#groups-rings-fields
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gcd(a_1,\dots,a_n)
How do you know that gcd's exist in R/(p)
Also it's much simpler than that
||show that (r)/(p) is generated by the image of r in R/(p)||
idt I will get it
It's important to understand every part of your proof
You shouldn't be making jumps in logic of you can't argue it in detail
Still, good to learn this lesson :)
I'll work on this tomorrow maybe, I'm getting a bit bogged down( brain fog)
or maybe in a hour
thanks
If you have fields $E\subseteq F\subseteq K$ such that $F/E$ is a finite extension and $K$ is a finite-dimensional $F$-vector space, is $K$ a finitely-generated $E$-algebra?
Sara
Doesn't this imply that K is a f.g. E-modules and hence a f.g. E-algebra since the algebra structure is compatible with the module structure
Like just the fact that K is a f.g. F-vector space is the same as saying that K/F is a finite extension...
oh yeah whoops
This was something that popped up in my lecture notes. While I do somewhat intuitively see why this would be the case, the proof does not make any sense to me. Can someone help walk me through what this proof is saying?
case 1 or 2? or both?
Are there any specific lines that you're stuck on
Both
what's the definition of "prime subfield"?
Its the intersection of all of the subfields of F, right?
right, so we need to prove two things
- F_p is contained in all the subfields of F
- F_p is itself a field
do you see how those two things imply that F_p is the prime subfield?
Yes... and p has to be prime, right?
Yes
okay great
Otherwise, we would have zero divisors
exactly
so now let's try to tackle each of these
first, why is 1) true?
I am struggling to figure out why that is true
no problem
let's think about it sort of case by case
F_p is just {1, 2, 3, ..., p-1}
first off, is 1 contained in every subfield?
Yes, the multiplicative identity should be in every subfield
It should be as well, right? Since 1 + 1 = 2?
yup
since subfields are closed under addition
what about 3, do you think 3 is contained in every subfield?
Yes. Because its closed under addition by the same logic
Every subfield, must have 1,1 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1... up to p - 1(1). Since that in itself is also a field, then it must be the prime subfield, since its the smallest subfield that contains elements that are in every other subfield
yup exactly
that proves case 1
the logic for case 2 is really similar
try to reason about it intuitively
Intuitively, it makes sense. I need 1, 2, 3.... which would lead to me the naturals, but, since a field also requires multiplicative inverses, then I would also need 1/2, 1/3, etc... which will get me to the rationals, which is Q. But I have no clue where or what the universal property of localization means or how it is used here.
The only reason case 1 did not need the fractions, was because the inverses were also other integers mod p
Or why I need to define a homomorphism
Can you state the universal property of localization? Do the lecture notes talk about it?
You also used a homomorphism in case 1, it was just implicitly
Like the field that you find inside F is not literally Z/pZ
Rather you have an isomorphism mapping Z/pZ into F such that n in Z/pZ goes to 1_F added n times in F
Not in this lecture. He mentioned it somewhere in a previous lecture, but I genuinely understood nothing from that lecture.
He did spend a lecture talking about localizations
Okay well the idea is pretty simple actually, despite the fancy words
So you saw that if we send 1 in Z/pZ to 1_F in F, then all the other things logically follow, right? Like 2 in Z/pZ has to go to 1_F + 1_F in F, and so on, for it to be a homomorphism of fields
So just by saying that 1 in Z/pZ goes to 1_F in F, you can tell me where all of the rest of the elements in Z/pZ go in F
Are you following me there?
Yes
yeah, so this is nice because it both shows existence (there is a homomorphism that extends your original one) and uniqueness (there's exactly one choice for that)
the universal property of localization is just the same thing, it's saying (in more precise terms) that if you know how to map 1 in Z to 1 in F (and you can invert every natural number in F, since it's characteristic zero), then you extend the whole thing to get a map phi from Q to F
and therefore every subfield of F contains phi(Q)
and then obviously phi(Q) is a field since Q is a field and phi is a field homomorphism
How did we get from 1 in Z -> 1 in F and extending the map phi from Q to F?
By exactly your logic here
You know where 1 goes, so you also know where 2, 3, ... go, and then by taking inverses you know where 1/2, 1/3, ... go
So really, by continuing this process, you know where any rational goes
The universal property says that 1) you can reach every rational by doing this process of adding and taking inverses and 2) no matter which path of additions and inverses you use to get there, you'll always get the same answer for what the map should be
i.e. existence and uniqueness
Let F is the field of char p, and K is algebraic extension of F, then it is not necessarily that K is inseparable extension, right?
I mean yeah, I am just thinking of an example
Let me think
Probably harder to come up with inseperable examples than seperable ones
K = F 
But I'm sure you meant something more interesting, so that this is not a spoiler.
I thought so but yeah I need a different one 
Right so figure out what more it needs to do other than this
Usually helps guide the thought process
I think let F = F_2, and K = F_2[y] where y is the solution of equation x^2 + x + 1 = 0 over F_2.
So this minimal polynomial has distinct roots
So I think one of the equivalent condition to be separable is the number of morphism K -> K fixes F should be equal to degree of extension, which holds here
It's the number of morphisms from K to the algebraic closure of F.
What you're describing is equivalent to being galois (seperable and normal)
Oh thank you for pointing out
But i think in this case still it is 2, because y has only two choice
Yes, this is a galois extension. So it's in particular seperable
Oh
you're welcome!
What are the names of the categories C_{A, B} and C^{A, B}
the first one are objects (Z, A, B) such that varying Z; Z -> A and Z->B
the second one have the arrows reversed
category of spans?
usually the opposite category is prefixed by co-, so category of cospans
Suppose F:K is a finite normal extension and F:L:K. Then L:K is normal if and only if L is preserved by Gal(F:K).
Can someone help guide me through why?
What do you have so far?
Like, I know that in general F:K is a normal extension, and F:L:K means that F:L is also normal. I just do not see... how the Gal(F:K) condition matters at all
And why we can assume anything about the relation between L:K other than the fact that K is a subfield of L
Well, what is the definition of normal
The easy direction should be ||if L is normal, then the Galois group preserves L (use that automorphisms permutes roots of polynomials)||
Conversely ||if L is not normal you'll have an irreducible polynomial with a root in L and another root not in L.||
||If you let a be the root in L you get a map K(a) -> F with image not in L, by sending a to the other root.||
||Now use that F is normal to inductively extend this map to an automorphism F -> F.||
Normal is like... all of the polynomials K[x] will all have their roots in F.
If L is normal, then Galois group preserves L makes sense.
The converse makes a lot less sense to me. You will have an irreducible polynomial with a root in L and another not in L, but why do we need the map? I am not sure what sending a to the other root in the map does, or how F is normal comes into play here.
An automorphism that takes a to a root not in L will not preserve L
So that's the point of the map
The normality of F is used to construct the automorphism
So you are saying if L is normal, then the group preserves L. But if L is not normal, then the automorphism will not preserve L, and that completes the iff statement?
why is the normality of F needed to construct this automorphism?
