#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 463 of 407
I mean it depends a bit with group theory, you can define a group and do a lot of counting arguments and talk about a bunch of examples (S_n, A_n, kinda D_n, Z/n, etc) with 0 linear algebra
But then matrix groups are arguably the most important examples. And the more you wanna do the more LA you'll want
It's also a good playground to learn about the basic ideas/principles of abstract algebra, where the answers are easy and the theory can be neatly packaged.
Could someone explain what N(a) is supposed to be measuring?
a is just an element, so shouldn’t N(a)=1?
Eh N is just any function which does the trick
Like for example
If R = k[x]
Then you can let N be the degree map
So, we are checking the degree of a mapping of an element
Wait what
Hold on so
We have a map N:k[x] -> \mathbb{Z}^+ \cup {0}
Which is N(f) = deg(f)
This satisfies the requirement to be a Euclidean domain
Ohh
For a general ring R, N is some function such that blah blah blah
Ok, thanks!
i literally don't get quotient groups
does anybody know what this is isomorphic to
im guessing its something easy like Z/2Z x Z but idk
is it Z/2Z x Z/2Z ?
dont guess
here's a hint, do it in steps
first quotient by (1,1)
then by (1,-1)
Isnt M = Z² since (1,-1) + (1,1) = (2,0) and (1,-1) - (1,1) = (0,-2) and thus it has the same basis as Z²?
yes M is Z^2
wait so Z^2/M = Z^2/Z^2 which is just the trivial group?
no
wtf
the notation is misleading
there's many different subgroups isomorphic to Z^2 inside Z^2
fuck
some, like M, are proper subgroups
Ah just like 2Z is isomorphic to Z but Z/2Z ≠ Z/Z
you should draw a picture
it might help
of the lattice points Z^2
and what the cosets are
is the answer Z/2
yes
so the two cosets are all the diagonal lines with +1 slope and then all the diagonal lines with -1 slope?
nope
so let's see the definition
what's a coset
it's a subset of the form x + M
the first example is 0 + M = M
so M, a crosshatch made by diagonal lines, is a coset by itself
another coset is (1,0) + M
draw both cosets and see what you can deduce
isnt coset xM and not x+M ?
a=Curve(16sin^(3)(t),13cos(t)-5cos(2t)-2cos(3t)-cos(4t),t,-15.71,15.71) this is the heart equation guys
You mean a cardioid?
Let G be a group and let K be the kernel of some homomorphism from G to another group. Then the set whose elements are the left cosets of K in G with operation defined by uK o vK = (uv)K
i think if some1 proves with me this theorm
i think im oging to udnerstand alot of
understand*
can some1 help
i would understand that simply G/K means cosets of K in G
and i would understand why from the proof
what theorem ?
lmfaaao sorry
i got it anyways b
the theorem was that this set defined with this operation
is G/K
is the same as the set of fibers
@steel owl yes bro
But I don't like using "cardioid" name because it doesn't look like a real heart
<@&681260374879633482>
I'm trying to prove $x^x$ has no elementary antiderivative. I probably need to use the corollary to Liouville's theorem that says a function $f(x)e^{g(x)}$ has an elementary antiderivative if and only if there exists some rational function r with $f=r'+rg.$ I've rewritten $x^x$ as $e^{\ln{x^x}}$ to get it into a usable form and tried some equation manipulation, but I can't see anything yet and don't know what to look for really. Something about the transcendentality of $e$ maybe?
Botnuke:
Isn't it g' not g in that criterion? In any case, f=1, g=xlogx here. Assuming such an r exists, we take the equation f=r'+rg', plug in the functions f,g and you are able to solve this equation to get log(x)={some rational function}. This is absurd for many reasons, take your pick.
let G be the dihedral group of order 16 and G bar = G/<r^4>
( notice <r^4> commutes with every element in the group hence a<r^4> = <r^4>a for all a hence normal )
show that G bar is of order 8
help XD
i tried thinking if maybe G bar is cyclic
and then saying r has order 8
but idk how woulod i show that or even if thats correct
@solemn rain
What's the order of <r⁴>? How many cosets would it generate?
Yep so the order of the subgp is 2, and so there are 8 cosets.
@solemn rain
Pretty much the order of G/H is |G|/|H|
Because that's how the cosets fit
tysm every one
i get it now
ur amazing all
ty
sorry for the late hope-so-not-rude replies
@stone fulcrum im sorry but how do you know this
that |G/H| = |G|/|H| ?
