out by (X-2)
hmm I don't know
guessing and testing isn't working
ah well - finding things up to an isomorphism should be good enough on the midterm
what about x-2?
oop you're right
sry
so here's another way to think about it
we need to find a poly such that when you plug in 2 you get 0
and when you plug in 1 you get 1
so it has to be a multiple of x-2
and in fact we can see that if f(x) = x-2 then f(1) = -1
so choose -x + 2
f(2) = 0 and f(1) = 1
-x+2 is 0 mod x-2 and 1 mod x-1
we can also check it's an idempotent directly (although it's unnecessary -- we just proved it's an idempotent, but it's always nice to double check). (2-x)^2 = x^2 - 4x + 4.
we are modding by (x-2)(x-1) = x^2 - 3x + 2
wait - you were totally right before! x-2 does work!
because if -x+2 works then x-2 must work
(x^2 - 4x + 4) - (x^2 - 3x + 2) = -x + 2
x-2 won't work here. x-2 in the RxR coordinates is (-1,0)
so its square is (1,0)
not itself
ah ofc
that's really nice
You just chose Q in P = (X-2)Q such that P(1) would equal 1
so obvious in hindsight
yet
so far away from my grasp
that's what years of experience will do for you :)
A is a commutative ring, e an idempotent of A. Need to show that A is isomorphic to Ae x A(1-e)
gonna spend some time with this
don't spoil it yet xD
ok :)
Aside - a homomorphism of k-algebras in the context of single-variable polynomials rings is completely determined by where it sends X right?
and if it was multivariate, where it sends X_1, X_2, ..., X_n
yes
Let G be a cyclic group of order n and r|n. How do I prove that there is only one subgroup H of G with |H|=r?
fundamental theorem
can you elaborate on that?
suppose another 111
oka
okay lets do it togethere
let me state it this way :
let G = <x> be a cyclic group
with order n.
for each divisor of n,m, there exists a unique subgroup of G
namely <x^(n/m)>
we want to prove this
yes
now let k = n/m
can u show that <x^k> is a subgroup?
then we show uniqunees together
It is
okay so u struggle with unique?
Yeah
okay so lets call this subgroup H
I proved that subgroup of cyclic group is cyclic
so suppose there exists another subgroup G' with order k
yea where r and t are the samllest possible intgers where x^n is in H and x^t is in G' respectively
thats from what you proved
oh my god i g ot lost up
with the names
okay lets summarize sorry
let H = <x> be a cyclic group with finite order n
for every divisor ,a, there is aunique subgroup namely <x^(n/a)>
now proof:
assume H = <x> with finite order n
and a is a divisor of n
now suppose K is any subgroup of H of order a. ( to show uniqueness )
then we have K = <x^b> where b is the smallest positive integer such that x^b is in K
I think got it now xD
so b is the smallest positive integer with x^b in K
and since K has order a, we have that x^{ab}=1, so n|ab
or n<=ab, and b>=n/a
and x^{an/a}=x^n=1 shows that b<=n/a
therefore b=n/a, the obvious choice
okayy
well i did nothing to help ig XD
u figured out on ur own
sorry for the confusion earlier
That's the best help!
if u have any problems post here
it would help me too as im practicing
this is called the fundamental theorem of cyclic groups
3 points actually
every subgroup of cyclic groups is cyclic
order of cyclic subgroup must divide group ( hehe xd )
and for every divisor of order of finite cyclic group there exists a unique cyclic subgroup of that order
now that
@oblique river i have in my course notes that if I have orthogonal idempotents, I can decompose my ring as a product of them
Order of any subgroup divides the order of the group, that's not only cyclic groups
Oh, I look at the ideals generated by them
yea thats why i added the hehe xd part
lmao
Fair I get it nao
cuz i think this section was b4
they are comaximal
the lagranges theorem section
well
Inb4 Lagrange
nah its gcd
interesting that this means that (2, 3) generates Z
It's the same
yea it hink thats why u use the notation (a,b) for gcd(a,b)
cuz for osmething in rings
something*
ideals
yeah
oh btw @solemn rain - Rotman is really good for group theory - I liked his textbook
im currently using df
and it took alot of my time
i dont want to switch books tbh
i like that 1 tho
advnaced modern algebra looks coool too
oh yeah for sure - i just meant as a supplement if you wanted to see a different way of doing things
sometimes a different author's explanations make more sense
So this is at the end of Teacher's Notes in Artin's Algebra
What is he trying to say here?