Well, try to construct it and see what you use
Ah, okay. There was a theorem in a previous lecture that allows you to add in one element at a time, and make a new homomorphism. And the condition for that Theorem holds if F:K is normal
Is that what you meant by Inductively extending the map to F -> F
What would be the universal property of localisation be for modules?
I'm thinking of a setup like this. Let $f: M \to N$ be an $R$-module homomorphism where $M$ is an $R$-module and $N$ is an $S^{-1}R$-module (we can think of it as an $R$-module by the localisation map). Then I want to have an $S^{-1}R$-module homomorphism $$\widetilde{f}: S^{-1}M \to N$$which an appropriate diagram commutes
Lucas
The universal property comes from the fact that there’s an adjunction coming from push-pull
Specifically, maps from M into an S^-1A module N are exactly the maps from S^-1M into N
I think you can describe this more explicitly by something like you want the image of f: M -> N to be such that for all s in S, the multiplication by s map on the image is bijective
Aww, sounds really good! I don't think I know this adjunction. What is push-pull??
It’s one of the names for the restriction / extension of scalars adjunction
Between B-mod and A-mod for an A-algebra B
Normally it involves the tensor product but when B = S^-1A this is just localization
Thank you!! Also, is this normally what is called the universal property of localisation for modules?? I just made it up
I haven't seen it being mentioned in commutative algebra texts
In addition to this, you need to require that \tilde{f} is unique -- otherwise S^-1M (+) P would also qualify for every P.
(This is generally the case for universal properties.)
Yes yes, thank you!
Is there any postgrad here who finished Herstein? I would like to talk in private regarding something.
Most likely you'll have better chances if you just start your conversation here.
why does it have to be a postgrad lol
picky eater
qwq
allufi is trying to tell me that a group is a groupoid with a single object. He deduce that it being a single object means it has one hom set, and then give the homset a name G. and then proceeds to say if operation on elements of G satisifes these axioms (that looks like 90% of category axioms) then it is a group. am i misunderstanding or is this completely overengineered?
they're gonna eat the postgrad!? 
I'm not sure what you mean by overengenierd.
The point is that if you have only one object then the axioms for a group and the axioms for a groupoid are the same
isn't that literally Joke 1.1
but yeah what jagr said, they are the same. the groupoid definition is just kinda perverse
like why is the groups axioms needed if thats just what a category is anyways
idnetity
composition
inverse just comes from it being a groupoid
"Needed" for which purpose?
Because this is how sane people define it, and “a group is a groupoid with one element” is usually used to motivate groupoids rather than the other way around
This is like "Why are integers needed if they're just rational numbers with denominator 1" 
are extensions of $\mathbb Q$ of the form $\mathbb Q(a^{{\frac{1}{n}}}, b^{\frac{1}{m}}})$ same as $\mathbb Q(a^{{\frac{1}{n}}} + b^{{\frac{1}{m}}})$? feels like you should be able to separate a and b with suitable polynomials
Green
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
latex seems fine this time around
No because you can do stupid things like a = 4, b = -2, m = 3 and n = 6
Where the latter field is just Q
Usually this should work though I think
ahh i see, ty
i was working with the particular case of 2^(1/2) and 4^(1/3) and wondered if this worked in general
Namely, the proof of the primitive element theorem gives you that a^{1/m} + c*b^{1/n} should work for all but finitely many choices of c
Where “finitely many” has some explicit bound which I think looks like nm or something
Because it is useful to have a word for "endomorphism of an initial commutative ring as a module over itself", of course.
will look into that
ummm, not a question to be honest. I want a teacher. Never mind guys. Sorry.
🤣
thats the direction of motivation I guess? The whole point of generalisation of anything is to search for something non trivial. If you just define a group to be set of actions which fix something in a certain set, then these are the axioms you can abstract out. Then you ask the question the other way around, "does every group have to be a set of actions which fix something. The answer happens to be YES." (Sorry if that is not what you are looking for)
You can treat a group like a groupoid with 1 element if you like
It says the same thing as the traditional associative binary operation with certain properties
I don't think it's a bad definition to internalize what a group is /shrug
wait my whole confusion was the associative binary operation with certain properties were built directly on the group is a gorupoid with a single element def
Yes, the point is that most intro algebra books don't define groupoids before groups
So to be compatible with other books and their pedagogy, he explicitly writes out what it means to be a groupoid with 1 element
Which is a good idea anyways, since you should be able to make the link between the two defs (groupoid with 1 element, structuee equipped with associative binary op with certain axioms)
He notes right after Joke 1.1 that other people would (rightfully) criticize how he defined a group if he didn't elaborate, so he does
(And also, no one actually uses the groupoid definition
Well, except maybe some people with terminal category brainrot)
To be fair this perspective is helpful for various things and can be helpful in that you can consider group(oid) objects in other cats
Isn’t the group objects perspective generally more along the lines of the morphism based defn of groups?
Like, a one object subgroupoid of a category is just a subgroup of an automorphism group
That’s more like, representations than group objects
Yes typically but i mean more to emphasis groupoids and then the fact i can view group objects as a special kind
Amusingly e.g. this is a way group objects are defined in oo land
But also like in AG often groupoids appear and then groups are a special kind
Can someone explain what a dual representation is, and how it is any different from just a normal representation
Well a dual representation is a type of representation. It's entirely analogous (and a generalisation of) how you have a "dual vector space" V* associated to a vector space V
as was said above it’s more a relationship between two representations than it is an absolute descriptor. If V is a representation and V^* is the dual vector space, then G acts on it by sending a functional f to the functional (gf)(v) = f(g^-1v)
and that is the dual representation of the original V
I have a problem that I'm not even sure how to approach. I know somehow I need a mapping to turn odd cycles into even cycles, and I know we have to do this by extending an odd cycle by one. For example, if we were given (1, 2) we might multiply it by (2,3) to make it an even cycle. I'm just not sure how to write this in notation. Does anyone have a pointer as for how to write this mapping?
Actually I might be silly. I think I can simply write something like sigma(n+1 n+2)
lol nevermind I figured it out
Does anyone have good bibliography for supersingular elliptic curves/isogeny based cryptography? I can't find it anywhere
does the set of all continuous functions and + forms an abelian group
(cuz off the bat 0 is identity, commutativity is true, and closure is ensured)
What’s the last thing to check
but im not sure what we should do abt its inverses
but it feels like it should work
oh nvm
(continuous function) + -(the same continuous function)
continuous functions on what, to what?
this is an important part of the question
i dont get it
its just Set morphism of R->R satisfying continuity
then composition = addition in terms of picking the next morphism
is that what u mean
if X is just some topological space, and Y is just some topological space, how do you add two continuous functions X -> Y
Similar question, what about under multiplication/composition?
R -> R works fine, as you've seen, but you need to be specific when you're doing math :)
oh i just meant continuous functions in calculus 🙂
closure for sure (simple fact in calc)
inverse is its recipricol
commutative is obviously true
and lastly identity
its one sided
so not a group?
If f : R -> R is continuous, is 1/f?
oh i misunderstood
no
because f can be 0
f being 0 on its own is defined and continuous, but as a recipricol its not
If we’re thinking about multiplication, what can you tell me about say 1/sin(x)?
