#groups-rings-fields
406252 messages · Page 421 of 407
so this maybe sorta dumb, but have you ever worked with anything where your ideals are (order theoretic) ideals as well, and it actually matters?
(sry i'll get back to you in like 10min)
so
i dont know what an order theoretic ideal is
which I guess means the answer is no haha
they're dual to filters
uhhh
dont remember that either haha
yeah i don't engage with set theory in that way ever
nonempty directed and downwards closed
yeah didn't think it'd be that common lol
apparently there are like boolean rings (where the two ideal notions coincide I think?)
the thing is, most people doing number theory really don't care about orders
and like our rings aren't ordered
which makes things an issue
if you wanna talk about order theoretic ideals
TIL number theorists have their own rings
what do you mean?
nothing just joking
oh lol my b haha
(whats your favorite ring/what's a neat ring u work over)
hmmm
I feel like my rings tend to come in two flavors. there's rings of integers of number fields, like Z[i], Z[zeta] where zeta is some root of unity, things like that, along with their local versions, like the p-adic integers and its extensions
and rings related to representations and group theory, things like Z[G] where G is some finite (usually abelian) group
or F_p[G]
I spent a long time trying to understand the ring F_p[Z/pZ x Z/pZ] which is honestly an absolutely disgusting ring hahaha
it's a finite ring but it's module theory is just nasty
Idk if I can pick a single favorite ring tho
it would probably be something like Z[i] just because the arithmetic of Z[i] was what first got me into number theory
I find it interesting that things that are all rings can still feel so different. like I really don't think of Z[zeta] and Z[G] in the same way even though they're both rings that are admittedly not too dissimilar from each other. If G = Z/pZ and zeta is a pth root of unity, if you tensor with the rationals, you get Q(zeta) and Q[G], which decomposes as a product of rings into Q(zeta) and Q
but the fact that you don't have such a decomposition integrally is very interesting and a pretty important fact!
do you have a favorite ring? @solar wyvern
by Z/pZ do you mean like as a group, that is C_p?
yeah
sorry sometimes I conflate the ring and the underlying additive group
but some people use the convention that C_p is the group and Z/pZ is the ring
i get confuse easily so I use separate notation for the group and ring/field
also easier to write than like (Z/pZ)^\ast
hmmm
yeah
for me, I kinda just write Z/pZ for it, and if I need to specify or emphasize that it's a field, I would write F_p
monoid/group rings seem interesting, it's a little surprising at surface level how little is known about them
yeah
was interested in seeing what rings you could get as endomorphisms/automorphisms of (finite) groups
actually someone linked me a paper on the basic stuff which I should look at 
I think that's known?
or maybe not
I think "automorphisms of p groups" are vaguely understood
for stuff like Aut(C_p \times C_q) p,q coprime primes
i think those are ez actually
oh, that's just Aut(Cp) x Aut(Cq)
yeah 😄
basically cuz they're coprime and commute they can't interact with each other in any way
if it's like a semidirect product might not be as obvious?
yeah
or if not coprime
although I think stuff might be known for like Aut(C_p x C_p) like you mentioned earlier?
automorphisms of Cp as a group are gonna end up being the same as automorphisms of Fp as a ring
wait no that's literally dumb
let me try again:
automorphisms of Cp as a group are gonna end up being the same as automorphisms of Fp as a 1-dim vector space over itself
there :)
in the same way that "abelian groups are Z-modules", "abelian groups of prime exponent are Fp-modules" is true
I'm still fairly new to the sheaf game but trying to understand stuff like ring of smooth functions on a open set
so in that case you can just use what linear algebra you know
here is my favorite weird automorphism fact:
Aut(S_n) = S_n... unless...
2,6
n = 2, which is obvious because Aut(S2) = Aut(C2) = 1
or 6
because of reasons
:(
u got me
6 is more interesting tho
so basically you have the automorphisms you expect from a regular S_n
and then one more
yeah
yeah, that's a neat one
oh
there's an automorphism tower thm which I glanced over in rotman but didn't prove/read proof
like, automorphism tower as in Aut(Aut(Aut(...(G))))
it always stabilizes
transfinitely at least
If you define "stabilizes" in the right way, then D_8 is an example of a group that doesn't stabilize until the omega+1 step
oh yeah
Wielandt proved, for every finite centerless group G, that this tower is constant from some point on. Since the last term of an automorphism tower is a complete group, it follows that every finite centerless group can be imbedded is a complete group.
so maybe not "a lot of the time" lol, but for this in finite steps
what do you mean?
it always stabilizes transfinitely but i'm not sure if it's expected to actually happen finitely
often
that's why I amended my statement
since there are groups which are not finite or centerless