That his text is not standard?
maybe he is just trying to be cute
tfw im looking at the wiki page for the primitive element theorem rn
That's a mood
you've gotta admit thats a nice theorem
So to show the isomorphism here, can I proceed like the following? Note that if f is R mod. hom. and g is R mod. hom. then (f,g) is R mod. hom.
Then we have that the following is an isomoprhism
[ \begin{tikzcd}
M \arrow[rightarrow]{r}{(\phi, g)}
& M' \oplus M''\arrow{r}{\varphi + f}
& M
\end{tikzcd}
]
If this is not true, can somebody guide on how to show the isomorphism, my prof just left it as "Prove the isomorphism"
All functions are continuous:
Curiosity Zero:
If we look at the contrapositive statement we get
Curiosity Zero:
the empty set satisfies the criteria
but isnt a subgroup
(but if you say non empty this will be sufficient)
can someone elucidate me on the importance of conjugacy across algebra , except for when you need exponentiation ?
i'm also interested in that question (if it's about groups)
the examples i've seen point to conjugates being analogous, with some renaming
so conjugate permutations have the same cycle structure but different names for the permuted elements
conjugate matrices are something similar with a change of basis
conjugation in quaternions is interesting, apparently it lets you rename e.g. i->j->k->i corresponding to a rotation
so an algebraist speaking chinese is conjugate to an algebraist speaking english, because if you put an english->chinese translator and a chinese->english translator (inverses) around the first one you get the second one
but translations arenβt really invertible!
on the level of individual words anyway, translations are many-to-many relations
Help I need help
The problem is as follows:
Let K be a finite extension of F. Prove that K is a splitting field over F iff every irreducible polynomial in F[x] that has a root in K spits completely in K[x].
where are you struggling ?
Forwards direction
I know K = F(a1, ..., an) where a1, ..., an are the roots of the polynomial for which K is the splitting field
if you take Omega as an algebraic closure of F, every homomorphism from K to Omega is an automorphism because an homomorphism is determined by its value on a1,...,an.
the result follow almost directly
Ah I see
is the empty set subsuet of any set?
t6y
Why are there two conjugacy classes of 11-cycles in A_12
i know the order of the centralizer of some 11-cycle Ο in S_12 is 11, so centralizer is <Ο>, which is contained entirely in A_12
tho idk why it follows that the single conjugacy class of Ο in S_12 divides into two classes of equal size in A_12
is this channel occupied?
Uh, no? There are polynomials like f(x,y) = xy that are 0 whenever x is 0
Let K/L be a Galois extension and G its Galois group. Are there any tricks for finding the representations of G?
Inspired by the problem "How many pairwise inequivalent irreducible complex representations does the Galois group (over Q) of the polynomial x^4+x^2+2x+1 have?" on my algebra final
One thing is noticed is that K is an L[G] module
Hmm, all the representations of G or just the ones involved in the Galois action?
I mean so
The Galois action can be done somewhat explicitly, since K is separable you can write it as L(\alpha)
So you have a basis {1,\alpha,...,\alpha^{d-1}}
And in principle you can write down the matrices in this basis, and use character stuff to decompose into irreps
Yeah
Now will this give all of them? Probably not
I wonder whether there's any other obvious info the Galois group contains. I could see something like that, e.g. the characters of the reps that do come up are algebraic (in fact cyclotomic) integers
So idk maybe you take the cyclotomic field generated by those guys and play some games
is it possible to prove closure from the other 3 properties of a group + abelian
given no information about the binary operator
mm i see, good example, thank you
?
