#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages Β· Page 461 of 407
a group G is simple if the only normal subgroups it contains are {e} and G itself
right, so we want to show it has a nontrivial normal subgroup yes
yessir
do you see how the center could connect to this
I can see that the centre is nontrivial
but is it also a subgroup?
I'd prob have to prove that then
yeah test out if its a normal subgroup
oo okay
how's AM going btw
I enjoy them, you didn't really need any topological space stuff right
other than definition?
yeah
okay there's an idea of a basis that I think you have to use but
right so,
a). identity is always in the centre
b). to check its closed if x1, x2 are in Z(G), then for any g in G, (x1x2)g = x1(x2g) = x1(gx2) = g(x1x2) so
that should do it
right
sorry for lazy notation
been doing this since 6am
now its 9am
π
Oh I didn't realize that basis was in Rudin
mhm thats inverses and normality in one go, good job
or wait nvm lol x in Z(G)
do the normality one, it should be easy
yep
ok thank you!!
yes
looks fine
solve x^2+3x+2=0 in Z2
x^2+3x+2=(x+1)(x+2)
x = -1,-2
-1 = 1 (mod 2)
-2 = 0 (mod 2)
so its 1,0?
yeah, you can also reduce your polynomial, to get x^2 + x = 0 instead
Also Z2 only has 2 elements xyz so you can just input both of them into the equation and check if it works
ohh
how do i know if a polynomial is irreducible?
x^2+1
a degree 2 polynomial is irreducible if and only if it has no roots
is that true for other polynomials too?
if it is irreducble then it has no roots is true for all deg > 1 polynomiasl
but if it has no roots then it is irreducible is not true for higher ones
Degree 2 and 3
But square an irreducible quadratic and you'll get a polynomial with no roots yet which isn't irreducible
ok for 2
if it is reducible then f(x) = q(x)g(x)
deg q,g>1
=1
then it will be like
(x-a)(x-b)
so it has roots?
this is contrapositive
you mean deg(q*g)?
q*g is f, so that's what I said
deg f = deg (q*g) = deg q + deg g
ok
so q and g will be degree 1 polynomals and all degree one polynomials have roots
for 3
f(x) = q(x)g(x)
1<=deg(q),deg(g)<deg(f)
one of them must be degree 1 to get to 3
so it will have at least one root
does this proof work?
thanks π
@chilly ocean try using gauss lemma
Find all irreduciblepolynomials of degree 2 overZ3
how do i do this?
do i just make polynomials and check or is there a better way?
ax^2 + bx + c
a,b,c in Z3
Yeah just check which ones do and don't have roots
okay
it seems like there would be alot though
theres 2 choices for a 3 choices for b and 3 choices for c
Did they say find all? Not necessarily monic?
And well you can immediately reduce it to two choices for c
Because if c=0 you're auto reducible
So now you're checking, 12 polynomials in the non-monic case, 6 in the monic case
Which isn't that bad
Especially since for each one you really just check whether 1 or 2 is a root
oh i see
can someone confirm my madness please? suppose H β€ G. if H is normal in G, then the normalizer of H is G itself, right?
yes
iff, too
that's what I thought
I had one of those brain things for a minute, thanks for clarifying
A is finite over A_0 iff integral and finitely generated
finitey generated as a ring?
What's A_0?
Yeah, I think it should be finitely generated as a ring
alright thanks
It might mean that A is finitely generated as a module over A_0?
That wouldn't make sense though because then integral wouldn't be needed
Ah yeah you're right
Finitely generated as an A_0 algebra
Is what this means
Finite (meaning finitely generated as a module over A_0) = finite type (meaning finitely generated as an algebra over A_0) + integral
How does it make sense to take the inner semidirect product of G and a map acting on G?
What's the definition of a Steinberg endomorphism?
@mild laurel An endomorphism on a linear algebraic group G-> G such that for some power m, F^m maps (a_ij) - > (a_ij ^(p^k)), for some k. (p is the characteristic of the field over which G is defined)
Oh wait..
Oh
Anyways, this makes sense because you're taking the cyclic group generated by F
And this cyclic group acts on G in the obvious way
Do inner semidirect products rely on some action? I thought it was more that you had to have G and the cyclic group with some compatible operation
I have a theory though...
This is an outer semidirect product
π€ Is the inner semi direct product of H and N: HN, and H n N is the identity ?