haha yes
it's not obvious that it'd terminate finitely even in that case tho right?
uhhh, not sure
are the endo/autos of a top group a topological ring--is that a thing?
if X and Y are topological spaces then you can always put a topology on C(X,Y)
so that should work for topological groups
you'd probably use the compact-open topology
guess you could probably ask similar q about algebraic groups
(of which I know nothing of)
if endos of an algebraic group was an algebraic group?
I'm not sure about that one
@bleak abyss
Fam why do you always ping me?
I'm kinda busy
Also lol Bananas is far more likely to know about this than me
maybe I was a bit ambiguous
when I said "I'm not sure about that" I didnt mean it like "I don't know", it was more of a "yeah I dont think that's gonna be true"
like I just don't know really any interesting nontrivial instances where homs between varieties is still a variety
convolution product is
$$(f \ast g)(x) := \int_{\mathbf R} f(x-y)g(y)dy$$
or (according to lang) for $G$ a locally compact (abelian?) group with haar measure $\mu$
$$(f \ast g)(x) := \int_{G} f(xy^{-1})g(y)d{\mu}(y)$$
@gentle pendant
flimflam:
i replied as soon as i saw ur message
Am well aware of what a convolution is lol, just you were talking about smooth functions be invertible w.r.t it. How can you expect this to make sense given that there is no smooth identity for this operation? (Dirac delta is the identity if you expand your space to distributions).
oh darn 😦
Talk about the identity before you talk about invertibility.
umm, so you can have identity if you expand to distributions?
but not over like L^1 or something?
tbh still not entirely sure what convolution does
Yes but then it gets subtle to make sense of what convolving means when you are working with distributions. For which pairs of distributions can we take their convolution? Etc, such questions require some work.
are they questions worth asking at some point tho
There are explanations on stackexchange with pretty pictures. When you are working with functions you can think of it as a weighted average.
Depends on what you want to do.
also do you need your locally compact group to be abelian here? I'd imagine so but lang doesn't explicitly mention
Do you need abelian-ness for what?
I don't see why. What part of the definition do you think does not make sense for things that are not abelian?
🤷
Then try to figure out for yourself what properties you would lose if you make this definition for non-abelian G.
not sure if being tricked into doing analysis 
The definition itself in no way depends on G being abelian.
I mean don't do it if you aren't interested in the answer, but since you asked me I figured you were.
i will check it out
I just get the sense that your "answering your own questions" / "asking further questions" ratio is lower than it should be.
have to build these things up otherwise yeah its natural that you will be groping in the dark with the higher concepts.
1.10 or 1.4 ?
ok thx
What?
wdy mean
Do you need help for problem 1.10 or problem 1.4?
1.4
For 1.4 you just need to check the axioms of a field
oh
skew field = field except multiplication not necessarily commutative
The most difficult is probably proving existence of multiplicative inverses, but iI don't think it's very difficult
You'll have to solve a system of 4 equations
the inverse is just the conjugate divided by norm squared
that is,
$(a+(bi+cj+dk))^{-1} = \frac{a-(bi+cj+dk)}{a^2+b^2+c^2+d^2}$
woog:
wait does this work? 🤔
something like that
a²-(bi+cj+dk)²
= a²+b²+c²+d² - (bcij+bdik+cbji+cdjk+dbki+dckj)
= a²+b²+c²+d² - bc(ij+ji) - bd(ik+ki) - cd(jk+kj)
= a²+b²+c²+d²
so yeah that's the inverse
@spark plank did u have any group questions tho
the i,j,k's above form quaternion group
Is the center of SL(3, R) {E} or {-E, E}
Because i wrote E and I'm worried af rn
One such little mistake and I ain't getting the excellent mark
Or they ask me a question about factor groups and I fail
what a kewl kid
{±E}
I have a few questions about Corollary 1.9 if anyone could help out
- Why does it follow that m is contained in m_p?
- Why is this correspondence 1-1? It seems like picking any point in Z(m) gives the same maximal ideal?
eisenbuddy
ye
m_p:= (x_1-a_1,...,x_n-a_n)/m (a_1,...,a_n) in Z(m)
Show that m is in m_p, m being maximal of A^n
what's A(X)
Algebraic set of X
ie. hol' up
Let me get my eisenbuddy
Right
Sorry
Coordinate ring
A(X) = k[x_1,...,x_n]/I(X)
Where k is field
Still fighting learning commutative algebra. How'd you learn Jicheal?