If G is a finite group and p is a prime dividing the order of the group
then there exists an element of order p
and another problem too that i cant doo
do
definition : A subgroup of G ,H, is called a Hall subgroup iff (|H| , [G:H]) = 1
suppose H is a Hall subgroup of G and N is normal in G
prove that H intersects N is a Hall subgroup of N
@solemn rain For Cauchy's theorem, consider using the class equations.
idk that yet
have you guys covered the orbit stabilizer theorem or something
no
The abelian case should be fairly simple without the use of either concept
he has to prove it generally
The abelian case is indeed simple (in terms of machinery needed), but idk how to do half the proof if we cant use group actions or class equations
can i use
okay
lets do abelian
then when i later cover group actions
i do for any group
Ok heres a hint for Abelian case
for the hall problem
im given a more specific case that i can prove
maybe the generlization is harder
basically to prove intersection of any sylow p-subgroup of G with a normal subgroup N is a sylow-p subgroup of N
I don't think that's so hard
okay will try that
Let n = |G|/p and consider when n=1. Clearly G is prime order cyclic group and hence contains an element of order p. Now suppose |G|=np and there is H with order kp, k<n. Continue from there
for cauchy's thm (for abelian grp)
if you induct on the order of G then what can you say about H (by inductive hypothesis)
after you figure that out, then think about the orders of elements in these two groups (and consider what you can say about the quotient group G/H if you can construct one)
The proof is that you take a sylow p subgroup P of N. This is a p subgroup of G. Now we know that there is a sylow p subgroup P' of G st P subset of P'
Now we use the fact that P' and your original sylow p subgroup of G are congugate
And that N is normal
You can fill in the rest of the details yourself
@solemn rain
yea ggot it
im trying this cauchy 1 first
tysm thoi
@chilly ocean G is abelian
H is normal
|G/H| = |G|/|H|
i dont understand this definition already lmao
What don't you get?
so is a composition series
a sequence of subgroups
?
such that subgroup mod the previous subgroup has no normal subgroups?
i dont get 1 = G tho
1 = N_0 <= N_2 ... = G?
There was a question where A is in M_n(k), where k is a field. And we consider the sub-k-algebra generated by A, call it B. And we were asked if it was a integral domain
it's fine - i could've studied more
couldn't fully get it. I looked at the map k[X] -> M_n(k), that sends P -> P(A)
so we look at k[A]
and if the kernel of that map was a prime ideal, then we were done
but I couldn't show that
and I left a couple others blank
the kernel depends on A
Yeah
the kernel is generated by the [blank] of A
hmmm
I know that the kernel is generated by a single element, since k[X] is a PID. I know that the kernel contains all polynomials s.t. P(A) = 0... i'm not sure what the blank is
what is the smallest polynomial such that p(A) = 0?
the 0 polynomial
you're not wrong
what is the nonzero polynomial of minimal degree
the... minimal polynomial when ordered by degrees
This must depend on A, no?
||oao cauchy hamilton||
yes
hmm, not looking at spoilers yet
it does depend on A
also if you didn't get my hint i'm not sure if you'll figure it out
the kernel is generated by the minimal polynomial of A
it's a polynomial that divides the characteristic polynomial
and tells you a lot about the matrix
the determinant one?
right
ok im gonna look at the spoiler - my linear algebra might be lacking
no clue what cauchy hamilton is lol
I'm not sure if that theorem is really applicable here though
it says that a matrix A satisfies its characteristic polynomial
but it's not really useful here
Okay, the kernel is generated by the minimal polynomial of A, whatever that means
here are some linear algebra facts:
the roots of the minimal polynomial are the eigenvalues of A
so if the quotient by the minpoly is going to be an integral domain, the minpoly can only have one root
and in fact the minpoly must be (t-a) for some a
this means that the matrix must be a*I
because that's the only matrix A which satisfies A - aI = 0
so it's an integral domain iff A is a scalar multiple of the identity
yeah that makes sense
I never knew this stuff
hmm maybe we covered it in class, but I was too tired or not paying attention
sorry, but does this depend on k being algebraically closed? otherwise can we know that the minimal polynomial splits into linear factors?
yeah, you're right
hopefully i'll get 1/3 marks for at least getting started on the approach xD
are exact sequences cool/useful/important?
