#groups-rings-fields
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congruence permutable
And what's that?
this one is slightly annoying cuz the easy to remember version is also only a one-way implication, i.e. if there exists a term M such that M(x, x, y) = M(x, y, x) = M(y, x, x) = x, then congruences distribute. but not conversely
there is a way to fix this. that i forgot
Two binary relations R, S on a set commute iff R ∘ S = S ∘ R, ∘ being the relational product.
V is congruence-permutable if for every A ∈ V, every pair of congruences on A commute. The Malcev condition for this is a term m(x, y, z) satisfying m(x, x, z) = z and m(x, z, z) = x
this is the first one discovered, by Malcev
Oh yes.
and it is by far one of the most powerful ones
OK, now explain this.
it is also equivalent to every tolerance (internal symmetric reflective relation) being a congruence
do you know about interpretations of varieties?
Jones terms
you can also characterize it as the commutator being equal to the intersection
Basically, think of how you can interpret groups as magmas in multiple different ways simply by choosing different binary terms.
For example, choosing the term c(x, y) = xyx^-1 interprets groups into the variety of left-distributive magmas
k-algebras can be interpreted into lie algebras by choosing for [x, y] the commutator
Literally any binary term
yes because magmas require no condition to be satisfied
Sure, sure.
Wait that's kind of crazy
it is! and there higher dimensional analogues of this that pop up in commutator theory
OK but semigroups
Man I want to ask more
higher dimensional commutators 
So, if W satisfies some Malcev condition, i.e. has a collection of terms { ti } that satisfy some equations, and V interprets into W, then by definition V also has a collection of terms { ti } satisfying those same equations.
A concrete example: groups have the term m(x, y, z) = xy^-1z which satisfies the identities for a congruence permutable variety. Consequently, any variety that interprets into the variety of groups must also be congruence permutable
even more general is for example quasigroups
i guess a malcev condition is essentially "V interprets at least one of a family of varieties"
and intepretation is transitive
Clearly every variety interprets (uniquely) into Set; this just forgets all structure. Thus, any Malcev condition that doesnt hold in every variety doesnt hold in Set.
So if Set interprets into a variety, by transitivity it follows that this variety cannot satisfy any nontrivial Malcev conditions
i.e. there is a variety of sets equipped w/ a malcev term
Now note, that this doesnt mean the variety has no structure, its just that there often will be a Set-like behavior
its the fact you need a nullary operation
yea actually Set can literally only interpret n-ary operations in n distinct ways
Set does not have nullary operations, but pointed sets do interpret into monoids
Of course.
I suppose one could enumerate all term equations that hold of the projections
And get the universal variety for which there is a natural structure on all sets.
Amusing.
wait hold on that sounds really funny
smth smth operads
it's kinda funny that we can view interpretation as putting a co-W structure on F_V(1)
where V and W are varieties and F_V is the free functor
(i doubt this perspective is particularly useful but i like collecting funny facts like this)
interpretations the cleanest way to see them is using clones
Category of interpretations hmmm
Compose co-W structure on Free_V and co-V structure on Free_U into co-W structure on Free_U
hm, so for instance, x(yz) = (xy)z is valid, because if you only look at the leftmost or rightmost variables, they're equivalent
ohhhh
wait that makes more sense than what was in my head
i get ur idea better now
and equations <composition of p_n,i's> = p_{do the right thing}
wait no i think that becomes trivial
and that's all possible operations and equations you could ever naturally put on all sets
cuz you can just write down that these operations are projections
IG first-order language implicitly has projections
yes
But restrict to equations with the same variables on both sides
You'll get a more interesting variety
the idea i had was, we take a binary operation, and demand that its equations satisfy both the theory of the left projection AND the right projection
yea
it's kinda arbitrary admittedly
but it's funny at least
I think if we include this constraint on the variety then the interpretation of Set is an equivalence
i.e. it is "Morita-equivalent" to Set
yea
This shouldn't be though.
hm we get xyz = xwz
actually we might get something equivalent to Set^2
these look like rectangular bands
Which variety?
one binary operation
Oh this
Ah, you're intersecting the axioms.
yea
does this have to do with factor bands?
idk
0 doesn’t affect the calculation
copium
U r just denying facts and logic to protect ur feelings
i would never
Determine the minimal polynomial over Q for the element 1+ i .
I was thinking x^4+4=0, so it now remains to show its irreducibility
Is this meant to be 1+i?
This polynomial is not irreducible
I don’t think
I suggest adding 4x^2 and subtracting 4x^2, then applying difference of squares
I'm just going through various tests in my head
it fails Eisenstein
RRT is useless here
hmm
is there any test I'm forgetting
mhm
(I’m kinda cheating here because I know enough Galois theory to just immediately know what the min poly should be)
So x^4 + 4 = x^4 + 4x^2 + 4 - 4x^2 = (x^2 + 2)^2 - (2x)^2 = (x^2 + 2x + 2)(x^2 - 2x +2)
At one point you see this factorisation trick, and remember how to abuse it forever
right
got it
But also if I were trying to manually compute the min poly of 1+i what I’d do is like
x = 1 + i
x - 1 = i (get the rational parts to one side)
(x - 1)^2 = -1
and then rearrange
Complete the square and difference of squares in one go? Somewhere out there a GCSE teacher just got really excited
Here, would it be wrong to say both are of degree 2
Lemme supply formal proofs
$F(2+\sqrt{3}) \cong F[x]/(m_{\alpha}(x))$
\ From which it follows $[F(\alpha):F] = deg(m_{\alpha}(x)) = deg(\alpha)$.
\ We propose $1, \sqrt{3}$ to be a spanning set. It's also a basis.
Wai
Thus the degree is $2$
Wai
As for $1+ \sqrt[3]{2}+\sqrt[3]{4}$ We propose $1, \sqrt[3]{2}, $\sqrt[3]{4}$ to be a basis thus making it an extension of degree $3$
Wai
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Do you know about how degree of field extensions is multiplicative?
As in if one is a subfield of other
that theorm?
I have not yet reached there in my revision
Yes
In particular here is relevant that
1 + cbrt2 + cbrt4 is an element of Q(cbrt2)
so it's an extension of degree 2?
(This counts as revision for my galois exam, im not just procrastinating)
I’m definitely not procrastinating revising by making notes for our topics in infinite groups course
(Note: said course is non-examinable)
Ooh, what did you cover?
Sigma invariants mostly
They let you determine when a metabelian group is finitely presented
He’s been promising to cover some of Dawid Kielak’s work for a couple lectures so I’m waiting for that lol
Classic group theory example of working out all situations when semi-schleebs with the floob property are XYZ
😠
Also: *algebra
Group theory does feel particularly like making adjective soup and seeing what it does
Im joking im sure this is an iteresting property lol, finitely presented groups are nice and I guess a lot of groups are metabelian
that's ring theory buddy
well, alg geo
same thing
I can pull some insaneballs adjectives out that make "meta-abelian" look natural. "Q_d(p)-free" and "standard component" come to mind
lol
u get most of these through highly technical conditions that come up in the cfsg
it’s not like I can say anything when my paper is literally “when are Xs Y?”