Is there some implicit action behind HN? Like h acts on n in a certain way π€ in this case by mapping it to itself
You need N to be normal, but yes
H acts on N by conjugation
Which works out because you require N to be normal
@mild laurel so how does that give me a different group and not just N again?
Uh, HN is bigger than N?
Sorry. I'm not explaining myself clearly.
HN is bigger if it's elements are just hn. But in that case we need to define what gF means.
If hn means conjugation by h, then won't hn always be in N since N is normal.
No sorry
Maybe I wasn't clear
The elements of HN are the normal hn under group multiplication
The only issue is how you multiply two elements of the form hn and get something of that form
Give me a sec let me get on a computer
Yeah, I'm just not seeing what the obvious multiplication here is?
Are you saying it's F(g)?
π€
Please :)
So yeah, elements of HN are just the normal hn multiplication of G
but if you have hn, and then h'n', how do you multiply them?
So their product would be hnh'n' but this isn't of the form hn yet
We can write this as hnh'n' = h h' h'^{-1} n h' n'
and then, since N is normal, the element h'^{1} n h' is in N and so h'^{-1}n h' n' is also in N
and h h' is an element of H
so we've rewritten our element as the product of something in H and something in N
That's so useful to know! Thank you very much
And that's why I talked about the conjugation action
because you have h' acting on n by conjugation here
And in general that's how you get semidirect products
Thank you so much!
And does this really work to take the semidirect product of a group with an automorphism of that group
Yeah so for outer semidirect products, it works basically the same way
If you have one group acting on another then you can take the semidirect product
@mild laurel and is it implied that gF = F(g)?
hm, its better to think of outer semidirect products as
G x <F> with a weird multiplication structure
How do you know its an outer semidirect product?
π I am super new to them
Like the thing is, G and <F> give you subgroups of the outer semidirect product since the outer semidirect product is G x <F> as a set
And you can check that G is normal in this new group, and the intersection of these two subgroups is trivial
so you can check that the outer semidirect product is isomorphic to the inner semidirect product of G and <F> here
creamy shits:
creamy shits:
Did you just read excerpts of Wikipedia articles to royalty free music and stock footage
creamy shits:
My book says that if P is a p-subgroup of G, for any p-subgroup Q, there exists an element g such that Q<=gPg^-1. What if |P| < Q?
your book says that P is a p-Sylow of G
x)
Is there an example of a group with more than one p sylow subgroup?
Mm
Problem : Show that H = { x in D_2n | x^2 = 1 } is not a subgroup of D_2n (here n>= 3)
im not that good with dihedral groups so i decided to try
to say that we require commutivity in order for ssuch a subgroup to exist
i generlized ig and said in order for a subgroup with such structure ( all elements have order 2 ) to exist then we must have commutivity
then just said D_2n is not abelian for n>=3 and thats it
is that a right argument?
No that's not a right argument.
why
Because you can potentially have a nonabelian group G where {x in G | x^2 = 1} is actually a subgroup of G
there's something more specific about dihedral groups that you need to exploit, not just "nonabelianness"
fuck really
im not that good with dihedral groups tbh
D_2n = < r,s |r^n=s^2=1 , rs=sr^-1 >
The easiest example that I can think of is a semidirect product Z semidirect Z/2 with {1 -> -1} twist (not sure if you know what semidirect product is but let me just put it up here)
in this group, {x | x^2 = 1} is {e}, which is a subgroup
= {1,r,r^2,.....,r^(n-1),sr,sr^2.....sr^(n-1)}
i dont but okay i believe you
can u help me with the problem then
So what you need to do is come up with examples. Think about how you can check that H is not a subgroup
show that xy^-1 is not in H if x and y is in H
go back to the first principles
?
Right ok you can use that
if x and y is in H
it doesnt mean that (xy)^2 is 1
since any element in H can be written as sr^k for k=0,1...n-1
So you'd be done if you picked two elements in H whose squares are 1 and yet their product doesn't have a order dividing 2.
Don't be afraid to pick some elements and start experimenting
r doesnt have order 2
wait
s has order 2
idk
lmao
let x and y be in H
x = sr^k
y = sr^j
(sr^k)(sr^j) = (sr^j)^-1(sr^k) ?
is that right
using the relation given in the presentation of D_2n?