Because each element of G/H is a coset, which is an equivalence class of elements of G containing |H| elements. So you have |G/H| disjoint collections of |H| elements whose union is all of G...
yeah it's pretty cool how much you can get from such a simple fact.
yea man awesome
the fucking textbook didnt say that
in that section
i was assumed to do this without it
tysm anyways
np
2 is not a multiple of 4
@leaden finch
You also have the + 1 at the end there. A possible final answer is x^7 + 1
It happens to be true in Z2[x] that x² = x, so you can go further to say that this is x + 1. But that is not likely expected of you.
Well as polynomials in Z_2[x], x^2 is definitely not equal to x. They induce the same function Z_2 -> Z_2, but they are still different polynomials
Yeah that's fair. Ignore that last part
k so how do I figure out what M is supposed to be?
what is SO(2)
orthogonal 2x2 matrices with determinant 1
well you don't need to calculate the entries of M
the question just asks you to prove one exists
giving an explicit M in terms of u and v is one way to do it, but you could also use some basic linear algebra arguments
How would I go about finding M
what have you tried?
then what are you having trouble understanding
im not sure what to do for part b
If you don't have an immediate plan of attack write out the definitions fully
In this case write out the definition of a subring and that'll show you what you need to verify about the stuff (or falsify)
possibly dumb question: in an integral domain why can't polynomials of degree greater than 1 be units
deg(fg) = deg(f) + deg(g)
take g= f^{-1}
so 0 = deg(f) + deg(g) right?
yes
but why does that imply the polys of degree > 1 cant be units
what are possible degree of polynomials
also you should try proving deg(f+g)=deg(f)+deg(g) for IDs. do you see why this isnt true for non-IDs
deg(f+g)=deg(f)+deg(g)
non-ID polynomial rings
or yeah, that
for non-IDs theres a zero divisor right, so then one of them could be zero so deg(f + g) could be less?
I think you mean deg(fg)=deg(f)+deg(g) @upper pivot 🐶
or wait yeah sorry
oof i typoed
and copy pasted the typo
@merry pollen sorry thats what i meant
np
<@&684286608136208429>
@gentle pendant dont ping me needlessly; my powers are scantly utilized due to their shear impact
sheer*
Uh, I'm not sure this is the right channel
@leaden finch
Help with waht
Hey,
Find out how many different groups you can form with 144 elements. (except for isomorphism, of course.)
How would you answer this question? Is there any efficient method/smart ways to answer the question?
Thanks in advance
🤔
That's where you'd start, but I'm not sure this question has any easy method, there are a lot of them
yeah so apperantly theres
197 groups of order 144
i dont think sylow would be too useful to find all of these now that i think of it lol
Just manually check group axioms for each possible binary operation on a set with cardinality 144. 🐱
then manually check every possible isomorphism between them
Yeah imagine using Mathematica
@gentle pendant you joke but I had a student do that to verify that Z/4Z was a group when I TAed for a group theory class a couple years ago. in order to check associativity they wrote out all 64 triples by hand
(0+0) + 0 = 0 + (0+0)
(0+0) + 1 = 0 + (0+1)
etc
hahaha that is amazing
lmfao
why work smarter when you can work harder?
if the shoe fits
Is the answer just Z/3Z x Z/3Z x Z/12Z x Z
wanna make sure i didn't fuck up the operations
can someone help me with notation
what does the x on top of the Z_8 mean
also can someone help me figure out wtf a coset is
For your first question
It means the set of natural numbers less than 8 and coprime to 8
maybe you should start by telling me how you understand cosets
im looking at this example and it seems that g is just increasing by 1 every time and getting added onto {0,3}
Notationally at least, that's what $1 + H$ means
Zopherus:
but then this example just some wtf
$1 + H = {1 + h \mid h \in H}$
Zopherus:
Zopherus:
It's not addition anymore, but its the group product of S_3
dam this hurts to ask but whats s_3 again
yea brb
what is this table supposed to represent
I mean that's right? But I don't see why its relevant
he said that " Z6 breaks that because 2*3=6=0" but i think thats because the 6 lands in 0 ?
okay yeah that's true
can u give me link to this pdf @leaden finch
ur working looks correct, quotient is 1/3x^2 -1/3x +1/3 and remainder is 2, whta do u need help with
i fink this q belongs elementary num theory as well idk
@neat patio its from Z_5[x]
so thats not the final answer
anyway, do you know what 1/3 is in Z_5? @leaden finch
why are you answering questions in #groups-rings-fields if you havent seen baby's first ring
anyway, Z_5 is the integers modulo 5
with standard addition/multiplication
ah oke, my baddddd
So is it canonical to think of quotient groups like a literal division of real numbers? Because it definitely works out in a very majestic way
that's where the term comes from.
makes sense
really nice how quotient lattice is the literal reverse of a subgroup lattice
I've proven that the nilradical N of a commutative ring with identity R is an ideal. Does anyone know much about the quotient R/N, besides that it has no nilpotent elements?
