#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 397 of 1
real
I tend to perform well in exams
(that was a joke to be clear)
i just thought the Möbius transformation stuff was ufnny as most places i have seen never motivated why tf we should care
I mean I did fuck it up, but like I dont actually have beef with them
Oh
mobius transformation kind of feels like the fundamental theorem of algebra, in the sense that it somehow appears in every class in a slightly different flavor
I really need to start studying for exams actually but id rather do litterally anything else
that was not my experience for either thing lol

well okay i guess FTA does appear in a fair few things
FTA showed up in both CAs WOW!
just cause you can prove it in like 4 ways in undergrad
yea
I know of like 2 topoloical ones, and the one via Liouvilles, whats the other proofs?
Oh theres a galois one?
there's some winding number one from diff top (idk if you included that one)
i think im remembering it correctly
Yeah thats one of the topological ones I was thinking of, its like a cororally of pi_1(Z) iirc lol
surely isomorphic proof to the AT one and common CA ones in different language lol
But uh
probably
But like yeah this is basically Liouvilles too, because CA is just basic algtop in a different package
Whats the Galois proof though that sounds interesting
i am trying to remember it / work it out again as it has been like 3 years but uh
Im supposed to be starting to study for my Galois exam today I should probably just think about it tbf
but also, eh
basically you use the fact that any odd degree poly over R has a root to build constraints on the Galois group of a Galois closure of a putative finite extension of C
and some sylow theory and stuff ig
That sounds clever and annoying
“Mobius maps are the rational automorphisms of the Riemann sphere” or “Certain mobius maps are the isometries of hyperbolic space” are the basis for basically every single one of them
Agreed lol just at the time it was like "something of the form az+b/(cz + d)" lol
We got told the former, but for all intents and purposes just to think of the later lol
But yeah it’s hard to motivate before CA/Algtop/AG lol
Thinking of different proofs of the FTA though, is there any AG nonsense you can do to work it out? Ive always just assumed im doing AG over an algclosed field so idk how anything there really looks (maybe such a proof would basically just be topology again)
Yeah I mean I did it in CA so fair lol
Yeah it's like suppose L/C is a finite extension. By passing to Galois closure WLOG it's Galois. If L/C has order m.2^n for m odd then Gal(L/R) has a subgroup Gal(L/M) of order 2^{n+1} by Sylow theory and hence Gal(M/R) has odd order m which is not possible unless m = 1 (any element has a minimal polynomial of odd degree). So m = 1. If n > 0, there's (by theory of p-groups) an extension M/C of degree 2 but this is also impossible because any quadratic over C has a root
I think that's the proof
That is clever
Yeah
I think it's cute because like the analysis is very minimal and it shows what you "need" about C
It also shows why learning topology is good for the soul, it makes life so much more simple
It’s both surprising and not surprising that the analytical content of FTA is just IVT
yeah
lol i would say this is a simpler proof idk but yeah
Just cause you can do everything very explicity and stuff which is nice
maybe i should learn galois theory this summer
Oh yeah both are nice, more proofs are always good
I think it is hard to do so and I'm not sure how to use AG other than just commutative algebra but I will try to remember
I vaguely remember a cheap proof of the Nullstellensatz for C and wonder whether it uses the "n = 1" case lol, probably does
Honestly I wouldnt reccomend. I took galois last term and going in already knowing a non-trivial ammount of algebra half of it was just either obvious or known. But I guess theres also a lot of Galois we didnt cover
But also idk how many people take multiple ring theory courses, AG and AT before Galois
fair enough
Maybe its better if youre not as odd as me
but i feel like i see more and more Galois groups appearing as i learn more ag
Yeah it for sure comes up in AG, its probably worth just speed running. I just personally didnt feel like I got much out of my course
like there was one example where Spec \bar Q \otimes_Q \bar Q is isomorphic to Gal(\bar Q/Q) and i realized i have no idea what Gal(\bar Q/Q) even looks like
true
Isnt that like what number theory is
Not if you only ever work over C
idk if it comes up if you only do stuff over C though
lol
amusing
lol
I mean it depends on what were counting as Galois I guess lol
something like that yeah
Extenstion stuff comes up but maybe thats just CA
ah rip yes it does lol
