#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 400 of 1
Wait, what's your definition of Gal(f), f in F[X]? The most standard is that it's group of automorphisms of the splitting field of f over F that fix F
Yep
Well, take a toy example like Q(sqrt2)/Q. We find its Galois group like this: the extension has degree 2 and is the splitting field of a separable polynomial, so the group has order 2; any automorphism permutes {\pm\sqrt 2} (and the action on this set determines the auto), and automorphisms of this form give at most two things in the group, so these facts mean that the group consists of the identity and the other thing. Is the takeaway that this is not the analysis I should be carrying out for this question?
That's the correct analysis
And that does tell you what the galois group is in that case
It's C2
Because you have a map from the galois group to C2=S2, given as follows:
Let sqrt(2)=a1, -sqrt(2)=a2.
Then let sigma be an element of the galois group. Map sigma to the permutation that it induces on a1,a2.
This is injective and surjective. Injective because different automorphisms must carry a1 to different roots.
Its surjective because both a1 -> a1 and a1-> a2 are automorphisms fixing Q
Yes
Now do the same for this case. Let the roots of x^2-3 be a0,a1 and that of x^2-7 be b0,b1, and the roots of 1+x+x^2+x^3+x^4 be c0,c1,c2,c3. Now let sigma be an element of the galois group.
Sigma carries a1 to ai for some i =0 or 1
Sigma carries b1 to bj for some j=0 or 1
Sigma carries c1 to ck for some k=0,1,2, or 3.
Map sigma into Z/2xZ/2xZ/4 as follows:
sigma -> (i,j,k)
Show that this is an isomorphism using almost identical logic as before
Yes, I agree. I guess the issue I was trying to point out is showing that your map is well-defined (which may just be pedantry on my part). How do we know that any of the sigma are automorphisms? I assume the fact to use is that if f1...fn are irreducible over K with no common roots in their splitting fields, then Gal(f1 f2 ... fn/K) is isomorphic to the product of the Gal(fi/K)?
For instance I don't know the degree of this extension. Who's to say the galois group doesn't only interchange the roots of the quadratic irreducible factors independently, and no automorphism moves any of the roots of the quintic factor? Hopefully it's to do with the statement I put forward in my last message
Ah, okay, so for that it suffices to show that the minimal polynomial g of zeta_5 = e^{2pi i/5} over Q(sqrt(3),sqrt(7)) is the same as that over Q (the min poly over Q has degree 4) . Let f be the min poly over Q. We certainly have g| f. Now check that any subset of the factors of f containing zeta_5 don't give a polynomial in Q(sqrt(3),sqrt(7))[x]
So g=f infact, and that's what we wanted
So I'm guessing you'd check that you can't get an element of Q(sqrt3,sqrt7) by taking the product of a proper, nonempty subset of the factors of x^5-1
Well you just need to take proper products of subsets factors of 1+x+..+x^4 but yes
Excuse me, yes
And the nice thing is, for most of the subsets you should be able to argue that either the product or sum of the roots won't be in Q(sqrt(3),sqrt(7)), so by default those subsets are eliminated
You will need to compute e^(2pi/5) (so that will involve computing sin(2pi/5)) for a full rigorous argument should you decide to prove it this way, or you can have the values memorised (maybe you can get away without knowing these values, not exactly sure)
Yeah
Thanks!
I fear this problem would take me more than the allotted 9 minutes to solve if I were to encounter it on my exam later today... 
Write
L = Q(sq3, sq7) and K = Q(zeta5).
As L and K are both Galois extensions you have [KL:L] = [K:L cap K].
So you just need to determine if they intersect. The degree 2 subextension of Q(zeta5) is Q(zeta5 + zeta5^-1) = Q(cos(2pi/5)) = Q(sq5). So should not intersect Q(sq3, sq7)
[KL:L] = [K:L cap K]
Never seen this before. Going out on a limb here but does that have a more well-known group-theoretic interpretation via the Galois correspondence?
It's the second isomorphism theorem
More specifically let
E/F be a Galois extensions, let K and L be intermediate extensions with K Galois.
Let G = Gal(E/F), N = Gal(E/K) and H = Gal(E/L).
Then HN = Gal(E/KnL) and HnN = Gal(E/KL), and G/N = Gal(K/F).
Then the second isomorphism theorem says HN/N = H/(HnN).
But HN/N = Gal(K/KnL) and H/HnN = Gal(KL/L)
Is the inverse necessarily true? i.e., if f in R/<p> [x] is reducible, then f is reducible in R[x]?
For context, I'm trying to figure out if 9x^3 - 6x^2 - 7x + 3 is irreducible in Z[x], and figured I'd try to check it under F_2, which transforms it to x^3+x+1
and I'm fairly certain that x^3+x+1 is reducible, so can I say that because that's reducible, my original polynomial is also reducible?
no
the converse is not necessarily true
yeah I'm realizing I did my original modding wrong
and modded it into x^3 - x + 1, and not x^3 + x + 1
same thing in F_2[x]
I've figured out its irreducible now
like I guess that makes sense
if only for the reason that the proposition would've stated otherwise
you can see it's irredicuble in F_2[x] because it does not have a root in F_2
as a cubic, if it factorized, it would have a linear factor and hence a root
ok word, thank you
guys im ngl groups and rings is acc horror
i think ts has set my life span back about 5 years minimum
Should I get a real or lab grown diamond for my girlfriend’s wedding ring?
this might be the wrong channel
Wrong channel, but the answer is lab
How can a labrador make a diamond
Just hand them a pickaxe. They're pretty smart
But what if you love slavery and paying ridiculous amounts of money?
How trivial is it that a group that is torsion free cannot be isomorphic to a group with a torsion subgroup
I want to state it during my presentation but I don’t want to prove it because it’s not technically in a purely group theoretic context
If you know what all those words mean I should think entirely
If your group is abelian then it is trivially equivalent too
also, if its isomorphic to a group with a torsion subgroup, then it is a group with a torsion subgroup
I guess I won’t even be writing anything for that proof on the board then
I’ll just explain it verbally
I guess I would say nontrivial torsion subgroup lol
What are you trying to show?