Do not the finite groups
should've told that to Aschbacher in the 80s 💔
No
linear algebraic groups
oh like PSU_n(p^k) yeah I know those ones
you mean commutative Hopf algebras?
yeah i know those
How do you find the conjugacy classes in A4?
There's no solution in my book for this example and doing this by hand is taking forever... there has to be a better way right?
Worth noting, if you write a permutation in cycle notation, then conjugating by another permutation just permutes the elements.
E.g. conjugating (1 2 3) by (12)(34) gives (2 1 4)
I wrote out all the elements of S4, determined which ones were even, and then tried conjugating every element of A4 with every other element of A4 to see which ones are in the same conjugacy classes
Its just a big confusing mess tbh
I found this
yeah this would help but you can also just do what jagr said
so if you have two permutations x, y written out in cycle notation, one is conjugate to the other by permuting the elements in the cycles. Call this permutation z. S4 and A4 are centreless so z is the only element satisfying zxz^-1 = y, so they are conjugate in A4 if and only if z is even
How do I show that a relation is compatible with a group structure?
In particular I got this. I could show that the relation is indeed well-defined but I couldn't advance any further
Oh I got it
Are you asking for a formal definition of "compatible with the group structure"?
(I'm not sure that is unambiguous for relations that are not equivalence relations, or at least reflexive).
This should be an equivalence relation
Because everything’s commutative
That would depend a lot on what g is.
Sure it's an equivalence relation when 2g=0, but as far as I can see not otherwise.
(Hmm, or perhaps "for some g" is supposed to be parsed as part of the rhs of the ==>)
sure there is
substructure of G × G
(But how does it even define a particular relation when it says ==> instead of <=> ?)
its meant to be <=> probably
This
This, children, is why quantifiers go before the formula they quantify (and are not written with words in the middle of a symbolic formula!).
That is one possibility. But in the general case that is not equivalent to "if a ~ b then ac ~ bc and ca ~ cb", which is how it's formulated when we ask whether a (strict) ordering relation is compatible with the group structure.
compatibility means a ~ b and c ~ d => ac ~ bd though
maybe im too ua pilled
yeah what youre describing essentially is Malcev chains lol
I don't think that's strong enough to work for ordering relations, though.
(That is, when we say that an ordered field requires that the order relation is compatible with addition).
hm
(and a ~ b => a^-1 ~ b^-1)
well groups are Malcev so reflexive and compatible with my definition implies synmetry and transitivity anyways lol
Huh? Your definition is satisfied for < on (R,+), but that is definitely not a symmetric relation.
Oh, I see you wanted compatibility with inverses too.
yes
suppose x ~ y
=> y = m(x, x, y) ~ m(x, y, y) = x
where m(x, y, z) = xy^-1z
Then suppose x ~ y ~ z.
=> x = m(x, y, y) ~ m(x, x, z) = z
let $f(x)=x^4+ax^2+b\in\mathbb Q[x]$ be irreducible over $\mathbb Q$ with roots $\pm\alpha$ and $\pm\beta$ and let $L=\mathbb Q(\alpha,\beta)$ be the splitting field of $f$. I want to prove that Gal$(L/\mathbb Q)$ is one of the following groups: $C_4, C_2^2$ or $D_4$ ($D_n$ here denotes the dihedral group of order $2n$). I am thinking about doing it as follows:
\First if $[L:\mathbb Q]=4,$ then |Gal$(L/\mathbb Q)|=4$ and hence Gal$(L/\mathbb Q)$ is either $C_4$ or $C_2^2$. \\Otherwise, we know that $[L:\mathbb Q]=[\mathbb Q(\alpha,\beta):\mathbb Q]=[\mathbb Q(\beta)(\alpha):\mathbb Q(\alpha)][\mathbb Q(\alpha):\mathbb Q]=4[\mathbb Q(\beta)(\alpha):\mathbb Q(\alpha)]\mid 24$ so that $[\mathbb Q(\beta)(\alpha):\mathbb Q(\alpha)]\mid 6$. Now $[\mathbb Q(\beta)(\alpha):\mathbb Q(\alpha)]\leq [\mathbb Q(\beta):\mathbb Q]=4$ so that $[\mathbb Q(\beta)(\alpha):\mathbb Q(\alpha)]=2$ and $[L:\mathbb Q]=8$.\\Now I can look at where the $\alpha$ and $\beta$ can be sent by the $8$ elements of Gal$(L/\mathbb Q)$, $\alpha$ can be sent to $\pm\alpha,\pm\beta$ and $\beta$ can be sent to $\beta$ or the other root of Irr$(\beta,\mathbb Q(\alpha))$ (is that necessarily $-\beta$? but if so then arent we saying that Irr$(\beta,\mathbb Q(\alpha))=x^2-\beta^2$?). But from here I dont think that there is an element of Gal$(L/\mathbb Q)$ of order $4$ so where am i going wrong here
ali yassine
beta would not be sendt to a root of Irr(beta, Q(alpha)), but to a root of the image of this polynomial under the map
Q(alpha) -> Q(alpha, beta) you have defined thus far
Like, for example, say
beta was a root of
x^2 - alpha
a homomorphism taking alpha to gamma would need to take beta to a root of
x^2 - gamma
but isnt this just inclusion? So what is being done here is veiwing Irr(beta, Q(alpha)) as a polynomial in Q(alpha,beta)[x] which factors completely there?
and then looking at automorphisms of Q(alpha,beta) to see where alpha and beta can be sent to?
What is just inclusion?
I meant the homomorphism Q(alpha)->Q(alpha,beta) whose restriction to Q(alpha) is the identity map on Q(alpha)
Like if the automorphism takes alpha to alpha it will be the inclusion.
If it takes it to for example -alpha or beta, then it won't be
right
ah wait so what you meant by Q(alpha)->Q(alpha,beta) was the restriction of an automorphism Q(alpha,beta)->Q(alpha,beta)?
Yeah, that what you're trying to do right?
Describe the automorphisms
So you first determine where alpha should go, then where beta should go
You can compute that if you want.
But you can also just use the fact that an automorphism will permute the four roots, so there aren't that many options
so the other root would be -beta since the roots of f are \pm alpha and \pm beta but beta is not in Q(alpha) so alpha*beta isnt there too?
So indeed Irr(beta, Q(alpha)) is x^2 - beta^2
(Not that that is very helpful without relating it to alpha, but that's what it is)
But like what are you actually trying to do?
Because if you're trying to determine the Galois group in the case it has order 8, then I would just consider how the roots are permuted.
so when alpha is mapped to beta, beta cant be mapped to itself and if alpha is mapped to -beta, beta cant mapped to -beta
If alpha maps to beta, then -alpha maps to -beta, so the only options left are for beta to map to ±alpha
yea I am looking at where alpha and beta can be mapped to because Q is fixed and so knowing where these 2 go determines the automorphisms
Yeah, so 4 options for alpha, then only 2 options for beta. 4*2 = 8, so that must be everything
alright so let σ be the automorphism that maps alpha to -beta and beta to alpha and let τ be the automorphism that takes alpha to -alpha and fixes beta, then σ^4=τ^2=id and τστ=σ^{-1} and hence Gal(L/Q)=D_4
is that correct?
tysm jagr, have a great day/night!
