#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 422 of 407
wut even is C_8
8 elements that satisfy a^8 = e
like
In practical terms
what's C_1?
(Z/8Z, + mod 8)
cyclic groups are those generated by a single element.
so like C_2 = {e, a} where a² = e?
C8 is the cyclic group with 8 elements
yes
C_3 = {e, a, a²} where a³ = e?
a^6 too
yes
fam y u no say this
i sorta did
Ye
okay
1:32 PM] Katzen Aktion: $a$ is a generator for the cyclic group $C_8$, that is $\langle a|a^8=e\rangle \cong C_8$
flimflam:
u think I know wut that means?
before we further confus
so I got C_8 = {aⁿ : 0 ≤ n < 8} where a^8 = e
Have you heard of a generator?
apparently I have but I have no clue wut it is
I assume
that it generates all other elements
@spark plank $n \in \mathbf Z$
when raised to powers
flimflam:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)

so basically what I said no?
Eyup
yes.
nope ujst that 🤷
kk
8
okay now try cranking out them endos
if you haven't for whatever reason confirmed that $a \mapsto a, a \mapsto a^8=e$ are 2 of them, do so now too
flimflam:
explain urself
$f:x\mapsto a^nx$
Simple_Art:
hm
what's x
if n=4 then it satisfies f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
x are elements of C_8
it also satisfies inverse
what's a^n x
but doesn't map to identity
sed
a^n left multiplied onto x

well obviously identity and inverses are endomorphisms
oh ya, continue 🤦
wait do I need to map the identity to itself?
k
well if it need to map to identity
wait hm
fock
ur right
🤦
no not that
I just did it wrong
$f:x\mapsto x^n,n=1,2,4,8$?
Simple_Art:
this is probably what I was thonking
i am okay with this, but I'd like a bit of explanation how/why you got there
no
why not
no not u
kek
$(a^ma^n)^k$\$=(a^{m+n})^k$\$=a^{(m+n)k}$\$=a^{km+kn}$\$=a^{km}a^{kn}$\$=(a^m)^k(a^n)^k$
Simple_Art:
for natural k, m, n
e^k = e for all natural k
so we just need inverse

but we know that a^8 = e
so...
$((a^m)^k)^{-1}$\$=a^{-mk}$\$=((a^{-1})^m)^k$
oof that was ez
Simple_Art:
why doesn't $a \mapsto a^6$ work tho
flimflam:
O:
but for k > 8 we basically get the same thing
same how
Simple_Art:
for all a in C_8

cream
no
🤦
🤦
okay so
let a be the generator
$e^6=e$\$a^6=a^6$\$(a^2)^6=a^{12}=a^4$\$(a^3)^6=a^{18}=a^2$\$(a^4)^6=e$\$(a^5)^6=a^6$\$(a^6)^6=a^4$\$(a^7)^6=a^2$
Simple_Art:
u can verify that these multiply and stuff
and that it an endomorphism
and that it works for any power
wait, go do ur analysis

$(a^ma^n)^k$\$=(a^{m+n})^k$\$=a^{(m+n)k}$\$=a^{km+kn}$\$=a^{km}a^{kn}$\$=(a^m)^k(a^n)^k$
$((a^m)^k)^{-1}$\$=a^{-mk}$\$=((a^{-1})^m)^k$
Simple_Art:
$a^8=e$
Simple_Art:

but it's basically exponential rules
exponential rules satisfy group properties
hence they form endomorphisms
$a^ma^n=a^{m+n}$\$(a^m)^k=a^{mk}$
Simple_Art:
The second one is to make everything into one power
and the first one is to show that f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
if u can show me which $n,m$ define the same maps $a \mapsto a^m,a\mapsto a^n$ i be happy--also you'd exhibit a partition of $\mathbf Z$
flimflam:
since a is our generator
every x, y in C_8 is of the form a^m and a^n for m, n in Z
right?
ur set is literally {e, a, a², a³, ...}
it's all powers of a
okay so let f(x) = x^6
$f(a^ma^n)$\$=(a^ma^n)^6$\$=(a^{m+n})^6$\$=a^{6(m+n)}$\$=a^{6m+6n}$\$=a^{6m}a^{6n}$\$=(a^m)^6(a^n)^6$\$=f(a^m)f(a^n)$
Simple_Art:
$f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$
Simple_Art:
𝔎𝔄𝔇𝔦𝔰𝔠𝔬𝔯𝔡:
@high bobcat Kys
pls no disturb, this warning#1
also since $(a^m)^n=a^{mn}=(a^n)^m$ we get that $f(x^{-1})=f(x)^{-1}$
Simple_Art:
joins math server
goes to channel where people are clearly having a math discussion
proceeds to be an ass
words
idk fam
actually
ya they do
kek
well anyways
we get that $x\mapsto x^k$ is an endomorphism for all natural $k$.
Simple_Art:
@chilly ocean try to cook up a counterexample if you think this wrong

also stirring up shit when mod literally warns u 
dam this sl||im||e ED 2 is really growing on me
so obviously
if you raise $a^m$ to a power
Simple_Art:
you get $a^n$ for some other $n=0,1,2,3,\dots,7$
Simple_Art:
that is, it's in $C_8$
Simple_Art:
Simple_Art:
tbh they're just powers of a, so you actually get abelian stuff I think
well we can easily show that this is the case
did you get what I wrote earlier tho?
$f(a^ma^n)$\$=(a^ma^n)^6$\$=(a^{m+n})^6$\$=a^{6(m+n)}$\$=a^{6m+6n}$\$=a^{6m}a^{6n}$\$=(a^m)^6(a^n)^6$\$=f(a^m)f(a^n)$
Simple_Art:
Simple_Art:
where $f:x\mapsto x^6$
Simple_Art:
then it's an endomorphism no?
yeah, the 6 in the above proof has no significance
but
there are actually only 8 endomorphisms that come about from this
$(a^m)^{k+8}$\$=(a^m)^k(a^m)^8$\$=(a^m)^ka^{8m}$\$=(a^m)^k(a^8)^m$\$=(a^m)^ke^m$\$=(a^m)^ke$\$=(a^m)^k$
Simple_Art:
$x^{13}=x^{5+8}=x^5x^8=x^5$ for all $x\in C_8$
Simple_Art:
since $x^8=e$ for all $x\in C_8$
Simple_Art:
Yeah, so we basically only have mod 8
so now we probably need to show there are no other solutions
ya u can always bring it down to [0, 7]
oh hm so I think I can show these are the only solutions
let $f(a)=a^k$
Simple_Art:
Then $f(a^2)=f(a)f(a)=a^ka^k=(a^2)^k$
Simple_Art:
in general $f(a^m)=f(a)^m=a^{km}$
Simple_Art:
and hence we must have $f(x)=x^k$ for all $x\in C_8$ for $f$ to be an endomorphism
Simple_Art:
Splintegers fren
The key point is that $f(a^m)=f(a)^m$ if $f$ is an endomorphism
Simple_Art:
this comes from repeatedly applying $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$
Simple_Art:
If it's an endomorphism, we know that $f(a)\in C_8$ so $f(a)=a^k$ for some $k$.
Simple_Art:
It thus follows that\$f(a^m)$\$=f(a)^m$\$=(a^k)^m$\$=(a^m)^k$
Simple_Art:
That is, $f(x)=x^k$ for all $x\in C_8$
Simple_Art:
and this has nothing to do with 8 btw
aside from the mod 8
Hence C_n has n unique endomorphisms
|Endo(C_n)| = n
yeah it works for any natural k
We could have $f(a)=a^0=e$
Simple_Art:
and hence $f(a^m)=f(a)^m=e^m=e$
Simple_Art:
which forms a pretty trivial endomorphism 
The key point was to write elements of C_8 as a^m and use exponential rules here
lesson noted for dealing with cyclic groups

idk
think this it

got learnt tho
Well, what are you missing? Anything you wanna know?
Just gotta grind