If we’re thinking about composition, does every continuous function on R have a continuous inverse on R?
Yep 
inverse is not satisifed
and for identity
its multiplication so to preserve continuity
*1 and 1*
Yeah similar issue, take like x^2, which is continuous but doesn’t have an inverse on all of R
If you require a slightly* stronger property than just being continuous you do actually get a ring of such functions
slightly stronger as in all functions must be of the form f(x) = ax for some constant a?
No nvm I was being stupid lol
For pointwise addition, you would need Y to have an addition operation, so like a TAG or somehing.
is there anything valuable to be gained by viewing the algebraic closures of a field as a groupoid
bc i feel like the fact that distinct algebraic closures are not uniquely isomorphic must be suggestive of something
except for the entirety of Galois theory and half of number theory? /hj
wait is that actually true
i remember someone saying that number theory was the study of the absolute galois group of Q
oh ig this would give u an absolute galois groupoid
but i dont know what a galois groupoid is
The “half of number theory” may not quite be true, but a lot of AlgNT uses Galois theory
And Galois theory is pretty much predicated on “fields have non-trivial automorphism groups, and this gives us a very good description of subfields”
yes i understand that part
im just bothered by the non-uniqueness of algebraic closure
there must be some way to make those extra isomorphisms disappear
yea the fact that algebraic closure fails to be universal is kinda the whole of galois theory
it is a good fact rather than a bad fact
it makes things more interesting
oh
how can you use this tho
oh well yeah ig it mustnt be universal otherwise absolute galois group would be pointless
yes there would be no absolute galois group
like, the fundamental group of the groupoid of algebraic closures is exactly the absolute galois group
yes
but what does the groupoid mean
im tempted to grasp at some geometric interpretation
well you'd be grasping at something good, because schemes have a notion of fundamental that, in the case of Spec(k) is the absolute Galois group
in general the whole idea of some group action determining certain "extensions" always feels geometric
i admit i dont know much more about this
oh is this related to the etale fundamental group thing ngroupoid told me about yesterday
yes
today i had my first day for an REU im in, and ive been tasked with finding a basis for the lie algebra sl(n,C)
i think ive done it but i just wanna check that im not missing anything
so since this lie algebra is defined as the matrices with trace 0, it just suffices to inspect the diagonals since any matrix in this space with zeroes on its diagonal is just generated by the set of matrices with 1 in a nondiagonal entry and zeroes elsewhere
so that means that the lie algebra is at least n^2 - n dimensional
and is at most n^2 dimensional since its a subspace of gl(n,C) as a vector space
because the trace has to be zero, the diagonal of any matrix in this lie algebra is determined by n-1 elements on the diagonal
since the last remaining element is just the negation of the sum of the rest
Ye
so i suspect this lie algebra is n^2 -1 dimensional
I suspect you are overcomplicating it
Like this conditions is equivalent to being in sl(n,C)
and a basis would be the union of the set of matrices with 1s in a nondiagonal entry with 0s elsewhere and the set of diagonal matrices with a 1 in the top left corner and a -1 somewhere else in the diagonal, rest being 0s
yes
but i feel like my train of thought is fairly straightforward
maybe theres a simpler way of thinking about it but this seemed the most apparent to me
Yee this works nice
Hint is that it is defined as the kernel of a homomorphism
gln is n^2 dim. Trace is a map gln -> C
C is 1 dim, so sln is n^2 - 1 dim
oh thats smart
trace is a linear transformation true
i did have to come up with a basis constructively
but having n^2 - 1 as the dimension before doing so makes it way easier
bc i can just find a linearly independent set of size n^2 - 1, which the set i provided earlier is clearly that
whats an REU?
what anamono said
thats cool
im specifically doing something on applications of lie algebras to a topic of modern physics called celestial holography
wish we had that here
national science foundation gives you money and you go to a school and you do a research project over the summer
definitely makes prospects of grad school a tad less stressful since grade-wise ive been barely less than id like
i guess we've got honours program here? but thats uninteresting to me tbh, its very applied focused
thats great!
actually i think the nsf gives the money to the school and the school gives the money to the student
yeah this
my own university has one so it makes it to where i can do an REU every summer which is very nice
damn that is nice
to what extent can a ring be identified with its category of modules
Morita equivalence is a thing that seeks to measure this
ty! this seems interesting
If the ring is commutative then it is the same
But eg, a ring and a matrix ring over it are morita equivalent so it’s weaker for noncomm stuff
thats reassuring
More specifically the center of a ring is determined by its category of modules (it is the endomorphism ring of the identity functor)
i think this makes sens
What is Schur's Lemma? I lowkey cannot understand it for the life of me
Let (\phi : M \to N) is a homomorphism of modules (eg (R)-modules, (G)-modules, etc) where (M) and (N) are simple modules. Then (\ker \phi) is a submodule of (M), and so by simplicity of (M) is either 0 or (M), and similarly (\operatorname{im}(\phi)) is a submodule of (N) and for the same reason is either 0 or (N). Moreover, if (\ker \phi = M) then (\operatorname{im} \phi = 0), and if (\ker \phi = 0) then (\operatorname{im} \phi) is nonzero and hence is (N). Therefore the (\phi) is either 0, or it is an isomorphism.
Dirichlet
I'm... not sure what this means?
Ok. If phi: M -> N is a homomorphism of modules, then phi must be 0 or an isomorphism.
no
And there's like another part about phi = lambda (Identity Matrix) over C where lambda is an eigenvalue?
they have to be simple modules
What are simple modules?
It's a module M where the only sub-modules are 0 or M.
an irreducible representation of a group G is the same thing as a simple G-module for example
Ah Ok, this was the definition he used since this came before the lecture on characters and rings
Schur's was used to prove this, but I lowkey do not understand this solution at all. How would Schur's apply to this?
The key here is the step where he shows that rho(a) and rho(g) commute. This is checking that "composing with rho(a)" is a homomorphism of representations from (V,rho) -> (V,rho).
once you have that, and given that (V,rho) is irreducible, you can apply Schur's lemma
(and the fact that the only isomorphisms (V,rho) -> (V,rho) are scalar multiples of identity, which i consider to be a seperate fact but which many authors bundle into the statement of Schur's lemma)
yeah i mean its an easy corollary and needs the fact that C is alg closed
but it does hold for arbitrary simple findim representations of C-algebras
So there are two representations? or only 1?
only one
my main reasoning for this is that schur is true for wayyyyyy more than just f.d. reps of groups over C lol
Imma munch on this for a bit
sure
but its true for all fd reps of k-algebras for k algebraically closed thats good enough for me 🔥
Its not so hard, but is also harder than actually proving Schurs itself lol
ok true
schur is like one sentence that is like 4
Also Schur needs 0 ideas, and that needs 1 idea
Is being Abelian the same as being G equivariant?
abelian is a property of the group
No. Abelian is a fact about the group. G-equivariance is a fact about linear maps
🥀
but left multiplication is a morphism of the regular representation iff it is in the center
the point is that when G is abelian, the linear map "left multiply by rho(a)" is G-equivariant
Ok. I will remember that too
(and more generally this yes)
For my final tmrw
ah gl gl
🙏 you got this
My previous exam scores says otherwise 💀
something something its about the journey
in a group G, does the set of all powers of g which has finite order. Form a group if you inherit G's morphism. It looks like it, is this result any important?