we're covering them now alongside modules
i have typed $0 \to A \to B \to C \to 0$ so many times into $\LaTeX$ that i have a custom command for it
huh okay
Namington:
surprised considering it seems kinda restrictive
\ses{A,B,C}
the image of the previous map has to be the kernel of the next map or something
yeah but that restriction should make intuitive sense
A -> B -> C -> D
we would need |B| > A if the map from A to B is injective, otherwise we just get the 0 map
right?
if you want the map A -> B to be injective you need to put a 0 before it
0 -> A -> B
makes sense
Daminark:
Okay, let me look at the defn of exact sequences
But yeah so it turns out that exactness of a sequence isn't like, oh any sequence of maps you write down will be exact
But they are common and you know a lot when you're able to get an exact sequence
oh okay, it's just the image and kernel thing i said - nothing more
πΏ
so: kernels are like definable things. something is (very losely) definable if it's in the kernel of some map. Like, you define something as having some property which is like singling it out
So in 0 -> A -> B, we have no information about B right? We just know that A injects into B?
and images are like constructible things. like, you can construct something from somethign else when you have a map and the thing you're constructing is the image
silent: yes
and so like, exactness is like "to what extent are definable things constructible"
err, I guess being exact would mean that all definable things are constructible
yes :P
huh okay - i cant fully appreciate that now, but itll marinate in the back of my mind
@bleak abyss , I did the first part - it's just using the defintions properly - working on second part
did second part
Nice
that helped with familiarizing myself with the definitions!
But yeah obv we're in the context of like, either groups or R-modules or something reasonable
Okay so now
right - and in our homework we have stuff about exact sequences splitting
havent covered that yet
The most common type of exact sequence is called a short exact sequence
0->A->B->C->0
Let's unwrap that a little bit
Yup, and B->C surjective
Now the kernel of the map B->C is the image of the map A->B
that feels weird
because in the first isomorphism theorem, we have surjection -> Injection
the decomposition
here it's reversed
Well, be careful, this is actually gonna make sense
So first iso says that f:A->B, then A/ker(f) \cong im(f)
Well let's say I have a surjection B->C
I immediately have an exact sequence
0->ker(f)->B->C->0
ker(f)->B is just the inclusion
What's the image of that? Itself, ker(f)
So really what a short exact sequence of the form 0->A->B->C->0 is saying is that C is the quotient of B by A
C is isomorphic to B/A
no
C is isomorphic to B/ker(f) where f:A -> B
wait
yes
C is isomorphic to B /A
really though?
Well
So yeah A is now a subset of B, and the point is that exactness tells us that A is the kernel of the map B->C
then we get an isomorphism
huh
cool
this flattens out our otherwise triangular commutative diagram
oh i shouldve looked at the homework .. they have that as an example
0 -> K -> M -> Q -> 0
and it says K for kernel, M for module, Q for quotient
Nerd
Anyway yeah so the idea behind a splitting is that there's something called the splitting lemma
0->A->B->C->0, let's say we're in the context of like, R-modules
In that R = \mathbb{Z}
Well, I have the mantra that B/A = C
Now this doesn't mean that B = A\oplus C
π’
Obvious example being, 0->Z/2->Z/4->Z/2->0 (I'll let you fill in the maps)
Well, the splitting lemma says that, for an SES of R-modules 0->A->B->C->0, TFAE:
(1) The map A->B has a retract (a map B->A such that A->B->A is the identity on A)
(2) The map B->C has a section (C->B->C)
(3) B splits naturally as A\oplus C
I like referring to both retracts and sections as sections
what is \oplus?
The direct sum
TFAE means?
The following are equivalent
Ah okay
Oh - so if we can split an exact sequence, it means we can factor B very nicely
It's sorta analogous to CRT
No
Actually
I mean I guess
I don't like that analogy
It's analogous to rank nullity in vector spaces
Well it's a generalization of rank nullity
oh, but we have no notion of dimension
We have a notion of rank actually
at least i havent learned of one for modules yet
If we can write B = A \oplus C, then isn't that similar to writing R[X]/(X-1)(X-2) as R[X]/(X-1) x R[X]/(X-2)?
