#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 402 of 1
what is the argument that hes talking about?
i dont have access to paper and i have no mental scratch space
what book is that?
It's identical to the one above
If it were a p-th power you'd have that a is a p-th power
yes my bad
for some reason the word "galois" is associated to the number five in my head
probaably because french
how to prove that a 3-cicle is equal to other 3-cicle conjugate?
Could you post the specific problem?
3 cycles being conjugate depends on the group, in A_4 there’s two conjugacy classes of 3 cycles
n>=5, sorry
i got it
I assume I must be mistaken given the amount of upvotes, but how is this MO answer https://mathoverflow.net/a/13372/137264 correct, specifically the justification for dim_hW*<=dim_kV*? They say to "take elements of W dual to the functionals", but the whole point is W* is not isomorphic to W, so there aren't dual vectors to an arbitrary basis of W*.
can there be a morphism that behaves just like the identity morphism but it doesnt come from an end set?
What
in some cateogry where a morphism is defined in such a way, is it possible that there exist some morphism g: Y->X where X and Y are distinguishable as objects (X != Y)
but for all f in Hom(X, Y), g o f = f and f o g = f (acts like identity morphism)
This doesn’t even make sense
How can g•f = f, the source and target of f can’t exist to make this work
Similar for f•g = f
why cant f exist, how come
Stare at the equations you wrote down
And realize it doesn’t even make sense to say they are equal
More explicitly, writing "g o f = f" compares morphisms from different homsets, which is considered meaningless.
ohhh, i was thinking that if you defined morphism in a way where the soruce and target arent meaningfully used that a g could exist that acts like ID
well, you can always formally define morphisms to behave however you want
in particular you can just create a new morphism that behaves like the identity with respect to composition with every non-identity morphism

this was given to me as a practice problem for my upcoming midterm in my abstract algebra class and I feel like its a bit out of place. I was trying to do it but honestly I have no clue how to begin, does this have to do with the order of an element or maybe inverses?
the integers under multiplication mod p form a group
something that i do think maybe is similar is that if G is a group and |g| = n then g divides n, where g \in G
yeah i was thinking of that
seems like a version of fermats little theorem
from what ive seen
yeah, you're close
i see
so from what i can think It might have something to do with having inverses for elements and if a^k is congruent to a mod p (where k is an integer and p is a prime) then that guarantees that every element has a inverse therefore integers under multiplication mod p form a group?
but im not sure how that works maybe i should read through the proof...
can you rephrase the question in terms of group theory?
that might help
turns out the multiplication isn't that important here
oh so the binary operation doesnt matter?
well it does actually
but i think it will be informative try and answer the more general group theory question first
and then specialise to the multiplicative group
I think you also need to know that the multiplicative group mod p (or of a finite field more generally) is cyclic.
its easy to see that V_d(a ^ d) is less than a ^ VD, not quite sure how to show the other direction.
okay, this was a case of me not being familiar enough with definitions. i think i have it now.
let x <= a ^ VD be compact. since x <= VD, there is a finite subset D’ of D such that x <= VD’.
since D is directed, there is some d_0 in D such that d’ <= d_0 for all d’ in D’.
now x <= a ^ d_0 <= V_d (a ^ d)
since a ^ VD is the join of all of the compact elements below it by algebraicness, then we win.
these two problems really helped me with the intuition here. each object is the join of elements below it, but in an algebraic lattice, we can restrict our attention to only the compact elements below it.
they act as probes almost
this reminds me of compactly generated spaces
and compact test functions
damn that's crazy, it's almost like these lattices are compactly generated as categories
how do you go about this?
i guess it should be Z/nZ
but my intuition feels shaky
ig im not entirely sure that all the roots are related by nth roots of unity
oh wait nevermind
because if a and b are solutions
then 1=t/t=(a^n)/(b^n)=(a/b)^n so a/b must be an nth root of unity
sorry, what is the question?
oh find the galois group
whoops
does the method of reducing mod primes generalize to more general fields to calculate galois groups
like C(t) in the message above?
You have a more general version for dedekind domains, but here you can just find all of the automorphisms by exhaustion (since you know there should be exactly n and you can find one of order n pretty easily)
this is what makes them "algebraic", as algebraic operations are finitary!
so the philosophy is that you only have to check on finite subsets (i.e. finitely generated or compact closed sets)
in an integral domain R with a prime ideal p, can the intersection over all powers p^k be a non trivial ideal
Consider the ring R = k[x, y, x1, x2, …]/(y = x x1, y = x^2 x2, …, y = x^n xn, …)
By the map R -> k[x1, …] sending x, y to 0 and everything else to itself, we see that (x) is prime
Hence if there is a zero divisor, x is a zero divisor (if ab = 0, then WLOG a \in (x), so a = xc, so either x is a zero divisor or bc = 0, but then we’re done by induction on deg a + deg b)
But the map R -> k[x] by sending every except x to 0 is well defined, and maps x to a non-zero divisor, so x is not a zero divisor and we’re done
Then the intersection of all ideals (x)^k contains (y)
The way I thought of this is essentially if any ring has this property, then this ring must be non-zero (universal property nonsense)
Then construct enough nice quotients to show that this ring works
dont fully get it rn but thanks a lot still!!
Consider
R = k[x^2^-n : n in N]
i.e. the polynomial ring where you adjoin square roots of square roots of x.
Then the ideal generated by all powers of x is maximal and has p^k = p for all k>=1
It cannot happen if R is Noetherian though
So if I is the intersection of the p^k, then the Artin Rees lemma tells you that pI = I.
Then by Nakayamas lemma there is some x in p with xy = y for all y in I.
So if y is nonzero in a domain that would mean x=1
thanks!
I don't see why the end holds? Image of a zero divisor isn't necessarily a zero divisor
This theorem is called Krull’s intersection theorem
completely lost on this one, does anyone mind helping me out?
eta(R) is the nilradical
should be frak(N)(R) but typo ig
2->3 is doable, 3->1 is something i almost have
but 1->2 is just ??
Prove that the nilradical is the intersection of all primes
And 1->2 becomes trivial
This also handles 3->1
I mean actually all of these follow from this fact
use a zorn's lemma argument
it's a bit nontrivial but the idea is that like
suppose you have an element that's neither nilpotent nor a unit
then consider that set of all ideals that don't contain a power of this element
and use Zorn's lemma to prove the maximal element is prime
i have that the nilradical is contained in the intersection of all primes
It is equal
the other direction is a lot harder and you need to use Zorn's lemma to prove it
This is a fundamental basic fact of commutative algebra
i am reading dummit and foote as my first exposure to this field oof
I would try to prove that because it is fundamental for further stuff
we had this problem on an exam but we wen're allowed to use this fact we had to prove that all the elements are either nilpotent or a unit from first principles 
ouch
which isn't super hard if you're at all familiar with Zorn's lemma type arguments
It can be proven in a pretty slick way using localization.
Do you know the relationship between prime ideals and localization?