I would say yes it is barely worth mentioning from this
Also like any torsion element generates a torsion subgroup, so having a nontrivial subgroup which is torsion is just saying "not torsionfree"
oh right for some reason my mind stopped at the fact that the set of torsion elements is not necessarily a subgroup
Im showing that m-fold sum of tori and the n-fold sum of projective planes are not homeomorphic. And it follows immediately from the homology groups
Which I described in terms of their ranks and torsion subgroups
In previous results
I would just say that like two fg abelian things are same iff same ranks and torsion subgroups
If they don't know that then can take as a blackbox as it's very believable and not topology
Classification of finitely generated abelian groups
Indeed
Precisely
also if you're doing homology then that should definitely be something you should be able to prove
I am a sheaf.
(even if with a little effort)
This is what i was gonna say lol
I’m introducing it to the class. I don’t wanna prove it because I have little time
Even it’s easy
I was talking about the people listening
What is the best proof tbh
Can quickly reduce to classifying torsion things
For abelian groups ig can do an easier argument than general PID
classifying finite ab groups is pretty easy using chinese remainder theorem and induction
Just prove Smith Normal Form

Lol
As soon as I say “row reduce everything in sight” like
It’s obvious how you prove it
I guess can also like reduce to stuff killed by p^k for a prime element p by CRT and then probably some usual devissage ting
What is lol
Smith normal form
Sure lol
This is literally the only proof I've ever seen lmfao
Fg torsion module has nontrivial annihilator. Modding out reduces to artinian PIR, its a product of local rings so reduces to local artinian PIR. Show that these are self injective with a quick zorn.
Break off free summand continue by induction
Yeah ig what I said above reduces to local artinian PIR and then that is a nice way to finish that off
Though using Zorn feels unnecessary
Maybe it is though for this proof since you're proving a more general statement? (About local artinian PIR)
Well, after reducing to the artinian PIR might as well just clarify all modules over them, not just the fg ones
Ah
This is what my group theory course did without ever mentioning it which I find funny, like just fully proved the smith normal form without putting it as an actual result
There's a geometric way to prove PID but I forget it now
Pedant hat is you don't prove the form but you prove its existence uniqueness smh
Oh wait yeah I guess you can just avoid Zorn if you use fg modules, is that what you mean?
Yes, then it's just normal induction
Like ig Artinian local PIR are self-injective by Baer for example but you only actually need injectivity applied to a fg module which is an easier claim
Yeah okay this is a nice proof then thank
There's a cool proof (that idk how standard it is) where you find a specific homomorphism in Hom(D^n,D) that decomposes D^n into ker(phi) (+) Dx_1 and then proceed by induction on the rank
And then the general theorem follows from this
Can you elaborate a little more on this?

/lh
since D is a PID, every homomorphism D^n->D has image some ideal call it <a_phi>. Then by noetherianity you have a maximal such ideal <a_phi_1>
Now a_phi_1 is the image of some y_1 under phi_1, and you can show that there's also an x_1 such that y_1 = phi_1(y_1)x_1 and phi_1(x_1) = 1, and from this it follows that D^n = ker(phi_1) (+) Dx_1 and M = (ker(phi_1) cap M) (+) Dy_1
Then proceeding by induction on the rank of D^n, you have your decomposition and that every submodule M is free
From this you prove the general case by nothing that M = <m_1,...,m_k> and there's a surjective morphism D^k -> M, and since ker(this morphism) is a submodule of D^k, it's free and that way you get your decomposition of M
Another possible proof:
Again R/Ann(M) artinian means M has finite length.
Let C = R/r be a cyclic submodule with largest possible length. Now for x in M not in C, let it have annihilator (s). If s does not divide r then it's easy to construct an element with annihilator lcm(r, s) contradicting maximality. So s divides r. Then if (x) intersects C you can shift x a little by something in C to make them not intersect, and a little induction should round it off.
I'm not sure I follow. What are the morphisms D^n -> D you're considering?
Hm I don't quite see the last bit
any D-module hom between D^n and D
so it's all elements of Hom_D(D^n,D)
Then I definitely don't follow
hm well I was a bit vague because I didn't wanna write out all the details
but I can write everything out
I still have my notes from this class
but I don't remember who I was told originally came up with this proof
So the first part is just proving that any homomorphism D^n -> D splits into ker (+) image
That's clear if that's what you're trying to say
So that's all you're doing I guess? And then at you end you say that since the kernel is free you're done? I'm not sure I see why
Again pick x such that image in M/C has maximal length.
Then you get
R/r (+) R/s submodule of M. Pick next etc
well it's a bit more specific than that because you aren't just showing it's an isomorphism this is a genuine equality
you show that D^n deconstructs in this very specific way that's compatible with any submodule
the actual statement we proved is
D^n decomposes (equality) as Dx_1 (+) ... (+) Dx_n
and for any submodule of D^n there exist a_1|a_2|...|a_n such that M = Da_1x_1 (+) ... (+) Da_nx_n
Ahhh, so when you're talking about the image of a map D^n -> D you mean the image of a submodule of D^n
oh yes sorry
Then the first part makes more sense
I knew I was being too vague 😔
Cool, I see
there's some geometric interpretation of this that I forget that my professor told us was how this proof was originally discovered
but I forget
I was taught this by Alireza Golsefidy at UCSD when I took his algebra class
Ig I mostly meant how you get the nonintersecting but maybe I am being foolish
Say tx in C, then r/t * tx = 0, so tx is a multiple of t (inside C = R/r)
Then (x - tx/t) doesn't intersect C
Horrible notation, but hopefully you get it
Okay nice thanks
Is it true that for k a field, k(x1, ..., xn)^⨯ / k[x1, ..., xn]_{(x1, ..., xn)}^⨯ is the free abelian group generated by x1, ..., xn?
What's the cleanest proof of this fact, if true?
IG Frac(A)^⨯/A^⨯ is free on the irreducible elements of A for any UFD A and S^{-1}A^⨯/A^⨯ is generated by precisely the irreducibles (dividing elements) in S, and the saturated multiplicative set k[x1, ..., xn]\(x1,...,xn) is generated by all irreducibles with constant term, so you get the free abelian group on all irreducible polynomials with no constant term... which is actually larger than {x1, ..., xn}.
having a hard time understanding what this theorem is saying, btw Integers are under addition here
so let $f : \mathbb{Z} \to G$ be a group homomorphism
Any specific part that trips you up, or you just don't understand any of it?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
then you can obtain an element of $G$ by evaluating $f$ at $1 \in \mathbb{Z}$, to obtain $f(1) \in G$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
maybe understanding what the map epsilon does, maybe an example will help?
this defines a map $\epsilon : \text{Hom}(\mathbb{Z}, G) \to G$ by $\epsilon(f) := f(1)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so for example, you could set $G = D_4$, the group of rotations of a square
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and then define $f(n)$ to be a clockwise rotation by $90n$ degrees
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
this is a group homomorphism, right?
im not sure to be honest...