I more just mean, isnt working out what Gal(\bar{Q}/Q) is like an incredibly difficult open problem that ive seen people say "is basically the goal of number theory"
oh that i had no idea was open
I think youre forgiven for not really knowing what that looks like
Wait how
(I could be wrong, someone smart say something if so)
You can prove "if L is of finite type over K and a field then L is finite over K" cheaply if K is uncountable but then to prove Nullstellensatz you have to use the fact alg. closed fields have no finite extenions
yes lol
i mean the theory of Galois representations (= representations of flavours of Galois groups like this) more broadly is a lot of number theory
what stuff do u wanna learn
this is important ye
whatever is important for AG i suppose
what stuff in AG do you wanna learn
seems like galois theory gives a lot of important examples
"whatever is important for NT" correct answer
i have no idea
if u wanna do anything etale you need galois theory
eek
67
I no longer want you fr
i think NT is conceptually cool but it doesn't have an allure to me if that makes sense
My partner will be happy
like i can appreciate it from a distance but it doesn't seem like something i'd want to do
This is how I feel about PDEs
😠
Im glad other people are doing it, because I dont want to
why is it huge all of a sudden
Oh wait this isn't
this is how im starting to feel about algebraic groups
lol
Literally me
Uh yeah on topic, go to algechill etc etc
ugh i HATE MODERATORS
lol
Oh I think this is not quite true and everything is a bit more complicated for infinite extensions. For a Galois extension K/Q with Galois group, K (⨯)_Q K = the subalgebra {f in K^G : f is invariant under a finite-index subgroup of G}.
okay yeah maybe not isomorphic, should've said bijective on points and have the same topology
Kind of interesting to muse about what it even is though, being a dominant image with the same topological space.
There are actually three objects here: the disjoint union of G copies of Spec L (with the profinite topology somehow), Spec L^G, and Spec L (x)_K L.
folk
im kind of a fraud in the sense that i just google image searched your photo and found it
i didnt have it on hand
💔
No idea what this means or how it relates to groups, rings or fields.
what
likewise
they're groups tho
No idea what this means
yeahhh okay
i think they're just posting random stuff to get active role lol
i have no mouth and i must larp
I mean if you explain we can think about it...
I was asking a legit question too alongside that intention
yk questions usually need elaboration
The variables A, , -, , ,B, , and C were rearranged
idk
anyways
oh hold on I do have a legitimate question about groups
LLM ascii art ahh
no it's called modern art
Why so many commas?
confusion
Well, let's hope you get your active role soon
social distancing or something
once this whole covid thing blows over im gonna get a gf and go to the gym and get swole im telling you
does he know
you can also get a gf while having a twink bod yk
😭
yes it's just this damn covid quarantine that's ruining everything
You need the gf to get swole.
Otherwise whose gonna spot you when you bench?
good point
you coming outside for the first time in 2050 seeing most of the citg destroyed in a nuclear fallout:
Yeah, it's "get a gf and go to the gym", not "go to the gym and get a gf".
do u think quarantine will be over by then
im an undertale fan, i cant read
Obviously anyone can get a generating function. Very supportive partners.
but discord font is sans serif
haha get it
wow this is so cute and wholesome and supportive. I was expecting something along the lines of her breaking your heart so you get in the gym
yes...
Nah, she does that after you get swole. Once you don't have that sexy twink bod
but then who is the spotter
so true
spotters are for pussies. just be stronger
i see...
survival of the fittest mindset
most spotless*
the most spotless mindset gets eternal sunshine
You should read up on infinite galois theory
And also, riemann existence theorem and the correspondence between branched covers and galois extensions of function fields

That gif has been saved
I came back today, drank a monster, reread the chapter, and it’s so painfully obvious to me now
I'm afraid this is a pattern that will continue all throughout your math journey
lol
before sleep = "what the fuck"
after sleep = "how the fuck did I not get this"
what's the restriction?
Says so in the imageee
oh, no word with exactly 5 letters?
Fun'ny joke, but I suspect it won't be fun'ny for 24 hou'rs
I would like to at some point, it seems much more interesting. I of course didnt mean to suggest that all of galois theory is boring or trivial, I just found my course to be so (but I did probably go into it knowing a fair bit more than most)
Play smb galaxy if u havent already
lowkey
Nvm i thiink i misread your message
Cohomology
What is that?