I don't think there's much more you can say in general
spec(R/N) is homeomorphic to spec(R) is a nice general property
but yeah not much you can say thats general
interesting, thanks! I'm new to algebraic geometry, the topology for spec is the Zariski topology?
yes
Where did they get the 6 @leaden finch?
where it says 3( 4^-1) = 3(2)
In Z7, the multiplicative inverse of 4 is 2
In any ring (field), the multiplicative inverse of x is the unique number y such that xy = 1
4×2 = 1 in Z7
So 4 and 2 are multiplicative inverses
hmm but i still dont get it how they ended up with 6
They're taking the inverse of 4 (which is 2)
And they're multiplying it by 3
I'm not sure why they're doing this, but the algebra works out
okay, so ik that in Z 7:{ 0,1,2,3,4,5,6}
which we can create our table
shouldnt it be 3 ( 4^-1)= 1?
why do you think that?
3 and 4^(-1) are not multiplicative inverses
3 and 3^(-1) are multiplicative inverses
mmm okay so then
2×4 = 1
Correct?
So that means 2 and 4 are multiplicative inverses.
When they write 4^(-1), that's just another way to write 2
hmm yes
so for ths one i am lost
for part b
ik Z5: { 0,1,2,3,4,}
so then i think we would do it like this 1( 3^-1)
can someone please help mee
i have homework due and i have no idea how to do it
show your work
try to do it just like they did in that example you put a picture of earlier
@leaden finch were you successful?
yes, i got it already since i was super confused last night lol
I had a question about taking graduate algebra
I'm gonna be taking it next semester as a sophomore and I wanted to know how difficult it is compared to undergraduate Algebra
More specifically, is it gonna be very difficult for me to get an A?
I am doing my UG Algebra sequence and got an A the first semester and will most likely get an A the second semester too
Are they usually curved?
In some sense of curved, yeah
Usually it's just heavily weighted on homeworks
And take home tests or no tests
Or like writing a paper or giving a presentation
Thanks!
@leaden finch do you know the algorithm for integers?
Of finding gcd
It's essentially the same idea
Well here's something that night help
In Z_5, 1/2 = 3; 1/4 = 4
By 1/n I mean n's inverse
So your goal when dividing is to multiply g by some cx^k such that the leading term of g times c gives you the leading term of what you're dividing at each step
Of course multiplication is happening in mod 5 here
So here's an explicit example
f = 2x^2 + 3x + 1 and g = 4x-1
So first you try to find something to multiply 4 by so that you get two
And the way you do that is by first multiplying by something to make 4 a 1
In this case, the number is 4 itself
Now you wanna multiply 1 by 2 to make that into 2
So in total, you multiplied by 8
Which is 3 mod 5
And now you multiply by x to make the x in 4x an x^2
Does that make sense?
hmm im confuses how did you en dup with 1/2 in the beginign
My bad, that was bad notation
It would be better to say that 2^{-1} = 3 in Z_5
Because 2*3=6=1 mod 5
i think im getting lost with this inverse stuff
Let's see
Alright try this
Write the following on your margin
1^{-1} = 1, 2^{-1} = 3, 3^{-1} = 2, 4^{-1} = 4
Now for a second, pretend you're dividing the polynomial in Q
What would your first step be
Wait
f = 2x^2 + 3x + 1 and g = 4x-1
Make a long division table and all that
Pretend you're in Q
What would you do?
we would divide 4x/ 2x^2 which is 1/(2x)
You're dividing f by g not the other way around
Does this look familiar?
It's exactly what the first step would be in Q
Maybe you need a refresher in polynomial division in Q?
oh yes
Wait did that mean you understood it or you need a refresher?
i need a refresher on this stuff
Alrighty
Ready whenever you are
Can somebody verify this?