I mean it's analogous in the sense it looks kinda the same
But it doesn't have the same feel to it
The ring story vs the module story feels very different
Uh, rank nullity?
Splitting lemma isn't really much of a thing in vector spaces because lol memes
What do you mean dami?
In vector spaces it always holds
But the way you prove it always holds
Is by exhibiting a section
I guess my point was that you should think of splitting as being similar to rank nullity
I got that, just like, I think it'd be more useful to like, draw an analogy to a context where splitting isn't automatic, you know?
Oh sure
err okay
I know that Magma -> Semigroup -> Monoid -> Group -> Ring -> Field (and we have division rings and integral domains between rings and fields)
Where do vector spaces and k-algebras fit in to this? I know a vector space is a field acting on an abelian group. I know a k-algebra is a field acting on a ring (or there's a field in the center of the ring).
and I know modules are rings acting on abelian groups
so it seems like we have two concurrent streams
the one I mentioned above and
modules -> vector spaces -> algebras
And why do we say R-module, k-vector-space, and k-algebra?
why give importance to the thing that's doing the acting as opposed to the thing being acted upon?
going to bed soon, so if someone wants to respond, just @ me and I'll look in the morning
i honestly think you're too concerned with "chains" or "heirarchies"
like im not sure why rings are the logical next "step" after groups
why rings instead of abelian groups?
rings introduce an entire new operation, whereas previously we'd only been adding properties to our first operation
indeed, one can "think of" rings as sets of endomorphisms over a group, in the sense that there is a ring morphism between (A, +, *) and (Hom(A, +), +, function composition)
specifically a -> (x -> ax)
from this lens, rings are a totally separate object
and i'd argue this is the more natural sense
even if it's a bit harder to explain in an algebra 1 lecture
anyway, i think the notion you're trying to convey is
a "chain" of "more specific forms" of a structure
we often represent these as subset chains
like, abelian groups $\subset$ groups $\subset$ monoids $\subset$ semigroups $\subset$ magmas
Namington:
(where here, each word represents the corresponding set)
you might've seen something similar in analysis too
anyway, from this framing, you do indeed have algebras subset vector spaces subset modules
well
actually thats kind of a weird thing to say
since the algebra-vector space thing is comparable to the ring-group thing
i.e. we're introducing another operation
to address your second point: because it's more convenient, in practice, to talk about "the thing doing the acting"
like if you've ever taken a linear algebra class
you can do proper linear algebra without ever defining a group
but you cant do it without defining a ring
(or at least a field, but at that point just define a ring too)
@ripe crest
i shamelessly stole this from a reddit comment, but this is a common "philosophic framing" for these objects
not sure whether its helpful to think of them like that right now
but these are the conceptions that come up in representation theory and commutative algebra, respectively
Hey, could someone give me a hint as to how we can reduce part (d) to only checking 3 cases?
in class we quickly used the following statement:
If $M_{\alpha}$ are $R$-modules, $N$ is a finitely generated free $R$-module, then $(\prod M_\alpha) \otimes_R N \cong \prod(M_\alpha \otimes_R N)$
is there an easy counterexample to show that freeness is required here?
Sascha Baer:
Maybe Z^N (x) Q provides the subset of Q^N of sequence with bounded denominator. But it is =/= Q^N
as in $\Z^\N \otimes \Q$ you mean?
Sascha Baer:
,rotate
Thank you
Err so you see it says adZ restricted to g0, x raised to the power of the dimension is non-zero, why do we need that
Isn't the adZ restricted being no singular enough since it guarantees the dimension of dim g0, Z is less than dim g0, x, because the 0 eigenvalue has multiplicity less than dim g_0,x
uncrop
what is a Cartan sub-algebra ?
Oh wait nvm I think I gotit
what is a Cartan sub-algebra ?
@hot lake A self-normalising nilpotent subalgebra in a lie algebra
okay then I don't need to ask what do those words mean
Yo can i get some help please on this homework
Ok ima send a pic
I dont think this is abstract algebra but i just need hel
Help
Number 1
@fading wagon
ty!