I(X) = set of all polynomials in k[x...] that have all X as roots
So a polynomial in I(X) must have every x in X as a root
This is why algebraic geometry is heck
@stone fulcrum I didn't kek, bouncing between Eisenbud and the CRing project
Hmm. Good luck, I'm still looking at modules
So in this case - they've decided to just mke A(X) the affine n-space over k
Or just direct product of n set of k's
So what I think Eisenbuddy et. al is trying to communicate is that you'll get a quotient ring: (x_1-a_1,...,x_n-a_n)/m and you can show that m is in this quotient.
And since maximal contained in non-maximal => non-maximal is maximal, they must be equal.
But the former step is what I'm struggling with.
Right, I get why once we have m contained in m_p they must be equal, but this containment is not clear to me
I've tried considering the homogeneous components and proceeding by induction on the degree of f (for f in m), but i couldn't work it out
So I boiled down the following:
- k[x.]/m_p = k (from pretext)
- m_p_2 = m_p/I(X) (from Corr. 1.9)
- A(X) = k[x.]/I(X) (from defn. of coordinate ring)
Applying third isomorphism theorem we get:
A(X)/m_p_2 ~= k[x.]/m_p = k
So since both are isomorphic to a field, m_p_2 must be maximal in A(X).
@cedar gate
Not quite the containment - but it demonstrates the property.
x. = x1,...,xn
The one-to-one correspondance arises from the bijection.
Good. Exercise. Thanks.
yes.
both what
you didn't say a second thing
oh
yes
it's normal
it's a pretty easy to follow proof, I can give it right now if you want
ok
let f:G→H be a group homomorphism
which means for any x,y in G, f(xy)=f(x)f(y)
let ker(f) = {x \in G | f(x) = 1}
where 1 is the identity element
now suppose f(x) = 1
now take any other element g in G,
let's conjugate x by it, and see what we get
if that's also in ker(f), then ker(f) is normal
that's by definition
yeah let's use something like g' to make it smaller
g' = g^-1
and f(g') = f(g)'
inverse of f(g)
yes
yes
so g'xg is in ker(f)
for any x in ker(f), for any g in G
what
if I say extra stuff that seems confusing, then ignore it
np
You can kind of see it had to be normal because the 1st isomorphism theorem is quotient group of G and ker(f) and you need normality for quotienting in the first place
well, you learn about kernels before you learn about isomorphism theorems
@chilly ocean I wonder if group homos have some property about certain things always being in the kernel 
no, just a basic property
can the kernel ever be empty?
@chilly ocean
the kernel is things which map to id
Try having empty kernel: see what do. O no das no grup, proof by contrapterodactyl 
t!wiki group homomorphism
If the id of the original group is not in the kernel then you generally lose the structure.
You can try substituting id for something else and see what happens
Well yeah. As a direct consequence of the definition of a homorphism
Homomomomorphism
Monomorphism just means an injective homo
😏
So yeah
Not every homomorphism is injective
What was your question again?
Show the kernel is a singleton?
oh this one is a classic I believe
G and H are groups I presume?
I don't really get what you've done tbh
Are you trying to show it's an isomorphism?
This homo that you are trying to leave kerneless?
Trying to show if it be a singleton
To show P iff Q
you usually show that if P then Q
and if Q then P
one of them is ez
Wow that's a large meal
@chilly ocean
Monomorphism just means an injective homo
imagine restricting yourself to Set
For all intents and purposes
I live in a world constructed by sets
What else can you really do?
Play with topoi?
ie. set substitutes
We talking about iii) above?
injective boi
Think injective
1-2-1
1 identity
maps 2
1 identity
f(e) = f(e)
Correct?
A monomorphism is an injective homomorphism. If the kernel had more than one element in it, then there are multiple that map to the identity, flying in the face of everything that injectivity stood for
Injectivity served for us, damnit. How could we?!
ie by the definition of injective, there's only one element in the kernel
We've done
one-ident => singleton kernel
Now we do
singleton kernel => one-ident
We take the ident
We map it with a monomorphism
This makes kernel a singleton
Because its injective
So
one-ident w/ monomorphism => singleton kernel
singleton kernel w/ monomorphism => kernel = one-ident
seriously tho, mono usually reserved for left-cancellative maps, just use injective/1-1
so what's that say about your kernel @chilly ocean
and the quotient group when you quotient by such a kernel