I'm going mad, or am I right in thinking non-zero C-linear endomorphisms necessarily have a non-zero eigenvectors
you are going mad
👀
Whys that
It's an invertible C linear map
So it can be a non-zero invertible matrix wrt some basis right
So it has a non-zero eigenvalue 🤔🤔🤔
What say ye
you can have nonzero endomorphisms that are not invertible
Oh wait I might be thinking of automorphisms
and if it was, you wouldn't need a new word for automorphisms
Give me a mo'
I'm confused
Just in the basis case
How do we know pi of the generator of g even has an eigenvector
the dim(g) = 1 case ?
well 1-dimensional vector spaces are a pretty restricted kind of vector spaces
it wouldn't be a representation
I guess
Nah it has to be a homomorphism
not lie groups
you can perfectly have pi(g) = 0 for all g
and still have a common nonzero eigenvector for all the pi(g)
by picking any nonzero element of V
in fact you can pick any nonzero element of V and that gives you a common nonzero eigenvector for all the pi(g)
whoever the pi(g) are in End(V)
because dim(V) = 1
Is dim V = 1?
The lie algebra is 1 dim, not the rep
So I just need that for some g in the lie algebra the corresponding endomorphism has a eigenvector.
yeah idk why you were told you were going mad
I think the claim is incorrect. Could someone verify?
f=x²-1, g=1, h=x-1 is a counterexample
think it should say that h(x) and g(x) are relatively prime
How do we write a general element of the inverse quotient map?
Say q^{-1} (w) where w in V/U
Like err I want to write w plus some random thing in U
Is it w + U?
I don't remember
You write w+U in the quotient space
w+U represents
- the element in the quotient space represented by w and
- the subset of V of all elements in the same quotient class as w (i.e. q^{-1}(w+U) with w+U in the first sense)
an arbitrary element of 2 would be written perhaps as "w+u for a u \in U"
What does Z/(n,m)Z means?
I'm guessing (n,m) is the gcd? Do you have any context?
Or it's the ideal generated by n and m, perhaps
Those are the same thing
the ideal generated by n and m is the same as the ideal generated by gcd(m,n)
Yus. Just wondering which interpretation I should be thinking in
doesn't really matter
creamy shits:
I1 n ... , In subset of p then Ii subset p = I1 n ... n In subset of Ii
creamy shits:
Zak:
$I_1 \cap \dots \cap I_n \subset p \Rightarrow I_i \subset p$
$I_i \subset p = I_1 \cap \dots \cap I_n \subset I_i \Rightarrow p = I_i$
Zak:
my god wtf are you guys doing
you haven't done i yet ?
creamy shits:
no you want to show that I1 subset p or I2 subset p
because I1 inter I2 subset p does not imply that I1 subset p
creamy shits:
yes
you can try to prove that if I1 is not a subset of p then I2 is a subset of p
"A or B" is logically equivalent to "(not A) implies B"
and if you want to go full contradiction you assume both not A and not B and try to get a contradiction from that
creamy shits:
yes ... ?
how do i approach this problem?
you can show a set has even size if you can pair its elements together (aka if it has an involution without fixed points)
involution without fixed points?
Is e the identity
probably
Just pair up elements with inverses
For the second one
And for the first one
Pair elements with their squares
hmm
Here's something I don't get. Suppose R is a unitary, commutative ring and I an ideal of R. Consider pi:R -> R/I. Now, J is an ideal of R containing I iff pi(J) is an ideal of R/I. Great.
Now, look at pi1:Z[X] -> Z[X]/X and pi2:Z -> Z/2Z.
Now, (2) is an ideal of Z and hence Z[X]/X, but the preimage of (2) under pi1 does not fully contain (X). Where am I messing things up?
the preimage of (2) under pi1 does contain (X), since 0 is an element of (2) and the preimage of 0 under pi1 is exactly (X)
And this is exactly how you prove the theorem that you stated
But, X is not in (2)
so?
Oh.
the preimage of (2) is not (2)
anytime
I have a hard time working with polynomial rings with more than one variable. For example, C[X, Y]. Any tips?
I guess it might be a good idea to give a problem about that
Let's say showing that the ideal (X-a, Y-b) is maximal in C[X, Y]
If this were something like R[X], I know immediately what modding out by an ideal means because it's a Euclidean domain so I just look at the remainders to see what the quotient space looks like
C[X] also isn't too bad, but I'm not as comfortable with it as R[X], and then when we get to C[X, Y], I lose all intuition
It's not a Euclidean domain, it's not even a PID and it's not as easy to work with (for me) as Z[X], even though Z[X] isn't those things either
To tackle that problem, I'd probably want to show that C[X,Y]/(X-a, Y-b) is a field
Yeah, I mean, its harder for those reasons and you should expect that
That's the right idea though
lmao
I'm not sure what type of intuition you're looking for really, things are going to be harder in 2 dimensions and this just limits the things you can do
Yeah - we had a problem on our last homework which our prof said was a weaker version of Hilbert's Nullstellensatz
Showing that the maximal ideals of C[X,Y] are of the form (X-a, Y-b)
I just skipped it because I didnt budget time properly, but now I'm trying to go back and do it
Hmmm - fair enough..