I imagine quotients are pretty intuitive by now. The cosets of a normal subgroup form a group under coset multiplication.
The group they form end up being an image of a homomorphism, where the subgroup is the kernel
Iso
=pup monomorphism
Mono if isomorphism from group to itself

Am I drinking?
@spark plank making progress 

I am drinking
how 'bout u tho
can you show the subgroup of isomorphisms now
I'm trying not to drink 
what's an iso
bi homo
invertible maps
invertible structure preserving maps
in endo(C_n)
hence structure preserving 🤷
hint
a to a is one, a to e usually isn't
so right now $Endo(C_n)$ isn't really a group, consider $f \in Endo(C_n), f: a \mapsto e$ \
does $f$ have an inverse?
monoid mean no inverse
I'm asking for the largest subgroup contained in Endo(C_n)
what's an automorphism
invertible endomorphism

hi
ya
uh oh !
not too hard tho
u should look for a secret entrance

thats what I did when I was locked out of the math building
3, 5, 7 are the only powers we lookin' at
I just took that time to search the whole campus for secret entrances
until I found one
prove for all n
then used that to enter instead
x is coprime to y iff x+y is coprime
u can't be givin' me these numbre theory questions
what do u mean x+y is coprime

u need to compare
coprime to y
Otherwise you could pull out a factor n of y
But then u can pull out a factor of n from x
actually we should probably do CRT first
can u do dat @covert vector
finding the structure of the automorphisms may be a bit 2 hard tbh at this point
even for C_p, the literal ezest case
what are you trying to do?
oh yeah, we were just finding normal subgroups as kernels of endomorphisms

so do that guis
algebraically complete p-adics tho

buncho
for $C_n$ are the distinct endos of the form $a \mapsto a^n, n \in n\mathbf Z, 1+n\mathbf Z,...,(n-1) +n\mathbf Z$
do you mean n \in Z?
flimflam:
i'm not sure exactly what you mean by that last part, but I'd just write "a \mapsto a^k for k = 0, ..., n-1"
oh I see
yeah I mean the slick way to write it is "a \mapsto a^k for k in Z/nZ"
yes
there are n endomorphisms of C_n
corresponding to taking a generator
and sending it to wherever you want
was hoping to instantiate how each normal subgroup can be expressed as the kernel of a group morphism, then realized @chilly ocean and @spark plank may not really get kernels, group homomorphisms, normal groups etc so went back to cyclic groups
then got distracted with automorphism groups
veri confuzzled
showing that kernels are the same thing as normal subgroups isn't too hard
which way are you having trouble with?
where did i go wrong @oblique river 
one direction: show directly that the kernel of a homomorphism is normal: Let H = ker f where f: G --> K. Then for any a in G and h in H, aha^(-1) is also in H, because f(aha^(-1)) = f(a)f(h)f(a^(-1)) = f(a) e f(a^(-1)) = f(a*a^(-1)) = e
for the other direction: If N is a normal subgroup then N is the kernel of the canonical map G --> G/N
basically by definition
okay which part of that are you confused on
do you believe that the map G --> G/N is a homomorphism?
@spark plank do u believe this
so just as a general piece of math advice: you should believe that it's a homomorphism before you even check it. Because shit would be fucked up if it weren't a homomorphism
like, G/N is constructed from G. and when you defined G/N as a group (i.e. when you defined the group operation on G/N), you used the group operation on G as an input
if u don't believe it then why haven't you checked it 
so you better get a homomorphism haha
sees many things SA doesn't know what means
@spark plank what don't u get
but yes, just check it: the map f: G --> G/N is defined by f(g) = gN, i.e. send an element g to the left coset gN
what