Did they also give you a gun to kill yourself with?
no the last problem on the algebra exam is always some Zorn's lemma bullshit
I mean this is a good technique to know in general lol
this year we had to prove that there's a prime ideal contained in the set of all zero divisors of a commutative ring
i do not know what localization is
You use the same kinda idea to show like normal is a local property
am i too dumb for this channel
Then I guess don't worry about it for now
Most people manage fine without knowing any techniques for killing themselves.
no don't worry you're still learning
No
This is interesting
I wonder what the simplest lowest tech way to approach it is
Have you ever seen a Zorn's lemma argument @restive sparrow
CRAZY message to open this channel to btw
I did it using Zorn's lemma but idk if there's a simpler way
yeah
tho the class is kinda hell for most students
this is an intro algebra class for undergrads
and they use the noncommutative ring definition for prime ideals
if every chain contains an upper bound then the set contains at least one maximal element
er, poset
yesss
and usually the arguments are framed in such a way that the maximal ideal in this poset is prime
Based
3 -> 2 is not that hard to prove though, so you could go through that
I was going to um actually chmonkey about the nilradical only being the intersection of primes for commutative or Noetherian rings but I saw the question does specify commutative 🌾
those are certainly words
so what you should do is try to show using Zorn's lemma that if there exists an element that's neither a unit nor nilpotent, then it's not contained in R
a hint would be to consider the set of all ideals that don't contain a power of this element
now you just have to prove that this set is nonempty and that every chain has an upper bound
nonempty coz of the zero ideal
these ideals are partially ordered by inclusion
and so naturally contain an upper bound? do i have to justify that?
oh ya i do
ya you should even if it's obvious on some level better to write it out
the hardest part will be showing that this maximal ideal is prime
it'll take some thinkin'
every maximal ideal is a prime ideal because R/M is a field and thus an integral domain makiing M prime
I got it
well it's not maximal in the entire ring
bruh
it's maximal in this set of ideals
and it might not be a maximal ideal in the whole ring
oh ya
Let S be the set of non-zero divisors, this is multiplicativelt closed and consider the map R -> Q(R) = S^-1R. This is an injection by knowing what the kernel of a localization map is.
Pullback a prime ideal of Q(R) and since all non-zero divisors got inverted there this has to lie inside of the zero divisors of R
lol that's really elegant actually
I was thinking things over and really wanted to work in the total ring of fractions and realized I can
In fact the primes of the total ring are exactly those contained in the set of zero divisors
At first I wanted to prove every minimal prime consists of zero divisors which I can do assuming you know nilradical stuff by just localizing at the minimal prime, but this lets you get part of the way there without any Zorn’s
I came up with this in my very short shower lol
can you use eisensteins criterion on polynomials over C(t) with t transcendental?
its the field of fractions of C[t] right?
exercise: prove that it is
it contains C[t], and any field containing C[t] clearly must contain C(t)
I'm convinced!
What do you mean by this? I assume you mean for polynomials over C[t]. And then yes, in fact you can generalise the statement to prime ideals in any integral domain
(The proof is the exact same)
One subtlety is that you may want to go between irreducibility over an integral domain A and its field of fractions. But you will be fine here e.g. by a form of Gauß' lemma applied to the UFD C[t]
Np
is it known if the field obtained by adjoining all roots of unity to the rationals is quasialgebraically closed?
lang claims it is an open problem but that was a while ago
I’m getting confused with the wording of question 5. It refers to a ‘cyclic group’ generated by a, and then asks to show that this is a subgroup of G. What is there to show if we already assumed that a generates a group?
i'm not entirely sure what you are asking.
problem 5 is saying to show that (i) for a in G, the set <a> = {a^n : n is an integer} is a group, and (ii) this group is a subgroup of G
I’m confused because it refers to the set as cyclic. So it just seems like there’s nothing to actually do.
i mean there isn't much to do, you basically just have to say that for y in {a^n : n in Z}, y^-1 is also in that set and also in G.
and that the product of two such things is in that set and also in G
actually since G is finite you don't even need to show the inverses lol
for (i), you do what Dirichlet says, just check the group axioms.
(ii) is trivial
the steps for (i) that i would do are:
- show that the identity is in <a>
- show that for a^n in <a>, (a^n)^{-1} is in <a>
once you have done this, (ii) follows immediately
So ‘cyclic’ is just doing all the heavy lifting then?
Closure: a^m o a^n = a^ m + n.
Assoc: Inherited from G.
Identity: Since it’s cyclic there in some integer (other than 1) k such that a^k = a. Then a^k-1 is the identity.
Inverse: a^m o a^k-1-m = a^k-1.
well, a^0 = e is the identity too
but this works because G is finite
Okay. This book only allows positive powers, but I see your point.
Thanks!
oh? that is kind of odd i guess?
Yeah this is like a general math book, so I guess they just wanted to make things simpler.
It's probably just cause it's a finite group and so it doesn't matter
does it talk about the subgroup generated by a subset at any point?
(But this is a bad definition of cyclic because e.g. Z is a cyclic group generated by 1)
I feel like that makes it more complicated in the relevant cases and just wrong in general
My b
Why did it say a has to not be the identity anyway tbh lol
i think they wanted the divisibility criterion in part (b)
Because that would only generate a singleton set containing the identity?
But that's a perfectly good subgroup, and the order of e (that is, 1) certainly divides |G|.
what is the order of e? is it 0 or 1? i forgot
Yeah I just mean it’s a trivial case.
Idk though, I didn’t write the book lol.
The order of an element g is the smallest positive integer n such that g^n=e.
Alternatively you could say that { n in Z | g^n = e } is an ideal in Z and the order of g is the generator of that ideal ... except that would lead you to say that a non-torsion element has order 0 instead of infinite order. (But on the other other hand, that would make the characteristic of a ring always agree with the order of 1 in its additive group).
Does someone wanna explain the N/C theorem to me?
I kinda get it
But not really
what's the N/C theorem?
That the normalizer modulo centralizer is a subgroup of the automorphism group?
Well you have a map
N(H) -> Aut(H)
By sending g to conjugation by g
And the kernel is exactly the centralizer
Well presumably a is an element of N(H), so then f(a) should be an element of Aut(H), i.e. an automorphism
So then f(a)(h) is the image of h by this automorphism
this is typical for mappings that output functions
for each element $a \in N(H)$, you get a function $f(a) : H \to H$ defined by $h \mapsto a h a^{-1}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
the "name" of this function is f(a)
and the way you evaluate a function named, say, $\text{bob}$, would be $\text{bob}(h)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
thus we use the notation $f(a)(h)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
if you prefer, you can think of this as a two-argument function $g(a, h) = a h a^{-1}$, so a function $N(H) \times H \to H$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and indeed in general you can always convert between "function that outputs functions" and "two-argument function"
you do this already for group actions, for example
where you can either view it as a function $\rho : G \times X \to X$ satisfying some properties, or a group homomorphism $\phi : G \to \text{Sym}(X)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I also dislike this notation personally, I tend to think currying the variable looks better and shoving it down as a subscript but alas it’s what people seem to do
wait wdym by "currying the variable looks better"
f(a, h)
uh, i thought that was uncurrying
currying = applying the fact that Set is closed monoidal
oh could be
I refer to both as currying more to speak of the general concept of hom(A x B, X) = hom(A, hom(B, X))
yeah but my impression was that $\text{Hom}(A \times B, X) \overset{\text{currying}}{\longrightarrow} \text{Hom}(A, \text{Hom}(B, X))$
wikipedia seems to agree with you
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
that looks nicer
i usually call this tensor-hom
that's specifically for R-mod
yeah Set is F1-mod
brudging sounds of annoyed agreement
fine but only because I recently saw the q-analogue of the binomial coefficient counting the number of k-dimensional subspaces of (F_q)^n
Currying.