I guess it's something like modding out by ideals generated by multiple elements
At first I had no idea how to approach that - but if I had known I could quotient out by the ideal generated by each element term-wise, that would've helped so much
That one thing makes it so much easier to work with stuff like this R/(r1, r2, r3, ... , rn)
Yeah that's true
Do you enjoy algebraic geometry?
algebraic number theory?
Gotcha - do you need algebraic number theory for that?
Would you recommend a class on alg nt if I am enjoying algebra?
not really for the basics, all of these fields definitely intersect though
gotcha
if you like number theory yeah go for it
you'd need to be pretty comfortable with galois theory though to learn alg nt
@ripe crest
yeah - it'd be after the galois theory course
I did not enjoy my elementary number theory course lol
Is the stuff you're studying - modular forms and elliptic curves - fun?
haha, I'd study something else if I didn't find this fun or interesting
Elliptic curves sound cool - heard they have applications in cryptography
Can you describe to someone who knows basic ring theory and modules what sorts of things you're interested in when studying elliptic curves?
Yeah, there are quite a few cryptographic protocols that use elliptic curves
there are a lot of different things that we care about
maybe like, one example is finding integer solutions to elliptic curves
If you think of elliptic curves as just equations of the form y^2 = x^3 + ax + b, then you could be interested in the integer solutions
This is kind of because 2 variable equations of degree 2 are easy to figure out, and so this is kind of the next step
So, is that related to looking for ideals of Y^2 - X^3 - aX - b? ignore this lmao
uh, not really
no over the integers, which is what we care about when solving diophantine equations
And yeah, I guess its hard because the integers aren't a field so things aren't as nice
Ah okay
maybe like, one example is finding integer solutions to elliptic curves
oops missed tht
Maybe the more important part is that elliptic curves over fields form groups
abelian groups
typo sorry
What is the operation? Addition that is done pointwise?
ah
over C, its just the addition of points in C
But I guess that complicated operatoin is used because it means something?
and the fact that you can take the set of solutions to a polynomial and put a group structure on them means that we can use the group structure to tell us things about the set of solutions
But working with GL_n(k) with multiplication is different from working with M_n(k) with addition
Interesting - i never thought about just making a set into a group - not really caring about the operation - and then using group theory to tell us more about the underlying set
Does that involve representation theory?
oh boy
oh boy oh boy oh boy
The idea of using representation theory to study arithmetic objects, which include elliptic curves
is called the Langlands program
which you may have heard of
I've heard about it, yeah
or is part of Langlands I guess
dont understand it at all 😛
neither do I lmao
what are arithmetic objects?
elliptic curves, modular forms, l-functions mostly
p-adics?
well, automorphic forms I guess, which are a generalization of modular forms
not really, we can define all of these objects over the p-adics and that happens often but
the p-adics themselves are well understood
My algebra prof recommended the first couple of chapters in "A Course in Arithemtic" to learn about p-adics
p-adics arent arithmetic objects?
Arithmetic object isn't really a term thats used
gotcha
I mean, I guess you could call Z/pZ an arithmetic object but eh
its like we understand Z/pZ well and its used to do other things
not really to study Z/pZ itself
and its the same for p-adics
yeah pretty much
we do things over the p-adics, but the p-adics aren't something we study
sometimes
I studied some analytical number theory last semester
and there I needed a lot of analysis, mostly complex analysis
haha, well it is "analytic" number theory
I mean more with elliptic curves and modular forms
modular forms are really a complex analytical object though, so analysis things come up pretty often
ooh
analytic side seems kinda gross
not my favorite either
measure theory or in particular harmonic analysis comes up every now and then
haar measure of p-adics has come up
This comes up more in arithmetic geometry stuff I think though
I don't think I've ever seen functional analysis
although I wouldn't really be that surprised
Curiosity Zero:
cuz its a group and a^i=a^j
$ a^i=a^j$ and we multiply left side $ a^{-j} $ to get $a^{i-j}=a^{j-j}$ but we dont know yet $a^{-1} \in H$ and $ a^{-j}= a^{-1} \cdots a^{-1} $ j times
Curiosity Zero:
or im over thinkin 😂
Curiosity Zero:
no
that isnt true if H is infinite tho but in this case yes
i get that part
a^(i-j) is part of our sequence
can we muntiply by something which inst part of our sequence?