=(r^-j)s^-1sr^k = r^(k-j) ?
thiss doesnt have order 2 cuz r has order n
n >=3
so if my algebra is right im done
@chilly ocean
You are giving rs = sr^{-1}
yea
So you need (sr^k)(sr^j) = s(r^k s)r^j = s (s ^{-k})r^j = s^2 s^{j-k} = s^{j-k}
oh fuck
there are some steps you're missing and the final answer that you have there is not the same as the calculation right above
i thought in this equation
rs=sr^(-1)
this holds for r and s in D_2n
not THE r and s
no
It's specific to r and s. You use those generators and relations to generate other elements and see if there are further relations using those relations.
okay so
lets clean this up
let x and y be in H
we want to show xy is not in H
x and y are in D_2n
so x =sr^i and y = sr^j
for i and j = 0,1,.....,n-1
xy = (sr^i)(sr^j) = s(r^is)r^j = s(sr^-i)r^j = s^2(r^(-i+j))
= r^(-i+j)
which does not have order 2
hence not closed hence not subgroup
?
is that right?
No
why
What if i = j = 0?
Be more concrete yoh
wdym
experiment with values of i,j
shouldnt i be general and not see special cases?
cuz assume i get that at i=1 and j=1 they are not in H
You're trying to come up with a counter example to show that {x | x^2 = 1} is not a subgroup
maybe the subgroup doesnt have those
Right, you should check which ones are in it and then pick some which don't have order 2 after multiplying
Ok so it suggests what elements to try playing with
You picked x = s. Now give yourself y = ?
Ok cool. Can you now pick k so that (xy)^2 is not 1?
Yep
so
So, what did you get out of working on this problem?
ig i just like
exhaust some cool cases
in problems that i do not know how to do
maybe i get something/
tyms
tysm
NP.
@chilly ocean isn't (0,1) also an element of order 2 in that semidirect product?
Ah you are right. My bad. Take any nonabelian group of odd order :)
Well the example still works
Oh wait maybe not
There's an obvious presentation <a, b | aba^(-1) = b^(-1), a^2 = 1>. But if a^2 = 1, then a^(-1) = a, so this is equivalent to <a, b | aba = b^(-1), a^2 = 1>, or <a, b | abab = 1, a^2 = 1>. Changing variables c = ab, this is <a, c | a^2 = c^2 = 1>, or the free product of C2 with C2
So there's at least two nontrivial elements of order 2
Yeah ac has infinite order, so it's not in the set of elements of order <= 2, so that set isn't a group
GL_n(Z/p) for any odd prime p should work (n >= 3) as an example
for mo2men's "G nonabelian and {x | x^2 = 1} is a subgroup}"
Yeah
Thanks for spotting that error
I'm curious about the case where there's at least one element of order 2 though
So not just any odd order nonabelian group
GL_n(Z/p) definitely has one, take -I
In the case n = 1 you get a subgroup because this is the unique element of order 2
Why do you say it works for n >= 3?
Nvm I made a mistake again.
Oh and n = 1 doesn't work because it's abelian
The quaternion group works
It has a unique element of order 2 and so that forms a subgroup, but it's nonabelian
Further this is an example of minimal order, since the transpositions generate S3
Yes that works
How 'bout upper triangular matrices in M_3(Z/3) with diagonals +/-1?
or in M_3(Z/p) for p odd anyhow
Is there a nice way to compute the order of such an element?
I don't know, throwing up here for now
"characterizing nonabelian groups where { x | x^2 = 1} is a subgroup"
{x | x^2 = 1} is a direct sum of Z/2's so if we have any group extension of the form 0 -> Z/2 (+) ... (+) Z/2 -> G -> H -> 1 with H an odd order group then should be ok (do finite case first)
maybe there's a nice way to extend Q(sqrt(2), sqrt(3), ... sqrt(p)) / Q (which has galois group (Z/2)^(number of primes from 2 to p)) to a galois extension L of Q while keeping L/Q(sqrt(2), ...., sqrt(p)) an odd order and Galois as well
with extension satisfying those above
anyway gotta get back to my own work. Let me know if you find a nice way
It is. But you also want to keep L/Q(sqrt(2), ..., sqrt(p)) to be Galois as well
yes find a bigger L
Okay yeah that makes sense
{x | x^2 = 1} should be a normal subgroup right?