internal hom
Yes
The real ones call it Schönfinkelization
Oh yeah I have it backwards apparently, oops
Or honestly defining like g_a(b)=f(a)(b), I personally really don’t like the curried (as I’ve just learned ) notation, I just find it cumbersome and confusing
It’s common enough that I’ve like accepted it, but I try to avoid it if I can and basically never use it in my own notes, though if I’m writing something others will see I’ll usually just do whatever’s standard
i like how straightforward this proof is
-# hehe, ass
ass ass ass ass ass
p in Ass
I want to find Gal(L/Q) where L is the splitting field of x^3-2. So |Gal(L/Q)|=[L:Q]=6 and its easy to write all elements of Gal(L/Q) by looking at how each element of the group acts on a=cbrt(2) and one of the complex roots, call it w. But then what do i do?
do i start looking at powers of each element to see their orders and try composing them with each other
doing that randomly would take forever tho lol
S_3 is generated by a swap and a cycle
the swap can be given by complex conj
the cycle can be obtained by guessing
Proof: a bunch of asses
and the 3-cycle is given by the map σ which sends a to aw and fixes w? because then σ(a)=aw, σ(aw)=a\bar w and finally σ(a\bar w)=a which forms a 3-cycle?
yes
I see
or you can notice that the only group of order six that acts on 3 elements is S_3 ig
tfw u need to know enough about the standard groups to determine the Galois group
real
but in general it wouldnt be too efficient to write out all elements of the galois group and then look for relations lol
I mean there are too many things to try even for relatively small orders no?
You essentially learn a bunch of tricks to do this in general
Of course there is no "one in all" solution
yea thats clear
tho rn I am only allowed to write out the elements of the galois group and try to find a presentation that tells me what group this is
rip
Working mod p is really nice
we havent developed any other tools in class yet so rip
or you prove dedekind theorem on test
yea it seems that there are nice results about this
I have to lock in tho, otherwise i wont know anything
"Let's work modulo p like the computer scientists"
I think nothing pissed me off these days more than this quote
you have to cover it with fancy words to hide it from the cs people
Lmao
Yeah that would ragebait me a lot
any and all radical ideals will be annihilated. especially the left ones
Wait till you know it was Ravi Vakil
sorry for necroposting but i saw this in aluffi!!
and (more necroposting) does orthogonality have anything to do with the morphisms being orthogonal lol
there's a categorification of orthogonality/independence called naturality
perhaps more elaboration on this if you can?
That was good
hehe ass
Wdym
The homomorphism is orthogonal to the group operation in the diagram
Although i guess that's stylistic choice
looking at part b) here:
Let zeta_m denote a primitive mth root of unity. Then it suffices to show that [Q(zeta_m) : Q] = |Z/mZ^*| goes to infinity as m goes to infinity. I think that this is true, since all primes in between m and m/2 are coprime to m, and by the prime number theorem, there will be approximately m/ln(m) - m/2ln(m/2) many such primes, and this quantity goes to infinity as m goes to infinity.
but i feel like this is not required and some other counting argument will suffice but i cannot see what needs to be done
Yes that’s true
oh hmm i guess i can just use the formula for phi(m)
I claim phi(m) >= m/2^{#primes dividing m}
The result is immediate for powers of 2
phi(m) = (product over primes dividing m of (1 - 1/p))*m
And if p^r divides m, where p is the smallest odd prime that divides m and p^{r+1} doesn’t divide m, then phi(m) = (p-1)p^{r-1} * phi(m/p^r) > (p^r)/2 phi(m/p^r) >= m/2^{#primes dividing m} (by induction)
And #primes dividing m <= log_3(m), as long as at least 3 different primes divide m, so the original result follows after changing logarithm basis on the first inequality (do the cases of 1 and 2 primes dividing m separately, they’re easy)
oh, so i was looking at this instead: [see below] and it seems like phi(n) >= sqrt(n). where n = product p_i^{k_i}
Modulo some problems for p_1 = 2, yeah that works
(But you can easily deal with those problems separately)
Heya, so I'm currently trying to learn how to compute Galois groups of polynomials. In some of the solved problems I've seen, through some deduction (that I can still follow), they come to the conclusion that the Galois group of some polynomial is a subgroup of some well known group like Sn. Then they proceed to show that it's C2 x C2 or D4 or whatever though a series of random facts (like... transitive groups of order X are Y, or that subgroups of groups of order Z are A and B). At some point it seems like to find these Galois groups you need to have encyclopedic knowledge of these groups and subgroups, and I'm wondering if it's normal to have trouble with these?
Like.. is there a 'megalist' of these group properties?
For Galois groups, it’s a good idea to know what subgroups of S_3, S_4, S_5 look like
Because you’ll rarely be asked to compute larger
ah I see, are there anything else worth spending time digging other than Sn for n=3,4,5?
Not really
Like knowing how to compute the relevant info is useful
But at some point it comes down to brute force
You know your group is a subgroup of S_n for some specific, known value of n, and that it has xyz properties
Then list out all the subgroups of S_n with those properties and done
ah i see
say, if you're an algebraist working with larger groups say S_50, is there like a software that gives you all its subgroups?
Yup
GAP is the usual one
Maybe not as large as n = 50 (that’s a very big group)
But certainly up to like 10
i understand that the first 3 diagrams represent associativity in groups and the identity. But what do the last 2 represent?
The other axiom (inverse)
Hm I guess i don't see well how they do it
writing all the maps down explicitly helps
They're there i just didn't capture htem in the screenshot
So tracing around the left diagram in the 3rd pair we get
(Going from top left to top right to bottom right): g -> (g, g) -> (g, g^{-1}) -> gg^{-1}
(Going around the other way): g -> 1 -> e
So putting it together, the commutativity says gg^{-1} = e
And the right diagram gives g^{-1}g = e
that's what I meant
is there a way to prove the size of D_2n is 2n using its presentation?
Which presentation
You can prove from the presentation that every element can be uniquely expressed as s^k r^j
The hardest part is proving that s =/= r^{n/2} for n even
Which I’d do by just exhibiting a homomorphism where their images are not equal
The usual one I assume
Yea, establish a canonical form to write the elements in
For presentation
<r, s | r^n = s^2 = 1, srs = r^-1 >
I'd go (r) is normal of order n.