A friend and I were discussing things and she came up with an interesting question
it's not clear to me that this limit would even be well-defined
because there are generally more than one morphism between two finite groups
but limits only make sense over a fixed diagram where all the morphisms are necessarily compatible
so you would either need to duplicate some groups, or remove some morphisms
Finitary infinite symmetric group is a good candidate
it's the group of all permutations of N that move only finitely many points
contains every finite group as a subgroup by Cayley
it's also more or less minimal because it's the union of S_n
making that precise seems a bit tricky
if you have any group G containing each S_n in such a way that S_n\subseteq S_{n+1} for each n (the obvious embedding) then at the least you get an inclusion from the finitary infinite symmetric group into G
More precisely, such a group must contain each S_n, and we can fix representatives to form an increasing chain S_1 \to S_2 \to …
The union of this chain is the group you mentioned
(I’m interpreting this to mean “take the colimit of a skeleton of the category of finite groups with morphisms the injective homomorphisms”, which feels like a reasonable interpretation of the question)
Every group has a representative in this chain, because every group injects into one of these S_n
That said it doesn't seem particularly well defined since for instance you could also take the infinite general linear group and it also contains every finite group and is a union of an increasing sequence of finite groups
as blake said, injective homomorphisms still isn't enough to guarantee compatibility
but it is a step in the right direction, I think
but yeah I think the issue is as HChan said you have multiple injective maps
so you can't really take a colimit
or if you can it's going to be pretty ugly
or it might be zero
either make a choice of representative from the set of injectives to make it work, or you let your diagram consists of the ascending chain S1 -> S2 -> S3 -> S4 -> .... and every group of size n to have one embedding into Sn
that would be a way of making Sinfinity be a colimit of all the finite groups, in some sense
I mean you can consider the category of all finite groups and all injective homomorphisms and take the colimit of its inclusion into Grp.
The colimit would be the trivial group though.
whats the reason the definition of initial/final objects to want uniqueness? it looks equally "universal" if its simply there exist a morphism with A to everything (and converse)
well, if you simply require existence then it does lose universality actually
in Grp, for instance, by that definition every group would be initial and terminal
since the trivial group homomorphism always exists
or maybe here is a better answer, turns out the uniqueness requirement will enforce any initial / terminal object to be unique up to (unique) isomorphism (prove it!), which is not something you get with just existence
without uniqueness you cannot conclude anything because the existence of a morphism is in general not a hard condition to satisfy
i genuinely cant tell if im crazy or not rn, isnt the limit of any diagram with an initial object, that object
no one else has said this, so i think im misunderstanding the question
yes
colimit is more interesting
which i assume is what theyre acc talking about
well then it's the final object of Grp, i.e. also 0
oh lol
ok yea we can consider only injective maps, i do wonder why it gets trivialized then
oh yea cuz of stuff like
Z/2 embeds into (Z/2)^2 3 different ways
in general G embeds into G^2 in at least 3 ways
so we get (g, 1) ~ (g, g) ~ (1, g) and thus G^2 is trivialized
I am trying to see whether in k[x1, x2,...] theres an ideal without a primary decomp and I thought of <x_ix_j: i \neq j>
So that ideal is radical, so a minimal primary decomp would have to be an intersection of minimal primes containing it
And the minimal primes containing it SHOULD be <x_i: i\neq j> for fixed j
Is it correct to conclude from there that the primary decomp should contain all of them?
I mean I know that should be true in this specific instance by symmetry
But my question is in general do I have to use all minimal primes in the primary decomposition?
Or not even by symmetry, just showing that if theres one of them you dont use (say the one with no x_k), the intersection has x_k and thus cant be <xixj: i \neq j>
allufi is using the word terminal to refer to both initial and final objects, weird
I think his point is more that terminal means at the end so it could mean either initial or final, but in fairness ive never seen terminal used that way, ive only seen it be synonymous for final, but maybe this is just dated
i use terminal for final too lol
As does every book I have to hand (I checked out of curiosity), im unsure if it is dated terminology or just a weird comment
i think its dated
Even Maclane uses terminal in the normal way though
what would be the minimal requirements for a module M so that Hom(M,-) to reflect isos?
what do you mean by reflect isos
seems quite restrictive, I can't think of any examples aside from free modules
well i think for instance this is true when there is some n such that M^n has R as summand
M being a generator is equivalent
how would you define a generator?
For any pair of parallel map Hom(M, -) takes them to different maps (if they're different).
This is also equivalent
seems remniscent of being projective
but like, the other way around
is this also known as a separator?
In mathematics, more specifically category theory. A generator (otherwise known as a seperator), or generating family (resp. separating family) is a collection of objects that "see enough" of the category that their perspective is enough to determine the morphisms in the category.
oh woops got stuck reading nlab instead
I mean they're both conditions on Hom(M, -)
Projective being that it's exact and generator that it is faithful.
How do we know that phi preserves addition? I don't believe that it's simply a requirement we can set
I'm not sure what you mean
The fact that it preserves addition is a consequence of the group operation on Z
And by definition of phi
Well
(m + n)*1 = m*1 + n*1
So it preserves addition
I guess it comes from addition in R being associative if you want to blame it on something
Oh, buh😭
In retrospect that was obvious
I’m half asleep so that’s probably why I missed it
Maya the jolli
Challenging monkey
The challengers
I don’t feel I particularly strongly challenge gender norma
Maybe once these Hakama pants I ordered off mercari get here tho
Makes sense
those are cool
https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Splitting_field is this definition of splitting field of a group equivalent to saying that the endomorphism ring for every simple KG module is just K * id
asking because that is how splitting field for a group was defined in lecture notes when i took rep theory and that was sufficient to show that KG is isomorphic to a direct sum of matrix over K and then we showed the important stuff
hm lets say we just require char K = 0
Yes, its equivalent.
So for a KG-module M and a field extension F you have End(F(x)M) = F(x)End(M), so if End(M) = K extending scalars take simple modules to simple modules. Since FG and KG are the sum of all the simple modules and FG = F(x)KG every simple FG module is extended from a KG module.
Conversely if End(S) is not K you can extend scalars by a subfield of End(S) so that F(x)S is not simple. Then a summand of F(x)S will give you a summand of S using that every FG module is extended from a KG module
(x) is tensoring right
so thats with G acting trivially on F in the first line right
Well it's not really about G acting on F, but that
F(x)M becomes an FG module, by
ag * b(x)m = ab(x)gm
ah okay i see
but i fail to see the link between what you typed up and the statement that any representation over a field extension is equivalent to a representation over K
A representation M of FG being equivalent to one over K is exactly saying that M = F(x)N
oh ill have to think about that, thanks a lot!!
The basic idea is if V is an F-vector space and you pick a basis, if you let V' be the K-span of that basis then V = F(x)V'.