Are you asking if the set of elements in G of finite order forms a subgroup?
Then no, this set isn't in general closed under the group operation.
no just a group
Then you'll need to elaborate more what you mean
Like (basically) any set can be given a group structure, by just defining some arbitrary group operation on it
But that's sort of meaningless
ok so an element g has finite order
so then consider the set of its power
g1 g2 g3 gn
and inherit the same mapping from G
So you're asking if the cyclic subgroup generated by g is a subgroup?
Yes
a subset can only inherit the group operation if it is closed under said operation, which isnt in general true for the torsion (finite order) elements
if youre asking about { 1, g, g^2, ... } then this does form a subgroup if g has finite order
That is true
in the case that g has infinite order you need to explicitly include g^-1 and all its powers too
this is usually denoted <g>
so is a subgroup a group but some extra conditions
then it does form a group
it should have closure
if G is a group, then a subgroup of G is a subset containing the identity, closed under products and taking inverses
this subset will then inherit the group structure of G and be a group itself
hello there
haia
all finite abelian groups are isomorphic to an external direct product of cyclic groups
"external" 💔 also you can easily extend this to finitely generated abelian groups if u include the infinite cyclic group
the real question is what did you stand to gain by posting ts msg
"ts" is not "this" unc
yes it is lil boy
all uncs dont gang up on me pls
people say ts like I give one
now answer the god damn question brainiac
well i just made a statement...
are we here to discuss the details of outdated internet slang or the smith normal form
god forbid a man recite a line of poetry
the question is, can you prove it? and you can't use the calc
i cannot
that's ur homework twin
yea but the course is over
try proving it for "internal" direct products first
and the proof was bit lengthy so i just skipped it
(calc is slang for calculator btw)
Doing group theory for my 2nd year of university and idk why but it just makes me feel warm and fuzzy inside
Its one of the few things in my maths classes that ive just been like "yeah i get that!" For most of it
I suspect it might not stay this way when i go into 3rd year but im okay with that
Group theory is best :3
Lol
does this theorem or whatever have a name, is it only for groups?
Yeah this only holds for groups
in group theory, order is used in two ways, the order of element (smallest n such that g^n = e) and the order of a group (its cardinality). Is this a coincidence in notation, or is there some weird connection between them (dont just tell me its cuz they are both in the contexts are groups)
The order of an element always divides the order of the group (by Lagrange’s theorem)
And if the order of an element equals the order of the group, the group is cyclic
the order of $g \in G$ is equal to the order of the cyclic subgroup $\langle g \rangle \leq G$ generated by $g$.
lexi
i guess to answer the original question, ive never heard this thing referred to with a specific name
i usually would call it the Latin square property
It is really famous, and its (almost direct) application is the Cayley's thm.
Every quasigroup has the same property, although it's not generally a group.
In fact, such a 'multiplication table' is sometimes called a 'Cayley table', named after him. (I wouldn't say often though...)
In simple terms, Cayley's theorem states that every left and right multiplication is a permutation, and the composition of such permutations form a (sub) group (of some symmetric group). The 'latin square' you are seeing now is a collection of permutations, for each row (=left multiplication) and column (=right multiplication). Once you realize this, the rest can be shown almost trivially.
in a 2x2 matrix it isnt a group under multiplication, i used the fact that AB != BA why is this not sufficient enough to prove its not a group? Doesn't AB!= BA prove multiplication doesn't commute?
groups dont need to be commutative wrt their operation
groups whose operations are commutative are special and called abelian groups
note that, however, all elements must have an inverse under the group operation for it to be a group
ahh forgot about abelian
ty
does a ring need to be communative to be a field? or does this go into the division ring definition
yes
a field is a commutative division ring
in modern terminology yes -- though some authors, especially historically, do use "field" to include some noncommutative division rings
The french and their consequences
Let $r \in \mathbb{Q}$ and $r \geq 0$. Then $\mathbb{R}/(x^2-r) \cong \mathbb{Q} ( \sqrt{r})$
\
Let $\theta = \bar{x}$ then $\bar{x}^2 = r$
\
Define $\phi: \mathbb{Q} [x] \to \mathbb{Q} ( \sqrt{r} )$
with $x \to \sqrt{r}$
\
$ker \phi = (x^2-r)$
\
Then $\mathbb{Q} / \ (x^2-r) \cong Q \left ( \sqrt{r} \right)$
How does this look?
do you mean Q/(x^2-r)?
yes
I originally wrote it for R, which I supposw is right too?
no it's not, R[x]/(x^2-r) is just R for r>0
your statement also is not true when r=0
what a wonderful world(wai)
oops, but yea, it's fine overall I guess?
I don't really see a good justification for why the kernel is x^2-r exactly but the details are not hard to work out
I can do that
one min
well, (x^2-r) goes to 0 , obviously
so any multiple of it does too
@desert verge what's wrong
x^2 - r may not be irreducible
oh yeah there's also that
i.e., if r has a rational square root then ℚ[√r] = ℚ
you explain it to them not to me
the kernel of ϕ certainly contains (x^2 - r), but it may not be (x^2 - r). In fact, kerϕ = (x^2 - r) if and only if x^2 - r is an irreducible polynomial over ℚ, which is if and only if r = a/b for some perfect squares a, b ∈ ℤ.
in the other case, ℚ(√r) = ℚ, so √r ∈ ℚ and ker ϕ = (x - √r)
for a field K of characteristic not equal to 2, I know that every quadratic extension is of the form K(sqrt(a)) for some a in K, how do i show that if two quadratic exteions K(sqrt(a)) and K(sqrt(b)) are isomorphic, that then a = c^2 b
We know sqrt(a) \in K(sqrt(b))
Write sqrt(a) = c + d sqrt(b) and expand out
so is the above only true if we assume that the isomorphism of K(sqrt(a)) and K(sqrt(b)) restricts to the identity on K? because if not, how would we get that sqrt(a) in K(sqrt(b))? since we wouldnt know that (let f be the isomorphism) f(sqrt(a))^2 ) = a?
Isomorphic as extensions includes the requirement that it’s the identity on K
ah okay i didnt read it that way but it makes sense
so there are examples where two quadratic extensiosn are isomorphic as fields but not in a way that restricts to the identity on K?
Q(x)(sqrt(x)) and Q(x)(sqrt(x + 1)) over Q(x) are not isomorphic
But over Q they’re both isomorphic to Q(x) (as they are Q(sqrt(x)) and Q(sqrt(x + 1)) respectively)
thanks !!
it's always vaguely bothered me that you use round parentheses for field extensions and square brackets for ring extensions when rings are round and fields are square
Idk wtf ur cooking but I love it
this isn't like a "math is red english is blue" type thing where i'm associating mathematical objects with shapes based on vibes i mean the things that the words "ring" and "field" refer to outside of math
like an actual ring (one on finger) and field (field of grass or whatever)
yeah
Does a field need to be square?
it would be kind of weird if one was round
i'm picturing a field of crops specifically
how else are we gonna make "compute the area problems" for people to post in #algebraic-geometry
I usually think of a field as just any kinda large enough patch of grassy land, maybe thats just me, but yeah I guess farmed fields tend to be roughly rectangular
Further fuelling the agricultural geometry memes
Agrarian groups
im just trying to understand the setup of this formula, the mN in N/mN there really means the extension of the image of m times N right
And do we have phi(m) subset n?
ty
They are the same.