Curiosity Zero:
no not necessarily
we can multiply both sides by a^-j just fine bc we're working in G
a^-j is still in G
and importantly, a^{i-j} is in H because i-j>0
part I had confusion was miltipication by a^{-j}
Hi so I understand what to do if I am asked to show that C determines a G-map from sig and psi but not sure how to do it if it is from |R^2 to |R^3
what's a G-map
Think it is just Group maps
a morphism of G-modules
<@&286206848099549185>
just define the map explicitly and show it is a map
Hi, I have a question regarding group actions:
I'm not sure I understand group actions completely but I'm confused how $y=g \cdot x$ relates to this
Mac:
So far I know that the group action needs to satisfy two properties:
- $g_1 \cdot (g_2 \cdot x) = (g_1 g_2) \cdot x$ for all $g_1, g_2 \in G, x \in X$ and
2)$1 \cdot x = x$ for all $x \in X$ Where 1 is the identity
Mac:
@thorn flint okay just do the usual
@thorn flint show reflexitivty , transitivity , and symmetry
what are u having troubles with
Ah right! @solemn rain I was just confused exactly what the mapping signifies
Okay, i guess i'm just trying to get a visual understanding but the way you phrased it makes senes
thanks
i justwrote what was written haha but okayy
maybe you can think of it as like
xRy iff
x can be moved to y
by the group action
thats why u would call this a transitive group action
if X is in the relation
.
So I should show that:
- reflexive: $x \tilde x$ for all $x \in X$
- symmetric: $x \tilde y \implies y\tilde x$ for all $x,y \in X$
- transitive: $x \tilde y$ and $y\tilde z$ $\implies x \tilde z$ for all $x,y,z \in X$
Mac:
Yea
In C[X,Y], does the polynomial X go to -a in the quotient C[X,Y]/(X-a)? I'm having a hard time seeing what happens in the quotient because I can't just do Euclidean division because C[X,Y] is not a PID so it's not a Euclidean domain
C[X,Y]/(X-a) is C[Y]
So I have C[X,Y]/(X-a) is isomorphic to (C[X]/(X-a)) [Y]
Now, C[X]/(X-a) is isomorphic to C
So we get C[Y]
nice!
thanks!
ye
Guess I just needed to read Dummit and Foote lol
Assume both H and K are normal subgroups of G with H intersects K = 1. Prove that xy=yx for all x in H and y in K
help ^ thats from dummit and foote lmao
Rearrange that equation so you can use normality
i tried to say that
axa^-1 = x , aya^-1=y for all a in G
xy = axa^-1aya^_1 = axya^-1
yx = ayxa^-1
dk how these are equal now
That's not what normality says
Yeah, but axa^-1 doesn't have to equal x
? why
Because that would imply ax = xa for all a in G and x in H. Meaning that H is in Z(G), but clearly normal subgroups dont have to be in Z(G), right?
np
okay this 1 is supposedly easy
prove that intersection of normal subgroups is normal
proof: let H and K be normal in G
---> ghg^-1 is in H , gkg^-1 is in K for all g in G
( h in H k in K )
let x be in H intersects K
we wish to show gxg^- is in H intersects K
x is in H , x is in K
gxg^-1 is in H , gxg^-1 is in K ( normality )
gxg^-1 is in H intersects K
done?
Yeah
cool
tysm
now im going to try the first one
Assume both H and K are normal subgroups of G with H intersects K = 1. Prove that xy=yx for all x in H and y in K
i was giveen a hint that i can just show that xyx^-1y^-1 is in H intersects K
but whatever
let g be in G
gxg^-1 is in H
gyg^-1 is in K
x is in G
xyx^-1 is in K
xyx^-1y^-1 is in K closure
same with H
so both in H interects K
right?
yes, works perfectly
What is K closure?
wait, both in H intersect K? both what?
okay
Might help
you already noticed all that was needed about xyx'y'
1 more
11 more problem
idk if its supposed to bethat easy
let A and B be groups. show that T = {(a,1) | a is in A} is normal in AxB
proof: we wish to show (x,y)(a,1)(x^-1,y^-1) is in T
(x,y)(a,1) = (ax,y)
(ax,y)(x^-1,y^-1)=(a,1) which is in T
qed?