do you know the definition of homomorphism?
For $H < G, G/H := {aH: a \in G}$
kernels, G/H
flimflam:
I think we are getting distracted @chilly ocean
creamy shits:
So basically set of cosets
And I assume other direction triangle are right cosets
but like those functions had better respect the group structure
Then for $H \leq G: (\forall a \in G) aH = Ha$, we (could) write $H \triangleleft G$, and define multiplication as follows
[
(aH)(bH) = (ab)H
]
Then u should check this makes G/H a group for H a normal subgroup \
(ie G/H has identity, inverses, multiplication)
or else, why are you looking at them lol
a homomorphism is literally just a map that satisfies f(gh) = f(g)f(h)
what it says is that "it doesn't matter if you take the prodcut in the first group or in the second group"
that's all a homomorphism means
okay so if you know what a homomorphism is
then prove that the map G --> G/N is a homomorphism
what?
there is an obvious function
you even said it yourself earlier
just think about it. if you start with an element of G, how could you get an element of G/N?
flimflam:
there is an obvious map
if you take an element of G
let's call it g
you want to produce an element of G/N
i.e. you want to produce a coset of N
(aH)(bH)
what would be a reasonable way to take g and turn it into a coset of N?
tfw ur cosets be multiplied
what does that mean
what?
okay let's try an example
let G = Z and N = 3Z
YES
that's literally all it is
take an element g and send it to the coset gN
tfw u feel like u need actual symbols to differentiate between different multiplication
I was gonna ask you where you thought the element 4 should go under the map Z --> Z/3Z
uhhhh
e.g. $(a\cdot H)\times(b\cdot H)=(ab)\cdot H$
Simple_Art:
yes
you send each element in G
to its own coset
shouldn't you prove that?
uhhh
that doesnt prove it's a homomorphism
to prove it's a homomorphism you need to show that f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
those are literally the same thing
yes
great
see what I meant earlier?
this map is literally a homomorpism basically by definition
like there's nothing to prove
the group operation on G/N was defined in order to make the map G --> G/H a homomorphism
it sounds like you've already proven that the map G --> G/N is surjective
although i'm not erally sure how you did given that you seemed to not even know what the map was until just now
it's surjective again by definition
every element of G/N is some coset of N
let's call that coset gN
then gN = f(g)
so the map is surjective
and finally, the kernel of the map is N by definition
the identity element of G/N is the coset N (or you could write eN if you want)
so the kernel of G --> G/N is the set of all g in G such that gN = eN
but gN = N if and only if g is in N
and now you're done
if u appreciate the help put in the work to understand 
ok gl with that