So the question is when does V' become a KG module
And that's when the matrices describing the action of G has coefficients in K
what is alpha1|Z = alpha2|Z in this context?
They mean the restrictions of α_1 and α_2 to ℤ
can someone give the full proof for this (Does this category have initial objects)
I havent had any luck trying myself
in this situation, an initial object (if it exists) is of the form f: A —> P for some particular set P, with the property that given any other object g: A —> Z, there is a unique function h: P —> A making the triangle commute, i.e. g = h \circ f
now there aren’t very many sets around that are naturally related to A, to try as a candidate for what I called P
This also has to be about the equivalence relation ~ on A
so a natural thing to try is the map A -> A/~ taking a in A to its equivalence class [a]
now suppose we have a function g: A —> Z for any set Z, with the property a ~ b implies g(a) = g(b)
Define a function h: A/~ —> Z by h([x]) = g(x)
this is well defined, because if a ~ b, so [a] = [b], we have g(a) = g(b) by hypothesis of g
and it makes the triangle commute
to make the triangle commute forces that definition of h, so it’s unique as well
Hi, I'm struggling a bit with problem b here.
I assume it's the same route of application as problem a, but I don't exactly know how to generalize this in the same way due to it being a polynomial ring.
Translation: 'Let p be a prime number and n>=1. Show that every irreducible polynomial f(x) in Zp[x] of degree n divides the polynomial x^(p^n) - x in Zp[x]'
All you need to show is that the roots of f are elements of a field with order p^n, then it follows from a
I think I got it, thanks! :D
?? 
Ohhh ok
By just saying it’s value on an integer is the value of the function when you pretend that integer is a rational
I searched it up 😭
You’re just restricting the domain
Choice of axiom monkey
Zorn’s monkey
it means alpha1 ○ iota = alpha2 ○ iota
but outside of category theory we often think of post-composing by an injective map as "restricting" the domain
isn't that precomposition
One map's precomposition is another map's postcomposition.
petition to write (x)f○g for applying f to x, then g to the result of that
yes!! i support this
Wait this gif is terrible let me get a better one
the issue is that i genuinely lose 50% of my reading comprehension when i can't say things in english
maybe i should say "f of g" like in middle school
I just write and say fg
my preferred convention is f ○ g is f after g but fg is f then g
Ah okay so your preferred convention is just being wrong
I say f of g, o for of. But I’m also not 12 so I just write fg
One is function composition the other is multiplication in an algebraic structure
i will admit that the use of a symbol that takes 2 arguments to denote an operation that acts on lists is pretty annoying at times
it is opposite multiplication in an algebraic structure
do you mean like, taking a group G, and defininig G^op where x *' y = y * x?
i think its in response to my message
herstein w
maybe I'm missing something
but how's this any different from saying exactly one of a,b is a unit
because if a,b are both units, r is a unit
this has been confusing me for a while because if we blindly apply this defn, yeah, this proof make sense
but a could be invertible too, could it not
It's not
Like theyre equivalent, so it's just picking the simpler statement.
It couldn't because one of them needs to be in p
I don't follow
Following the proof a = pr, hence a is not a unit
ah , I see as primes aren' invertible
any tips on determining whether a quadratic form has solutions?
Kind of weird way to go about shwoing (x). is prime, but how does this look
suppose there were a polynomial in $(x)$ such that$p(x,y)=q(x,y)\cdot r(x,y)$ where $q$or $r$ have a term of the form $a \cdot y^n$, then and only then would $(x)$ not be prime. However, $p(x,y) \in (x)$ and thus every term of the polynomial has $x$ as a factor. But if our assumption were true, there would be a term without $x$ as a factor , violating that $p$ is in (x)$.
Wai
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That works (assuming you meant “q and r”, not or)
The quicker way would be to observe that Q[x, y]/(x) = Q[y] is an integral domain
right, I wrote that at first and then backtracked 😭
The quicker way would be to observe that Q[x, y]/(x) = Q[y] is an integral domain
right,makes senbse
well, to show $(x,y)$ is prime I can just use $Q$ is an ID
Wai
You can do even better than that, Q is a bit more than an ID
it's maximal
Yur
as for the first to show it's not maximal, it's contained in (x,y)≠Q[x,y]
Let $R= R'[x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n]$. It's then sufficient to show $(x_1,x_2)$ isn't principal. Let $(x_1,x_2)=(p(x_1,x_2))$. We then consider $r(x_1,x_2)=q(x_1,x_2)\cdot p(x_1,x_2)+x_1$. We note all these elements lie in $(x_1,x_2)$. However $x_1$ isn't a multiple of $p(x_1,x_2)$. We thus have a contradiction.
Wai
A fun exercise is that if R is a commutative ring (with unity) and R[x] is a PID, then R is a field
(This implies what ur told to prove)
will do it once I finish this RA exercise 🙏
hey everyone, i have my algebra 2 final later today, and im wondering if i could discuss this practice final with anyone here to help prep
its a bit long but ofc you can help with as much as youre willing to
the first part is pretty easy
1(i) is just a routine checking of Q, Q(sqrt[5]{2}), Q(zeta) as not being splitting fields of x^5 - 2
well after showing that each alpha_i is a root of x^5 - 2 which shows that we have a complete list of complex roots by FTA
then as sqrt[5]{2} and zeta induce simple extensions of Q of degree 5 and 4 respectively, and 5 and 4 are coprime, it follows that Q adjoin both is the product
and since that extension is Galois the Galois group will have the order that is the degree of the extension
for 1(ii), we know that elements in Gal(K/Q) send elements to other elements that satisfy the same minimal polynomials
and this is necessary and sufficient pretty sure
sigma just sends a root of x^5 - 2 to another root
and tau just permutes the 5th roots of unity
uniqueness might be a little annoying, unless theres an elegant way to do it that im forgetting
1(iii) is kinda confusing, i mean its pretty obvious that sigma and tau do these things so maybe its just supposed to be an easy question
1(iv) is kinda tough
i mean sigma and tau have to generate Gal(K/Q) since the group they generate is at least order 20 by appealing to element orders
nonabelian is just showing that (12345)(2354) isnt the same as (2354)(12345)
oh and then
Sylow p-subgroups are cyclic because 20 = 2^2 * 5 so that the Sylow 2-subgroups are the only ones to check
but (2354) generates a cyclic Sylow 2-subgroup and all the other Sylow 2-subgroups being conjugate to it means theyre isomorphic
i.e. theyre also cyclic
seemed tough but it wasnt bad at all
alright question 2 is definitely testing my knowledge of the fundamental theorem of galois theory much more heavily
actually the first one is Sylow theory
mmm its kinda both
well ok it suffices to show by FTGT that there are five subgroups with index 5 in Gal(K/Q)
i.e. order 4
by Sylow theory we know that there is either 1 or 5 subgroups of order 4
there isnt 1 subgroup otherwise Gal(K/Q) would be abelian
alright and that works
ok finding the elements explicitly
i think its just Q(alpha_i) is it not
i think you can show that if these werent distinct among each other then you can find that theyre equal to Q(sqrt[5]{2})
but thats not possible since Q(sqrt[5]{2}) is in R
maybe the ones were zeta's degree is opposed by 2 is less easy but meh
ok 2(ii) is invoking the fact that subfields are isomorphic if and only if their corresponding subgroups are conjugate
by construction the Fi's correspond to subgroups that are conjugate by Sylow theory
and none of them are Galois since their subgroups arent normal in Gal(K/Q)
ok sorry i was gone for a sec
alright next i have to show that there are unique degree 10 extensions of each Fi
i think this amounts to showing that each subgroup corresponding to Fi contains a unique subgroup of order 2