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
wait sorry we have never define groups in terms of rotations of a square so thats what im confused about with this example
oh sorry
its cool
i meant $D_4$ as the group of symmetries of a square
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
that was a typo on my part
so this includes the rotations and the reflections
it's a type of group called a dihedral group
we havent done rotations either but im guessing the identity is no rotation. 1 rotation is by 90 degrees, 2 is by 180, and 3 is by 270, and 4 you are back to identity?
yep
i see, wait can we use integers mod 4, under addition
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
then, we can define a group homomorphism $f : \mathbb{Z} \to C_4$ by $f(n) = n \pmod 4$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
right?
mhm
in this case, $\epsilon(f) = f(1) = 1 \pmod 4$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
which is an element of $C_4$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yup
in general, what $\epsilon$ does is take a homomorphism $f : \mathbb{Z} \to G$, and evaluates it at $1$ to obtain $f(1) \in G$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
thus, it's a map $\epsilon : \text{Hom}(\mathbb{Z}, G) \to G$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
the domain is the set of homomorphisms from Z to G
the codomain is G itself, viewed as a set
in particular, you should just think of epsilon as a function between sets, not a group homomorphism
I see
then, what your screenshot is saying is that $\epsilon$ is a bijection
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
for any group G
the best way to interpret this theorem is that it says "any homomorphism from a cyclic group is uniquely determined by where it sends the generator"
so you don't need to specify where every element is sent
just where 1 is sent
and this determines the homomorphism in it's entirety
-# Z represents the forgetful functor
ahhh i see
i understand now
if two homomorphisms $f_a $ and $f_b$ have it so that $f_a(1) = 1 = f_b(1)$ then they agree on the generator and that forces them to agree on all other elements so $f_a(n) = f_b(n)$ $\forall $n \in \mathbb{Z}$
so that makes it 1-1
yes
Hihi! I'm doing some reading of the basics of group theory, and I have need some help understanding something.
It says that given a group G and subgroup H, then G/H has a natural operation (xG)(yG) = (xy)G, but warns that in general that this is not well defined. What I don't understand is how this can not be well defined? And is it ever the case that G/H is not a group?
I have attached the actual passage
This happens if the subgroup H is not normal, and in that case G/H cannot be a group because the action isn’t well defined.
As an example to see this, take S_3, and think of a non normal subgroup, write out what happens
Ah, the text defined normal right after it states this and I got stuck here and have not moved on yet
I'll have a look
Thanks!
Yeah normal essentially just means that the multiplication on G/H is well defined, but yeah you should write out what the multiplication looks like in S_3/H where H isn’t a normal subgroup (there’s 3 to choose from)
this is why i prefer a different def for the quotient group operation
given any two subsets $A, B \subset G$, you can form their product $AB = {ab : a \in A, b \in B}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
you can then show that, if $H$ is normal, the product of two cosets is always another coset
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and this is what's happening in the quotient group, under the hood
how hard is that to prove? would it be a good exercise?
it would be a good exercise 
another good exercise relating to this would be: Suppose $G$ is a group, $H \leq G$ and $N \trianglelefteq G$.
\begin{enumerate}
\item Show that $HN = NH$, and conclude that $HN \leq G$.
\item If $H \trianglelefteq G$, show that $HN \trianglelefteq G$.
\end{enumerate}
BigBalla
I'm still at the definition of normal subgroups lol. I am still before isomorphisms theorums and quotient groups so it looks a bit out of my depth. Maybe later. But thanks!
you shouldnt need the isomorphism theorems for that proof
That’s basically just applying the definition of a normal subgroup, it’s a good thing to do to make sure you’ve absorbed it
oh okay. the notation was new
yeah the triangle less than equal is
N is a normal subgroup of G
try it, if you get stuck go and reread the definition for normal subgroups, it should help with internalizing what you just read
I haven't read it a first time yet 😭😭
lol whenever you feel ready or wanna test yourself
1+2 = 4 right
yes
How do i do this problem? I thought something among the lines of that every elements square should be unique, therefore by the pigeonhole principle all elements should have a square.
But i'm pretty sure there's something wrong with this reasoning
i think this is valid reasoning
essentially you're reasoning that squaring is injective and injective self-maps on finite sets are bijective
the finite assumption is important, cuz the group (Z, +) for instance
yay pigeonhole
I don't know how to prove that the squares should be unique, though...
This isn't true for (R^x, *) for example, where x^2 = y^2 doesn't necessarily imply x=y
yea
this is where the odd size assumption is critical
cuz the reason it fails for that group is cuz of the {-1, +1} subgroup (isomorphic to Z/2)
how does |G| being odd ensure that squares are unique?
ah ok this is the key to the exercise
i assumed you figured it out cuz of how you worded your original statement
but yea you're on the right track
i can hint if u want
Oh, hm, okay, i'll think about it, then
Yeah a hint would be good
Lagrange's theorem is huge here
wait i might have quoted the wrong theorem
i should check
For every subgroup H of G, cardinality of H divides cardinality G?
yea that one
ok this certainly works although idk if it's overkill
have you learned it yet
No it makes sense, it was introduced in this chapter
ok the thing is that you can use the theorem to prove the theorem im actually thinking of but idk the name
||the order of an element divides the size of the group||
Hm, thinking of your {-1 , 1} example, do x and y with same squares form a subgroup?
interestingly squares form a subgroup of any abelian group but not in general
yea sorry i feel like i misled you a little
this is what i should have hinted with
I thought of this, but couldn't remember if this is the case with all groups or some special case
yea it's an all groups thing
i forget the optimal proofs so it sorta got lumped with lagrange in my head cuz it's sorta a strict generalization
cuz the order of an element is the size of the subgroup generated by it
oh buh hat was one of the examples in the tetbook
that makes sense
maybe that is how you prove that theorem
i wasn't sure if i was being circular
idk what to call it
the order of an element divides the order of the group theorem
Oh yeah you use lagranges theorem for it
if |g| is finite then <g> is a subgroup and therefore |g| divides |G|
hell yea
hm ok let me think
yea there's still a few nontrivial steps here
Yeah uhm i still have no idea...