ye\
You're getting the point though
ker(f) = [e]
Cosets must be of same size
And |ker(f)| divides |G|
So the partition is equal and you can use the representatives to define coset multiplication.
Show it now
,$ gN = {gn : n\in N}
Jichael Mackson:
bearing in mind the N is a subgroup
Does it make sense that some g could send two elements of n to the same element of G - making |gN| < |N|
ye
aH = {ah: h in H}
ye
Couldn't have an ah_1 = ah_2?
Is it something in the axioms?
Axioms of a group
I have h_1 and h_2 in my subgroup
Why can't ah_1 = ah_2 for some a outside the subgroup and h_1 =/= h_2?
Alright then but the idea of a coset as a transformation of an element on subgroup is an idea I want you to hold in your brain
So we agree cosets must be all of the same size
Do you believe that they must also be disjoint
Alright well there's something else we can try
Suppose we have cosets aH and bH
Show that if $aH\cap bH \neq \emptyset$ then $aH=bH$
Jichael Mackson:
Yep
Why not?
Well
What if I had some element
h that was in both aH and bH
That is
if x in aH and y in bH
then ax = h = by
Oof
Hol up
x,y in H
ax = h = by
That the cosets aren't disjoint
(((try multiplying by an inverse)))
Inverses are unique
ax = h = by
axh^-1 = e = byh^-1
So ax = by
So if there is an intersection - all members of the two cosets are identical
So either they're disjoint or the same coset
Kewl
Cosets are the same size, cosets are disjoint.
So do cosets cover the group?
Ie. for each element of G is there a coset that it belongs to?
Why?
gH = {gh : h in H}
H is a subgroup.
How can I guarantee that every g has a home in a coset of H?
Awesome
So now with these three pieces of info
- Cosets are the same size
- Cosets are disjoint
- Cosets cover a group
Prove Lagrange's theorem
Well number of elements of all cosets = |G| right
Because cosets cover the group
The cosets must all be the same size |H|
The cosets are disjoint so you can count how any elements are in 3 cosets because its 3|H|
So |G| = n|H|
Nooo problems?
With that proof of Lagrange theorem?
No there isn't
I'm wondering if there's something about it that you don't understand or like
I find my informal one gets me by
But ye das Lagrange
We notice the same thing for right cosets
etc.
Idk what you were doing in your wall of text up there
Trying to show that Ker(f) is always a normal subgroup?
Proved G/Ker(f) = Im(f)?
Probably should hit the hay
Let it sink into your brain pan
That's me in 10
All the info magic happens in your sleep
I'm convinced
Nah dude
That's where you crystallize that memory