D2n/(r) = <r, s | r = s^2 = 1 > = C2
Can somebody help me with part a of this problem? I think I understand the idea, but I'm struggle to grasp what elements of R/M look like.
this is what I have so far
and my thought is that since f(x) + M and g(x) + M are inverses, I might be able to pull them up into R and if they are inverses in all of R, then we would have a problem since f(x) isn't invertible at c
I can't formulate a formal consequence of the following stronger than what you have said, but I think it is in a very similar spirit! I attended a talk yesterday where the assignment of ultraproducts to families of models (and an ultrafilter) was interpreted as a "compact Hausdorff topology" on the category of models, by analogy to the fact that the category of compact Hausdorff spaces is monadic over Set and we can take (ultra)limits of elements of a compact Hausdorff space indexed by a set S along an ultrafilter on S (= extension of f: S → X to the Stone-Cech compactification S).
huh, interesting
i cant pretend to understand this well but it is cool
oh nvm i do
didnt read properly
the most important part for my purposes is that closure under direct limits and products implies closure under ultraproducts
this means that quasivarieties are equivalently prevarieties closed under direct products
so when you have some property that holds in a prevariety and you want to show it holds in a quasivariety you just have to show it is closed under direct limits
which is nice cuz imo they are far nicer to work with directly
+work nice with the functors i consider
actually no; on second thought I don't think this approach is going to be fruitful.
think about what kind of consequences the zeros of a function will have for that function and M
Are you familiar with partition of unity, and compactness of [0, 1] ?
In general you can show that if Z(M)={x in [0,1] | f(x) =0 for all f in M}, then Z is an inclusion reversing map (try to show it afterwards) ignore this message
Is there a nice way to show that Z reverses inclusion without just showing the original problem?
Okay I guess the argument reduces down to one point anyways when trying to show that Z reverses inclusions
Also, it doesn't reverse inclusion for all ideals right?
Like something like
f s.t. lim[x->c] f(x)/(x-c) = 0
Should be an ideal that only vanishes at c, but is not M_c
Oh yeah lol that's also related to part (c) of the same problem
I remember writing similar flawed arguments for a question in a test and getting full credit for them.. it seems like I managed to scam the graders
Ok but I guess you can use some sort of similar argument without mentioning Z.. ||if an ideal vanishes nowhere, then by compactness you can find finitely many functions whose sum is positive everywhere and so generate the whole ring. If an ideal I vanishes at more than one point, let c be some such point. Then I subset M_c|| which i guess is what you had in mind
how do you determine that quotient group?
how do you know it has that representation
To get a presentation for a quotient group you just add all the elements of the normal group as relations
I guess you still need to convince yourself that (r) has n elements though
That is less obvious
is that not trivial from the definition lol
r^n = 1
i guess n may not be the order of r
So it has at most n elements, that's clear
order of r must divide n, so if n is prime then it's also clear
Could still have order 1
would this n not be maximal by definition?
since if there was a smaller order m, you would just have a smaller D_2m
Well you would need to prove that D2n and D2m are not the same
Alright somethings bugging me
Let L be the Galois closure of Q(a) and let p be a prime dividing the order of G = Gal(L/Q). Show that there is a subfield F of L such that [L:F] = p and L = F(a).
Im struggling to prove that a is not in F
Somehow I have to show that, if H is the subgroup fixing F, then every automorphism sigma fixing a somehow gives a problem
Kinda need more context lol like it depends how you define F
Wdym
What tools do u have access to
All of galois theory
I mean like they asked you construct an F and you're struggling to prove smth about your F
I would say think about the conjugates of Gal(L, Q(a))
If H is the subgroup fixing F, and a were in F, does that imply that H fixes the conjugates of Gal(L, Q(a))?
What is F.
F is a subfield of L
Are you saying suppose you had such an F what properties would it have to have.
Well there is certainly such an F
Ohhh
Since theres a subgroup of G of order p
Right sorry yeah. Wasn't clear from how you worded it.
Apologies, dummit and foote can be kinda unclear sometimes
It implies H is a subgroup of Gal(L, Q(a))
g Gal(L/Q(a)) g^-1 = Gal(L/Q(g(a))
So if H fixes a it normalises this subgroup
Oh yea I guess that's more trivially true lol
But yeah moving to the field side: what happens if F contains g(a) for all g?
So there must be some g(a) not contained in your F.
Then the next step would be to modify F so that it's a it doesn't contain instead of g(a)
Would this be conjugation by g inverse
I see
The rest is straightforward
I was unaware that conjugation by g changes the indeterminate in Q in the gal group though
I did not know that g Gal(L/Q(a)) g^-1 = Gal(L/Q(g(a)))
Ah I see.
Yeah that's just a general group action thing
Im a bit rusty on groups is probably why
If H fixes x then
gHg^-1 fixes g(x)
Ah nvm that makes complete sense
Because
( g h g^-1 ) (g(x)) = g h(x) = g(x)
And im allowed to do this because group order is preserved under conjugation
Alr this is making total sense now
i've done all of these and i don't really have a question about that but is this ring isomorphic to $(\mathbb{Z} /2\mathbb{Z})^{\lvert S \rvert}$ perchance
artemetra
or something like that
where |S| is cardinality and we have a direct product of all of the Z/2Zs
Yes it is
Does anyone have any recomendations on how to tackle this?
My only idea works for solvable finitely generated abelian groups
but idk what to do if its infinitely generated or non-abelian
we havent gotten to sylows theorems and the previous chapters just covered the isomorphism theorems and normal groups
the <= implication feels rather easy. if the order of P_{i+1}/P_i is prime then its Z_p so we can start working using that i think
It's only true for finite groups as written
oh
What about finitely generated groups?
wouldnt they work?
The order of G will be the product of
|Pi+1/Pi|
So the product of finitely many primes, so finite
oh right lmao
so ig i only need to worry about the non-abelian case
which we really have little familiarity with. I was told smth similar to the fundemental theorem of finite abelian groups would be sylow theorems
but can i write the group using a direct product the factor groups. idk why but smth in me wants to try smth like that or smth related to that
So I'm assuming the definition of solvable you have is that G has such a series with Pi+1/Pi abelian.
In which case it's just about refining the series
but then (G/N)xN isnt isomorphic to G
yeah thats the definition
we ve been given
So if you know how to do it for abelian groups and you know the correspondence theorem then youre done
Okay ill try to see if i can make it work.
Thanks
If not ill come back tmrw
Well they're contained in one another so it's definitely not going to be a direct product
does anything interesting happen if you combine complex numbers and dual numbers?
You cause global unrest in the economy
something like C[ε] ?
that is, we have the complex numbers, and also we have ε such that ε² = 0
off the top of my head, the main application i can think of would be in AG because this encodes what's known as a "fuzzy point"
The first thing to do is probably to identify some relations between those statements (cyclic groups are abelian for example).
Next you might want to try to use some of these statements or their complements to prove something about the order of gh
Or think about what having an order m element says about the order of the group
Right, so if every positive integer divides the order of the group what does that tell you?
D option is wrong
Why do you say that?
K4 is abelian
And how are you relating that to the problem?
order of its elements are integer(2)
Okay, but 3 is also an integer.
Does it have an element of order 3?
So then it doesn't satisfy the property in the image
Because given m=3 you are supposed to find a g of order m (which is 3)
Perhaps a tangent / spoiler, but ||I would think whoever made the problem meant m, n and r to be strictly larger than 1.||
||It doesn't change the answer, but right now the problem is a little silly, since there clearly aren't any examples given m=n=1||
Actually I didn't understand the properly or its poorly formed
Well, the group G is supposed to have that property that for any triplet of positive integers m, n and r you're supposed to be able to find g and h in G such that g has order m, h has order n and gh has order r.