3d platformer by Nintendo

There’s no b in that
😠
Sometimes and extra b gets into our life. One way or another we're gonna have to deal with it
hey, looking for some direction on this: let R be a ring, and let f, g be homomorphisms from \mathbb{Q} -> R with f(n) = g(n) for all n \in \mathbb{Z}. show that f(x) = g(x) for all x \in \mathbb{Q}. we've discussed some properties of [ring] homomorphisms and some of fields, but i feel like i'm missing something
Sorry I misinterpreted R as the real numbers lol
Show that a homomorphism sends units to units, and that f(x)^-1=f(x^-1) for a unit
ahh I see, I was wanting to use that property but couldn't justify it. i'll give that a try 🙂
ok am i nuts or is the location of certain ancient letter via the stated map not an element of the automorphism algebraic structure of K over F
isnt the domain of phi inverse K'
ive not seen function composition be read from left to opposite of left
oh yeah oops
mind stopped functioning
happens happens
What is this horrid rule
What braindead moderator put this here
Oh
Is this aapril foolls?
Yea, you can exempt yourself by choosing the role in channels & roles
Nah I won't
Are you asking what happens if you quotient by the subgroup generated by n-th powers for some fixed n?
yeah
with whom it was quotiented or something like that wouldd probably be better
So generally to be able to get a quotient from a set of relations we need to quotient by the smallest normal subgroup containing our set of relations
hmm ok, then do that in this case
this isnt even finitely presented i dont thinks
I mean yeah duh
Does it need to be?
If m elements is too complicated what aboutt with just a and b?
So in this case if ab is in the normal subgroup you're quotienting by, then a^-1(ab)a=ba will also be
So in the case of n=2 and m=2 you get the Klein 4 group, and in general for n=2 I think you should just be getting (Z/2)^m
The ({1,3,5,7}, x) groupp
what are aba and bab equall to
oh
sorryy
aba = baa = b
bab = abb = a
Yea
For n=2 it's nice since that automatically implies abelian
So everything simplifies
ok wait I see what you are saying
For larger n I don't know how tractable this problem but I'd imagine you can maybe get a nice presentation for n=3, m=2 at least
well theree is abab = bbaa firstt of all
Ok I have no idea what to do
i suspect that its actually finitely presented for all n
Bro switched up 💀
if i did not i wouldnt be very rational
Yeah you'd be 1/0! + 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3!.......
i thinkk the size of the presentation gets big fast
Wouldd (aba)^-1 = bab be notable?
And you can find similar things by replacing a with a^-1 or b with b^-1 or both
Actually two of thesee are kind of redundant I thinkk
even in the case when n=2, it is infinite on more than 3 characters
so i was wrrong againn
No it really is not
The length <= 2 casess are enough
As the otherr guy explained
You can get abelianness from that
And everything else follows to give you (Z/2Z)^m
I'm not sure what how exactly that paper relates, but if x^2=e for all x then the group is abelian, then every element is of the form a_1^i_1 ... a_m^i_m, but you can reduce the indices mod 2, so this is just (Z/2)^m
hmm
i think the way i was getting relations was bloated
i was finding all squarefree words and setting their squares to 0
You can also ignore all non-squarefree wordss in the n=3 case because x^2 = x^-1
Um btw, can anyone explain this?
Isn'tt Z_p basically the vector spacee on Q with |2^N|| basiss vectors?
(as the groupp (Z_p, +) at leastt)
I feel like this hat must be some sort of perfection
And RHS is Qp/Zp
Either perfection or deperfection
Zp already perfect tho bruv
Well
Actually that says p^infinity
So is Z/pZ lol
Not p^1/infinity
This is why I think it is this or smth
That’s true af
Lol
Isn'tt Z_p basically the vector spacee on Q with |2^N| basiss vectors?
No
As a groupp I mean
Yes that's it
And it's p-adicss
This is what the otherr side is
Sorryy for beingg absent when you guys answered, I thinkk I was eating when you guys responded lol
Yeahh that's what I thought nice
Anyway, not quite. Z_p doesn't have the structure of a Q vector space – multiplication by p is not invertible (it isn't surjective)
Oh true
The question remains though
Sorryy for not providing more context
1 is a topological generator of Z_p (in other words, Z is dense in Z_p). So a continuous hom f: Z_p -> C* is determined by where you send 1.
If f(1) = a then since p^n -> 0 in Z_p, we must have a^(p^n) -> 1 as n -> oo. But this is only possible in C* if a is a p^nth root of unity for some n
The resulting group is called the Burnside group B(m, n).