That is, mN for the R-module N and (mS)N for the S-module N.
Oh i didnt know you were raghuram
Didnt realize the name change. Thought simplicial bicycle was someone new lol
hi
Center-pivot irrigation (sometimes called central-pivot irrigation), also called water-wheel and circle irrigation, is a method of crop irrigation in which equipment rotates around a pivot and crops are watered with sprinklers. A circular area centered on a pivot is irrigated, often creating a circular pattern in crops when viewed from above (so...
it's pretty fun to look out while flying and see these circular fields
it's like a big quilt
woah
on the other hand, a circle inside a rectangular field is what those aliens from mars do or something
Ok yea idk why this confused me for a sec but ye
Stupid question.. but what is this "simple computation"
Like does the book mean that a simple computation can be used to get a(x) and b(x) or just that its easy to show that these work
The simple computation is just carrying out Euclid’s algorithm and back substitution as they described
ah
Like, they say “by the Euclidean algorithm”, and that’s a procedure that’ll give you what a and b are explicitly
Yes got it, I just thought that they only used the fact that a(x)(1+x) + b(x)(x^3-2) = 1
thanks
I feel similarly but not for rings/fields but rather multiplicative inverses feels more rigid and akin to square brackets
is this dummit and foote
For the connection between groups and groupoid with a single object. It's only sort of meaningful if defining group <- groupoids and vice versa is defined this way.
Given an arbitrary group (G, ), you can construct a groupoid with a single objects:
-Let the single object be a placeholder {x}
-Define Hom(x, x) = G
-Composition of morphism, f;g := fg
and
Given an arbitrary groupoid A with a single object, you can construct a classical group:
-Let G be a set such that G = Automorphism(A)
-Define the operation/function GxG -> G, such that f*g -> h := f;g -> h
the main idea im conveying is that for example when defining the definition of morphisms or operation, it has to "mirror" the referenced. because otherwise you can always define any weird looking 1groupoid from a group and vice versa though it wouldnt be very useful and satisifying result. is there a more formal and precise idea to explain that this particular definition is more special? i hope this makes sense.
yes
the thing that makes this special is that if you take a group, convert it to a groupoid, and then convert it back into a group, you end up with the same group, and vice versa (up to the dummy variable {x} possibly being different)
you can freely convert between the two objects without losing information
i feel like i expect some more idk but ur right
i guess that would be naturality?
or no it would be functoriality in this case
basically just meaning it plays nice with morphisms
all quasi group's multiplication table is a latin square, but how about the converse
for finite magmas, one is a quasigroup iff the multiplication table is a latin square
Any hint with this? I think I can do it by just brute force taking theta = a + bi , ab in Q then subbing in x^3 -2. But could there be another way? Or is that just the standard way
I think that's a pretty normal way, but if you are learning field theory/Galois theory there is a better way
yeah this is field theory, I was looking for a better way
this is from dummit
Namely: if L/K/F are fields then [L:F] = [L:K][K:F]
if one of those polynomials was not irreducible then (since it is cubic) it would have a root, so there would be a map Q(\cuberoot{n}) \to Q(i)
since that is a map of fields it would be injective, so there would be a subfield Q(i)/Q(cubetoot{n})/Q
That’s a cool way to do it, but I think the easiest is that you just know what the roots of this polynomial are by using sqrt(2)e^2ipi/3 (or with sqrt(3)) and then you can just see these aren’t in Q(i)
einestein criteria mayhaps
You don’t need to show there is not root in all of Q(i) by starting with generic elements, you know all the roots already
You’d need to know the primes of Q[i] tho which idk you might or might not
true, I think this is in exercise of D&F after gusaain integers
unless I'm rememebr wrong
if you know a little bit you only really need to factor 2 and 3
Yeah
and that could be done by hand
I was gonna say you can maybe do that with just the norm
yeah
But you also need to know Eisenstein lol
well I think a lot of students know that
that is done well before fields in D&F which is where OP says this is from
Oh I see
since it's the only systematic way to show a polynomial is irreducible it's pretty often taught in ring/filed theory
so yea, Eisenstein should work
Me when I make a theorem about how to file my taxes
unrelated minirant ||I for some reason on my test today, thought algebric fields are algebrically complete, lost 5 marks in a snap, but I digress||
anyways, sorry star
what were you saying
So using this injective map I get a contradiction right [Q(i) : Q] = 2 = [Q(i) : Q(cbrt(n)] [Q(cbrt(n) : Q] = x * 3 right does that work?
What’s an algebraic field
Yeah
oops, I meant algebric extension
Wait what???
thanks!
the basic point is that a field cannot contain a subfield of larger degree
An algebraic extension of what lol
or of deggree that doesn't divide it no?
or that
I thought about that but I wasn't sure let me try to do it that way
yeah
Okay well how do you know [Q(cbrt(n)):Q] = 3 haha
unless you've done field extensions in your course, you should yeah
I guess it’s easier to show that?
use einestein’s criterion
You can even use real analysis
That's not too hard is it 
I think you can show that with einestein’s criterion
I feel like it’s like
yes i can show it with eisenstein
Virtually the same as showing it over Q(i) tho haha
you mean einestein
It’s like ever so slightly easier
You can also show it with the rational root theorem which is much easier
I feel like what’s more swag is you conclude either Q(i) = Q(cbrt(n)) or Q(cbrt(n)) = Q
is it a typo in dummit?
And then you see that’s impossible
no it actually is Eisenstein it was a typo above
I am just joking around
that would require you to know what gcd means in Q(i), but being an ED that's obvious I think?
oh okay haha
Sorry if I'm yapping too much
Wait lmfao TTEG you’ve been carrying that from this one lol
I didn’t even notice
No we’re talking about showing degree of Q(cuberoot(2)) is 3
which comes down to showing that poly is irreducible over Q
||oh, that can also be shown by showing the minimal poly is of degree 3,no?||
so you can use the usual rational roots theorem
That’s literally what we’re doing
yeah that is equivalent
yes i think just eisenstein works right..? I'm not sure how to apply it to Q(i), I think the contradiction argument above was clean enough
you'll need primes in Q(i)
Q(i) = Frac(Z[i])
And Z[i] is an ED is a PID is a UFD so you can use Eisenstein
So all u need to do is know 2 and 3 are prime in Z[i]
Nothing
Q(i) is a field haha
yes

I wanted some advice
(0)
(0) is always prime on a domain
Buy a magic 8 ball and shake it
so for someone who has done basic group, ring and field theory what's the enxt step
The ideal yeah but what about the element
I guess 0 is prime iff domain
modules, gradute group/ring theory, or gallois or something like that
do advanced group theory ring theory and field theory
if you haven’t learned Galois theory definitely learn that
which book would you suggest
You should purchase this book called Commutative Ring Theory by Hideyuki Matsumura and read it cover to cover
D&F would work for this?