so, what we want to show is that x^2 = y^2 implies x = y. we know that x^m = 1 and y^n = 1 for m, n | |G|, and that |G| is odd
because |G| is odd, what can we say about m, n?
correct
x^2k * x = 1
y^2j * y = 1
y^2k = x^-1
x^2j = y^-1
y^2k+1 = x^-1 y = 1
x = y
wait
no
that doesn't wrok
ugh
wait it does
because y^2=x^2
y^2k+1 = x^2k+1=1
Chmonkey Monkey
so true
Can u make it so that at some point the thing on the left is actually = x
And the thing on the right is actually = y
also doesn't this do it already
Oh
Yeh cool
I was gonna say you can take the orders of x and y, call them m and n
And multiply them
And you get x^mn = 1 = y^mn
But x^mn is odd so it’s a 2k + 1 and then you eliminate
Similar for y^mn
But yeh
x^2k+1=y^2k+1
x^2k * x = y^2k * y
x = y
WOWIES you are so smart
I mean what u did is functionally the same
I took the long way
Yes but sometimes the long way is good
Here’s an exampl
#pbj #peanutbutterandjelly #meme #dankmeme
SO TRUE
this feels like vine
The crazy thing is I think it isn’t
yea ikr
i wish vine were still real that was the shit
tiktok doesn't count, you actually needa limit people to 6 seconds
Bro how old r u
Maybe it wa the monkey pfp but I clocked you as like… 20
And that’s too young for vine lol
i wasnt even on vine for the most part but yeah it totally does. vine had a pretty different culture or at least thats what it felt like as someone who was predominately on yt
That awkward time when it was music.ly 😂😂😂😂
Kind of the dead zone btw vine and TikTok
I struggled to remember the name for a while
me when I enter #vines-tiktoks-reels
really silly question
isn
isn't F already over a field ans this is its field of fractions
F is a field, F[x,y] isn't
How can a ring (which is not a field) F[x, y] be the same as a field (the fraction field of R)?
I don't understand how it follows that \alpha^m \in F (in the line before last line of the screenshot)
If g divides f then
g(x) = (x - alpha)^m
so
g(0) = ± alpha^m is in F
22
vine was popular when i was in elementary school so like, even if i were 20, id be able to remember it
I guess I was kinda the last little generation that elementary schoolers didn’t all have phones
Even if you go 5 years later it started kinda being the norm huh
You'll be amazed to learn that there are university students younger than the iphone

How can I be so oblivious

thanks jagr
I spent close to an hour trying to understand this
it was this simple 
He is younger than the iPhone for an amazing reason
Cuz ur Neam
Idk what that is supposed to mean
I'm never gonna be able to learn AG if I'm like this 
oh yea i didnt have a phone, my classmates just quoted it all the time
Yeah but some of ur friends probably did
i only ever learned the sources from looking them up on youtube at home on my pc
When I was in elementary school nobody had a phone
i forget tbh
I didn’t know what YouTube was until 3rd or 4th grade I think
i dont remember phones being a thing when i was in grade school but they became things when i was in upper grade school
Maybe 5th
I think someone told me about raywilliamjohnson
And that’s how I found out
The telephone hadn't been invented when you were in elementary school 🥀
groups rings and fields exam just completed c:
im about 4 months older
and in 3rd year
oh wait 11 months, im 4 months older than the announcement of the iphone
I think I have an idea of what this theorem is saying but maybe not fully?
So I understand that here the main idea is that the only way $f$ can factor through $\pi$ is if $f$ is constant on each coset of $\ker \pi$. If $f = \psi \circ \pi$, then it must be that $\ker \pi \leq \ker f$, since $\pi$ collapses each coset of $\ker \pi$ into a single point in $Q$, and then $\psi$ maps that point to an element of $K$. (Recall that the cosets of $\ker \pi$ partition $G$.) So we need $\ker \pi \leq \ker f$ because that makes $f$ ``blind'' to the elements of $\ker \pi$ that differ between elements of the same coset: if $g_1$ and $g_2$ lie in the same coset, then $g_1 = g_2 \cdot n$ for some $n \in \ker \pi \subseteq \ker f$, so $f(g_1) = f(g_2) \cdot f(n) = f(g_2)$. Thus $f$ sends the entire coset to a single point in $K$, which is exactly what's needed for $\psi$ on $Q$ to be well-defined.
BigBalla
categorically, this says that surjective group homomorphisms are epimorphisms
Hm can I apply FIT backwards
I.e
If G/H ~= M, there is a surjective homomorphism from G to M
Yes just compose your isomorphism with the canonical surjection G->G/H

Sorry, I don’t think I get your explanation very well
wdym by lagrange backwards
Converse of it
( I think that’s what converse is?)
Yes that’s it
lagrance says that if H ⊆ G is a subgroup, then |H| divides |G|
Wait I’m so stupid
so you're asking, if |H| divides |G|, then is H ⊆ G?
I meant FIT
should be false
ohhhhh
Yes it is
that makes way more sense w what you posted
Second time posting something stupid in here!!
FIT says, if φ: G -> M, then G/ker φ ≅ im φ, and you're taking the case when im φ = M, i assume
Yes
yea then what irony said is right
essentially, if H ⊆ G is a normal subgroup, we have an induced map G -> G/H
we send an element g ∈ G to its coset gH ∈ G/H
Yes I know that much
Their explanation was just uhh
Very concise
I know the terminology
And etc
yea true
oh yea i forgor to add on the isomorphism
but yeah a surjective homomorphism is in one-to-one correspondence with a choice of normal subgroup
it's pretty beautiful
It is indeed
[up to isomorphism of the image]
im kinda brainrotted i forget to say that a lot
actually this is kinda subtle
cuz sometimes the image can be isomorphic but you have distinct kernels
i can explain the subtlety if you're curious
Sure actually but maybe after figuring out the converse of FIT thing…?
Wellll
They said take the isomorphism and compose with projection, right?