I don't know what you mean by the x = eg part. Where in the proof is that?
At the end
They show that if the kernel is a singleton
Then it must contained the identity element
Why is the proof split into a, b, c that's dum
@solar wyvern Pls define these things before confusing yes with them
Oh that's three different proofs?
x = eg proves that the identity is in the kernel
Wait no. We assumed x was ANY element in the kernel, then proved x = eg
Ergo, the kernel is only eg
f is mono, or left-cancellative if f(g(x)) = f(h(x)) for all g,h
f is injective, or 1-1, if for each y in im(f) there exists a unique x such that f(x)=y
the first doesn't use elements, while the second doesn't use other functions
anyways what happen when you quotient by one element group @chilly ocean

g,h being homomorphisms?
g,h being homomorphisms
umm so then use your 1st iso stuff
which says you have a decomposition of a morphism into surjective, iso and inj maps resp
but your surjective map also iso since it dun do nuthin
then what's iso, iso, inj give you?
it rhythms with injection

show G to G/ker(f) a surjective map
and im(f) to H injective
Can we just construct the quotient of a group over a singleton
And be done with this
bad teacher.
He assumed it was a monomorphism
Heh
Bijective = Injective + Surjective correct?
Cool
The point is - the assume it is a monomorphism
@spark plank should be there, help @chilly ocean 4me
Show it is surjective to show it is an isomorphism
At this stage
Literally showing G/{e} = G
Recall that
,$ \dfrac{G}{\text{Ker}(\varphi)} = \text{Im}(\varphi)
Jichael Mackson:
So if |Ker(phi)| = 1
Ker(phi) can only be one thing
Construct like you've been taught
Alright then
Is {e} a normal subgroup?
Yep
So now
Let's find cosets of {e}
What are they gonna be?
Ye
So we're going to have an equivalence class for each element in G right?
Cool.
And the structure is the same because it inherits the operation right?
If ab=c in the group
Then a{e}b{e} = c{e} in the quotient group
Alright then
So without throwing around any terms like injective or surjective
We can see this is already isomorphic to the original group
Literally just map each a -> a{e}
You can check it's homomorphic
And then you can check its bijective
It should be abundantly clear that its atleast injective
also group ops same 2
I mean, an isomorphism is best thought of as just "relabelling elements in a set"
How is a -> a{e} not injective?
We've removed nothing tho
The cosets of {e} are literally just all the group elements g times {e}
The quotient group of G quotiented by {e}
Is the group of cosets of {e} in G
So when you take the quotient group you can just think of it is as "relabelling" each g in G with g{e}
Ie. the cosets
The relabelling is the isomorphism
You only have 1 representative
That's the point
Well
Try it out
What do you get?
Heh
Have you ever looked at the more general idea of quotient sets?
Yes
Well no
Hold up
So I have a set S
And I then I define an equivalece relationship
~
Nop nop
So two elements in my set
Are related by an equivalence relationship
So a ~ a is true of the relation for any object in my set
If a ~ b then b ~ a
And if a~b and b~c then a~c
So over integers we'll define a relation to be
x-y is even
So a ~ b if a-b is even
So we check point 1:
a ~ a, well a-a = 0 and 0 is even (yes it's even, go check)
a ~ b => a-b is even, does this mean that b-a is even so b~a?
Yes, yes it does.
a ~ b => a-b is even, b ~ c => b-c is even
So does this mean that a-c is even?
You bet your ass it does.
So a ~ c
So this "relation" is an equivalence relation
x,y are related