ooh, I forget
I have a commutative alg book

yeah summit and Foote has a surprisingly deep selection of topic
It even gets into quite advanced commutative and homological algebra
Is it called Commutative Algebra by Sir Michael Atiyah and someone McDonald
yup, that
😭
But the book is the exercises lol
eh, I can do it over my third year, doing mostly analysis courses next year
will do algebra stuff in year 4( cat theory,homological, alg, commutative alg)
I'm taking it next semester u scared me
I learned commutative algebra from atiyah and Macdonald and it was pretty good
It’s legit probably like the best “here’s what you need to be able to get through introductory AG without being really confused” really fast
Like from the two of them directly? That’s cool
I think atiyah had already gone crazy when I was a college student so that wouldn’t have been possible
If you’re hardcore though you’ll purchase a book called Commutative Algebra by this guy named Bourbaki
Also, uh I'll probably get biased answers here, but. graph or metric spaces would be better next sem.
Intersted in both, but as I'll do measure can only do one
Just be a HSer?
You’re doing measure theory?
But haven’t seen metric spaces before?

yes
thats weird
Do you know topology?
That’s interesting…
the uni wants to offer toplogy the sem after the next
its basically the same
and that's after hearing our interests
I feel like if you’re gonna do measure theory you should just say fuck it and learn metric space shit as a byproduct of knowing topology
Graph theory is p cool
If it was a gen top class I’d say do that over graph theory
yes, famously every topology appearing in math behaves like the real numbers
||just never wanna see stats again||
But idk to do a whole class on metric spaces it’s like whatever
thats not possible this coming sem :(
That’s why I said if
they did say metric spaces not topology in general
Like honestly unless you’re doing really weird shit I don’t know why you need to know a lot of stuff about metric spaces
yeah i was joking anyway
And if they show up in some odd situation, your intuition from real analysis mostly works
yeah usually the topology is the most interesting part
unless you do like ggt idk
Either that or it’s an ultra metric inequality and then you need to rebuild intuition
ask micoi
But like
we'd be doing baire category in this
Unless you’re doing the fucked analysis on general metric spaces or whatever the hell the Dieudonné book does
The baire category theorem is literally easy
though that's normal I think
It’s in the start of Munkres
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
Like it’s literally also on the stacks project
Lol
Bredon spends like a couple pages cooking up some fucked up manifold counter example to the baire category theorem
I believe
Counterexample with what hypothesis lacking?
Wait I think this is a different one to what you’d see in the class lol
idr
You are not gonna be a locally (quasi)-compact space lol
hold on I think they've got bredon here in the uni library
Wait does this not require the neighborhoods to be open?
Wait lmfao a compact neighborhood is defined in a fucked way
Nvm lol
okay nvm its not an explicit counterexample?
its like a fucked up "manifold" (not required to be second countable) with a countable dense subset, and an uncountable discrete subset
These are subgroups of achiral tetrahedral symmetry
Are they grouped by conjugacy class?
I think so. The group is isomorphic to S4, which has 11 conjugacy classes of subgroups according to https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Subgroup_structure_of_symmetric_group:S4
How can I show that x^3 -pi^3 is irreducible over Q(pi^3)
do i just get all the roots in C and show none of t hem are in Q(pi^3)?
Huh, achiral tetrahedral symmetry is not a subgroup of full icosahedral symmetry?
You shouldn't need to do it separately for each root.
(The two complex roots of x³-pi³ are obviously not in Q(pi³), but the proof that the real one is not there ought to work for every root without changes anyway).
yeah, I guess I was wondering if there would be some other way.. I feel like in field theory there is so many ways to do things so I'm trying to get some deep understanding
What I would do is assume there is a root in Q(pi³); then it is f(pi³)/g(pi³) for some rational polynomials f and g. Now x³-pi³=0 expands to a rational polynomial that has pi as a root; if you can show that this cannot be the zero polynomial, you have a contradiction with the known fact that pi is transcendental.
ah i see I will try to write this one out, thanks
I already got the set of subgroups from partitioning S10 into two groups of 5 numbers being permuted over, what are some other ones?
This is an easy problem because you can just say how many you found and the answer will be correct
yea
my algebra class was less than successful this semester though so idk what else there is (we didn't cover much content)
I crave knowledge
what did you cover
Symmetric groups, dihedral, whatever groups are notated A_n, signs, homo/iso/automorphisms, some graph theory and graphs being automorphic, and lagranges theorem/consequences of it
That's pretty much it
not even the isomorphism theorems?
Nope :/
tf
Also did cartesian products, centers, conjugation, counting transpositions, odd/even, Cayley tables, thats about it
looked through my notes real quick
But no major theorems excepting lagrange's theorem and some consequences of it.
The prof honestly had an alergic reaction to proofs, he taught almost entirely through examples. "Here's a dihedral group, which is actually the symmetry group of a hexagon, and isomorphic to this graph btw, which can actually be represetented as a subgroup of X, ... etc"
kinda all over the place
I think I can prove that these are all of the possibilities but it’s bleh
really, that's it?
I believe it should be
I gave this some thought and would also be surprised if there's more
interesting
Why is that? I would've thought there was some weird way to label things to get other mappings
yeah I like this phrasing. I also think I can prove this however I don't actually want to lol
Essentially it’s a very similar proof to the fact that Aut(S_5) = S_5
I would think about the generators of S_5 and note that the generators of each S_5 you have must not be able to talk to each other
Made me think there must've been way more than the 126 I found
I was thinking about it by considering the 5 cycles
Because having two order 5 elements in S_{10} which are not part of the same cyclic subgroup and which commute is very restricting
Actually it’s proof by 
this also seems like it'll work ye
Can infinitely generated groups be isomorphic to finitely generated ones?
depends on what you mean by infinitely generated
I thought of an example so instead is there a group with countably infinite generators that isn’t isomorphic to some finitely generated group?
In what way?
you can take any infinite but finitely generated group G. then {G} is an infinite generating set for G
What’s the term for the smallest possible generating set of a group?
not sure if there's a word for that, but then if you use that as your definition of finite and infinitely generated group then the answer is no, by definition
Minimal generating set?
that doesn't work because two minimal generating sets of a group is not guaranteed to have the same size
there are special cases in which case this is true (p groups come to mind)
Hmmm fair enough
really, I think the only meaningful phrasing of the question is this:
Can every infinite generating set for a finitely generated group always be reduced into a finite generating subset?
Let me think try and think of an example, but I suspect the answer is nonevermind its true straightforwadly
(1) under addition is also generated by the set {-1,0,1,2...} where all positives are primes
That isn't a minimal generating set tho
oops, right
isn't this the questiom?