So for m=2, n=2, r=1 we should be able to find such g and h, but also for m=3, n=7, r=46, etc
In particular if we just ignore n and r, then for every m we're supposed to find a g of order m
The problem is slightly confusing...can you elaborate it more
..last line
Well for example: given m=4, n=something, r=something
Then your group is supposed to have g and h with
g order m (so g order 4) and then the other properties (h order n, gh order r)
So in particular the group has a g of order 4
(and nothing special about 4 of course)
So we need a group which has all types of elements?
Z2?
0,1 ...and Order 1 and 2 available
It needs to have an element of order m for every positive integer m yes
Option D discard
Option A and C
Thank you
Next doubt
It satisfies dihedral group property
So D3=6 order of group
But doubt is
Elements of order >=3 always exists in pair and x,xy are self inverse then no. Of elements will not odd ?
I cannot parse what you're trying to say here
6 is not an odd number... So it's correct that the number of elements isn't odd...
I think he's saying that the elements of order 2 are exactly y and xy, and a group with an even number of order-2 elements ought to have odd order.
But the presentation doesn't imply that y and xy are the only elements that square to 1 ... and without doing further investigation, it's not even certain that y and xy are different elements, or that one or both won't be the identity.
y is the element with order 2, but I guess typo(?)
Whoops, fixed.
Well undercops typo, not (solely) yours
this is a lot funnier with the new channel name
,w cosets
why is blud reading posts from 400 years ago
i like backreading stuff in large servers
Well if ur going to comment on something can it be on topic at least
Correctamundo
ty
this problem was funny because it's always the topic of those brainrot math videos from 2019
in similar disposition to "WHAT IS $\sqrt{2\sqrt{2\sqrt{2\sqrt{\dots}}}}$?"
Kinds freaky that the answer is 2 ngl
Makes you think
Clearly 2 is some kind of fundamental constant in nature
or just x = sqrt(2x) => x^2 = 2x => x = 2 (or the spooky answer x = 0)
this only works if you assume it has a limit from the start!
I think you can just say that it's increasing and bounded from above.. √(2(√2...√2) ) n times = 2^{1/2+1/4+1/8+...+1/2^n} <= 2
Mct
I'm aware I did this in ch2 of my analysis book 🥸

the fundamental constant of ruining my theorems 😤
all my homies hate 2
Lol
I have worked on two projects in my phd and in both characteristic 2 is the issue
I'm a fake mathematician so I have no experiences myself.
But I have a friend who's earning her PhD and I've heard on two occasions her swearing about it.
Now that I think about it, the fact that it's been two occasions is rather apt.
Lmao
Its such a nepo baby prime anyway, hardly counts
when 0 ⨯ 0 = 1
Same as when 1 × 1 = 2
Self additive* inverse
Is there anything nice done on complete(as in no gaps and no jumps) totally ordered non negative abelian monoids?
I am asking because I was thinking about metrics, but mapped to things other than R
I didn't say group, cuz that would just reduce back to R
monotone convergence theorem?
is that what this is called lol
i use that name exclusively for the thing in measure theory. i dont have a name for this thing, it is just trivial given completeness + the definition of limsup 💀
Yes
Yes it asserts bounded monotonically increasing (resp. Decreasing) sequences converge to their supremum (resp. Infimum,l
ye
You haven't heard of monotone convergence thm before? That's odd actually lol it deserves a name
i mean i know this statement i just dont think ive been calling it that
Yeah ofc
is the mct from measure theory a generalization?
But it deserves its name because it's in a list of things that are equivalent to completeness of R
I.e. from mct you can derive completeness iirc
And it'd just very useful I think I've used it at least once every section of my ra book
yeah i was wondering if this analysis thing is that applied to the stupid measure space (a point)
i dont think so? integration there is just evaluation but MCT doesnt tell you the things actually exist
just that if they both either do and are equal or both dont
it tells you something is measurable too, right?
true
i know almsot zero measure theory lol
measure(measure theory) = 0
shoot, at some point presumably soon my advisor will ask me to choose whether i will work at even or odd characteristic for the rest of my life
You can do it for sequences of reals allowing convergence to oo
Indeed you are allowing for oo in the usual (= measure theoretic) MCT anyway
@south patrol what is the derived MCT
any functor worth its weight in gold
I remember having to put my hand up and ask like lol are you assuming all functors preserve sifted colimits in a talk
anyways we should probably stop yapping in groups rings fields lol
Which was correct fortunately lol like it is common in Goodwillie calculus
Yeah go tp #1203471755449073774
omg i thought we were in #real-complex-analysis wth
No, this is the correct shitpost channel, it's not useful anyways
where is groupoids E_oo-algebras and uhhh (the theory is still being developed)
F_1...
Kind of stupid question
But here can't I say for the polynomial to be irreducible, (x-1)(x-2)..(x-n) would have to 1 for some n
which isn't possible
so we have a contraidction
Oh, that's false is it noy
assume you can factorize your polynomial as f(x)g(x)
then what can you say about the factors if you evaluate them at 1,2,...,n
it will come out to be -1
what does that imply about f(x) and g(x)?
f(n) and g(n) are inverses( effectively)
which is a contradiction?
their degrees has to be 0?
Inverses is not really the right word here. Can you be more specific?
(The way I can think of concluding this with does not pass through "their degrees must be 0", by the way).
I mean |f(n)||g(n)|=1?
hmm?
And what are the possible actual values of f(x) and g(x) that satisfy that condition?
1
±1
Hmm, actually that's not specific enough.
You need to say f(x)g(x)=-1 without the absolute-value signs, and then consider what you can say about f(x) and g(x) as a pair, together.
Actually let's just reveal this step.
The level of specificity you need here is:
For each x in {1,2,...,n}, either f(x)=1 and g(x)=-1, or f(x)=-1 and g(x)=1.
Then continue with: "In each of these cases ..."
in each of theses cases, the OG polynomial has a root at each 1,2,....,n
What? No.
The original polynomial has value -1 as each of 1,2,3....,n.
And irrespective of that, that statement does not say anything about f or g at all.
well if I consider f+g, I find each n is a root?
So it would be weird to conclude "no matter whether f(x)=1 and g(x)=-1 or f(x)=-1 and g(x)=1, the original polynomial has such and such property"
That is progress.
Now what is the degree of f+g?
less than n
And thus you conclude ...
Yes.
I missed the -1 at the end of this for so long and thought everyone here was going insane 
My strategy was to keep my mouth shut until I (eventually!) noticed the -1.
It took me a solid 5 re-reads and even grabbed a piece of paper to make sure I wasnt being crazy lol
Speak up if you give up on the final step from here.
From here we conclude that we have a contradiction as if f and g have opposite signs in the leading coefficient ,we won't get the deised polynomial with 1 as a leading coeff
Yep.
Thanks!