Yuh uhh I have no idea what they meant
Do I take the bijective function between them?
let's name the map i: G/H -> M
also, let's name the map p: G -> G/H
so we use i ○ p
np
sometimes it takes a lot of different explanations to make it click
ur doing great 
Thxx
Do you still wanna explain the subtlety?
sure
ok so, for example, there's many different surjective group homs Z^2 -> Z, and they have many different kernels
one, for instance, sends (m, n) to m
another sends (m, n) to n
another sends (m, n) to m+n
what gives?
the idea is that, for the statement to fully work, we need to consider the entire map, up to post-composing by an isomorphism
for example, we consider the map that sends (m, n) to m and the map that sends (m, n) to -m "the same" in a sense
this is because we can get one from the other by post-composing by the map Z -> Z that sends n to -n
Ahh
honestly i think im confusing myself
cuz i said it right the first time
by saying surjective map
ah, no, i didn't specify what i meant by isomorphism of surjective map
that's why i felt the need to say this
cuz it's not as simple as an isomorphism of the images
you need to specifically post-compose by an isomorphism
anyway hopefully im not being too confusing rn
ur free to ignore this yap but, yea
I think I see what you meant
OHH wait this ties in so nicely with this problem
Since the order of elements divides the order of the group, there aren't any elements of order k, so G/H where H is all eleemnts of order k is isomorphic to G
so g -> g^k is surjective
Well
hm
it's actually elements whose order divides k
so it's just the identity
is it?
you are only showing that there is one element mapped to the identity
I'm using First iso
that does not imply that the map is surjective, because it is not necessarily a group homomorphism
the converse of it
nooooo
if G/H ~= M, i:G/H -> M is a homomorphism, and pi:G -> G/H is a homomorphism. so i * p: G -> M is a homomorphism
furthermore becase pi isn't necessarily injective, i * p is surjective
I have the answer. Would it be ok if I posted it?
Answer to what?
yea sadly the power map is only guaranteed to be a homomorphism if our group is abelian
to 8.14
essentially we want (gh)^k = g^k h^k
sure
How is my proof invalid, then?
I can write it out more clearly
yea this is valid
wait
nvm i gotta read more carefully
ah the issue is that elements of order k [edit: i meant to say k-th powers, oops] aren't a subgroup in general
but tbh it's close to the right idea
we do want to use divisibility stuff
in this case it is, isn't it?
since it's only the identity
they are also the elements g -> g^k maps to the identity
so they are forced to be the kernel and therefore the subgroup
so it may be something unique to groups where k divides |G|
i mean k-th powers
just fyi stupid mistakes never go away
lol
well still
if k-th powers are mapped to the identity by a group homomorphism
then they have to be a subgroup
so if they aren't usually
maybe not all g -> g^k are homomorphisms
but in this case we knwo that it is
so they are forced to be a subgroup
not necessarily
-# well in this case we know that g^k = 1 is only true for g = e
-# so it definitely is a subgroup
Here's the intuition:
If k is coprime to n, it is invertible mod n. Note that if G is of order n, powers of an element g can be reduced mod n, i.e. g^n=1, so g^(a+nb)=g^a
ok actually in this case kth powers do form a subgroup but
that's cuz it's G itself
but that's a theorem, not the way you prove the theorem
ok im kinda tired and disoriented imma have to tap out
oh
you're right
im stupid
wait
hmmm
of
we are given that GCD(k, |G|) = 1
then if g^k=1, |g| divides k and |g| divides |G|, so |g|=1, g=e
if H are elements such that g^k=1, trivially
G/H ~= G
so the function g -> g^k is surjective
i just noticed that the problem doesn't require it being a homomorphism
Does it even apply then
ughhhh
You were right al along
i think with some manipulation of FIT you can show that it does
what exactly is a group extension
do they have similar properties of a field extension (is this basically how supersets work?)
idk how this has anything to do with the schur multiplier
Given a normal subgroup N < G we say that G is an extension of
N by G/N.
One is often interested in the situation where you start with N and G/N and see what different extensions can be built from them.
For example if N = G/N = C2 the cyclic group of order 2, then G could be either C2xC2 or C4
I've recently thought about a problem im not sure how to solve:
What is the chromatic number of a Cayley graph of S_n generated by elements of order 2?
In other words if I make a graph of all permutations of order n, with each two connected iff they differ by 2 placements. What would be the minimum number of colors needed to color the nodes with no neighbors of the same color
Oh wait that's a dumb question
It's a bipartite graph
But what about a general set of generators of order k?
Well apparently this also is not that interesting
I checked some cases
It's mostly χ=k
Except for like special cases and stuff
But it does seem like an interesting graph
So like I wanna ask questions about it
Automorphism group, diameter, hamiltonicity and stuff like this
does anyone happen to know why the group averaging operator produces a G invariant vector?
I assume you mean you have a finite group acting on a vector space and you average the action?
try applying an element of the group to the average and seeing what happens
yep yep
The map x->gx is a bijection G->G
hm
that makes sense but like
idk it's just weird
i got malware from arxiv or an arxiv copy so i dont want to look for any papers anymore ☹️
Its just really that addition is commutative and the action of an element induces a bijection
Are you sure? Afaik you have to submit a .tex file and the pdf which is served is compiled by arxiv
well something happened when i clicked on an arxiv link, my computer got really slow, then my google turned to
yahoo
What about in characteristic p
Joking
Premium ragebait
$g. (\sum_{h \in G} h.v) = \sum_{h \in G} (gh).v$
Prismatic Potato
and this is a sum over all group elements
Importantly the action must be linear for this to work
is this it? i thought it was dividing by the order of G too?
scaling an invariant vector produces another invariant vector
bc i'm doing serre's linear representations of finite groups
ah
i mean, the set of invariant vectors is a submodule
The advantage of dividing by the order of the group is that it gives you a projection operator
i.e. if you average an invariant vector you just get the same thing back
ohhhhhh so thats why he did it
i thought the averaging operator included that
It does yeah, dividing by the order of the group is the averaging part
yeye
okay im confused a bit bc then what is this
like i understand this is what happens by acting g on something
what do you by what is this
You're just moving terms around in the sum
That doesn't change the value of the sum
The sum is the averaging operation except the division. Then you have g acting on the sum, and as h ranges over G so does gh, so g * sum(hv) = sum(hv)
Lol ye I just omitted that 1/n as it's linear
ahhhhh
The idea here is that, by taking g.v for all g, you have exhausted all of the possible actions by elements of G. Multiplying by an element of h then only permutes the elements of g, so the resulting vector is the same since you only permuted the sum (so you have the same factors)
another way i like to think of it is, given your vector v and your group action, the most general possible vector you can make is $\sum_{g \in G} f(g) g \cdot v$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
then you can check what f you need for this to be invariant, and it turns out a constant f works
this is kind of the perspective of the group ring, i suppose
Any hints as to how to approach this? I was able to show that the chain (x₁) ⊆(x₂) ⊆(x₃) ⊆ ... has the property that if xₙ₊₁ ∈ (xₙ) then x₂ ∈ (x₁). I tried to go for a contradiction in this case, by considering a homomorphism τ from R into ℝ that sends x₁ to 2 and each further indeterminate to the square root of the previous indeterminate, and the image of that homomorphism is a subring S of ℝ that contains all integers and all numbers of the form 2^(1/2ⁿ), but the issue is that I don't know how to show that this subring doesn't contain √2/2. It seems like there should be some field theory lemma for this, but I don't know any field theory.