If
x - y is even
a is related to 0
If a-0 is even
Am I making sense?
The relation is
x and y are related
if x-y is even
The squiggle
~
Is a shorthand for "is related to"
It is also the relation itself
We'll see shortly when we get onto quotient sets
Alright
Your relation is just this property
x and y are related if x-y is even
Das it
So now
If we take the integers
We can build an "equivalence class"
{x in Z : x ~ 0}
What will be in the equivalence class?
Right
Which will be
In this particular example
x~y if x-y=2n
Just means even my guy
2 is even
2 is not a multiple of 4
So I write 2n
Instead of 4n
So yeahh
Original question
{x in Z : x ~ 0}
Is what
What x
Are related to 0
x-0 must be even
For x ~ 0
No tricks - this hammers out what we really mean by quotients in set-based objects
So
For what x in Z is x-0 even?
~ is shorthand for "is related to"
It provides a rule to define a relation
Don't be so unconfident (?) in yourself
But yeah, you got it right
It is the even numbers
Since an even number - 0 is even

Then they're not related
x is related y if x-y is even
That is my relation
So
If I make a set
{x in Z : x is related to 0}
Then x is related to 0 if x-0 is even
By the relation ~
It provides a rule to tell you if something is related
x~y := True if x-y is even
x~y := False if x-y is not even
{x in Z: x~0 = True}
Does this clear things up?
I just defined it
It is True when x-y is even
It is False when x-y is not even
Well let's try it
Give me two numbers
Alright
4~3?
Well
4-3 = 1
1 is not even
So
4~3 = False
IF x-y is even
This is the key
You compute x-y
If it is even
Then our output is True
It is False otherwise
for groups x~y iff xy^{-1} in your normal subgroup
actually for abelian groups it is 
Can you see the difference between
~
and
x ~ y
IF
x
y
is even
Yes
I have stated it 10 times
You might be getting confused
tbh ~-look similar on my phone too
Because I tried to run you through the properties of an equivalence relationship quickly
Alright alright alright
New notation for relation
x R y
Better?
Okay
{x in Z : x R 0}
x R 0, iff x - y is even
It makes sense this would be the even numbers?
Alright
Let's iterate over the naturals then
{x in Z : x R 1}
etc.
Okay
Let's kick it up a notch
{{x in Z : x R a} for all a in Z}
Okay
So what's the cardinality of the set?
How many elements are there in my jumbo set?
Remember that sets in sets are just elements
Ye
Okay
You just made quotient set
Congrats
No no no
Quotient set
Not quotient group
Different animal
Different color
The equivalence classes are elements of the quotient set
The quotient set is constructed in the manner above - find all elements that are related to a given element in our set and making unique equivalence classes.
In our case
We call this Z/R
R being the relation
Z/~
If we stuck to the original thingy migigger
set*
Quotient set
It's important
You can take a quotient of a group and not get a group back
That's why all the weird extra conditions
To stop you newbs breaking math
Well yeah, the equivalence relation has to define cosets of a normal subgroup
Mmm
The set getting quotiented must be a group
The equivalence relation must be bunching together a normal subgroup and its cosets
The reason for this is that the nice relationship between the original group operation and the coset multiplication doesn't hold otherwise
You can try breaking this if you want
Eyup
Which is why we do away with quotient sets altogether
And just say "break it up into equal size cosets"
In defining a quotient group
They are
I fudged
So ye
With this in mind
So let's try a concrete example.