and this follows from the fact that each Sylow 2-subgroup is cyclic
I think sigma is unique by Sylow, it generates a cyclic group of order 5. I’m trying to think of why tau is unique but I imagine you can do something similar (you can probably entirely avoid Sylow though if you’re brighter than me)
tau being unique by Sylow might require a later argument
the fact that the Sylow 2-subgroups are cyclic
hmm no
since there are multiple Sylow 2-subgroups
Yeah you probably have to say something about the roots (and I should really know what lol, lemme ponder)
i guess doing it directly could be not too bad
like the cleanest way to represent elements constructively in K is by $\sum_{j = 0}^4 \sum_{i = 0}^4 c_{i,j} (\sqrt[5]{2})^i (\zeta)^j$
hiidostuff
Yeah I guess actually thinking about it is actually “clear”
Which sounds like a cop out but if you just write down what you’re trying to do it’s forced
But yeah sigma is easy by Sylow at least
yeah
like even just constructively its clear
the only reason i wanted to avoid that direction is because id have to show that 20 terms get sent to the same thing but even thats not too bad
ok ok
the reason its not too bad is because those 20 terms are just products of two things
though if i were to do it that way my intimidating british prof would comment on the fact that i shouldve done it more elegantly lol
For this, just remember how you labeled the alpha I guess
Sigma sends alpha_i->alpha_i+1
yeah i mean thats what i meant by it was confusingly easy
Oh sorry I misread but yeah I think it’s just that
(I actually have a Galois exam tomorrow so I’m working through this and comparing against what you got btw which is why I’m just replying at random points lol)
fair enough lol
good luck to you as well then
Thanks! I think it should be pretty chill tbh, I’m not too worried
Also it seems like the new lecture is much more likely to ask us to reprove like every lemma from the notes rather than do any sort of computations so 
im somewhat worried since my prof really implied that theres gonna be a lot of group theory
im a tad rusty on it
Sylow theory is fine but if i have to do a bunch of group action stuff i might be in trouble
I mean if it’s mostly Galois the main things to know id think are Sylow, Lagrange, S_5 is generated by a 2 cycle and 5 cycle and that A_5 is simple non Abelian
yeah fair enough
these are pretty easy
on another note though, do you remember the argument that cyclic Sylow 2-subgroups have unique elements of order 2?
i know the visualization of how these subgroups are related is like a flower and thats a "visual proof"
I don’t remeber the exact details but I think it’s an induction argument on 2^n, and basically a case of writing down what needs to be shown
ill just have to think about it some more i suppose
for now ill move on though
alright 2(iv) is also not too bad
pretty sure theres a property of Sylow p-subgroups in that every subgroup of order p^k is found in some Sylow p-subgroup
so if we have some subgroup of order 2 in Gal(K/Q) its found in some Sylow 2-subgroup but then that must be the unique subgroup of order 2 in that Sylow 2-subgroup
meaning by pigeonhole theres only five subgroups of order 2
alright 2(v) is a direct result of this
since the Sylow 2-subgroups are conjugate among each other and conjugation preserves order, it follows that these conjugations restrict to conjugations of the subgroups of order 2
Cyclic groups have a unique element of each order dividing their order
true
i just cant remember why we cant have something like two Sylow 2-subgroups sharing the element (12) or smth
This isn't a priori true
yes i should specify in the case where the Sylow 2-subgroups are cyclic
I'm not sure that actually helps with having elements in the intersection of two sylow subgroups. In this case you can argue though that if E_i contains F_i AND F_j, then it would be equal to K, so each E_i contains a unique F_i and thus there are 5 unique ones (corresponding to the order 2 elements)
i just realized i interpreted the problem incorrectly
well i suppose 2(iv) is where we need that no element of order 2 is found in more than one Fi
Each subgroup being cyclic (make sure you argued why that is) implies that there is some field containing F_i of degree 10. For uniqueness you'll probably need to make the kind of argument I did
actually wait a minute
no we never need to know that there are five Ei's
i think there does end up being five
but 2(iii) just establishes that there are subgroups of order 2 that correspond to each Fi
and 2(iv) says that these subgroups of order 2 are the only such ones
The reasoning here is that group theory alone doesn't imply the intersection is trivial, but the fixed field of an intersection is the composite of the fixed fields (fun fact), so trivial intersection is equivalent to composite being K
but nothing is stopping us from having only one Ei right
i see
oh wait 2(v) is where we need that theres more than one
if there isnt then that subgroup corresponding to Ei is normal in Gal(K/Q)
It's enough to say the intersection of two sylows is trivial, because then the subgroup corresponding to E_i can't be fixed by conjugation
makes sense
though im not fully sure why Ei containing Fi and Fj implies that Ei is K
The subgroup they generate is at most order 20. It can be smaller if the intersection of the subgroups generated by them isn't trivial
oh
well the intersection has to be trivial
bc order of elements in <sigma> and <tau>
Each F_i contains a root of x^5-2, which are given by primitive 5th root of unity * 2^(1/4). Once you have two of these in one field, you get a field containing 2^(1/4) and a primitive 5th root of unity, so it's all of K
thats what i was vaguely referencing when i said "appealing to element orders"
Oh, yea in this case that's true because the orders are coprime
oh yeah by 2(i)
very nice
alright
then finishing 2(v) no subgroup corresponding to an Ei in Gal(K/Q) is normal since the Sylow 2-subgroups are conjugate and theres more than 1
Exactly
alright 3 is certainly the hardest
not surprising
honestly i find it easier to first express complex conjugation as a word in the generators sigma and tau
itll just end up being tau^2 anyways
i guess the explanation as to why we can be certain complex conjugation is in Gal(K/Q) in the first place is that it fixes R and thus Q and sqrt[5]{2}, and that complex conjugates of primitive 5th roots of unity are still primitive 5th roots of unity
Yea, that's all you need
next up i have to show that L = Q(zeta) is Galois and is also the unique subfield of K that is degree 4 over Q
ah i see what to do here
well L is Galois because its the splitting field of the 5th cyclotomic polynomial
its degree 4 because that polynomial is degree 4
and its unique as any subfield of K that is degree 4 over Q corresponds to a subgroup of order 5 in Gal(K/Q) and Sylow theory shows theres only one of those
too late 😎
oh boy 3(iii) is an A5 moment
Wdym
Determine whether L/Q is Galois
Is hysterical. My guy, it's a degree 2 extension
lol
i mean you can also use the uniqueness
L' corresponds to A5 which is normal in S5
oh uhh oops
i got ahead of myself
uhh well L' is fixed by complex conjugation that might be important
wait ive done a hw problem about this
wait wait
since Gal(K/Q) is a subgroup of S5 cant i pass to S5
S5 has order 120
Then you wanna show that it's the intersection with A5?
like if the subgroup corresponding to L' is index 2 in S5 its restriction is index 2 in Gal(K/Q) right
yeah exactly
That still doesn't prove it's a unique index 2 subgroup
yeah uniqueness isnt there yet
but thats probably the nicest way to get thats its index 2 at all
If you just wanna show existence, you can just take the subgroup generated by Gal(K/Q(\zeta)) and an order 2 element
It won't be index 2. It would contain a subgroup of order 5 (since a 5-cycle is even) but it won't contain any element of order 2 cuz those are odd
So it can't be order 10
oh i see
So here's one thing you can do:
Any order 10 (index 2) subgroup is generated by Gal(K/Q(\zeta)) and an element of order 2.