The image of the homomorphism you defined lies in the ring of algebraic integers
boo
oh yea that's clever
i guess one strategy you could do is show that if you let x_1 = 0 (i.e. add x_1 to the ideal), then x_2 ≠ 0 in the resulting quotient ring
ohh i get ur proof idea tho
you're tryna embed R into R
i think your intuition is right, that every 2^(1/2^n) is linearly independent
wait i take it back im not sure
but yea it seems kinda tricky
so you might wanna go w/ something more like this
Yeah, the issue is that algebraic integers aren't covered in the book just yet so I'd have to include a bunch of lemmas about them into the proof. I guess this shouldn't be too bad
Oh, that's clever! I'll see if this works
pona o tawa sina
pona a!
new pfp
yes! although it's also probably temporary
for the record i didn't change it just to scare that dude

it's cuz it kinda looks like monk key color scheme wise
i like it!
yay
oh true
btw i posted a question to MO relatively recently that's kinda UAG pilled
it was worded like shit originally but it got slowly fixed over time
do u wanna see it (i suspect the answer is yes)
share
:0
one consequence of this is the title is long now 🥀
these correspond to what i call completions
so let L ⊆ L' be an extension of algebraic languages, and V, V' be varieties over L resp L'.
V' is a completion of V if V' restricted to L generates V, and restricting does not lose any information (i.e. the restriction functor reflects isomorphisms)
is this a coinage
i also had a coinage but i think the language often used is tha L' is implicitly definable from L
or something like that
how does this deal with the ring case btw
i briefly looked into this a looong time ago ¯_(ツ)_/¯
fair
oh right this is specifically for totally defineable operations
so it doesnt really correspond to your case
just a nice subcase of it
yea it's weird how rings specifically just like
fuck with you
im looking for that in particular tbh
i wanna be fucked
but yea it's also cool how monoids complete to groups and bdl's complete to ba's
units too
the magma to quasigroup is also a completion im p sure
every edge in the groupoid lattice is a completion if you remove the condition that V' generates V
holy canoli and spicy guacamole
wait, how do you define this
well the idea is that being a quasigroup is a property of the magma, and not extra structure
this can be formalized by asking that the functor that takes the magma reduct (i.e. forgetting the division operations) reflects isomorphisms
ok tbh i wouldn't be surprised if like
your notion of completing
is entirely distinct from my notion
any completion induces an instance of your notion onto the variety generated by the reduct
for a simple example, consider N-actions vs Z-actions, how do we get my notion
i.e. arbitrary unary f, vs. f, g such that f ○ g = g ○ f = id
oh i guess maybe it fails the generation condition
well that tells me what to interrogate at least
quasigroups generate magmas?
context: i wrote monoids instead of magmas, oops
quasigroups arent associative
mental typo
yeah i just realized
your notion is about specific elements
fixed
mine is about operations
yea perhaps
in a sense my notion is your notion applied to the "variety of equational theories"
there are several ways to define it
you can have a single associative infinitary operation, or you can use the formalism of heterogeneous algebras
i.e. you define the variety of clones and use the correspondence of clones <-> varieties
what do we close clones under
composition
wait, clones are like, families of maps A^n -> A
how do we compose two different clones
oh wait maybe you thought i was asking how to define clones
no i mean how do we define a variety of clones
products of clones, subclones, and quotient clones :P
i mean why not right
subclones correspond to taking term reducts, quotient clones correspond to subvarieties
and products of clones are the tensor product of varieties
well my best guesses seem reasonable
A nice treatment of this is given in W. Taylor's paper on classifying Malcev conditions
like given a map A^n -> A and a map B^n -> B we have a map (A × B)^n -> A × B
just by functorality
those are concrete clones
talking about abstract clones here
and i assume subclones are just subfamilies closed under composition and projections
but yes this is the idea
right
like is it on the underlying set as opposed to the family
no
we work with abstract clones
hm
what's an abstract clone
is that like, a monad
tbh i never really thought about quotients of functors much
but when i think through this lense it does become apparent we want to identify terms together
ah yea subvarieties
as you said
makes sense
so we close under reducts, subvarieties, and tensor product
N-graded set { A_i }_i in N and operations
C^n_m : A_n × (A_m)^n → A_m
π^n_i ∈ A_n for 1 ≤ i ≤ n
satisfying the necessary axioms
reduct in the general sense of, we can pick some terms to choose that weren't part of our basis
why sadness
only thumbs up i could find
yea fair
wait we generalizing the idea of composition?
bruh these people smoking some real shit
if we have two variety V and W with signatures Σ and Σ', then their tensor product V ⊗ W consists of algebras A ⊗ B, where A ∈ V and B ∈ W. These have underlying set A × B, and operations f × g for f ∈ Σ and g ∈ Σ' exactly like you described
i guess traditionally we can represent this by band shenanigans
or something fucky like that
band?
like those things equivalent to A × B
structurally
and in terms of maps it's literally equivalent to Set^2
rectangular band or something
makes sense
old as in "not yet accepted functorial definition of sheaf" old
nobody has standard names for these things
the cave times
yes..