Cyclic group of order 8, quotiented by equivalence relation x R y are related if m^2x = n^2y
Well just that m^2x = n^2y for some m and n in G
G/R we're finding this
Then we'll find this G/N
Okay
Remember this is addition
What you're doing here
Ah you're getting confused
I should've written it in abelian form
My goof, my goof
z^0 = 0 correct?
Right
Let's keep this simple
Addition mod 8
The relationship stated in addition
x R y if 2m+x = 2n+y
Alright
So of these
Which is the set of a normal subgroup?
Alright then.
So now C8/[0]
What's up?
?
We attach the original operator to [0] my guy
({0,2,4,6}, +)
Quickly define some coset addition
a+[b] = {a+b,a+c,...,a+d}
= [a+b]
And now we can take the quotient group
[0] in C8/R
Nah
{x in C8 : x R 0}
Remember?
x R y iff 2m+x=2n+y
nah
Cuz
2m + x = 2n + 0
x = 2(n-m)
n-m can be anything
So
[0] = {0,2,4,6}
Cuz
0 R 2, 0 R 4, 0 R 6 and 0 R 0
Does though
in this case
These are all elements of the for 2m
Which must have even order
O
ye
ayy lmao
even elements
You read the relationship right
I goofed on the definition of order
Heh
x R y iff 2m+x = 2n+y
for some m, n in C8
Stick to the relation defined
Eyup
So now
Let's have it so that
x R y iff 2c+x = y+2c
Retract that
I'm going to get a glass of water
Math stoomina is running low
The basic idea is to show that these equivalence relations define normality on the cosets.
Once you've done that - the quotient multiplication/addition works and the quotient group is formed.
The quotient set can be taken at any point
But only equivalence relations which define normality on the cosets can make groups out of their cosets
The ease of use to quotient group notation
Is to leverage lagrange theorem and normality
And let that spit out cosets which form a nice quotient group.
Because once you know the normal subgroup - you pretty much have the corresponding quotient group itching to be defined.
Equivalence relation is normality, normality requires subgroups, subgroup's cosets divide the group evenly, these equivalence relations then can be moved between by chosing a representative constructive the quotient group and using the usual group operator
Answer flimflam's question for best insight tbh
show that for subgroup H in G that aH~bH is an equivalence relation on left cosets of G by H
Then similarly show for right cosets
Basically show
aH = aH
aH = bH => bH = aH
aH = bH and bH = cH => aH = cH
And repet for right cosets
@chilly ocean so this only nets you a quotient set on your cosets {aH: a \in G}, not a quotient group
yeah, equivalence of cosets
I guess it's not quite obvious why you'd want to endow your quotient set with group structure tho
um
how would you define the group operation on your cosets
yes
since you just showed there's an equivalence relation, i.e., the cosets partition the group even if H isn't normal
that's the part u need to show :<
so you know aH = {ah:h \in H} right
so say you have two cosets aH, bH not necessarily equal or anything, and you want to consider all the ahbh', where h,h' in H
if H is normal is there anything sneaky u can do
(this isn't difficult, but it's not obvious either)
be a bit more explicit?
and what coset is that in 

okay
now let's say you wanted to do this with aH, a⁻¹H
and eH=H, aH
sorta see where I'm going with this?
if H is normal you can define (aH)(bH) = (ab)H
and this gives you a group structure on the cosets of G over H which we write G/H
so here's the cool part
we have a way of getting normal subgroups right?
hint: group homomorphisms
(you can and should show that each normal subgroup arises as the kernel of some group hom)
(now even)
you can look at it that way
(once you show that each normal subgroup is in fact the kernel of some group morphism)
tbh I'm not sure
did ur prof mention universal props or some shit before teaching 1st iso thm

i feel bad for their students
saying a map is canonical without showing it's canonical 
really makes this cat think
...is it possible you're actually doing comparatively well in your class
O:
gj
i mean like some of your assigned problems are fairly sophisticated, so idk
yeah for this sorta stuff sometimes it's better to assume students know literally nothing
rip
brb seeing if chalk arrived
it arrive!
Hi guys, is this the correct place to ask about linear algebra? 😮
sure
Is the answer 2 correct?
Because they are two non-pivot columns, so they would be assigned an arbitrary parameter to those variables
I converted it into row-echelon form first
yes
Thank you! @thorny slate