It is
The question doesn't then ask for a minimal generating subset does it
Well the question is asking
Are there infinitely large minimal generating sets of finite groups
o
Is there an example you're thinking of that prompted this question? Sounds very interesting
No just popped up
im reading subsets on groups with presentations nad relations, idk how to find the minimum size of the groups
How would you intuitively describe what a flat module is?
i dont know what is a flat module, but im going to see what it is
That wasn’t a response to your question it was a different question lol
oh ok
How
It’s called flat because when you localize the module at the prime ideal, its dimension over the residue field as a vector space is the same across all prime ideals
i dont think every set can be reduced
How do we know its a module over the residue field
You have to take quotients
Residue module over residue field
Oh ok
I had no idea about that characterization of flatness
I’m assuming that has some geometry interpretation but i havent learned much alg geo yet
Yes it’s ag
Il have to double check the exact statement when I get back home tonight
Not many people talk about depth and cohen macaulay stuff here, is it kind of niche or something?
Maybe it's niche in the community in this server but it's definitely not niche in commutative algebra
Bro thinks cohen Macaulay rings are niche, vro everything is CM when you go to a comm alg conference
elementary lattice theory :>
Lol
I hope to more often
~~How will they ever get to hard problems if all their rings are CM? ~~
Alternatively assume everything is smooth
ChMonkey
I think just not so many young people are interested in more advanced commutative algebra
These damn youngins not wanting to learn PROPER commutative algebra! They're satisfied with reading that dribble ATIYAH-MACDONALD instead of a proper text like ZARISKI-SAMUEL. This generation is DONE FOR!!!
My impression is that advanced commutative algebra is not fancy and quite difficult to motivate in a vacuum.
i mean it's pretty easy to motivate once you have enough AG
but
yea
i guess that's not in a vacuum
AG is just motivation for doing more commutative algebra anyways
I prefer Eisenstein descent or R=T theorems as motivation for some advanced commutative algebra, but explaining how this comes into play in the argument seems usually hard to explain.
This is a bit like localization: schemes are a great motivation, but… go explain that to a student taking their first class in commutative algebra.
some day i want to write an AG book that is jsut a collection of a bunch of practical examples worked through scheme theoretically, to both motivate the scheme theoretic pov and to illustrate how it's not all just a bunch of abstract nonsense
in R->R[x,x^-1] grade of an ideal of I extended in R[x,x^-1] can't get smaller than grade(I,R) right? Is it just the same grade
So take F = Q, and a, b \in R such that F(a) \cap F(b) is larger than Q
morally, you are looking for a and b that are distinct but partially related
but still F(a) ≠ F(b)
Yeah
||Ideally I'd say you want a to belong in F and b to belong in the extension and not in F?||
This is wrong, my bad
Oh I can just take something like Q(sqrt2 + sqrt3), Q(sqrt2+sqrt5).
Then the degree of the extension Q(a,b) is the degree of Q(sqrt2,sqrt3,sqrt5) = 8. But degree of Q(sqrt2,sqrt3) is 4 and same for Q(sqrt2,sqrt5)
does that work?
8 < 16
I think it does?
ok yay
when someone says how many different ways are there for a group to act on a set, are they asking the number of different mappings G -> S(X)?
up to conjugates i think ? cause two conjugate actions act the same way
yeah up to symmetries
though it kinda depends what kind of symmetries you want to consider
you could say up to isomorphisms of G-sets, which basically means up to permutations on X
but you can also account for the automorphisms of G
wait wdym?
two actions are considered the same if one can be obtained from the other by conjugating with a permutation of X
is this to do with the fact that the stabiliser of a set element is invariant under conjugations?
Personally I think the wording is a little vague and I would ask them to clarify if they meant to count group actions, ie homomorphisms G --> S(X), or if they meant isomorphism classes of actions.
Since, it would seem from the discussion that you haven't been told what an isomorphism of group actions is yet, I would actually assume they just mean homs G --> S(X), because if you're taking a course/reading a book, one would think you would've come across the definition of isomorphism before being asked this question, if they meant iso classes.
I might be misunderstanding what you're saying, but in general the stabiliser need not be normal, which is to say, invariant under conjugation.
Where it "comes from" is just people asking themselves what a reasonable notion of isomorphism/equivalence of group actions ought to be. In general, two objects should be equivalent if there are morphisms f:A --> B and g:B --> A such that fg and gf are both the identity. So the question becomes, what is a reasonable notion for a map between two G-actions. I would encourgae you to spend a little time meditating on what you think a good definition would be, and then looking up what other people use.
I doubt this is what is meant, in my experience it's pretty uncommon for people to consider this. Although, I do think it's interesting to think about how Aut(G) acts on G-set, or say the irreps of G.
Yeah I agree, usually people don't (though perhaps they should more?)
I remember when doing finite group theory this coming up for classifying semi-direct products
because you need to account for the symmetries of the group itself and the other group it's acting on if you want to isolate the truly "unique" actions
Yes, assuming R is Noetherian. If R is Noetherian, R -> S is faithfully flat, and I is an ideal of R such that IR ≠ R, then grade(I, R) = grade(IS, S)
I’m pretty sure this statement is true
Proof:
Actually this has got me thinking
Do people study the grade of non-finitely generated modules over a Noetherian ring? or finitely generated modules over a non-Noetherian ring? or non-finitely generated modules over non-Noetherian rings?
I assume one would lose the nice properties of grade, namely, the theorem of Rees saying that all maximal sequences have the same length given by non-vanishing of Ext
But maybe one could just define grade by non-vanishing of Ext
Actually now I have another question. If R is a Noetherian ring, is there an example of a non-finitely generated R-module M and and an ideal I such that IM \ne M, but there are two maximal M-sequences in I with different length?
Looks like this is the generalization to non-Noetherian rings (Northcott “Finite Free Resolutions”)
if the characteristic of a field K is 0, why is the smallest subfield isomorphic to Q?
Z embeds into it cuz char 0 and then from there you get Q
Maybe they're asking why there can't be a subfield smaller than ℚ.
But this holds for any char 0 field so Q would be in any such subfield
Unless you want me to note that there can’t be a positive char subfield in a field of char 0 haha
Yeah that's what I had meant. I remember being confused about this exact thing back when I first learned algebra
it has 1, and then it follows you can construct something that looks like the rationals
it as 1 ,so it follows n*1_F exists
so you have something like N
now by adding 0 and their inverses you must have something that looks like Z
now you're missing inveses
so you add 1/n
but the the rationals arise at once
that is once you have 1, all of this naturally arises
it's trivial I suppose to see this is a subfield?
ah yeah i get it now 😭
the homomorphism must also abide by the inverses
ye!
hi :) my course notes have a proof for this lemma, but it's very direct-proof and doesn't feel enlightening, so i've been trying to prove it a different way with a bit more algebraic flair?
here's my attempt:
(the blue arrow at the top is the free group functor)
im not sure how i can show it commutes?
(and im not even sure if my proof is correct, esp the last step)
could somebody help me clean up my idea?
the last step feels very convoluted, showing all those isomorphisms
do you know the homomorphism theorem?