You can probably just take some big galois closure L where L/Q(sqrt(2) ,..., sqrt(p)) may not necessarily have an odd order, but you can try to take a subgroup of Gal(L/Q(sqrt(2) ,..., sqrt(p)) and massage around a bit
So you always have such an extension
Oh well then that works π
Wait maybe not, you said H was odd order above
I want that yes
Oh wait hmm
Oh it's closed under conjugation but if you're not abelian it's not a subgroup
Quaternion, some semidirect product of Z/p with Z/q (q dividing p-1) should work too and so on
I was saying by dami's thing that you always have an extension 0 -> (Z/2Z)^((+)n) -> G -> H -> 0, but H might not have odd order
We're trying to characterize groups (let's start with finite groups G) where {x | x^2 = 1} is a subgroup of G
(nonabelian obviously)
Actually if H has odd order than this is the 2-sylow, so all elements of order 2^k have order 2
After this one can naturally naturally think about when {x | x^3 = 1} is a subgroup, etc. etc.
Daminark weren't you at Chicago? Chicago people are good at this stuff π
Yeah trying to ignite my old skill
You can take some extension L as mentioned above and try to take some odd index subgroup in Gal(L/Q(sqrt(2), ..., sqrt(p))
Okay so yeah if that's a subgroup then it's normal, so we are just dealing with certain group extensions. And what's your thing about H in particular?
but gotta keep everything normal and such
(err not as mentioned above, but some big one L' and cut it down)
You're trying to extend just be odd order H?
Sure
Was just looking for examples like this in the "wild"
where {x | x^2 = 1} is somewhat large despite it being a subgroup in a nonabelian group.
Hmm, at best you can do a third right?
Like take (Z/2)^n and non-trivial semidirect product with Z/3
yea you can do stuff like that too. Trying also to come up with non-split examples
What's a good "Ext" replacement tool for nonabelian group extensions?
sorry, the extensions went the wrong way. Take any odd order nonabelian galois extension K over Q, then take some linearly disjoint quadratic extensions K(a), K(b), ... over K and Gal(K(a,b,...)/Q) should be a big class of examples (non-aplit too).
My hw has me proving that if D is a division ring and V = D (+) β¦ (+) D the unique simple module over M_n(D), then End_(M_n(D))(V) β D
But this confuses me
Oh wait I'm unconfused
Okay wait now I'm confused again
It seems like it's iso to D^op
Alright it's Weibel time
Try changing the ^2 to something simpler
erm, wait, this is #groups-rings-fields
not #precalculus , go there instead
Oh hell yeah weibel time
I hope it's still weibel time
It's always weibel time in my heart
It's usually an integer
Oh I ranted elsewhere actually
Well yeah
But what
Hmm I'll work through theory here and do exercises there
n by n matrices
Spread the love of Weibel
Ahh
I'm pretty sure my homework problem is misstated
And that there should be an op somewhere
@bleak abyss there's a dead homological algebra server that you could rant in
Where are you in weibel?
I'm starting from 0, my class is somewhere in chapter 2 right now but I slept through too many classes lol
Oh that's a mood
I'm gonna try and keep doing Hartshorne problems but I'm two sections behind
But apparently most of the class is too
Is M_n(R^op) iso to M_n(R)^op iso to M_n(R)?
I think that might be what I'm missing
I'm pretty sure M_n(R) is iso to its opposite ring by transpose
Does End_(M_n(D))(V) mean all endomorphism over D? And the equal, does that mean a isomorphism?
No
Cause you wrote V=D
Oh nvm missed the next line
the β¦ is n times
This is the unique simple module over the matrix ring, assuming I did the previous problem correctly
It's fine as it is. Why do you think it should be D^{op}?
x -> (multiplication by x).
Daminark: Doesn't that have a funny preface something to the effect that "Thanks to my wife, family, etc. etc." and then "... without whom I would have finished this book much earlier?"
Let's see, End_{M_n(D)}(D^n) should be just scalars becaause they're just matrices A in M_n(D) that commutes with everthing in M_n(D) right
scalar multiplications anyhow
if you take an element f in End_{M_n(D)}(D^n) then that's a map f: D^n -> D^n such that f(Ax) = Af(x) for all A in M_n(D), or fA = Af for all A in M_n(D).
So f commutes with everything in M_n(D).
in particular f is in M_n(D) (should note early on as well, by taking A to be scalar multiples of I).
Okay, so I claim that if f(x) = ax for an element a not in the center, then f won't be linear
so it should be scalar multiples of elements in the center of D
You think it's just the center?
so it should be center of D involved here.