What r u doin
Understand what's going on?
Kk
MILNE
Yas
Da wae
Yes. Freedom smells gud
@chilly ocean how far u get in milne
@chilly ocean have you actually opened a book (any book) and (tried) going through basic defs
since this would be p helpful
what's the map?
why is it canonical
in ur own words
okay
so how is f:G ->G/N defined
which is?
more concretely
in terms of N
yes

so do you know how the iso works?
um
the iso between G/N and umm
im(f)
ok
so what are the elements of G/N
and what are the elements of im(f)
are they both groups
explicitly they're aN,bN,...
cosets
they're classes, but here they're also cosets
and then if N is normal, you can do stuff
okay, sorta easier, but is im(f) a group and how
i.e., show it's a group by providing its id, multiplication and inverses
might be easier to just show them individually but w/e floats ur boat 🤷
start with identity
yes
multiplication pls
sure
🆗
🆗
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so let's try making a group homomophism first
u want id of G/N to map to id of im(f)
invereses to inverses and that multiplication thingy
ok ez question
what's the id in G/N
and how do inverses/multpilication work again for good measure
i think we went over this but what are our classes here
what are those tho

how does that help you put a group structure on them
like what's [a]*[b] or [a]^{-1}
so u haven't really showed this is well defined, and besides that no idea how this is related to N still
do u remember cosets boi
if [a] = [b] what does that say about a,b
okay
what's the congruence relation for G/N
yes
:<
so we have a surjective map G →G/N right
This is a ton of fun with examples. We should go over D4/{e, r²}. That one is always good
D4 being symmetries of the square
we don't need examples yet tho
so call this map umm
phi
im(phi)= G/N right
since it's surjective
(if you're not sure it's surjective, now is the time to verify this)
and figure out the kernel of phi
remember, elements of G/N = {aN}
and if N normal, aN=Na
r u even sure it's surjective 
okay go verify this
also verify this will be the case for any subgroup, not just for normal subgroups
@spark plank has shown this, even if they haven't realized it
so this like basicx
basics important tbh

sure if you have an equivalence relation
but you haven't demonstrated this

okay gotta eat brb, will read replies, but phone screen bad for detailed replies
show me ur stuff

@chilly ocean
Hay. Let's do example and we can make everything more concrete
You seem to have a pretty good handle on it though
Let's look at D4/{e, r²}
D4 is the symmetries of the square and has 8 elements.
{e, r²} is a normal subgroup of D4
First, what are the cosets?
Start by multiplying any element that isn't in {e, r²} into {e, r²}
This will give the coset containing that element
Actually though, before even finding the cosets, how many should there be?
Group of 8 elements, and it's a 2 element subgroup. Every coset has 2 elements
So it's like taking the 8 element group and splitting it into bins, where each bin gets 2 elements. How many bins should there be?
Dere you go!
The cosets partition the group. So, it's like breaking the group into equal pieces. 8/2 = 4
{e, r²}, the normal subgroup itself, is one of the cosets. What's another one? Try multiplying by r
Nooo. I mean {r, r³}