It's an open question for which m, n the group is finite. You have
B(1, n) = Z/n
B(m, 2) = (Z/2)^m
it is known that B(m, 3), B(m, 4) and B(m, 6) are finite.
It is not known whether B(2, 5) is finite or infinite.
Interesting
Ooh interesting. I know free groups are weird and hard but it seems suprising that thats open
Is it expected to be finite?
I'm assuming if it was finite, it would be reasonable small and then already been computed.
But that's just me pulling stuff out my butt
Interesting, apparently it’s known to be finite for all m>1 and n>=8000
Tbh this is less that free groups are weird and hard and more that presentations are weird and hard
The problem is more the thing you’re quotienting by than the free group
Yeah sure, this is what I mean
Groupprops tells me that the intersection of all finite index normal subgroups has index 5^34.
So I guess if it is finite it would have order 5^34, so then I don't know what one should think
I was aware of the burnside problem but I hadn’t seen this part of it before
That’s not so small
Probably can’t just brute force that in gap lol
OOOH
I cannot see \hat and not assume it means completion of some form
So if f: A -> B is ring homomorphism then there exists associated mapping spec(B) -> Spec (A), which maps p -> f^-1(p)
But if we take f: Q -> Q × Q given by x -> (x, 0)
yes Spec is a contravariant functor
this is not a ring morphism
Then taking the inverse of Q×{0} is Q
Ah my bad
ring morphisms have to preserve the multiplicative identity you see
but (1, 0) is not (1, 1)
the taking 1 to 1 is exactly what's stopping the preimage of a proper ideall to be the wholee ring
I HATE THIS APRILL FOOLSS THINGG
Me too
and yes I know I can turn it off but I do not want my name to be poo coloured
It doesn't look like the selfrole influence the coloring thing.
what is soundd contributor 😭
Just think of it as "very slowly rotating rainbow roles".
So I am trying to construct an counterexample for the converse of ii)
Would it work to choose A=B appropriately and let f be the identity?
(I don't know what an extended ideal is, but just on general principles ...)
For prime ideal p of B there exists ideal I of A such that < f(I) > = p
I have a hard time figuring out if this is aprill foolss or not lol
Ah, then my idea was probably rubbish).
Try Z/2Z[x]_{(x)}, and squaring
It’s very hard for me to explain how I came up with this if you haven’t seen DVRs before unfortunately
What is DVRs?
so true man so true we hate poo colour
Discrete valuation ring, but that likely means you havent seen them
hello there
Theres like 11 equivalent statements of what a DVR is, and theyre variously helpful. I dont actually know what extended or contracted ideals are so I cant say which is most of use here, but the most simple definition of a DVR is that its a PID with exactly one maximal ideal
Essentially you want a map where a prime ideal maps into a proper subideal of a prime ideal where the subideal is not contained in any other prime ideal
Consider why that is useful
This is some AG type stuff so maybe worth noting that this is the same as a local PID which isnt a field, and this is how you get nice stuff like a curve is smooth at a point iff the local ring there is a DVR
contraction is preimage, extending is ideall generated by the imagee
🥀
!wordlespoilers
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,iam 1488687375340273675
Gave you the Not Very April selfrole.
bwa
I don't understand what I have to show in ii) and iii), i think i figured it out for iii) but still
,iam 1488687375340273675
Gave you the Not Very April selfrole.
Yippee
So you have a ring homomorphism
S^-1f : S^-1A -> S^-1B
then for a prime ideal in S^-1B there are two things you can do: either take the preimage with S^-1f or consider the associated prime in B, take preimage by f to get a prime in A, then take S^-1.
It wants you to show that these two give the same result
I see, thank you
So there is a bijection between prime ideals in S^-1 B and the prime ideals in B which don't intersect with f(S), right?