Here's the thing
There is an injective ring map f : D^op -> End(V)
given by f(x) = v |-> vx
f(x)(Av) = (Av)x = A(vx) = Af(x)(v) by associativity of matrix multiplication, f(x)(v+w) = (v+w)x = vx+wx = f(x)(v) + f(x)(w) by distributivity in each component, so f(x) is linear. Then for any x, y in D and v in V, f(x+y)(v) = v(x+y) = vx + vy = (f(x) + f(y))(v) and f(yx)(v) = v(yx) = (vy)x = (f(x) Β° f(y))(v)
So End(V) at least contains a subring isomorphic to D^op
Right that makes sense
Oh I figured it out. My professor defined End(V) as acting on V on the right
Which is stupid and dumb
that was my next question. But hah
And I wasn't there the first day of this section
Ughhh
Wait no, I just misread it
It says End_R(R) β R^op
By the argument I was trying to make
And End_R(R^n) β M_n(R^op)
Which makes sense
Maybe
Idk I'm confused
so the map is D -> End_{M_n(D)}(D^n), x -> (multiplication by x on the left)
x -> (y -> xy)
Given thaat M_n(D) acts on the right of V = D^n
Yeah, that makes sense to me
I think I just need to go to OH and clear up which direction stuff is happening on
and what is the action on the right?
I think M_n acts on the left but End(V) acts on the right
In lecture he writes v^Ξ±
So sending r to right multiplication by r actually gives a map D -> End(V), because we swap direction twice
Posting here even though I'm working out of a book on manifolds
Call an R-algebra F geometric if the only f in F such that x(f) = 0 for all x in Hom_R(F,R) is f = 0
Let V be a finite dimension R-vector space and G a linear operator in V. Let F be the algebra generated by G. The problem is to figure out when F is geometric
If G is nilpotent then F isn't geometry
If m(x) is the minimal polynomial of G, then F β R[x]/(m(x))
We know that m factors as a bunch of linear terms times some irreducible quadratics
Group together the powers
Powers of distinct irreducibles are coprime and intersect trivially, so you can apply the Chinese remainder theorem
So you have a bunch of products of rings of the form R[x]/(p(x)^r)
If any r is greater than 1, you get that the thing isn't geometric
Since any homomorphism into R needs to kill that off
Oh and this happening says the minimal polynomial has a repeated root, so the characteristic polynomial has a repeated root, and thus your get an eigenvalue with multiplicity > 1
But it doesn't go the other way because if you take G = I you get F = R, which is geometric
Maybe it's only nilpotent matrices?
Oh consider V = R^2 and G(x, y) = (-y, x). This has characteristic polynomial Ξ»^2 + 1 (and since this is irreducible its the minimal polynomial too)
Then there's no homs F -> R
And more generally if you have an irreducible quadratic in your factorization, this will be a problem
So I guess the characterization is that the minimal polynomial of G is a product of distinct linear polynomials
@vital night what do you know about the ring K[x]?
I just know the general axioms
What's the context of this problem?
There's a theorem which is usually covered in an introduction to ring theory which makes it much easier
No
Do you know what Euclid's algorithm is in the context of integers?
For computing the gcd
No, I don't know what that is
Hmmm
So my first instinct is to divide f by g, or g by f
deg f <= deg g or deg g <= deg f, so divide one of bigger-or-equal degree by the one of smaller-or-equal degree
And by divide I mean divide with remainder
okay so use #2 for that
Right
This gives you something to work with at least
Assume g has bigger degree
Then you get g(x) = q(x) f(x) + r(x)
Can we say anything about that?
deg r < deg q
Oh yeah, sorry
we know r is non-zero
Yeah, that's a good line of thought
Even better, we know g and r are congruent mod f
Right?
Oh wait have you seen congruence? Probably not if you haven't seen ideals
Sorry
yeah sorry I don't know what that is π¦
Np. I'm just used to thinking about this problem with some more machinery
So my thought is that maybe we need to argue this inductively
And by dividing by remainder, we're able to get something of smaller degree than g
But we need to make sure we have a similar situation as at the start of the problem
okay so divide g by r
Hmm, I'm not sure that'll help
oh sorry I thought that was what you meant by "dividing by remainder"
Sorry I meant dividing with remainder
What we did above
We were able to get something of strictly smaller degree than g
Right?
Well we might have deg f = deg g
But I was thinking more about r
It's sort of the bit of f left over when you take out q
ah right okay
So hopefully some of the information we started with is preserved
what follows from this?
I'm not really sure how to help without giving it away
But I think division with remainder+induction is the way to go
Well the idea is that when you divide by remainder, the degree goes down
Right
Induct on deg f + deg g
what is the new degree though? deg qf + r still equals deg g
Right, that's true
So you have to figure out what to apply the induction hypothesis to
You started out with two coprime polynomials
How can you get two new coprime polynomials with the sum of degrees reduced?