How do you go about checking if a polynomial is irreducible over a field?
Im doing an excerise in Pinter to show that 1 + 2i is algebraic over Q and I got x^2 -2x + 5
Obviously this is a minimal polynomial because if the highest degree was 1 then the constant term would be complex
but how do you go about less obvious problems?
oh thank you!!1
Im a little confused
for my polynomial, there doesnt exist a prime number satisfying the eisenstein criterion
So does that imply this polynomial is reducible?
Nope
@scarlet estuary fair enough - but in Rotman's group theory text, at the back, he has a similar hierarchy as the one im describing - i might have even gotten mine partly from there as well
just an intuition check
so a composition series of a group is just a sequence of groups N_0 < N_1 ... <N_k
where N_n is normal to N_(n+1)
and N_(n+1)/N is simple
right?
and the group is called solvable
if N_(n+1)/N is simple abelian
?
are these right definitions
?
It's a composition series if the N(n) is a maximal normal subgroup of N(n+1)
Which is equivalent to N(n+1)/N(n) is simple yeah
And it's solvable if the quotients are also abelian
Yeah you've got them
okay coo
l
i wanna check if i did this problem right
Prove that If G is an abelian simple group then G is isomorphic to Z_p for some prime p
proof: suppose G is an abelian simple group
since G is simple , G must have no nontrivial normal subgroups.
and since G is abelian all ssubgroups would be normal
hence |G| is odd hence by feit thompson G is ismorpohic to Z_p for some prime p
( if |G| = 2 then G is cyclic , hence isomorphic to Z_p )
is that right?
and if thats rigth
how do i do it if i cant assume G is finite
But |G| isn't necessarily odd? Indeed, what if it's infinite?
Hmm, let me think
is the image of every submodule a submodule?
I feel like no - we would need the homomorphism to be surjective
Because ideals are sub-R-modules
my bad
In a module homomorphism? Yes I believe it is
I believe in any abelian group, if m divides |G|, then G has a subgroup of order m @solemn rain
But check that because ehh
i htink m has to be prime
im not sure either lmao
nah ur right
its given in an exercise to prove
im going to try to prove it ig
why do we care about algebraic numbers?
what are those
roots of polynomials in Q[x]
ig cuz like
maybe these roots make cool stuff
cool geometries?
lmao just an ignorant suggesting
oh right - roots of polynomials in C[X] would just give you all of C
And I mean, lots of questions you have are about rational polynomials right
ig AG studies roots of polynomials
Also, the algebraic numbers are the algebraic closure of Q, and algebraic closures are important
And I mean, lots of questions you have are about rational polynomials right
that's true
kinda wondering why they're so interesting that we have algebraic nt
Lots of number theoretical questions can be answered by going to field extensions of Q
In some sense
Like, one question is what primes can be written in the form x^2 + y^2
and so it makes a lot of sense to factor as (x + iy)(x - iy) in the field extension Q[i]
and study the question there
Hmm - do you find that question interesting?