Maybe I am making a mistake here, do I need to consider S^-1B same as f(S)^-1 B
S^-1 B gives S^-1 A module structure but I am not sure about ring structure
Ring structure is just
b/s * c/t = bc/st
But you can show that S^-1B = f(S)^-1B yes.
ringses
POV youre gollum:
Can anyone draw me D8 ) the diedergroup
like if i ask really nicely will someone draw me the diedergroup D8
with 8 = 2*4
What do you mean exactly? Its usually thought of the symmetries of the octagon (or the square depending on your convention)
i have a exam tomorrow on (in germany called Algebra) and i cant find a picture on the structure of all the subgroups of D8
Ah, I mean this is something you should be able to compute, but the term for the picture youre probably looking for is the subgroup lattice
yeah i think its called like that in english, i dont want to calculate all the (IDK HOW ITS CALLED n in N so that g^n is 1) for each element
thanks
Jagr snub
The first result when you Google "subgroups D8" for me
Hey guys can you recommend me a book on the algebraic structures
Dummit and Foote is the classic introduction, Artin is another option. Here :#book-recommendations message is a more full list with some comments about them
Yeee thanks dude
hey everyone i'm reading d&f chapter six (adv topics in grp theory)
specifically i'm trying to show that the subgroups and quotient groups of a nilpotentgroup are nilpotent
What do you have so far?
starting with subgroup -- if H is a subgroup of G and we use the uppercentral series defined by Z0 = 1, Z1 = Z(G) and Zn+1/Zn = Z(G/Zn) presumably you take the intersection of H with each of the elts in the series
god this five letter cap is really twisting my mind
if G is "c-nilpotent" (so that Zc = G) then obviously H is at most c-nilpotent, so it remains to show that the intersections provide another uppercentral series
!wordlespoilers
Type ,iam 1488687375340273675 to get immunity from the wordle spoilers filter!
,iam 1488687375340273675
Gave you the Not Very April selfrole.
tysm king <3
Yeah, so all you need is to show that Zn(H) contains Zn(G) intersect H, right
can you talk me through how you came to that conclusion?
so we are to show that Zn+1(H)/Zn(H) = Z(H/Zn(H)) correct
oh wait no i'm stupid
@rocky cloak coz the reverse containment is obvious, so we are left to show the forward inclusion?
sorry i'm new to this whole process
Well, the reverse containment isn't necessarily true, but. If
Zc(G) = G, then Zc(H) containing Zc(G) intersect H means it contains H. So Zc(H) = H
Which is saying H is nilpotent with nilpotency class <= c
,iam 1488687375340273675
Gave you the Not Very April selfrole.
It's not guaranteed that it will really. There are more isomorphisms F^x -> G^x than F -> G
So it depends which generator you send it to
G^x should have 16 possible generators, but there are only 2 isomorphisms F -> G.
So only two of the possible 16 choices will give you something additive
do thosse two satisfy certain conditions or they are just generators just like the otther 14?
they are blocking 5 letter word I am so pissed
Well they will satisfy the same minimal polynomial as the generator you choose for F^x
Otherwise there's nothing special seperating any generator from another
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Type ,iam 1488687375340273675 to get immunity from the wordle spoilers filter!
,iam 1488687375340273675
Gave you the Not Very April selfrole.
wahoooo
is there a typst bot
Let V and A be vector spaces and a: V → A (⨯) V a linear map. For a linear subspace U of V, how can I find the smallest linear subspace U' of V such that a(U) ⊆ A (⨯) U', if that exists (and it should if A is a Hopf algebra and a is a comodule structure on V)?
I guess pick a basis {f} for A^* then take the subspace generated by f(a(U)) < V
is there a simpler way to explain without talking about that minimal polynomial?
it has prime characteristic, that multiplicative group is cyclic.
Have you proven that there is a field with 49 elements at all?
Yes, Z_7[x]/<x^2+1>. I basically want to prove every finite field with order 49 is isomorphic because my homework asked me to prove that every field with 49 elements is isomorphic to the one I defined
Then a good approach would be showing that any field of order 49 has a square root of -1.
This would then give you a map Z7[x]/(x^2 + 1) -> F, which is an isomorphism just by cardinality reasons
And you can prove -1 has a square root using that the multiplicative group is cyclic
@rocky cloak ok i've wrapped up subgroup, can you help me with quotient xx
Sure, should be basically the same.
Compare Zn(G/N) with Zn(G)N/N
bro where do you get that from
Like I'm taking G/N to be a quotient group.
Then taking the central series for G/N
That's it
Comparing it with the image of the central series of G
oh so the image of Zn(G) in G/N?
oh so it's a projection instead of a injection
whoa okay
Of course - just use a base for A rather than V. Although I feel it to be cleaner to (following the idea in the previous sentence) take a dual base of a base of A rather than a base of A^*.
Can this be done without a base of A? Say if A is flat over the base commutative ring.