But g/f won't be a polynomial
Since g and f are coprime, f definitely doesn't divide g
what are you trying to do again
can't you just run the euclidean algo
I haven't learned what that is yet

alright well
ok
strong induction on deg(f)+deg(g) then
base case would be when that sum's 0 ig
ie when they're both constant
Right
now take two arbitrary polynomials f and g and suppose we've already proved this result for all pairs of polynomials whose degrees sum to less than deg(f)+deg(g)
wlog assume deg(f) β₯ deg(g)
write f = gq + r with deg(r) < deg(g)
obtain polynomials a', b' such that a'g + b'r = 1
write r = f - gq
a'g + b'(f - gq) = (a' - q)g + b'f
= 1
done
By the induction hypothesis
You need to argue that r and g are coprime
Anybody know an easy example of a division ring which isn't iso to its opposite? My professor says that they're isomorphic as a consequence of the Artin Wedderburn theorem, but math stack exchange says that this is false
(sorry to interrupt)
and suppose we've already proved this result for all pairs of polynomials whose degrees sum to less than deg(f)+deg(g)
oh I see
the strong inductive hypothesis
and lastly, a' - q
I can simply set a new polynomial equal to that
to preserve the structure
1= a(x) f(x) + b(x) g(x)
is that right?
okay great, thanks for the help!
@chilly ocean there was an error on my homework
The prof thought that Artin Wedderburn implied any semisimple ring is isomorphic to its opposite
@mild laurel why is ann(omega_i) in p
M is an A module here?
yes
If there's something in the annihilator that's not in p
Then when you take the localization
Okay it's easier to just say that if
\omega_i = 0/1, then there exists some s \in A - p such that s \omega_i = 0
just by definition of localization of module
aka s is an annihilator of \omega_i
so what he means is that if omega_i/1 not 0 in M_p then its annihilator is not in A-p
its annihilator not being in A-p is the same as the annihilator being in p lmao
correct
:v
thanks
i didnt think of 0. i thought what if ann(omega_i) is empty, then its not in p either
which was obv bad thinking
empty sets are subsets of all sets lmao
im dumb ok, leave me be
Agreed
Hey guys. I m a 1st year undergrad math student. I have done two courses of algebra( group theory and linear algebra), two of analysis, and two of probability theory. I was thinking of doing a reading project this summer. Can you suggest some topic to me?
Thanks
Group theory fascinated me the most
I keep hearing the word "action" from people online in the context of (modern) algebra but I never see this word in any books I've been reading (at least not in an undergrad context that explains what it means), does "action" just refer to a ring (or field) multiplication that gives an abelian group module (or vector space) structure (respectively)?
(I've seen what group action means, isn't group action just a generalization of these "actions"?)
So if I think of a ring action on an abelian group as basically the same thing as a module
Ok well that helps, but do you know where I can find a more rigorous elaboration on the matter? Thanks
There's a little paragraph titled "Actions" in Bourbaki's Algebra chapter I, but it's probably not what you're looking for
hmm, I'll give it a look anyway, ty
ya this is probably different context but glad I checked it out at least
In a field of characteristic 2, can you say anything about powers of elements?
Like is it true that x^2 = 1 for all x
Actually, you may want to keep reading it because it looks like they do the most general stuff in "Actions" and then do particular cases in other paragraphs
ah, ok will do, thank you!
(I meant to apologize earlier about my confustion with X^Y notation but keep forgetting to)
Say you have a matrix and you form its rational canonical form
Do you get a different answer based on the characteristic of the field you're doing this over?
@uncut girder in the finite case you get a good result about powers
For sufficiently large N, x^(2^N) = x for all x
The minimal such N determines the field up to isomorphism
And anything in the algebraic closure of F2 satisfies x^(2^n) for some n
I'm not sure what you're asking about with the canonical form question
@latent anvil finite field or finite characteristic?
Hopefully you mean finite field
@uncut girder I don't think your question is so well defined
Doesn't rational canonical form depend on the factorization of your characteristic polynomial?