Wdym "wym" 
@chilly ocean weren't you done with abstract algebra?
Yaaay 😄
it's hard to remember everything when you stop practicing for a while
So what I did is that I designed a projection application in the E = R³ space, projecting on F = Vect [(-4,0,1),(2,2,2)] opposed to G = Vect [(1,0,0)]
intéressant
Français ?
Yup 🥖
Incroyable
🥖
Je suis francophone oui, mais pas de France
(c'est Vect qui t'a trahi)
Ah on dit comment en anglais ?
span
Je ne savais pas
moi non plus avant de venir ici xd
XD
En gros, je me suis amusé à me faire des exercices pratiques
Pour repratiquer
Et retrouver la théorie
J'ai aussi refait des exos de diagonalisation
C'était ma partie préférée des mathématiques de prépa, l'algèbre linéaire
ewww, l'alg lin... Quelle horreur
oh, u wanna do varieties?
Wtf is a variety?
I hear that all the time and I don't get it 
You haven't done ring theory yet. You'll like it soon
@stone fulcrum Variety has many meanings. At least, algebraic varieties are just zeroes of polynomial systems
It is what I meant
And I would argue it's easier, since it uses a lot of ideas group theory already put in your head
There's a quotient of rings, it's easier than the quotient on groups
field stuff 🤢
@raven widget
Thx for the info. I'm not at algebraic geometry yet
K^^
And then there's fields, which is like two groups squished together
Two groups, one has +, one has ×
× distributes over +
For fields
Oh, and everything is commutative
field is a set where you have PEMDAS
or BEDMAS
or whatever order of operations acronym you learned
yes
Indeed, you've been working with fields for your mathematical career. You'll find them natural
inverse is what division is
everything commutes
and u can use brackets and distribute stuff
it works as you'd expect
that's what fields are
yes
yes
then you can think real hard and try to generate perhaps less obvious examples
integers modulo a prime number form a field
Rings are more interesting.
- is an abelian group
× is closed and associative
× distributes over +
× don't have inverses! So you can't divide in a ring. The integers are a ring, for example.
no
quotient groups have only 1 operation
if you look at multiplication of Nonzero numbers in the field
everything is invertible and associative
so that forms a group
and everything including zero wrt addition is invertible and associative, so that forms a group
it's more natural to go from a field to looking at those two operations as groups
than to go from two groups to a field
(in my opinion)
what I'm saying is that you probably shouldn't think of fields as two groups working together in a nice way
makes things less intuitive
youve been doing multiplication and addition on rationals and reals your whole life, much more experienced
fields are 0D rings.
(that is the "reason" why module theory is so much easier over fields than over general rings!)
equivalently it's because the theory of fiber bundles over discrete topological spaces is easier than over nondiscrete spaces
almost tautologically
Fields are 0D rings.
Wat that mean?
literally not important
I'm studying commutative algebra so if there's anything helpful for me there, let me know!
rings can be given a geometric incarnation like in algebraic geometry
Oh no not algebraic geometry 
so you can say "Spec R" for any ring, which will be a topological space whose space of functions is given by R
yeah, ikr
anyway, for fields k, Spec k contain a single point
so they're 0D
I'll have to look into that
it's also sorta wrong though
i mean, people who say that fields are 0D rings
here's a 5 minute primer to algebraic geometry:
Finally
there's a philosophical duality in mathematics between "spaces of functions" and "geometry"
when you think geometry, what do you think of?
topological spaces + structure that might make you measure things
or some other shit
if you were like, a 10 year old
someone drew a circle on the board and you were like, fuck yea, circles and shapes and shit
Sounds like me
and then 5-7 years later, in high school someone wrote down x^2 + y^2 = 1
and you were like, fuck yea, circles and shapes and shit
but those two things are so philosophically different
one was a "function" of sorts, and another a geometric object
some smart piece of shit a few hundred years ago named Descartes made that up-- the cartesian plane was a way to unify these fields of "algebra" and "geometry" together
okay, fast forward a few hundred years, and now we get to philosophize some more
He sounds like a pretty lit guy
see, suppose someone gave you a few smooth manifolds
you might want to figure out what smooth functions exist on said manifolds
right?
Not skilled in differential geometry yet, when might a smooth function not exist on a smooth manifold?
if you played with this long enough, you realize that you could distinguish these manifolds pretty much exactly by what functions existed on it
(there always will be)
But okay, knowing which functions fit is enough to determine manifold, I'll take your word for it
and it turns out that in many situations, people started realizing that the geometry of the manifold could be determined completely by what kind of functions exist on it
(note note: the space of functions on a <insert adjective> manifold is a RING)
this is a sort of philosophical thing that turns out to be really useful-- you can study a geometric object not by staring at the object, but by studying it's FUNCTIONS
just like how in representation theory, you study a group by how it acts on stuff
here you study spaces by which functions live on it
so it became a thing to study these ALGEBRAIC RINGS OF FUNCTIONS as actual geometric objects in their own right
as a sort of mirror to geometry
this is effectively what algebraic geometry aims to do
Okay cool, so knowing functions is knowing manifolds
right
so things you can do with manifolds and geometry, you can try to do in algebra
for example, you could try to take the cohomology of a ring and play with that
then you find that when people say "fields are 0D", it's because they probably haven't heard of etale cohomology yet
Ultimately, things that can happen on rings, correspond to things that happen on manifolds
pretty much
Cool. I can't wait until I have anywhere near the mathematical maturity to even read this stuff
what's a >0D field ooc
dimension of a ring just means length of a sequence of prime ideals ordered by inclusion @stone fulcrum, and since fields (typically) only have one nontrivial proper ideal {0}, it's said to be of krull dimension 0
idk etale coho
idk any other dim used for rings tho
there are a bunch of random ones in arithmetic geometry
krull dim is pretty general, but people in arithmetic geometry might be more interested in, say, etale cohomological dimension or motivic homotopical dimension, etc.
but yes, you're right that I probably should have just said krull dim
danke schon
are you gonna explain etale coho & motives to us at some point
Ayy welcome @long beacon! Now I have yet another person I can piss off with my random algebra questions
if there's a set of 3 objects, then why does that imply an infinite amount of sets?
3 + 3 = 2 3's = Ɛ3 = 8 = ∞
@solar wyvern if you want :3
Is there an irreducible polynomial in Z_2[x] with exactly four nonzero terms?
trying to understand what does it mean by non-zero terms...
isn't there only 1 in this case since Z_2[x]={0,1}?
why would there be 4?
I am so confused
Remember that Z2[x] are all polynomials with coefficients in Z2
ah
yea i can figure out if things are reducible or not
4 non zero terms
does that just mean x^4+x^3+x^2+x
some sort in that form
with coefficients?
Note your only non-zero coefficient is 1
@stone fulcrum u can brute force to check for low degree stuff like that
but there are various rules for reducibility
Yus. There is no root in Z2 so it's irreducible