So if A is fg projective, then
A (x) V = A** (x) V = Hom(A*, V). Then adjunction gives you
V (x) A* ->V
and then you just take the image of
U (x) A*
If A is flat I guess it's a filtered colimit of fg projectives, so you can use that
Well, idk how exactly
Even otherwise you can map A to A^** and use that. Thus map a(U) to a subspace of Hom(A*, V). Thus map a(U) (⨯) A^* by evaluation to get U' ⊆ V. This is equivalent to taking U' = ∑_{f in A^*} (f (⨯) 1)(a(U)), i.e., the idea is "it appears like it's in U' whenever we replace the coefficients in A by scalars".
This should work whenever A → A^** is injective.
Or simpler: use the map A^* (⨯) A (⨯) V → V by evaluation and take the im of A^* (⨯) a(U).
And I guess you can get situations where there is no minimal.
Like working over Z, take V = Z, A = Q and a(1) = 1(x)1.
Then a(V) < A (x) nZ
for all n. So no minimal
Hmm that actually make s more sens e
I have an extr a assumption that was not getting used
Well but it's complicated
Basically this Hopf algebra hypothesis
Eh perhaps I'll just remain over fields this time
Let A,B two integral domains with injections A->B and B->A. Is A isomorphic to B?
Maybe at least in the finitely generated case
I misremembered the statement, I don't think what I said was right
Certainly not in the infinitely generated case, like C -> C(x) -> algclosure C(x) = C
k[t]->k[t^2,t^3]->k[t]
Do you mean over a ring R, finitely generated R-algebras?
then k[t] -> k[t^2, t^3], t -> t^2 gives an injection, and k[t^2, t^3] embeds into k[t] as k algebras is a good counterexample
so let take an prime ideal in f(S)^-1 B say q = f(S)^-1 p, where p is a prime ideal in B not intersecting f(S)
now i have to show the (S^-1f)^-1 (f(S)^-1 p ) = S^-1 f^-1 p
one inclusion is easy, now if a/s in (S^-1f )^-1 q then f(a)/f(s) in f(S)^-1 p, from this i don't get how do i show a/s in S^-1 f^-1 p
So if q is one of the prime ideals of the form r(a:x) then q = p_i for some i ?
I'm a bit lost in the sauce, how do 7.4 and 7.6 show that for every subgroup?
7.4 specifically talks about the equivalence class of e_g, which isn't necessarily the same as H
It is the same
H corresponds to the relation x ~ y if xH = yH
Given a relation ~ if you let H be the equivalence class of e, then ~ is the same as the relation induced by H
And vice versa if you start with H and get the relation ~ from that, then the equivalence class of e is just H
So the two processes are inverse
what's $\dagger$ here
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Some list of properties that make this tru
a ~ b => ga ~ gb for all g in G
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Oh wait it’s on the left
You’re right
right right, so the relation is "left-invariant" (or perhaps "left-equivariant" you could say)
Anyway idk if that clears it up
I’m stupid,,,
I just basically restated what’s said there but idk where you’re stuck
So not really
What do u disagree with
How does a ~ b iff a^-1b \in H imply that the [e_g]~L= H
Ohhhhhhh
WOWIES
It’s called Z/nZ because it’s Z modulo nZ
Is this a typo? I think they should have S instead of T
Yes?
Yes
Why use many word when few do trick?
I don't see the connection between them
Any hint?
Should I ask this question in advanced algebra ?
So first try to write Spec(A/a) as a finite union of closed sets. If you have an irred. Component it can only be contained in one of these, so show that each has finitely many irred components
Yea probably
Also remember what irreducible components of an affine variety look like
Sorry i don't know about it
So if a = \cap q_i then Spec (A/a) = \cup V'(q_i) , where V'(q_i) = { p/ a | p in V(q_i) }
not /a but rather mod a, but yea
You might want to show that any irreducible closed set looks like V(p) for a prime ideal p
And then, remember that an irreducible component is a maximal irreducible closed set
So are these V(q_i + a) irreducible?
Why can components only be contained in one of these?
If it were contained in more than one you could write it as a nontrivial union of closed sets
I see what you mean
the radical of a primary ideal is prime
Yes they are
and the radical of an intersection of ideals is the intersection of radical
furthermore, minimal primes correspond to irreducible components
finite, but a primary decomposition is always finite
I have to show it
I know number of minimal primes are finite
okay, then do you know the correspondence theorem?