Show all order 2 elements are conjugate via an element of Gal(K/K(\zeta))
In fact, every order 2 element must be contained in a sylow 2-subgroup, so they're all conjugate by question 2, so every index 2 subgroup is conjugate (Must contain Gal(K/Q(\zeta)) since it contains an element of order 5, and an element of order 2)
and any index 2 subgroup is normal, so every subgroup generated by an elt of order 2 and order 5 is is the same.
hmm
this makes sense
ok wait so every subgroup generated by an element of order 2 and an element of order 5 is the same, doesnt that mean theres a unique subgroup of order 10?
That's my conclusion, yes
Every order 10 subgroup is generated by g,h where g is of order 5 and h is of order 2.
Conjugating g doesn't change anything since Gal(K/Q(\zeta)) is normal and every element is a generator of it, and conjugating h gives another element of order 2. You can conjugate any 2 subgroups of order 10 by conjugating one order 2 element to another.
Order 10 (index 2) subgroups are normal, thus since they're all conjugate there's just one
what the helly do i do here
the chapter already gives us the lemma that two final objects are iso to each other
What do you know
this proof would just be they are iso because they are iso
Lmao
Okay uh, prove the stronger thing that
They’re unique up to unique isomorphism
It isn’t actually
As an example “group generated by an element of order 5” are unique
But not uniquely, there’s many ways to define an isomorphism between them
By mapping any generator to any other generator
allufi
Here for final objects, there’s a single isomorphism between them
Oh yeah true
Okay well whatever
Look my point is
this lowkey makes sense
If you have two things that you knew were Z because idk
God told you they were
You can make an isomorphism between them
I also realized that L is a degree two extension of L' and L is degree 4 so ofc L' is degree 2 over Q
Errr
So thats existence ig
I’m talking about Z with just +
what do you mean were Z? named Z or like property of Z
Then you can’t distinguish +1 and -1
Like are isomorphic to Z
Look man
Just put the unique isomorphism in the bag
Ohh
And when you get to groups you’ll get what I was saying
With the cyclic group thing
Once you prove it's not rational or all of L yea. Since L is Galois inside of L it's just the fixed field of tau^2 (at least it's contained in the fixed field)
But not fixed by, e.g. tau, so it can't be L and it can't be Q, so it must be a degree 2 extension (and is in fact equal to the fixed field)
i think this is an example
actually, how would i go about showing that zeta + zeta^-1 isnt rational?
its easy to see that its real
wait wait no i dont need to show it isnt rational'
we just have [L : L'][L' : Q] = 4
and [L : L'] = 2 since L' is a real field and zeta satisfies a degree 2 polynomial over L'
This is circular since you are assuming it's not rational
What I'm saying is this element is fixed by some of the galois group, but not all of it, so it can't be Q or L
Oh sorry you said L/L'
yeah my bad
Yes that also works
3(iv) part 1 isnt that bad
part 2 might be kinda troublesome but maybe not
well its easy to see that E' = Q(sqrt[2]{5}, zeta + zeta^-1) is degree 10 over Q
since 5 and 2 are coprime
so by problem 2 its one of the Ei
well then the subgroup that fixes it is order 2
we know that complex conjugation fixes E' since its extension elements are real
and so complex conjugation must generate the subgroup that fixes E'
(well more formally the restriction of complex conj but whos counting)
ok 3(v) is showing that theres exactly 14 subfields which kinda feels like its coming out of left field
not counting the obvious ones theres 12
5 of these are the Fi
id like to say that another 5 of these are the Ei but we didnt show that these are in bijection with the Fi
actually yeah we totally did nvm
ok and then theres L and L'
itll end up being the case that Q, L', L, and K are the only Galois subfields
well from here its just using the previous classifications weve done
if F is some subfield of K then it corresponds to a subgroup of Gal(K/Q)
that subgroup must have order 1,2,4,5,10,20
You just count subgroups. You already know there's a unique order 10 one, and a unique order 5 one. The only other options are order 4 (The F_i) and order 2 (The E_i)
1 or 20 corresponds to K or Q respectively
if subgroup is order 2 then field is order 10 hence one of the Ei
if subgroup is order 4 then field is order 5 hence one of the Fi
if subgroup is order 5 then field is order 5 hence L
Ye
if subgroup is order 10 then field is order 2 hence L'
cool
alright that solves that
4 is cute but kind of unfair if you don't remember your trig
besides getting stuck on 3(iii) i feel pretty confident
lets see if i do remember my trig
well Q(sqrt 5) being a subfield is gonna mean that the real part of zeta is a rational expression of sqrt 5
i think i constructed a pentagon this semester so i should know this
well cos(2pi/5) is a root of the polynomial 16x^5 -20x^3 + 5x - 1
yeah i gotta be more clever about this
i mean cos has a period of 2pi so if x = 2pi/5 then cos(2x) = cos(3x)
then $\cos{2x} = 2\cos^2{x} - 1$ and $\cos{3x} = 4\cos^3{x} - 3 \cos{x}$
hiidostuff
so that cos(2pi/5) satisfies the polynomial $4x^3 - 2x^2 - 3x + 1$
hiidostuff
ok is this reducible
4-2-3+1 = 0 so (x-1) is a factor
4x^2 + 2x - 1 is the quotient
so its finding the roots of this
yeah its $\frac{-1 + \sqrt 5}{4}$
hiidostuff
so Q(sqrt 5) is indeed a subfield
Epic
the group Gal(K/Q(sqrt 5)) is gonna be generated by only a power of tau
No
yeah nvm thats wrong
It's gonna be the unique order 10 subgroup found before. Take your pick at generators
every power of sigma is in this group
well i mean i know sigma is in here
tau^2 is too since zeta and its conjugate share a real part
uhh so that actually means sigma, tau^2 generate this Galois group
and im pretty sure this group is isomorphic to D10
since the roots of x^5 - 2 are permuted freely
and tau^2 is reflection across the real axis
cos(2x)=cos(4pi/5) = -cos(pi/5) = -cos(3x)
oh yeah that too
Sorry typo, my point is it's equal to minus each other
yeah after checking relations its definitely D10
sigma corresponds to r and tau^2 to s
Yea, so it's generated by an order 5 and order 2 subgroup, one of them is normal and they intersect trivially, so it's a semidirect product of these two subgroups
Then it's just about checking the action of conjugation, and it's exactly sending sigma to sigma^(-1), which is the same as the action for the semidirect product presentation of D10
ah thats a better way
i forgot a bit about semidirect products so i resorted to checking relations though i think thats insufficient iirc
though i think two groups that have the same order and whose generators satisfy the same relations are isomorphic
maybe not
isnt only the order 5 subgroup normal?