Note that in Z2
x² = x
yeah
that'd make this question not too bad
I think you're right
x⁴ + x³ + x + 1
Is 4 non-zero coefficients
the zero polynomial is \sum \alpha_k X^k but all the alphas are 0
Checking for irreducibility for polynomials that large is more difficult though
there are methods especially for specific forms
in this case
Actually is
x³ + x² + x + 1
Reducible?
Yes, because x = 1 is a root
Provide factor
4 nonzero terms is impossible
since your only options are 0 or 1
and 4 terms guarantees one of the brute force attempt to be 4 "1"s
so then 4 = 0 in Z_2
hence impossible
with 4 nonzero terms
so what can u say about red/irred polynomials in F_2[x]
I suppose that's true. There's no irreducible members of Z2[x] with four terms

is it?
lemme check ..
F2 is a field F2[x] is a ring
Wat
I know it's a ring
x^4+x^3+x^2+x
but I am not sure if it's a field
u should check for urself then, and not listen to these 2

u know various things about which rings are fields I hope
like what's reducible, what's unit, what's irreducible
I'm assuming you know units are invertible elements
Is F2 not the same as Z2?
@daring wolf what are you defining F_p as?
Nobody was using the term F2
i am confused now XD
I did
F_p is Z_p?
so you can actually show there's a field with q=p^n elements unique up to iso
that's wrong.
n belongs to Natural numbers
on multiple levels 
o.o
so you're saying Z_9 is a field?
that is Z/9Z?
this should be a pretty quick verification
use words
o.o
what's the characteristic of Z/9Z
sorry don't understand what it means by characteristic ><
man I have too many knowledge gaps lel
number of times you add 1 before u get 0
it's only for 1 in your unital ring, but that's the idea
can a field have nonprime (or nonzero) characteristic?
no...?
why not
Yus, a field will have no zero divisisors because every element has an inverse.
Element is invertible ⇔ Element is not a zero divisor
Nop
Z_p for a prime p IS a field though
You can also construct a field of 9 elements, but it's not Z9
Also useful, finite fields are unique. There's only one field of n elements
F121 is a field extension of Z11
Do you know how quotienting by an ideal works?
You'll want to get there first, then making those fields will be easy to understand
huh - quick question:
G group, H and K subgroups of G, in particular H normal subgroup of K. For any given subgroup L
Must show H ∩ L ⊳ K ∩ L
what's K o.o
fixed!
I've done some work but I can only show, through the normality definition xH ∩ Lx^-1, where x is an element of K ∩ L
that from xH ∩ Lx^-1 I can conclude an element of H is in H
but I must have it in L as well
it falls apart when I use the H ⊳K hypothesis
because for g in H and k in K, the substitution kg = g' k doesn't guarantee the element g' should be in L anymore
you only have to conjugate by an element of H intersect L
everything in sight lives in L
maybe I'm confused by the question: If h in H cap L and k in K cap L, you want to show that hkh^(-1) in K cap L
it's in K because K is normal in H
it's in L because everything is in L
h and k are both in L, so hkh^(-1) is, too
ok I'll try and write down what I did
we want to prove xHx^-1 ∈ H ∩ L, where x ∈ K ∩ L
uh you have that triangle backward I think
ah it's possible, sorry
what you wrote means "the right is normal in the left"
but in any case, that's still not what you want to prove
it's precisely the opposite
(but btw if you look at my solution, I'm doing what you wrote with the arrow in the other direction)
I want to prove H ∩ L is normal in K ∩ L
write down what that means
I suppose that, for any x in K ∩ L, then
xgx^-1 ∈ H ∩ L, where x ∈ K ∩ L, for g ∈ H ∩ L