How to see that the obvious map $R \otimes_\bZ \bZ[X] \rightarrow R[X]$ is injective? This map is given by $r \otimes f \mapsto rf$
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
Show that it’s injective as maps of Z modules, using that Z[X] is the countable direct sum of Z (as a Z module), and R \otimes_Z Z = R as Z modules
I see
what was the context for this map?
showing the tensor product is R[x]
its shown in a chapter about fibered products of affine schemes
isnt it easier to define an inverse R[x] -> R (x)Z Z[x]
what inverse
assume that r(x)f maps to 0
then you can write f as sum a_nx^n where a_n are in Z
Since rf is zero we have that r is annihilated by every element a_n
Hence we can write r(x)f = r(x) sum a_nx^n = \sum r(x)a_n x^n = \sum ra_n (x) x^n = \sum 0 (x) x^n = 0
I would use that tensor product commutes with direct sums
send every term rx^n to r(x) x^n?
this works but it might be a bit of a pain to prove is like well defined
tho ig it shouldn't really be that hard
what about a sum of pure tensors that is sent to 0?
well you can write every element as r(x)x^n
When trying to prove things about the tensor product it’s usually a good idea to avoid talking about explicit elements. Maybe that’s taste.
so you're reduced to the single tensor case
by linearity
since the coefficients are elements of Z so they can jump across the tensor product
how would you prove this isomorphism without looking at elements?
ig that's fair lol
do you prove this using universal properties?
You can define maps out of the tensor product by using its universal property
I think what he is saying is just R (x) Z[x] = countable direct sum R (x) Z = countable direct sum of R = R[x]
I understood this
I will prove this then
yeah you can probably
definitely*
Ideally yes
Like using the tensor hom adjunction
It’s just writing out the formula
But maybe that is not the most responsible (c) way to do it if you see it first time
But I would do it using tensor hom adjunction
Probably the responsible things is to do a proof by writing out elements first so you know how to do it. Maybe I was giving bad advice
R[x] corepresents the forgetful functor from commutative R-algebras to sets. So does R (x)_Z Z[x] by adjunction
You can unwind this and use that the iso Hom_R(R[x], B) -> B is induced by evaluation yo check that this iso from above is indeed the usual map you'd write down
Suppose M is a R-S bimodule for (possibly noncommutative) unital rings R,S.
I am wondering in which instances ModS(M, -): ModS -> ModR has a right adjoint. I was hinted to consider the instance when M is finitely generated projective S-module, and that the right adjoint would be -(x)_S ModS(M, S), but that doesnt really add up as far as im concerned.
well firstly because the right S-action wouldnt make sense here
So for it to have a right adjoint it would need to preserve colimits.
It preserves cokernels iff M is projective, and preserves filtered colimits iff M is finitely presented. So fg projective is correct.
In this case you can show that
Hom(M, X) = X (x)_S Hom(M, S), so the right adjoint would be
Hom_R(Hom(M, S), - )
In general a functor ModS -> ModR has a right adjoint iff it's naturally isomorphic to tensoring with a bimodule. In which case the adjoint is Hom as per the hom tensor adjunction
I was reading sources talking about the isomorphism, but somehow reading this kinda cleared up my confusion. thanks
the forgetful functor is covariant, so how can R[x] can corepresent it?
Hom(R[x], -) is also covariant
corepresenting is not Hom(-,R[x])?
we call this represneting for some reason
That's what corepresent means
I'm assuming both conventions exist, but for me it makes sense that the representable functors are those in the image of the yoneda embedding and not the dual notion
I would say this is what is usually done but sometimes people use representable to mean either
so this aligns with what is in the picture?
No
No
Opposite of picture
Usually representable means Hom(-,A)
Or dual anyway
Or maybe means both lol
yes
i think topologists like represents for Hom(-, A) due to brown representability
Algebraists work with compactly generated categories as well
Definition: Take the largest class of objects that seem to act the way we want.
Example: They sometimes still don't act the way we want.
Definition: An object is called "normal" if it really does act the way we want.
that's a funny thread on Reddit that I found :)
see also:
Defintion: A fneeb is a polysemantic foo satisfying the...
Student: Don't we need the axiom o-
Lecturer: Henceforth all fneebs are finite dimensional
infinite dimensional case will never pop up anyways...
(famous last words)
I mean I’m literally thinking of rewriting my paper to be like
Definition: We call X a foo if it is nice
Theorem: X is a foo if and only if [horrible technical conditions that are relatively easy to check]
Theorem: X is a foo if and only if [nice theoretical thing that we care about that’s very hard to check]
Hide the two theorems in a hideous 20-part "the following conditions are equivalent", and then prove them as a network of implications that make a non-planar graph.
wait that reminds me when i did comp sci classes in undergrad they LOVED foo man
in all the toy exercises they loved foo
WHY
because bar
wat dat mean
i remember bar too
it was foo and bar
if foo = 5 and foo = foo + 1 what is print foo
type shi
most interesting comp sci class i did was learning assembly
that was the point when i fully switched to math
scary
but then again i cant really say ive swirched from or to anything
i used to be somewhat interested in computer architecture
but then i realized i dont have an engineer brain
modern architecture is magic
truke
Lol
is there no constructive proof that ab = 0 —> a = 0 v b = 0, say, in the integers?
Assuming you can't use the law of excluded middle, I really can't see how you would prove that
wtf
thats crazy
so without LEM unique prime decomposition doesnt necessarily exist either?
without LEM, Z can just fail to be a domain
not even prime decomposition, just any proof by contradiction
yes i know
How does prime decomposition rely on LEM
i guess i just never realized
That seems entirely constructive: given a number, I can tell you an algorithm to compute its factors
uniqueness?
Wait you can still cancel stuff on both sides though? Like ab = ac implies that b = c for a ≠ 0
I think?
Hmm I'll have to think about it more
What axioms are you starting from
Peano arithmetic?
sure
how do you prove this constructively?
i was just showing that right cancellation implies ab = 0 => a = 0 or b = 0
ah
i.e., you cannot assume right cancellation
and uniqueness most likely breaks down
So suppose a, b are nonzero but ab is. Then a = a(1 + b). Both a and 1 + b have prime decompositions, and multiplying them gives a new, definitely different prime decomposition for a
so uniqueness must fail
I think you're assuming LEM here?
You need a=0 or a≠0 for this to work
You have to either prove X or prove Y (for intuitionistic logic)
doesnt there always need to be some casework though
can you show me an LEM free proof of a statement of the form P -> X or Y?
Actually hm "a=0 or there exists b such that a=Sb" is provable by induction for natural numbers a
If I recall correctly, you can build up to "x=y or x!=y" on naturals by (double) induction too.
And then you have a fair amount of LEM that you can make use of.
Always has been.
yea, been playing around with a lean proof.
Thinking about it more, this actually is straightforwardly provable for natural numbers:
Induction on a.
Base case: a=0, obviously proves a=0 v b=0
Inductive case: a=Sc. Then, 0 = ab = (Sc)b = cb + b. So b=0, proves a=0 v b=0.
i think i have one using double induction/cases
If there's any justice, you should be able to prove trichotomy too.
(Lemma I think should be easy to prove but not sure: adding two natural numbers and getting 0 means they're both 0.)