yes
okay
what
?
i dont understand
anyways the other part
of the problem
show that AxB/T is isomorphic to B
im not so sure about this 1 cuz im not that good with quotients but heres my problem
solution*
AxB/T = { (x,y)T | (x,y) is in AxB }
(x,y)(a,1) =(ax,y) where a is in A
any element in AxB/T is in the form (ax,y) for a in A x in A Y in B
define the isomorphism f:AxB/T --> B, (ax,y) --> y
is that right?
ye
col
I think
ty
I read only last two lines though
what i would not be so sure about
is htis 'any element in AxB/T is in the form (ax,y) for a in A x in A Y in B'
Read this to gain more intuition about quotients: https://www.math3ma.com/blog/whats-a-quotient-group-really-part-1
"any element in AxB/T is in the form (ax,y) for a in A x in A Y in B" That's not true. The elements of the quotient are sets
We work with representatives of those sets
It's T
yea for that
example
eya
aT * T =aT
io think its so much easier
to think of quotient groups
as just the set of equivalence classes
of the relation a = b mod H
idk whats so fucking cool with defining them as fibers
in df
lol
but hey im ignorant XD
i htink im going to take a break then go to nextr section ig
lagranges theorem
(Y)
Does this proof look solid?
idk whats so fucking cool with defining them as fibers
@solemn rain I mean, one of the reasons that's used is because we want to say stuff like: if f:G -> H is a homomorphism, then G/ker(f) is isomorphic to f(G)
Which, imo, is much more obvious if we take the fiber viewpoint
oh no
ah ok - hard to detect sarcasm over the interwebs
ok boomer
heh
hooray!
The maximal ideals of C[X] are just of the form (X-a) right?
yes
Uh
In one of the solutions for a homework question, they preform euclidean division in C[X][Y].... i thought you cant do that since C[X,Y] isn't a PID
yeah that seems wrong
did they write C(X)[Y]?
No.. It's C[X][Y]... I'm gonna ask on Piazza
Technically, C[X][Y] is a single variable polynomial ring where the coefficients are in C[X]
But, C[X][Y] is still not a PID though, right?
Right - I thought it would be enough it was a PID or even a euclidean domain, but Z[X] is a counterexample
yeah it has to be a field
Well, I've posted - now to wait
you can still perform euclidean division in Z[x] as long as the thing you're dividing by is monic (or more generally as long as the thing you're dividing by has a unit for its leading coefficient)
The same will be true in C[x][y]
Oh - I remember that from Z[X]
I did not know the same applied in C[X][Y]
Is there a theorem for this?
it's just the euclidean division algorithm
you can just see that the algorithm works
whatever proof you like for C[x], the same will work here
Polynomial rings
A ring is an abelian group with an additional binary operation
that satisfies associativity (and distributivity)
And some (most?) people want their rings to contain an identity wrt that new operation
I really like it
yea
Favourite math class i've taken in a while
i really dont know if i should try learning NT or not
cuz i hear
ring theory is basically made for NT
so idk maybe i should try them
like is ring theory useless to learn if ur not interested int
in nt?
All i rmbr from number theory is congruences and prime numbers and that every natural number is the product of primes
If you know the basics, I think you'll be fine
no, ring theory is just a core part of higher algebra. It does a lot in service to algebraic number theory, but also galois theory, algebraic geometry etc.
And I don't think it's useless to learn if you're not interested in nt. I'm enjoying ring theory even though I didn't like (elementary) nt
although elementary number theory is a good thing to keep in mind when learning the basic theory of rings, as a many of the theorems/defns are just the natural generalisations of theorems/defns in elementary number theory.
That's kind of true of math in general though, it is fruitful to keep examples you know well (in this case, the ring Z) in the forefront of your mind when learning more general and abstract theory.
ty
Let A = C[X,Y]/(X^2 - Y^3). We denote by x and y the projections of X and Y in A.
What do they mean by projections of X and Y?
Ahh ty
So I think this should be correct
yeah, that's the third or second one. He's trying to prove it
lmao i thlought
he was saking if the proposition itself
was true
not the proof
asking*
We have A= C[X,Y]/(X^2 - Y^3).
Remark that the maximal ideals of A are in one-to-one correspondence with the complex points of the planar curve X^2=Y^3.
The maximal ideals of A are of the form M/(X^2−Y^3) where M is a maximal ideal of C[X,Y] containing (X^2−Y^3). So M is of the form (X−a,Y−b) where a^2=b^3.