If you take A= [[0 -1] [1 0]] in M_2(R) and embed this in M_2(C) those should be different
I think
Oh sorry you said characteristic
Not just the field
Yeah idk
For that example, they shouldn't be different
Over R or over C
Because the entries are in R
Oh yeah lol
And even over Q
It's a canonical form
But my question is
My question is really about this:
[ c 0 -1]
[ 0 c 1]
[ -1 1 c]
D&F chapter 12.2 exercise 9 asked you to find the rational canonical form of that matrix but doesnt tell you over what field. I didnt assume anything about the field and got the same answer (being careful consider characteristic 2 seperately)
How do you find rational canonical form of
I cant do the elementary row/column operations to get the smith normal form ;_;
This sucks
I was stuck up until I realized I could use 1 in the top right to get rid of constants anywhere in the matrix
god i should practice matrix nonsense for the gre
Hey, for A a principal ring and E an A-module, p in A an irreductible element and k a natural number, is there any canonical way to inject E (x) A/p^kA into A/p^(k+1)A ? By canonical I mean a categoric construction.
Show that a magma M satisfying a((ac)(bc))=b for all a,b,cΒ£M is an abelian group.
I've managed to prove that associativity implies the result. But associativity seems tricky to prove.
i'd assume that was meant to say $a \oplus n = 0_R = 1$
Namington:
and that it's just a typo
hm?
im confused why he wrote a + n = OR = 1
I've managed to prove a(ab)=b. Associativity seems closer and closer, but now I'm stuck again. Any ideas?
@leaden finch because that's what it means for an element to have an inverse
an element $a$ has inverse $n$ if $a \oplus n = 0_R$, where $0_R$ is the additive identity in your structure
Namington:
in this case, we know $0_R = 1$ from part R4
Namington:
again, this is literally just definitions
oh okay, so then he was not supoose to do -1 then ?
The quadratic integer ring ${\displaystyle \mathbb {Z} [{\sqrt {-5}}]}\mathbb Z[\sqrt{-5}]$ of all complex numbers of the form ${\displaystyle a+b{\sqrt {-5}}}a+b\sqrt{-5}$, where a and b are integers, is not a UFD because 6 factors as both 2Γ3 and as ${\displaystyle \left(1+{\sqrt {-5}}\right)\left(1-{\sqrt {-5}}\right)}\left(1+\sqrt{-5}\right)\left(1-\sqrt{-5}\right)$. These truly are different factorizations, because the only units in this ring are 1 and β1; thus, none of 2, 3, ${\displaystyle 1+{\sqrt {-5}}}1+\sqrt{-5}, and {\displaystyle 1-{\sqrt {-5}}}1-\sqrt{-5}$ are associate.
Could someone explain this
why does the fact that 6 factors into both 2 and 3 and the other one mean that the ring is not UFD?
Meet The Noob:
why isn't it a UFD?
It factors into those factors and they're not associate, but why does this imply that it is not UFD?
By definition of a UFD (Unique Factorization Domain).
intuitively, something is a UFD if everything (except 0 and units) has a "unique 'prime' composition"
prime in the sense of irreducible elements
you just found that 6 can be written as a product of irreducible elements in 2 different ways
and these ways are "meaningfully different"
(i.e. not just a simple reordering or whatever)
hence you've found a counterexample
and so this is not a UFD
is that still not clear?
am i being a brainlet or is $\left(\bZ^{\infty}\right)^3\cong\left(\bZ^{\infty}\right)^2$
Ariana:
$\bZ^\infty$ is a ring right
Ariana:
I managed to prove (xz)(yz)=xy, (xx)(yx)=xy, and (x(yx))x=xy. Associativity always seems just out of reach.
@golden pasture what's your definition of Z^infty? A countable product of Z with itself?
Because then yeah
That isomorphism in AM is an isomorphism of A-modules
Yours is an isomorphism of rings
I got confused by this too
IAmJon:
Yes?
(With the implicit assumption that we must show that such an x exists. If we show that x is rational, then x clearly exists)
I just assumed they wanted help with R12
yeah sure
just pointing out for them that they highlighted both, but only gave the info to answer one
Oh right
You determine the additive identity through a different aciom
Look at what I had above
Do you have that?
Should be 1_R
wym
Aren't we talking about R12?
From R11?
You would find 1_R by the axiom defining the multiplicative identity
That is, the e\in R such that e\odot x =x for any x\in R
Did you do this?
what is Tor, guys
this author didnt say anything before. is theorem 4.5 the Tor thing?
(see second last line)
i see that commuting with tensor is what 4.4 is about, but commuting with Tor.... dunno. i read wiki and i dont understand shit
is it better to just ignore this for now?