otherwise D10 would be abelian
Normal in Gal(K/Q(sqrt(5))
That would make it normal
no no the center of symmetries of odd polygons is trivial
yeah only the order 5 one is
Yea, so the order 5 subgroup is normal and is acted on by conjugation by the order 2 element
yep
alright cool im remembering now
semidirect products are determined by how the non-normal subgroup acts on the normal one
awesome, since my exam is only about galois theory, im feeling pretty confident, i was more ready to do this practice exam than i thought
is there anything of note that i seemed lacking in or do things seem fine
Maybe just being a little more comfortable with finite group theory
Other than that you did well, but some arguments seem to elude you since they lie entirely within group theory (like the uniqueness of the order 10 subgroup)
yeah i agree my group theory is pretty rusty
thanks for the help!
Happy to help!
I suppose here I simpy say $F[x]$ is an ED and thus a PID. Then $(f(x))$ is prime and thus maximal
Wai
Wai
where p is the order of F
That’s just a single polynomial
well I suppose not, it just makes sure that there's no factor in the field
My hint is that Euclid could have proved this
mhm, div algo then
how
That’s up to you
oh, got it
$x^{np}-(p-1)$
for n in N
Wai
or ofcourse just use euclids proof of infinite primes
I suppose this is what I was supposed to use
This polynomial isn't irreducible.
so this yea
I remember doing this earlier too
is there a real difference between defined up to isomorphism and unique up to isomorphism
here's how i understood the first one, and ill be precise
Let C be a well defined category. And apply a definition P(x) on all elements of ObjC. And for all x, y: P(x) and P(y) => x and y are iso. You could also think of it as set of objects satisying the definition, and as a result all its possible pairs are iso.
the iso part is correct. the unique up to iso just specifies that only one exists of whatever property you say is unique but there may be different ways of expressing it
theres also unique up to unique iso
i still dont get the difference
can you explain in more detail
Ok assume they are
well they are
unless its notation for smt idk
as in Z is set of integers, and nZ is just the set of integers scaled by some integer n
sorry probably shouldve led w that lol
Ohh yes they are iso
anyways, those two are examples of infinite cyclic groups right
and they are all isomorphic to each other, but they arent unique
im not familiar with groups sorry but i think i can follow
yes they arent, in terms of set theory atleast
oh oops
hm okay sets
one sec
oh actually i dont think there is a real difference
two sets are isomorphic if you can just create a bijection between them i.e satisfy the same properties.
unique up to isomorphism just classified such sets that satisfy some set of properties but may be written differently
I would say that the only difference is that the former is about a definition while the latter could be more general.
I.e. something is defined up to isomorphism if the definition specifies something unique up to isomorphism.
But for example I could say that the category of abelian groups has a unique indecomposable projective up to isomorphism. But I wouldn't say that "indecomposable projective" is defined up to isomorphism.
A definition that determines something up to isomorphism. Like the definition of projective cover for example
Oh huh
which is defined up to isomorphism (but interestingly not up to unique isomorphism)
Cool I haven't seen projective covers before
ive seen injective envelope briefly tho
It's just the dual
yea
But yeah injective envelopes come up a little more, since they exist for every module over every ring
Whereas projective covers are a little rarer
i don’t understand what you are saying here. something seems wrong in the sentence “And for all x,y: …”
it just means all pairs that satisifies the definition are iso
okay, thanks
just trying to understand this one. so a projective cover for an object X is a pair (P,p) where P is a projective object and p : P —> X is a superfluous epimorphism (whatever that means).
if i take another pair (Q,q), the claim that there is an isomorphism of P and Q that is compatible with the choice of superfluous epimorphism?
Yes, specifically there is an isomorphism f: P -> Q with
p = q f
For example consider R-modules for R = k[[x]], then the projective cover of k = R/(x) is the canonical projection R -> k.
But there are several automorphisms R -> R fixing this. For example multiplication by 1+x
okay, sorry if i’m just completely dropping the ball on this one, but how does this apply to the situation @rocky cloak ? projective objects are supposed to be defined up to isomorphism, but i’m struggling to see how to apply JFK’s reasoning in this case.
If P is the property "x is the projective cover of k", then any two objects with property P are isomorphic (to R)
So the projective cover of k is defined up to isomorphism
ah okay. thank you!
Are flash cards a smart choice for memorizing important definitions and theorems in algebra?
I've got a final exam in abstract algebra coming up. It's an oral exam, and I'm pretty shaky when it comes to proving things. Like, it takes me a very long time to gather the necessary definitions and theorems. I have heard that it's better to just do a larger volume of problems. However, at the speed I do problems it's unlikely that I can do more than 2 or 3 a day and actually understand them. Does anyone have thoughts or advice on this?
Idk I thought the usual advice is not to be memorising definitions and theorems but rather to understand stuff
I feel like you shoulda been memorizing this over the semester
If you really are at a spot you just gotta cram make a quizlet or some shit but you’re supposed to have memorized these definitions by using them in proofs throughout the class
i have always thought this a little silly advice to give to an undergrad -- if it's stuff they're using a lot ofc they will just naturally internalize the important ideas, but ofc we also just take classes which we don't really care about and just need to pas the exam for and memorizing stuff here is totally reasonable
honestly memory is also useful for our field of interest it's just not something we usually need to worry about since we will remember stuff anyway
but yeah memorizing definitions is a perfectly good study method
esp for an oral exam where you will be expected to know the key definitions well
and to be able to relay them quickly
I find that I memorize things much easier by not actively trying to memorize them
Doing examples especially is one of the best ways to accidentally memorize things
For me personally, the processes of memorising a proof and condensing the proof to its core ideas are essentially the same thing
Try condensing a proof 3-4 times and I’ll literally remember it for years lol
because then instead of having to remember the definition I'm like "oh it's like this one example" then all the details just come to me
yeah exactly this is big
I try to get proofs to a point where I could explain the proof in a few sentences
Must be nice, in my Galois exam today I forgot 2 proofs I had done an hour before
can anyone recommend me a groups, rings and fields indepth yt video so i can learn and understand better, since my lecture notes that my prof gave are abit too hard to understand
Benedict Gross has a nice lecture course on it. Also Richard Borcherds, but I preffer the former for an introduction
how hard is groups rings and fields bc im a 1st year uni student doing maths and its my first time studying this
it's not inherently very hard, but it does take time to get used to the ideas involved and the style of problem solving -- especially depending on how much experience you have with proof-based courses
i basically have no experience w proof based courses, abstract algebra is one of my first courses😭
this is not a problem but will mean you'll need to put more time into it than you might otherwise
it's just a matter of practice really
Pretty much any math topic can be arbitrarily hard. But the basic abstract algebra sequence is great, a lot of fun and provides new ways of thinking. With patience and enough interest, it should come pretty smoothly
i was struggling on the first part of algebra, relations for like a day or two, idk why it was so hard for me to grasp the concept...............
but groups, rings and fields do seem fun icl
why the sob emoji? The division proof vs non-proof courses shouldn't exist, if it exists it's because there's people making programs who don't know what they are doing. Abstract algebra as a first course with proofs is fine (in this context)
I think the precaution exists to say, "don't memorise without understanding" (based on the assumption that if you say memorising is OK, it might be effectively interpreted as "memorising without actively building understanding/familiarity is OK"). If it's possible to effectively add the caveat (or you're talking to someone whom you think already knows it), then I think it's fine to suggest memorisation.
why are all intro algebra books so Big.