Yes
just q_i is fine, a is always contained in q_i
oh right nevermind
youre taking the quotient of q_i by a
Once you show that irreducible is equivalent to prime, maximally irreducible is equivalent to minimally prime
That would show (correctly) that they are themselves irreducible components (component means maximally irreducible)
Btw, if you go to the algebra side, what's happening here is that any prime contains 0, so it contains the intersection of the q_i+a, this it must contain one of them
Sorry i don't get this
Equivalent in which sense?
Ok so, if V(p) is a maximal irreducible component, that means that it isn't properly contained in any other irreducible closed set.
If p is a minimal prime, that means it doesn't properly contain any prime ideals.
We can go back and forth using
V(I(X))=\bar X, and I(V(J))= sqrt(J), which reverses containment, so V(I)<=V(J) iff sqrt(J)<=sqrt(I).
For prime ideals we have I(V(p))=p
So once you know irreducible closed is of the form V(q) for p prime, you get
V(p)<=V(q) iff q<=p
What is I(X)?
the intersection of ideals in X
equivalently it is the radical ideal corresponding to the closure of X
If you don't know this stuff you shouldn't really be doing this problem
This is entirely a problem of translating algebra to geometry
I am doing Atiyah, and I didn't skip any theory yet so let me try
I didn't assume you did, I just find it very odd it would give you this exercise without giving the proper language first
I am just not aware of notations and terminology
I don't think so, because I am seeing the first time V(I(X) ) = \bar X, no idea what is bar X ?
I'm pretty sure all of this is defined in the exercises to chapter 1
If you're looking for a reference
It's exercise 27
But isn't it different from the intersection of all ideals in X ?
X is a subset of Spec(A)
its defined as the intersection of all x in X no?
Has anyone seen a proof of the invariant factor form of the fundamental theorem of abelian groups?
I think I lost here
Sure.
Do you already have another form, because it's not so hard to translate between them
Anyway, the usual proof is take some presentation of your group
Z^n -> Z^m -> A -> 0
Change to smith normal form and you're done.
The proof for how you can change to smith normal form is in the algorithm section on Wikipedia
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Smith_normal_form
In mathematics, the Smith normal form (sometimes abbreviated SNF) is a normal form that can be defined for any matrix (not necessarily square) with entries in a principal ideal domain (PID). The Smith normal form of a matrix is diagonal, and can be obtained from the original matrix by multiplying on the left and right by invertible square matri...
So I have to show any irreducible closed subspace of A/a is the form of V(p), where p is prime ideal in A/a.
And any maximal irreducible component of A/a is form of V(p+ a) , where p is minimal prime ideal in A containing a
Yes
I did not use this. I constructed something else.
Took me a long time.
Okay, let V(I) be the closed irreducible subspace of A/a.
We have to show I is a prime ideal.
Let xy in I but x and y not in I.
So V(I) = V(I) \cap V(x) \cup (V(I) \cap V(y) )
We have to show both V(I) \cap V(x) is proper set
I is not necessarily a prime ideal by itself
Okay what if I is radical ideal
Ye
Then how do I conclude I is prime ideal?
So V(x)\cap V(I) would be the set of all prime ideals containing x and I, i.e. x+I right? Same with V(y)\cap V(I).
You are assuming that V(I) is irreducible, so one of these is trivial and the other is equal to V(I), i.e. V(I)=V(I+x) wlog.
Can you conclude from here?
Also you don't need contradiction, just start with xy in I and show x in I or y in I
I am dumb, i realised i already done this exercise before
So actually V(I) is an irreducible says Spec(A/I) is irreducible
So nilradical of A/I is prime ideal, say p', then take inverse image of p' under canonical mapping gives prime ideal p
And then V(I) = V(p)
@chilly radish thank you, finally I got it
It's just that I am dumb, i already did this exercise before. If A is a ring and X = spec A then the irreducible components of X are the closed sets V(p) where p is a minimal prime ideal of p.
I don't know how to remember all such exercises
Eh, It's always good to resolve
Do I need to consider a is decomposable ideal?