0 >= a + b >= a,b >= 0
Yea this is easy with induction
as long as you know that a + b >= a,b, then you are good
I found these nice notes on Heyting arithmetic https://www.cs.cmu.edu/~crary/317-f22/lectures/08-heyting.pdf
In the integers equality is decidable, so I don't think constructive makes any difference.
More explicitly, say you use a definition of the integers like "natural or -natural except 0 = -0", with naturals defined by (intuitionistic) Peano arithmetic. Then reason by 4 cases if a, b are naturals or -naturals. In each case, if either natural is 0 we are done, otherwise we have (Sx)(Sy) = (Sx)y + Sx = S(...) ≠ 0 (i.e. you use a principle of explosion here) for the naturals and the product of the integers is this or -this.
i was trying to show that for any prime ideal P of k[X_1,...X_n], ht P + coht P = n, but i couldnt do it for some reason. could i have a small hint please?
maybe i just need to know more about transc extensions
This shit is lowkey annoying as fuck man
Imma be honest I think it’s worth it to just read a proof
Unless it’s hw
In which case you gotta say more about what you can use and what you’ve done
I lowkey forget the best way to do it
If A is ring and S is a multiplicative set, then S^-1A \otimes_A S^-1A is isomorphic to S^-1A as A module , right?
Yes
Prove that tensoring with S^-1A is the same as localizing at S
And it just becomes the statement that S^-1(S^-1A) = S^-1A
Yes i shown that
So this is isomorphic as S^-1A module
If M -> N is isomorphic as B module then is that isomorphic as A module if A -> B ring homomorphism exists
Yes it will be
Yeah
Consider
0 < P1 < P2 < ... < P
Giving the height of P.
Then P1 is generated by some irreducible polynomial, and let's say wlog the polynomial contains X1. Then changing variables Xi |-> Xi + X1^m we may assume it's monic in X1.
Calling the polynomial f we see that f, X2, X3, ..., Xn is a trancendence basis, so generates a polynomial subring, let's call it S.
Then by the going down theorem PnS has the same height as P, and by the going up it has the same coheight.
But as PnS contains f, we can reduce to S/(f) which is the polynomial ring in X2, ..., Xn. So by induction the theorem holds
Hello! Why do we study objects such as fields, groups, etc?
This is an incredibly broad question
A lot of stuff that we care about have this structure on them
And so by learning how to study that we learn more things
Maybe one example I can say is that some guy… I wanna say… Dedekind??
That doesn’t quite sound right, but he “proved” Fermat’s Last Theorem a long time ago
But implicit in his “proof” was an assumption which we would now state as being that all rings of integers of number fields are UFDs
These are basically taking the integers and also allowing you to use some extra complex number, so like take numbers of the form a + bsqrt(-5)
Where a,b are integers
This forms a ring, and it turns out there isn’t “unique factorization into primes” like you have for the integers because 6 = 2•3 = (1+sqrt(-5))(1-sqrt(-5))
This failure meant that the proof of FLT was actually invalid, and we even have a group called the ideal class group for rings of this form which tells us exactly how far the ring is from having unique factorization
This group is just the identity precisely when it’s a UFD, so in some sense the large the ideal class group is the “farther” away from being a UFD you are
All this stuff requires the machinery of groups, rings, fields in order to state, but it all ends up relating to something very concrete like solutions to the equation x^3 + y^3 = z^3
There’s a million possible answers to that.
One might be that groups encode symmetries of an object and this can be useful to exploit in physics. Or that the geometry of curves, surfaces etc can be explained by polynomial rings. Maybe you like number theory where there are just endless connections. Maybe you like topology where many of your most powerful invariants are algebraic.
Slightly more philosophically, and I guess my motivation in a sense, they’re a very natural feeling thing to study. In primary school you start learning how to add positive numbers. Eventually you get good at this and start doing subtraction. Eventually you start to look at multiplication and then division. In highschool you start to study polynomials and factorisation.
All of these things behave quite differently, and learning how they behave is algebra. Here you’ve passed from a monoid, to a group, to a ring, to a field, to a polynomial ring, you’ve been studying a small aspect of these all your life. It makes sense then to pick out exactly what makes those structures tick and study them abstractly
Ur answer isn’t as good as mine haha
The first example I can think of where that would be useful would be the end of highschool when you start to do linear algebra and learn about matrices. You now have objects which you can add and multiply and subtract, but in a fundamentally different way. Now your multiplication isn’t commutative anymore, and you can’t always “divide” matrices. This is new behaviour, but still really very similar to what you already know
End of highschool
Linear algebra
Bro nope your European is showing
Idk NA chud skill issue
more philosophical
Yesh! I just wanted to say... number systems are constructed very naturally, almost generatively. The fact that you go from free monoids, to the group of integers and so on until algebraic completion, it feels very transcendental... learning about abstract algebra is like learning the foundation to the universe ^_^
Sorry, I was offline, let me read all of your answers
So, they act like backbones, in a way?
Read mine first it’s the best
Or, categorizing species into families?
It’s more like, if you had a thing and you cared about understanding it, and you found out it’s a bird, wouldn’t it be good to study birds?
cute analogy
Similar to chmonkeys example though is the classic fact that there’s no formula for the roots of a degree 5 polynomial. You definitely learned how to solve the roots of ax^2+bx+c in highschool using the quadratic formula.
You may not know, but there does exist similar formulas for degree 3 and 4 polynomials (they’re just very huge and horrible lol), but you can show that there’s in fact no formula for any higher degree polynomial and this is a profoundly algebraic problem. In fact this is in some sense what started algebra as a field of study. This fact falls out of a certain correspondence between groups and fields (the Galois correspondence)
Somehow incredibly similar to the fact Nope just said, you can disprove various compass and straightedge constructions which are problems dating back to the Greeks
Such as squaring the circle, and trisecting an angle
This uses Galois theory, which finds a remarkable relationship between fields and groups, and the structure of the subfields and subgroups
This fact is still a mystery to me because I never cared to read that section of my Galois notes
So, from what I understand from this,
A lot of different things, have similarities between them? So we sort them into uh.. little categories and study their common features?
Idk lots of galois theory but its so cool... remember trying to understand the proof for this like 2 years ago,,
Sorry, I’m very very new to this, what is galios theory?
Tbh I just took as granted that the actions they described corresponded to the algebraic operations.
Like I had to learn right then what the compass and straightedge constructions are so it was kinda like ok
Yeah that’s how I think about. Then maybe you come across some object you’re interested in for whatever reason, and if you realise that “oh hey this is a ring!” You now have access to a whole toolbox that applies to any ring
Given a field F < L, you can find a relationship between intermediary K that fit between them, and subgroups of a certain group
That group is the automorphisms of L which fix F
And sometimes things have a bunch of different levels of structure you could look at, and it’s often useful to look at them at these different levels
So subgroups of that correspond 1-to-1 to those intermediary fields
because they are interesting :)
Yeah I mean I don’t expect you to understand the Galois theory aspect of it
Groups are the cutest mathematical object :3
Our point is just that we have classical problems which ae couldn’t solve for ages
And this purely algebraic gadget called Galois theory somehow cracked the problem
So that’s why we needed to study groups and fields
You’ll get there don’t worry, it’s just all about maps between fields, and studying how different fields are contained within another.