But indeed, that is two cosets right there.
{e, r²} and {r, r³}.
Got any others? You'll need to include some flips
{s², s²r²} = {e, r²}
Because s² = e
So indeed, we already have that one
{s, sr²} is a brand new coset though
Take s × {r, r³} and we have {sr, sr³}
That's four cosets, like we predicted!
{e, r²}
{r, r³}
{s, sr²}
{sr, sr³}
They are a partition of D4. That is, every element of D4 goes into one coset exactly
Now for the interesting question, since {e, r²} is a normal subgroup, these cosets form a group under coset multiplication. What group is this isomorphic to?
First question, how many elements does this group have?
Perfect. There are two groups of order four
Those are both the same one. You've got the cyclic group on 4 elements, and you've got the kline four group
Might have spelled it wrong. I mean Z2×Z2
But you've got the right idea! You want to find the order of the cosets and match them to the order of those groups
So before anything, you do know how to do coset multiplication?
Kk. I trust you
A lot of people struggle with that part but if you've got it
As many of my friends know, I have an extremely high IQ, so don't bother answering this question if you're too dim-witted. How would the Y Tangent become the X axis if the dividend is 9?
um
@chilly ocean do u know how quotients for abelian groups work
so
figure out those
they're the ez case
like say you have C_8, what are its subgroups, and what are the possible quotient groups by its subgroups
since honestly if you're unsure about the abelian case, nonabelian is a lost cause
also try to construct group homomorphisms such that the kernel is your normal subgroups
@spark plank u do this 2 while i struggle through ordinal indexed things

nani
cooking up subgroups
aren't we always doing that
also to be clear, we should try out endomorphisms over C_8 first
and think about what those are

=pup define endomorphism
group homomorphisms of C_8 into itself here
not necessarily invertible, but still
mapping e to e
doing the f(a)f(b) = f(ab) thing,
and f(a⁻¹) = (f(a))⁻¹
so u should check this, but letting everything map to e will be a valid group homomorphism
@spark plank checkem
tfw confused wuts going on
So we're looking at endomorphisms of C_8 that behave like group operators...?
group homomorphisms

(usually that's what we'll call endomorphisms really, maps from an object into itself preserving whatever structure that object has)
what u mean
@stone fulcrum no spoilers pls
it's just a thing for now 🤷
Did we abandon my q? If so I can just show the answer

Just gotta have a^8 = e
And satisfy group axioms
That actually locks you into one kind of structure
Which you can prove
So we got some multiplication thingy
so the map which sends everything to the identity in $C_8$ is generated by $a \mapsto a^8$
flimflam:
also should check the identity map in $Endo(C_8)$ is a group homomorphism, that is, $a \mapsto a$
flimflam:
Okay, I'll just answer it real quick. These are the orders.
{e, r²} - 1
{r, r³} - 2
{sr, sr³} - 2
{s, sr²} - 2
Note there's no element of order 4. Ergo, it can't be Z4, so it must be Z2×Z2
so...
$a$ is a generator for the cyclic group $C_8$, that is $\langle a|a^8=e\rangle \cong C_8$
flimflam:
So, D4/{e, r²} = D4/Z2 = Z2×Z2
we wanna show that $f:C_8\mapsto C_8$ satisfies certain properties?
Simple_Art:
$f:C_8 \to C_8$ but yes
flimflam:

like we don't care about $f:e \mapsto a \neq e$, this a bad boi
flimflam:
wut's the difference between what I wrote and what you wrote?
Finally, this implies there's a homomorphism φ: D4 → Z2×Z2 such that {e, r²} is the kernel.
Now I'm done.
wait
homomorphisms are like
group axiom transitive stuff?
that is f(e) = e, f(ab) = f(a)f(b), and f(a⁻¹) = (f(a))⁻¹?
@spark plank here they're preserving group properties, but if it was between like metric spaces you'd want them to preserve continuity or whatever

which ones are always there
and for small ez cases like this, just list them all out
obviously mapping things to themselves gives you that endomorphisms exist
also Endo(G) is the set of endomorphisms?
wdym structure preserving endos?
^
isn't that by definition
existence isn't by def
ok
wait
so you got one 

now try finding others

I gave u 2
also show how many there are for cyclic groups, if you're being ambitious
I feel like I should verify things
pretty sure that was like day 1 stuff with woog
well humor me then
what are the endomorphisms of $Endo(C_8)$, or in general $Endo(C_n)$, if you're stuck, what about $Endo(C_p)$
it was that one proof I did where u and woog were confuzzled by my contradiction
flimflam:
and where I complained that ordering > divisibility
wew boi already 740 messages in here 
how do u even check that how many do i have
It has known order
nani