anywho, variable sets for clones have to be graded, of course
a set of variables for each arity
If we let V be the variety of clones, and Σ(x, y) = { C^2_1(x, π^1_1, ι^0_1(y)) = π^1_1, C^2_1(x, ι^0_1(y), π^1_1) = π^1_1 } (x is arity 2 and y is arity 0), then we indeed have an implicitly defined nonexplicit partial operation
im debating whether i wanna actually parse that
the fact that this is an instance of your notion parses to (let K be a class of algebras with binary operation m and nullary operation 1, 1'):
K ⊨ m(x, 1) ≈ x ≈ m(1, x) and K ⊨ m(x, 1') ≈ x ≈ m(1', x) implies 1 = 1'
yay 
yea identity is only unique if you allow substitution in your deduction
yee
and completions need that
and this corresponds to the completion of magmas to unital magmas
this also has a lot to do with Malcev conditions
a strong Malcev condition is nothing more than taking a clone M and considering the heterogeneous variety where you add an operation for every term in M
because these correspond to clone morphisms M -> A
yay
if one has a completion V ⊢ W, and some clone morphism W -> A, this always lifts to a completion A* ⊢ A, because of the fact that induces your notion
In a meta way Im sure i could prove that the malcev condition of W is a completion of the malcev condition of V
anwaysyysy
i just realized something kinda cursed
sets with binary operations definitely have the ES property (epics are surjective)
given two sets with binary operations (magmas) with A ⊆ B, we can define a magma on (B ⊔_A B) ⊔ {0} by sending every "undefined" operation to 0
⊔ here being over Set
ES?
i actually have very little intuition for when ES will hold. it definitely holds for some minimal varieties, but not others. it's not closed in either direction of passing to subvarieties either, that is, it isn't preserved by passing to subvarieties, nor is it preserved by extending your variety
part of my aim with my MO question is to learn more "prototypical" examples of where ES fails
You can also say that if you have a magma morphism f: A -> B that is not surjective, then you can define two different morphisms B -> ({0,1}, ×) that each compose with f to the same, namely either map everything to 1, or map only the image of A to 1.
oh you're hella right
it's kinda like a subalgebra indicator
ok it can't literally be one cuz that would break math
i needa think on this
would it?
most varities shouldn't have them
nvm
the preimage of both {0} and {1} must be subalgebras because they themselves are
we have no guarantee that B \ A is also a subalgebra
Hmm, that sounds convincing, let me think some more.
im slowly starting to see the "pushout with itself is itself" view of epics as intuitive
more than the actual definition of epic
I mean, the two views are essentially the same.
One is saying there arent two maps B -> C that make a commutative square
A -> B
v v
B -> C
and the other is saying there arent two maps B -> C where the composition with A->B is the same. Which is just the definition of the square being commutative.
oh i just realized you meant, magma completion stuff
yea
no i meant ES
ah
i could've seen that from Set anyways im stupid
yea, you do need to prove that B = B is the initial object of B / our cat, but, that's not particularly hard
So I'm doing an exercise on free abelian groups, is this the right channel to ask something related to it?
Yes
I made a channel for my question, I'd really appreciate it if you or someone looked into it
You are encouraged to use these channels to ask about more advanced math
sure
mfs ask a question then disappear for over an hour
happens all the time
Don’t ask to ask 🤓
They never said they wanted to chat about modules 🤓
can you only have a torsion subgroup for abelian groups?
ah yes i remember that group
I suggest maybe going through the proof that it forms a subgroup again and work out where you use the fact that your group is abelian in a crucial way
if x^m = y^n = e and you want a k s.t. (xy)^k = e then the group being abelian is a sufficient condition for k to exist
what's useful about this?
Oh this is the correspondence theorem
Gives you information about the lattice of subgroups of G/N
lattice?
could i have an example 😭
Basically the subgroups of any group G form a partially ordered set by inclusion
This poset has some extra properties which warrant calling it a lattice
ohhh
so i guess like the grid of even points in Z^2 is a lattice?
poset is such a funny name 
Well there’s two different senses of lattice here
ah
The lattice I mean is the order-theoretic version
This is different from “regularly spaced collection of points”
ah so youre more so comparing lattices to lattices with the order?
The poset of subgroups forms an order-theoretic lattice
ahhh
This is massivley useful, youll use it all the time doing algebra. It tells you that normal subgroups of G/N are the same as normal subgroups of G contining N which gives you a lot of control over things. This also applies to modules etc and you can typically throw in whatever adjectives would be reasonable and its still true
oh damn
sounds like it might be useful for galois theory
maybe i can try something with the groups right now
To be fair I dont know how much ive used it for groups
nvm 😭
But in like ring theoretic contexts it shows up all the time, and I probably have often used it for groups, I just dont actually think about it because its such a fundamental result in my mind
It’s useful but it’s one of those things you kinda just use subconsciously
it might be useful to prove the following set-theoretic facts
is this more of a post grad thing?
No not really
I think you just tend to argue with inclusions etc more in the context of rings. But like me and micoi said, its honestly so fundamental I probably do use it a lot just without even noticing
let $f : A \to B$ be a function. Then $f(f^{-1}(S)) = S \cap \text{Im}(f)$ for any $S \subset B$, and $f^{-1}(f(T))$ is the closure of $T$ under the equivalence relation $a_1 \sim a_2 \iff f(a_1) = f(a_2)$ on $A$, for any $T \subset A$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
oooh
so $f(f^{-1}(S))$ is a kind of "set-theoretic interior" operation, while $f^{-1}(f(T))$ is a kind of "set-theoretic closure" operation
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Hmm, my attempts to salvage my flawed construction ended up with reinventing essentially this.
wait this is lowkey insane
like if you have Z and 4Z as a normal subgroup you can check 2Z is normal by taking its cosets mod 4Z and checking if it's normal in Z/4Z
quite convoluted but it works
Yeah, this kind of argument is often useful. Of course thats maybe a difficult way to do that problem but its often a nice way to approach it in other cases
after going through group theory again i'm starting to appreciate the theorems we rushed over in lectures a lot more
i would want to do some algebra next year but there's so many choices that i have very little background to make a judgement on
i agree, it's sad that a chain / total order / linear order isn't called a "toset"
everything
it's for example super useful when you want want to move subnormal series between quotients
esp in combination with the third isomorphism theorem (G/N)/(M/N) = G/M
also, like Nope said, in ring theory this pops up
i'm curious, where does it pop up in ring theory?
i don't remember using it
series?
does anyone have tips on how to answer questions like these? they seem to always use groups like D8 and i feel like checking with groups like that is really long especially because you get like 2 mins in an exam to answer it
for example the fact that surjections induce closed immersions rely on this fact
@.@
also stuff with proving that the quotient of a Noetherian/artinian ring is Noetherian/artinian
Say you want to compute something like
Z[i]/(p).