Think about how x^2-2 has no solutions over Q, but it does over R, or how x^2+1 has no solutions over R, but does over C
Galois theory studies this sort of phenomenon
In a sense yeah
You took calculus right?
You have some function you wanted to understand
And you’re like damn I wanna know how fast this grows
Then you realize there’s something called continuous functions and you realize cool things about them, like the intermediate value theorem
It’s essentially the observation “ruler and compass constructions correspond to repeated quadratic extensions of the coordinate field, and so produce extensions of degree 2^n, but [coordinate needed for XYZ construction] is not contained in any such extension”
Then you realize a lot of those can be differentiated so you develop that theory
And now you can understand your cool function way more
I, hate to disappoint you all, can I explain my situation
Yeah I can see that, makes sense. I just never cared to read it because like, what year is it 126? I don’t care about ruler and straight edge constructions
I actually gotta get ready for bed
Nope is gonna take over and do an okay job at taking my place
:^)
i wanna know ur situation
Aww thanks chmonkey
Yeah the interesting thing to me is that it basically requires no theory except some very basic linesr algebra
bro has never been threatened at gunpoint to trisect an angle \silly
So, technically, while I did take calculus, I only learnt the most basic of the concepts properly. Like, power rules, chain rules, and maybe a bit of trig, like, sin x = opp/hyp. Other things, I’ve been just, self studying, from random textbooks and YouTube videos, so my knowledge, is full of holes
My country, is ass.
Give me a protractor :3
That does sound like a normal first introduction to calculus. Depending on where you are in the world the more developed “mathematical” might be called analysis. Are you at uni right now?
I,
Not appropriate
why u learning math
SORRY i just wanted to say
I am starting uni in a few months, actually. Maybe in like, 2
That’s reasonable then, don’t worry
I love it, I don’t think there’s any other reason
you can have a tomahawk but no protractors :3
A lot of people, especially in America, go to uni knowing no calculus and certainly no algebra
why do u love it
You’ll get there in time, it’s a very very long ultra marathon, not a sprint
what are the memories that come to mind that make you love math
i remember learning about the mandelbrot set in highschool... or about neural nets and backpropagation recreatively back then... I got lots into logic from compsci and learning formal logic also helped a lot...
youre not even expected to know pure math of any kind at all, really
because that's (unfortunately) just not taught in standard curricula
Thank you so much,
For this question,
I don’t have any particular incident that made me love maths, I think
Hm actually I do
@granite hull me an artist. You can apply abstract algebra directly to many seemingly unrelated things. Lots of formal poetry applies group theory, I myself have superficially researched formal poetry. Same for music, music is deeply mathematical. My whole life I applied math concepts to art and I think math is a beautiful muse
so yeah thats also another cool reason to learn abstract algebra me thinks
i wanna knowww
For some reason, I bought a maths textbook a few years ago, maybe 6
It was like, an introductory textbook? I think? It had things like, rational expressions,
I just did the textbook, and idk, I think I fell in love with it
Anyways, thank you for the help, yall. I really appreciate your answers, they did help me gain clarity
SPURS SCORED A GOAL
GLORY GLORY TOTTENHAM HOTSPUR
#discussion please
But also no, it would be incredibly funny to see spurs relegated
The spurs are in danger of being relegated? Lol
Idk, seems pretty clearly aboit fields to me........
Can I just say that gN = Ng implies gNg^-1 = N through left multiplying both sides by g^-1? Or am I butchering some rigour?
Yes you can say that
That's fine yes
Thanks
Ng is by definition the set
{ng : n in N}
So
Ngg^- is
{n g g^-1 : n in N} = N
You can always apply the same operation to two equal things and get something equal
is the justification for this some universal algebra thing
I wouldn't say so.
It's just the definition of a function / well definedness.
It’s the definition of being well defined
If x = y then f(x) = f(y)
what jagr and micoi said
formally you can see that G acts left-and right on its subsets
and this is a biaction in the sense that g(Sh) = (gS)h for all subsets S and g, h ∈ G
this all follows from the associativity of G
Do you understand the bound |E^n(X)| <= |X| + |F| + omega?
3.2 says that Sg(X) is the union of all E^n(X), so the result follows from the above
yea, i can’t see how the proof of 3.2 is being used
Did enpeace recommend you that UA book 😭
like sum |E^n(X)| <= w(|X| + |F| + w)
i think once before but i’m studying it on my own lmao
Ah okay lol
is it just this but fiddling with the cardinal arithmetic?
Yes that seems to be it. Because unioning two countable sets leaves it countable
As is any countable union of countable sets
Sg(X) is the union of all E^n(X), then |Sg(X)| is the sup of all |E^n(X)|. Since |E^n(X)| \leq |X| + |F| + omega, we have that the sup of |E^n(X)| which is |Sg(X)| is \leq |X| + |F| + omega
ah, that’s much more clean thank you
yeah its kinda fiddling with cardinals but its a good result
so in particular if |F| is countable infinite then Sg(X) \leq |F| for all X with |X| < |F|
when is this result useful?
I don't quite recall exactly where but I do remember it is used somewhere
hold on
nvm cant find anything 😔
I do know i've used it before though
lol alr all good
is the irredundant basis theorem worth learning? seems kind of random
yess
i skimmed this and it looked very fun
i was also thinking about the section on term algebras
sections 10 and 11 of this chapter
those are the ones im looking forward to the most
bro finkes hes 1/mu e
can I be the epsilon to your c? together we will mu
one of me, two of you, multiply together and we mu
well actually one of you cus your already c^2
but that doesnt rhyme
whats your elo? I bet Im below
c? yo?
Maybe theres no chemistry between us but Im atleast feeling an electrical tension
wat u doin pal
rizzing
NOT. ALLOWED.
I was about to rizz you but I fucked up so now idk what Im gonna do
🥀
im unrizzable
Ts is poetic
It's
I bet its kinda toothy. Cus by the communitive property of multiplication you are kinda23
technically its 1/mu but sometimes math isnt on our side
I bet theres more rizz hiding here in the abs alg server but I kinda only know hs algebra...
and calculus but thats not relvant
is that why you named yourself kiand123. Did I find the secret puzzle?
how do I apply for moderator?
for me my favorite chapter was Malcev conditions i think
the most frustrating too
cuz they are hard
poetic? this looks more like a psychotic episode to me
what did you enjoy about them?
the idea that you can make terms magically appear out of thin air by just requiring that the variety satisfies a property that on the surface has nothing to do with terms
where tf did ideals come from
take for example the variety of semigroups. We know that sets can be interpreted as trivial semigroups, so it follows that e.g. semigroups cannot have "special properties" that hold for all semigroups
because else a Malcev condition would make nontrivial terms appear, which sets cannot satisfy
wait that is pretty cool
this reminds me of a useless brainrot fact
(i collect a lot of these)
the singleton set has 2 distinct cosemigroup structures and they correspond to the two "natural" ways to equip a set with a semigroup structure
in particular, ab := a and ab := b
What was the original exampla again?