@stone fulcrum to find total number of generators in F_121 defined by a quadratic that belongs to Z_11 we have to calculate phi(121-1)?
is that right?
no, you have something backward
to say A is normal in B means that bab^(-1) is in A for all a in A and b in B
wait
nvm sorry I had it backward that time :)
yes that is correct :)
yes
what I did next was use the H normal in K hypothesis, to say xg = g'x
and so g'xx^-1 = g' which is an element of H
but not necessarily of L
but why would g' be?
xgx^(-1) = g'
yes, I can see that...but it feels so wrong
I don't think I could argue g' is in L too
normality means "you can conjugate by something and it stays in the subgroup"
sure
you don't even need to give that "something" a name
what do you mean? g' is literally equal to xgx^(-1)
but couldn't this g' element be one in K but outside of L?
which you already told me (correctly) was in L
argh
I want to feel this is true but I feel there's something missing in the proof
no
even though I totally see your point
ther'es nothing missing
g' = xgx^-1 makes it very clear
but I feel like it is a leap of faith or something.
what?
you literally just multiplied by x^(-1)
which is totally valid in a group
maybe don't give g' a name
here is how I would write it:
Let x in K cap L and g in H cap L. We want to show that xgx^(-1) is in H cap L. This means we need to show that xgx^(-1) is in H and in L.
Step 1: showing it is in H. Since x in K and g in H, and since H is normal in K, we know that xgx^(-1) is in H. [[This is the definition of normal subgroups]]
Step 2: showing it is in L: Both x and g are in L, so x^(-1) is also in L, and thus xgx^(-1) is in L.
ok I thought about that too
but I still found it a little problematic
but the glyph you use to represent it doesn't change the fact that it's equal to xgx^(-1) which is in both K and L
sure
I guess I can live with that lol
but I thought that doing that in two steps would not imply necessarily they would be the same element
but oh well. I think I get your point
thanks so much, this was bugging me a lot
what?
xgx^(-1) is equal to xgx^(-1)
it doesn't matter if you wrote one of them 3 minutes after the other one
they are the same element
yes, but in the way I was doing it they would not be
no
they are the same
it's not about "how you do it"
it doesn't matter if at first you write "xgx^(-1) = g' " and then a minute later you write "xgx^(-1) = 🍌 "
then g' = 🍌
they are the same
so whatever you know about one
you knwo about the other
sorry I'm going on abotu this
I'm just concerned that you don't get how groups work
since you were worried about multiplying by x^(-1) lol
if you have more questions, feel free to ask
nah, i'm good in that part
that multiplication was never a problem
idk. bit tired
Is a field defined by a quadratic equation that belongs to Z_p
Same as a quadratic field 0.0?
np, glad it's all sorted out
Or am I confused
uhh depending on the context, "quadratic field" could mean different things
but yes what you said sounds right, as long as that polynomial is irreducible
Yea I am needing to find the number of generators in it
And it’s abnormally large
It’s F_121
Do I just go about it with the phi function
you want the number of generators of F_121 as a field?
No, the phi function is about cyclic groups Z/nZ
F_121 is not the same as Z/121Z
That’s defined by a quadratic function that belongs to Z_11
here is the easiest way to count it:
pick an element of F_121. It generates some subfield of F_121. The only subfields of F_121 are itself and F_11
so if you pick 11 elements, you'll get F_11
and the other 121-11 must generate all of F_121
(well I guess technically, 10 of those elements generate F_11 and the 11th element is 0 which doesn't generate anything other than itself)