Then you would probably do
Z[i] = Z[x]/(x^2 + 1)
Z[i]/(p) = Z[x]/(x^2 + 1, p) = Z/pZ[x]/(x^2 + 1)
right
that implicitly uses the correspondence theorem
but it's something that's essentially so intuitive you don't even notice it
oh, that makes sense!
same with most isomorphism theorems tbh
Consider classes of groups you already know.
Say, D_n.
would i just have to memorise facts about D_n?
can't really investigate things about it in 2 minutes
You can use a geometrical argument. Try the 180deg rotation.
That commutes when it exists.
You usually just want to have the intuition for it I guess. Not that that's great advice.
hm yeah
that's still kinda frustrating to think about very quickly
you should memorise facts about all common families of groups tbh
they should make a pdf with general ones for group theory
Knowing important properties gives you reason to care.
analysis is notorious for having strange edge cases idk where that opinion is coming from
really? 😭
yes?
That's like, all of real analysis.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Weierstrass_function first one that comes to mind
In mathematics, the Weierstrass function, named after its discoverer, Karl Weierstrass, is an example of a real-valued function that is continuous everywhere but differentiable nowhere. It is also an example of a fractal curve.
The Weierstrass function has historically served the role of a pathological function, being the first published example...
You usually memorize the edge cases specifically to stop yourself from conjecturing things that seem true.
for me something that comes into mind is like the convergence in measure implies convergence almost everywhere on a finite measure space
a first course in real analysis consists of two parts:
- proving lots of statements that seem intuitively true
- disproving lots of statements that seem intuitively true
but it seems possible to come up with a counterexample without being too specific with what you're working with
whereas with groups i feel as though i have to look at specific groups and then do it and i can't really picture something in my head
the statement about D_n is obvious if you just view it's presentation <r, t | r^2 = t^n, rtr = t^-1> there's only one element that's fixed by the conjugation action if n is even and it's t^(n/2)
it's centreless if n is odd
oh yeah you told me about this presentation
did I lol
It's also not too far-fetched of an idea. Rotate a square in your head.
It's nice to keep the geometric intuition behind small groups for occasions like this.
you could also work with Q_8. It only has one C_2 subgroup and thus that subgroup must be central. Then because i, j, k don't commute that must be the entire centre
my adhd brain would rather make a type writer function over rotating and reflecting a bunch in my head
true
you could also just take any centreless group
like A_n n > 4
and say G = A_n x C_2
i'm thinking about how to do this
would you have to represent every group element as a combination of r and t?
Rip a square off of a piece of paper. I did this.
ok true I suppose you need the foresight that every element of D_n is writeable as r^it^j for some i, j but that's clear if you think geometrically
ah yeah
For small n that's not so bad.
D_{2^n} is a maximal class 2-group and therefore the centre must be C_2
le troll face
I do actually think this is the best method for generating examples of a group of some arbitrary minimal size and arbitrary centre
n=1
What does that mean?
Look up cantor distribution function/devils stair case
brainrot
No need to do it in your head, cut out a square piece of paper and label the vertecies
true but an examioner might think im hungry
hungry for groups
very right
stuck on this problem not really sure what to do here...maybe a hint?
So I guess the key idea here is what can you say about h^n?
hmmm oh is it h^n = phi(g)^n = phi(g^n) = phi(e)? or is that wrong
That's right
So then h^n = e and maybe you've already seen that means m divides n
Well probably good for you to try to prove it if you don't recall the proof
so for this problem I was thinking that maybe show that one of the maps acts as a right only identity or left only identity
is that enough?
to show that M is not isomrphic to the opposite monoid M^{op}
well, you would have to show that it doesn't pair up with any other element when you take the opposite
i.e. if there is a right only identity then you will have to show that there isn't a left only identity
(but that's not too hard)
ahh got you , thats just computing the composition of the right only identity as a left only in the opposite and showing it doesnt work
How can we construct a continuous-time evolution operator that is strictly covariant under the action of the rotation group $SO(3)$?
Canvas123
A group isomorphism is a group homomorphism whose inverse is also a homomorphism
So to prove that f is an isomorphism, you want to check if it has an inverse and if that inverse is also a homomorphism
You should also check that the f given is itself a homomorphism to being with
m is a free variable here. You can also check that f is an isomorphism if it is injective and surjective.
While it is true that group homomorphisms are isomorphisms iff they are bijective, I would argue that it is slightly bad practice to make it a habit of only checking for bijectivity, since that doesn't generalise to morphisms in other categories.
It works for “algebraic” categories
Of course. This is ameliorated by keeping the structure-preserving part in mind.
Could you elaborate a bit on this? I'm not familiar with a classification of categories in which this holds.
No homomorphism proof is complete without proving the map is actually a homomorphism, but that should be by default.
Read: monadic over Set
This is because every monadic functor is conservative
y^(1/m) isn't necessarily well-defined
But this can be inverse function no?@lusty marlin
wdym covariant
By definition, if the map x ↦x^m is invertible, then its inverse sends y to an (the unique, since we have assumed invertibility) element whose m-th power is y.
Thanks
if $\mathbf{x}$ is rotated such that it becomes $Rx$, then applying my function to both gives essentially $f(R\text{v}) = R f(\dots)$
Canvas123
it means if you rotate the input, a truly equivariant operator ensures your output rotates by that same amount R
Bit of a random question:
It is possible to define the complex numbers as a ring on R^2 with a particular multiplication rule. It is also possible to create a projective plane from R^2. Typically, we talk about the Riemann Sphere as the completion of the complex numbers with a single point at infinity. Is possible to use RP^2 instead, with its line at infinity and still have a (mostly) coherent system of arithmetic? (I am aware of wheel theory, and I assume I'll need to also join with a bottom element to make sure everything is defined.)
Motivation: recently a paper was released that describes how to generate most of the "useful" functions in mathematics with a single function eml(x,y) = exp(x) - ln(y). But they needed to cheat a little to generate a function that simply negates a value through taking ln(0) = -inf. This triggered a bit of a discussion on a different discord, trying to see if there was any formalism of the complex numbers that could allow this. I had thought of RP^2, but I will admit to not knowing enough to be confident in any inferences I might make on this subject, and I thought surely this must have been considered before. But unfortunately in the year of our Linux desktop 2026 search engines are awful, so I couldn't find anything.
oh so you're using covariant to mean an equivariant action—I think this is impossible for time evolutions defined by a vector field because S^2 doesn't form a Lie group
(hairy ball theorem)
haven't thought about it deeply enough though
he means a u sub