If f : G → H is a morphism then this factors through a unique morphism f* : G/N → H if and only if N ⊆ ker f
Then you can replace your last steps after <<R>> ⊆ ker φ with a reference to this
ok lowkey i forgot that was a theorem
and was accidentally trying to prove it in my answer
😭
ok so my idea is correct... yay!
its probably one of the most most useful theorems in elementary group theory
i mean, the fact you were reproving it here just goes to show it lol
Elementary algebra of all forms period
yes its the standard way of proving it
sure
thanks enpeace! see yall
i can stand by that
At some point this statement will become so embedded into your blood you will believe it to be an axiom
the universal algebra formulation is particularly enlightening because it's about relations
Universal algebra ppl like vegans, always gotta be mentioning it any chance they can

i will not stand for vegan slander
Bros living in 2015 🌾
top 10 cringiest vegan feminist compilation
Is the smugcatto not dripping in enough irony for yall

Girl who got a septum piercing: didnt even hurt btw
Lol
Difference is that veganism is a moral imperative whilst universal algebra is the opposite
Moral imperative my ass
whats the opposite of a moral imperative even
warcrime?

I mean any moral prohibition
Morality prohibits universal algebra?
when you make mapo tofu is the substitute for the meat just more tofu
shiitake mushrooms
could be the move
plus peas and diced carrots
hmm yeah that sounds good

i wish i could find chinese rapeseed oil in the states
菜籽油
i cant find it in the asian markets near me
Mapo tofu is also just often served without meat right
Or am I having fake mapo
usually it's got ground beef or pork
mapou tofu is group theory now
TIL
/j
I mean whatever sustains group theorists Algebrists 
I ain’t never had no mapo tofu without meat
Everyone should be group theorist :3
does quantum groups count
We will convert you in time :3
What about abelian groups which also have an additional commutative, associative, unitary binary operation which distributes over the group operation?
What about that theory
Commutativity doesn’t exist
well that theory is obviously trivial because it commutes
Interesting…
This is worth looking into, seems promising
Mala market delivers
Can I have a hint for 3c please, I’m proceeding by contradiction
Show that dim Ann(W) = dim V - dim W
Then show that if W1 ≠ W2 then dim Ann(W1) [or W2] is too small
Direct product?
and you have strings of elements of G and H
free product?
👀👀👀
Groups rings fields btw ✌️
Roasted rapeseed oil btw
well there certainly are groups rings and fields there
if $E/F$ is a field extension where $[E : F] = mn$ for $m, n \in \bN_{>1}$, is there an extension $K/F$ such that $E/K = m$ and $E/F = n$?
lexi
i.e. does any composite-degree field extension factor into sub-extensions
Not necessarily, no.
Just going to sketch the following but this is easy for purely inseparable extensions so it reduces to separable extensions. For those you can embed in the Galois closure and it becomes the following group theory problem: given a finite group G and subgroup H (such that the intersection of all conjugates of H is the trivial subgroup), is there a chain of subgroups H ≤ ... ≤ G with prime indices?
if the extension is Galois then this is related to asking if the Galois group has a subgroup for each divisior
oh true
I guess the smallest example would be that A4 doesn't have any subgroup of order 6
what is good about the CRT for rings?
One of the many ways to decompose your ring into simple ones
whats useful about this though?
???
Don't you see the usefulness in this?
Don’t worry about it and you’ll see it get used at some point
But as an example say you want to count how many numbers are invertible mod n
Write n = p_1^n_1 • …•p_k^n_k and then CRT gives you that
Z/nZ ≈ Z/p_1^n_1 x … x Z/p_k^n_k
And so
(Z/nZ)* ≈ (Z/p_1^n_1)* x … x (Z/p_k^n_k)*
The CRT is great because it lets you solve math contest problems :^)
So the number of units mod n is
(Number of units mod p_1^n_1)•(number of units mod p_2^n_2)•…•(number of units mod p_k^n_k)
So all you need to do is compute the number of units mod a prime power
And this is very simple
Chill man
me when rational root theorem
Didn't mean it in a bad way. I was curious what's not useful about this
Here are another two examples to keep in mind on top of what Chmonkey said.
If you consider the ring Z[i], one thing you can ask is how does this ring behave relative to the usual ring Z we all know and love. For example it turns out that not all primes p in Z stay prime in Z[i]. One example of such is p=5. CRT gives you a way to see this. Take Z[i]/(5) = F_5[x]/(x^2+1) but then x^2+1=0 mod 5 has 2 distinct solutions i.e x=2,3 so then we have F_5[x]/((x-3)(x-2)). Notice that the factors we have there are comaximal so CRT applies here and we get Z[i]/(5) = F_5[x]/(x-3) x F_5[x]/(x-2) = F_5 x F_5. Now what this is saying is that 5 splits into two distinct prime ideals in Z[i] and sure enough you can check 5 = (2-i)(2+i). As a good exercise I recommend doing this in general for arbitrary p and see what you notice.
The other one is more geometrical. (well really the former one is the same sort of behavior but whatever). Geometrically CRT tells you if "geometric sets" are disjoint. For example take A= R[x,y]/(y(y-1)). Again (y) and (y-1) are comaximal so CRT applies here and you get that this ring is isomorphic to R[x,y]/(y) x Rx,y. Simplifying futher you get A = k[x] x k[x]. This is saying that the ring A is describing 2 disjoint geometric sets i.e we have the two lines y=0 and y=1. (Btw if you're curious this sort of ring is called the coordinate ring)
For grading polynomial rings (in Z^n lets say), are we allowed to set deg(xi) to anything we want, and it still creates a valid grading?
Yeah, this happens a lot in AG contexts, for reasons I should really be able to explain better
(Weighted projective space is useful in studying 4-folds and I forget exactly why)
the grading stuff seems weirdly powerful
I guess it makes sense cause we use degrees to argue stuff about polynomials all the time
yee
Grading = group action so yes
You can use weird gradings so that ideals become homogeneous under that grading and then apply graded algebra methods
oooh that's cool
Can I show that if M and N are S-1A-modules then M(x)N over S-1A and M(x)N over A are isomorphic by showing every bilinear map M x N -> L factors through M x N -> M(x)N over S-1A?
wait do graded algebras induce a group algebra structure
no
does a ring graded by monoid $M$ have a natural embedding into a $M$-ring $R[M]$
lexi
no

Sure
the homogeneous components may be more than 1-dimensional
every ring is trivially graded by 1 for example
every ring R is a monoid ring for the trivial monoid over R
i don’t mean over k i mean over some ring
still, if the component at the identity is very small compared to the other components then im not sure you can embed it into R[M] for some R
there is a natural projection onto the components
but its not necessarily an embedding because of what enpeace said
ohh
not a ring map
yes thats why i said projection
oh lol mb
why do you trust HChan not me 💔
maybe you can find a large enough R but at that point you loose any structure of your original graded ring so its kinda useless
oh yeah hmm
point is you have the grading structure because its much more flexible and general than monoid algebras
yeah ig
its like going from monoids to algebras
I mean if R is your graded ring and you consider R[M] (with a grading from M, not related to the grading of R).
Then you should be able to send
r to r * deg(r)
wait this is kinda interesting ngl
it’s a free way to get M-graded algebras

oh true
ℝ-graded algebra 
So they're more cofree than free I guess
Yea if you show they satisfy the same universal property then you win