Also a lot of those books tend to cover more than a first course in groups rings and fields will
indeed
Fair
algebra is big
Fair
also by virtue of being introductory books there is very little material they're skipping -- if you cut out all the routine stuff and just focused on key ideas they'd be a lot shorter, but also a lot less useful as introductions
Why is “(., .)_M defines an inner product” needed here
I can’t see where it’s used
to even define the reflections you need to be in an inner product space
I'm assuming it's part of their definition of root system
There’s a comment right above this that you don’t actually need that much
You only need for (a, a) =/= 0
oh hmm
well yeah the point is that root systems generally live inside a real inner product space
This is it
They just happen to separate the assumption “V is an inner product space” from their definition of a root system by about 2 pages
oof
I'm kind of confused as to why $char(F)$ being odd matters here
Wai
Why do you think it doesn’t?
Do you know that F^* is always cyclic?
Use that
🤦♂️
yeah, that tells me at once the cardinality is 2
but char F being odd wasn't used at all
Prove this
(Hint: you will need that the order of F^* is even to prove it)
You can show that G/G^2 is an elementary abelian 2-group
for any group G
So [G : G^2] = 2^n for some n in the finite case
G^2 isn’t necessarily a subgroup
(If G is abelian then this all holds, but not if it’s non abelian)
alpha is the coset in E_0 represented by t
Yes
It is, the notation G^2 is common, it denotes the subgroup generated by the squares of G. If G is abelian, then G^2 more simply refers to the group of squares of elements of G.
sorry for the follow up, but here are we assuming t is a root
f(alpha) = f(t) + (p(t))
But f(t) is contained in (p(t)) by assumption, so
f(t) + (p(t)) = (p(t))
okay, so lemme try that method here
We start off by constructing an extension $F_3[x]/((x^3-x+1))$
Wai
in this extension alpha is a root, so I divide x^3-x+1 by x-a ?
Probably good to use t or some other symbol in the construction of your field, so you don't mix it with the indeterminate x.
Anyway, you mean to find the other roots of x^3 - x + 1? Then sure
I'm kind of confused
so I performed the long division
to get x^2-ax+a^2-1, with a reminder of -a+1
which makes no sense as that would force -a+1=0 or a=1
If you got a remainder then you must have messed up a step
well, I will ,as a is just some element right. I'm just assuming that element is a factor
okay got it
Well when I do the division I get a remainder of
a^3 - a + 1
Which was 0 by assumption
yup, just got that too
now I suppose I should see if a^2-ax+(a^2-1) has any factors in F_3[x]/(x^3-x+1)
before making another field extension?
Think the should be
x^2 - 2ax + a^2 - 1
idts
lemme redo it
infact it should be +ax not -ax
okay so all roots are in $F_3[x]/(x^3-x+1)$, and similarly for $F_3[x]/(x^3-x-1)$
Wai
now to get an explicit iso b/w them

okay,got it
thanks!
I suppose I have to just brute force (a)?
well, I could use the einiestein criteria ?
(sorry for butchering the spelling)
Well, so any polynomial with 2 as its constant coeff is irreducible
this doesnt give an exhaustive list though
There are 18 possibilities
And you only need to check if +- 1 are roots
(I’ve ignored 0 as a root, and all the polynomials with constant term 0, because they’re trivially not irred)
±1 as -1=2 right
okay, but I still have to brute force
Yes but it’s not hard brute force
No, consider (x+1)(x²+2).
uh, (n) is confusing me
what do they mean construct fields of order 27
F_3[x]/(x^3-x+1) is of order 27 and is a field, would that be sufficient
Yes, that's one of them.
Yes.
You can also be systematic about it, though I doubt it will actually be faster:
A cubic polynomial over a field is irreducible iff it has no root in the field. That means there are 2^3 possibilities for what your polynomial's values on 0, 1, and 2 are. For each such set of values, Lagrange interpolation gives you a quadratic that takes those values; then add x³-x to make it monic of degree 3.
(Conversely, for any monic irreducible cubic, subtracting x³-x gives you something of degree at most 2 with the same values on F3, and we've just constructed all of those).
How does this sound.
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Let $M$ be the set of common multiples of $a,b$. As $ab$ is a common mutliple we know $M$ is non-empty.
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By WOP $M'={N(x) \mid x\ in M}$ has a least element. Let some $x$ corresponding to this least element be denoted by $m$.
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Let $m'$ be another multiple of $m$. Then by the Euclidian algorithm $m'=mq+r$
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\textbf{ I'm now wondering how to show r is zero, I think it will have to do with minimality of N(m) but unsure}
Wai
I guess you mean that m' is another common multiple of a and b.
Now remember that euclidean division tells you that N(r) < N(m) or r=0
Sure, but to use that I now need to show r is a multiple of a and b or even better a multiple of m
oh, r= m'-mq both of which are multiple of a,b
so r is a multiple of a,b
but N(r)<N(m)
so contradiiction
The last time I tried proving this I remember taking ≥1 hr
☠️
Me when revising Coxeter groups
Prove that a quotient of a PID by a prime ideal is again a PID.
So just to be clear, I need to show
R/(p) is a PID?
yeah
hmm
Hmm
hmm
hmm
Well, as $(p)$ is prime, $R/(p)$ is an integral domain
Wai
but idt that helps in proving it's a PID
PIDs are necessarily integral domains, by definition
Wha
I guess you mean "not all integral domains are PIDs" but yes
Prime ideal domains
If only such objects existed
fields
Are there non fields with this property hm
Every ideal of R/(p) is of the form $((a_1)/(p), (a_2)/(p),\dots,(a_n)/(p))$ But as $R$ is a PID, $(a_1,\dots,a_n)=(r)$ , so $((a_1)/(p), (a_2)/(p),\dots,(a_n)/(p))= (r)/(p)$. Thus it's indeed a PID
Wai
How do you know (r)/(p) is necessarily generated by a single element
as (r) is gnerated by one element
Yeah but why can you conclude the quotient is as well
i don't follow
You're making a jump in concluding it's principal without telling me why can't it happen that (r)/(p) = (a,b)
Like you haven't given me a good reason to think that (r)/(p) isn't generated by two elements
Well you know (r) is principal