I think its cool
but you can generalize this a ton, ton further
what primes can be written in the form x^2 + ny^2 in general has a very nice answer
I guess the question leads to the development of some cool math - but the question itself doesn't seem interesting to me
I guess it's a personal thing
no i don't disagree
it was just an example of what you could do with field extensions and algebraic numbers
If you think Fermat's last theorem is interesting, that does kind of the same thing
just like how you can factorize x^2 + y^2 over Q[i]
you can factor x^p + y^p over Q[\omega] where \omega is a primitive p-th root of unity
And this was done by Kummer to try to prove Fermat's Last theorem
Ah - so it is quite useful
Turns out it worked, but only for a certain subset of primes called the regular primes
(funny how you think fermat's last theorem is interesting but the first question isn't)
Well, I don't think it's interesting
I just meant that it's good to know alg nt was used in solving a really big problem
why do i never hear of analytic NT
lmao
heard ppl are trying to solve riemann hypothesis
just because of something with primes
so thats cool ig
Dude
well, you just don't know enough
the prime number theorem is analytic number theory
and that's a famous one
stuff like green-tao as well
or dirichlet's theorem
ah
idk
I don't think it's possible to answer that question
and i don't think its a useful one to think about
yea just wanna know why the sterotype
of analysis is gross
g_n > \frac{c\log n\log\log n\log\log\log\log n}{(\log\log\log n)^2}
imagine typesetting that
of analysis is gross
cuz you gotta deal with epsilons and deltas
You don't get equalities - only inequalities
obvs take this with a big spoonful of salt
im an undergrad who's only analysis exposure is baby rudin
functional analysis looks really cool
measure theory looks tedious
harmonic analysis idk what it's really about. fourier stuff
i hear functional analysis is p cool
complex analysis is p cool too
from what i hear
i have no exposure to any analyss
nah man im learning all this just for fun
if im not getting fun ofit then there is no reason to do it
and i dont think
i had any fun
I really like non-complex analysis, just the other day I proved that the constant function was smooth, really fun stuff
tryign to learn rudin
hahaha
yea ig thats liek the most 'good' stuff u can ever prove
anything higher than this u get a counterexample
lmao
amen
topology is cool though
might self-study it over the summer
and take an algebraic topology course next yr
i was texactly thinking of this
Real analysis for the fun of it
i gotta finish with GT first
i was thinking maybe topology or like
continuing with ring theory then NT
We can know math stuff - everyone
Godel: COUNTEREXAMPLE REEEEE
Topology is a pretty lit time
I'm not crazy skilled at it but I like what I know
Topology sounds really fun to me lol
what do you know
Mostly baby topology lol
I got the Willard book
ive heard its more concise than munkres
Yeah, and not all of it crazy well
Alg Geo also seems cool
yea but like munkres seems so gentle and loving
like first chapter is just meant to teach u set theory
which is like
so romantic XD
only first 6 chapters of munkres is general topology iirc
like it makes you feel safe lmao
every undergrad math book does that i feel
aluffi algebra book does that
Homological algebra seems cool but really hard.
we're starting to learn that in my ring theory class!
excited to learn about Hom functor soon!
undergrad
Anyways I gtg to bed but before I go, lemma just ask
no idea what homology is xD
Wtf kind of off-brand Kraft do you have to be eating to name a constant after oily macaroni
Anyways good night!
wut
Thing that maps category to other category
a mapping between categories
my only cat theory knowledge is from the little time i spent learning haskell
Associates morphisms too
so it's a teaspoon amount
Yeah same lmao
Basically a functor then also preserves identity and the composition of morphisms
So if you have a functor F that maps from C to D
yea
got it
adn a category is somehting
that has objects
and morphims
bewtween them
cool lmlao
i once proved that epimorphisms are surjective
It's a bit higher level than a regular set/group/ring function - because a functor maps both the arrows and the objects
yonneda a lemma helped me with it alot β€οΈ thanks to him if he reads it
thas all i did XD
O I c
(surjective doesn't make sense unless you work with a concrete category)
I learned originally from a book called topology without tears. Very easy, still rigourous. But you'll want to jump into another book for extra sources
Yoneda's lemma is still not totally clear to me
goodnight!
Then again I have kinda stopped reading through Reihl and started playing VRChat for 12 hours a day so there's that.
ayo covid19 letsgo
@stone fulcrum i read some of it cuz of your recommendation and it was actually p cool
i ddidnt know why it was called this cuz i thgouth
it was just def theorem proof
like any standard book
ive been summoned by mention of categories
Yeah, but I like the pretty colors
yea
Hey gabe
i thought it was meant for ppl who like are strugglign already
titles like these
algebra for dummies
More books should be written for the computer era
or whtatever
hewo
Yeah it does happen to be a standard textbook. It's also a little short on some details
This is the first night I'm going to bed before 4-5 am
It is in your best interest to supplement
oh yea
kaynex
i gotta thank you
onmy friends behalf
foryour textbook
for engineers
that one helped him a ton
you put it here b4
Hey, cool cool.
Anyways tommorow I'm probably gonna be up late playing VRC so I should get what little sleep I can
Oof

Is there anything but memes there?
That's basically all I do in VRChat.
Hey that's actually cool
But how? People can't see your hands