I get everything except the last bit. Why does a^2 = b^3?
you can think y = b and x = a since the ideal is quotiented out
So I need (X^2 - Y^3) \subset (X-a, Y-b).
That means that X^2 - Y^3 \in (X-a, Y-b).
That means that X^2 - Y^3 = (X-a)P + (Y-b)Q.
Which means, X^2 - Y^3 = XP - aP + YQ - bQ.
That implies P = X, Q = -Y^2.
So, we have X^2 - y^3 = X^2 -Y^3 -aX + bY^2.
Now, we need -aX + bY^2 = 0...
x^2 - y^3 is in (x-a, y-b) if and only if x^2 - y^3 = 0 in C[x,y]/(x-a, y-b)
C[x,y]/(x-a,y-b) is iso to C
and the quotient map C[x,y] --> C[x,y]/(x-a,y-b) = C is given by f(x,y) --> f(a,b)
so f(x,y) = x^2 - y^3 is in the kernel of this map if and only if f(a,b) = 0, i.e. if and only if a^2 = b^3
hmm, lemme read that..
holy that's so smart
i'll need to spend some time digesting it - but I think I get it
Why does my method not work?
Which means, X^2 - Y^3 = XP - aP + YQ - bQ.
That implies P = X, Q = -Y^2.
that's just not true
trying to do specific polynomial manipulations is just really not feasible in multiple variables with more complicated expressions
Oh yes, I see
You can do the same logic as I did without referring to quotients though
because P and Q can have X and Y in them
x^2 - y^3 = (x-a)P + (y-b)q. The right hand side is 0 once you plug in x = a and y = b. Therefore the left hand side must also be 0 when you plug in x = a and y = b
(yep -- that's the issue indeed)
do you mean (y-b)?
yep sorry
You could also do a division algorithm type thing. Divide x^2 - y^3 by x-a and you'll get
x^2 - y^3 = q(x,y)(x-a) - r(y)
you know the remainder only has y terms because it's degree in x must be less than 1 (by the euclidean algorithm). then you can try to argue that r(y) must be divisible by (y-b)
but I'm not exactly sure how
seems hard
Ahhh that's good. We look at the evaluation map that sends x->a and y -> b and see what happens
that's the best way to do this kind of arithmetic with ideals imo
in any ring R: r is an element of I if and only if r = 0 in R/I
going back to C[x,y], it tells you immediately that the element x^7 - 2xy + y is in the ideal (x-1, y-1) because if you plug in x = 1, y = 1 you get 0
Huh right.
I always thought I needed euclidean divsion to check where things got sent, but I can just plug it in even when I dont have euclidean division and see what I get
yep
Okay, for something like C[X,Y]/(X^2 + XY + 1). The maximal ideals of that are maximal ideals in C[X,Y] containing (X^2+XY+1) modded out by (X^2+XY+1). Since maximal ideals of that ring are of the form (X-a, Y-b), I get that a^2 + ab + 1 = 0 in the quotient. So all maximal ideals that satisfy that relation are maximal ideals of the quotient.
yes
the maximal ideals of the quotient are of the form (x-a,y-b) where a and b satisfy a^2 + ab + 1 = 0
Uh wait... here x and y are what, complex numbers?
No - they can't be - (X^2 + XY + 1) isn't maximal
no, x and y are elements of the ring C[x,y]
for example, (x-1,y+2) is a maximal ideal of that quotient
because 1^2 + 1(-2) + 1 = 0
I thought: the maximal ideals of the quotient are of the form (x-a,y-b) where a and b satisfy a^2 + ab + 1 = 0, modded out by (x^2 + xy +1)
Do you not need to mod out the maximal ideals in C[X,Y] containing (X^2 + XY + 1) by (X^2 + XY + 1) to get the maximal ideals of C[X,Y]/(X^2 +XY + 1)?
sure, you can also say that maximal ideals of the quotient are of the form (x' - a, y' - b) where x' and y' are the images of x and y in the quotient
ah okay..
I mean, yes, technically (x-a,y-b) is an ideal of C[x,y] not C[x,y]/(x^2 + xy + 1)
but in a case like this there is no risk of confusion. If I'm talking about (x-a,y-b) as an ideal of C[x,y]/(x^2 + xy + 1) then I clearly mean the image of if
Ah gotcha. The image of an ideal is an ideal because we have surjective map
indeed
Okay, and the image of (X+i, Y) would also be a maximal ideal of the quotient, right?
of course :)
xD
here is a fun exercise to think about that puts a lot of these things together