Tor is love
Also idk what you talked about before but it's worth noting that it's a little different with Tor because Tor is covariant in both arguments
So you use projective resolutions for each argument
I think you shouldn't worry about this too much @bitter mauve
It seems like that remark was just an aside
For the future when you know about Tor
What book is this?
matsumura
Lol that's the second version
I think those aren't editions of a book actually, they happen to be similar but they were originally meant to be separate books
yea, this is a first edition
but matsumura says that it grew out of the other book
in intro
again, apologies for a retarded pic, lens is scratched
Ok so in a PID [k_1, ...] = [gcd(k_1, ...)] in any PID not just Z thats neat
feelsgoodman to finally be getting somewhere
is x^2+1 reducible over R?
doesnβt every real polynomial factor into a product of linear and irreducible quadratic terms so that means it is?
its irreducible yes
You don't need even there, every real polynomial with degree greater than 2 is reducible
yes
how do you know if x^4+1 is reduible over any field ?
depends on the field
what do you mean by Zp
Z mod p where p is prime
Okay sure, then there's really nothing better to do than write
x^4 + 1 = (x^2 + ax + 1)(x^2 + bx + 1) and see if there exists a solution for a,b
but you also have to check x^4 + 1 = (x^2 + ax -1)(x^2 + bx - 1)
how do you know to write it like that?
everything is an unit so (x^2+ax+c)(x^2+bx+c^(-1))
Just compare the first coefficient and the last coefficient
oh you used difference of squares?
uh, no
ok suppose x^4+1 were reducable
what ways could it factor
interms of degrees of the factors
then x^4+1 = f(x)g(x) where deg f,g is greater than or equal to 1
well tell me the possibilities
2,2 or 3,1 or 1,3
it has a root
mhm, when does x^4+1=0 have a root in F_p
nowhere
say it doesnβt
then try out the 2,2 case
this means you can write x^4+1 as product of two quadratics
(ax^2 + bx + c)(dx^2 + ex + f)
yeah, notice since this is over a field and our poly is monic you can just make a=d=1
then expand and system of equations?
yeah
but some coefficients will be non linear
they will
it will be like b*e x
b* e = 0 so b or e is 0
ok let me try write it out
can i also factor it by finishing the complex roots?
finding
ok
I'm not sure exactly what you're asking
complex doesn't exactly make sense when you're working over F_p
oh
it works for factoring over R though
the system of equations is ad=1 ae=0, af=0
there is a lot
but it doesnβt work
Yeah, but it might factor over F_p
Like you can check that x^4 + 1 = (x^2 + 1)(x^2 + 1) over F_2
no you get that ae + af + bd = 0
oh
There are lots of solutions over R
I have a question regarding the easiest manner in determining if two groups are isomorphic
specifically the cartesian products
Z6 x Z10
and Z2 x Z2 x Z15
all element orders seem in place so theres no clear mismatch
idk where to go from there
write some sort of homomorphism between the two groups and try to show that the kernel is 0
do you know the general theorem $Z_{rs}\cong Z_r\times Z_s$ for $(r,s)=1$
JohnDoeSmith:
yes
this will immediately show your two groups are isomorphic
by (r,s) you mean gcd(r,s) right?
yeah
if so i dont see how that makes them isomorphic
well first split up Z6 and Z10
np
this is generally how you figure it out for cyclic groups
general groups you often need to explicitly construct the isomorphism
i see
Iirc finite abelian groups are determined by the number of elements of each order
But you need the classification to prove this
Let f: Zmn -> Zm x Zn be given by x -> (x mod m, x mod n). The kernel is trivial, so f is injective. Both groups have the same size, so f is a bijection, hence the groups are isomorphic.
Is it true that the number of inversions is related to the number of even cycles in a permutation?
@chilly ocean my bad, that actually cleared things up. Thank you.
When we talk about coroot of a lie algebra associated to r do we really mean 2B(r, dot) /B(r, r)
In my book it is written as 2r/(r,r), but that would just be in the same space as r...
How to prove that if A and B are matrices of same size such that $B^{T}A=0$
Then rank(A+B) = rank(A) + rank(B)
h4harshul:
im(A) and im(B) are two orthogonal subspaces which implies that their sum (im(A+B)) is direct.
determine the number of group homomorphisms from $Z_{245}$ to $Z_{175}$ whose image is size 5
i am not sure how to do this
Remember that a homomorphism from a cyclic group is defined by where the generator goes
right
boat:
So where could you send 1 in Z_245
i am not sure i understand. Cant 1 go anywhere from Z_245 to Z_175?
1 is in the image