I mean this is true. You can also do it directly like you were trying to. V(I+x)=V(I) so every prime ideal containing I contains x, i.e. x is in rad(I)=I
I see
Yeah got it
I think yes otherwise, if I take A = K[x1, x2,....], and a = (x1) then there are infinitely many prime ideals containing a but not minimal prime ideal
In this definition of the completion of a commutative monoid the completion is defined as a terminal object, is this correct or should it be initial instead? Gpt says it should be initial
here's a diagram to visualize
if you ask gpt "is x true" itll often just agree with you tbh
what?
It should definitely be initial.
group completions are initial objects
if $G(M)$ were terminal, it would have to be the trivial group. if you take some massive group $G$, there's no reason there should be a unique map $q: G \to G(M)$ that makes the diagram commute unless $G(M)$ is trivial
okuu
should q be reversed then?
yea
Thanks
the diagram should be $F: M \to G(M), f: M \to G, q: G(M) \to G$
okuu
what textbook is this lmao
I knew this exists
I am surprised someone is using it
It’s not really easy to find lol
I just learnt about the definition of minimal polynomial, am I far from proving two finite fields of same order is isomorphic? I just dont know what to do next
Yes, so I can outline the proof for you:
Say F has order q = p^n.
||Then every element of F is a root of the polynomial X^q - X (can you see why?).||
||A polynomial of degree q has at most q roots, so F consists of all the roots of X^q - X.||
||An element is a root of a polynomial if and only if it's minimal polynomial divides it. ||
||Now if you pick a generator z for F^x then F = Fp(z) = Fp[x]/(f(x)) where f is the minimal polynomial of z.||
||Then to get a map F -> G you just need G to have a root of f.||
||Since every element of F is a root of X^q - X you have that f divides this. ||
||Since G contains all the roots of X^q - X it also contains all the roots to any polynomial dividing it. So it contains a root of f.||
That's it, that's the proof
|| i think one can also prove this by showing the splitting field are isomorphic to each other, right? ||
Sure, but then you need to know what splitting fields are
okay
i am trying to show in C(X), where X is compact Hausdorff space, then any prime ideal contained in unique maximal ideal
say p is prime ideal contained in m_a and m_b, how do i show a = b
a and b are points of X
X also needs to be infinite I'm pretty sure
why?
That's the only context in which I've seen the result. I'm trying to see if you I can find a counterexample for finite spaces
It's possible it's unnecessary
In the finite discrete case every prime is maximal, so this holds
Oh but finite hausdorff (even T_1) is discrete
So this is just trivial for finite spaces
i think until then you only needed compactness to get that they're all of the form m_a for some a ∈ X, but we need hausdorffness to show that m_a ∩ m_b never contains a prime ideal for a ≠ b
yes
i wont lie my topology knowledge isn't the greatest so idk the details but i think the gist is we use separation to get witnesses to not being prime
so hopefully this serves as a good hint
The problem is you know f(a)=f(b)=0 for all elements in P, but if you make a pair of functions whose product satisfies that, you don't know that it'll be in P
This would prove that m_a n m_b itself isn't prime
so yea @crystal vale actually ignore me cuz idk what im talking about
nvm i think im thinking of a way to salvage it
||can you like, produce a pair of functions with disjoint support such that one is nonzero on a and another is nonzero on b||
i will admit half of the reason i responded was cuz i was like "oh that's a cool exercise imma work it out rn"
||I don't think so generally, no. Urysohn's lemma which is what you'd invoke can only guarantee that a function is 0 on some closed set and 1 at a point (or vice versa). I don't think there's a way, even with hausdorff, to get disjoint supports, since you don't know what happens away from these||
I was looking at the proof for the case C[0,1], but it quite explicitly uses order properties and the fact that [0,1] is a subspace of R
But I wonder if you can somehow try to reconstruct this argument
Choose disjoint open neighborhoods A and B of a and b; select f to be 0 on X\A and 1 on {a} and g to be 0 on X\B and 1 on {b}?
||for each f in p, let Z_f=f^-1({0}). these are closed subsets of X. for any finite number of f_1,...,f_n in p, (f_1)^2+...+(f_n)^2 is in p, so it has to vanish somewhere to not be a unit. so Z_f_1\cap...\cap Z_f_n is non-empty. then the set {Z_f : f in p} has the finite intersection property, so there is a point in the intersection||
||FUCKING BAER CATEGORY THEOREM, OF COURSE||
You cannot guarantee that fg will be in P since you can't control the values outside of those sets though
Wait
Sorry, I didn't read far enough back and reacted just to Keith's specification of the two functions he wanted.
Ah
Didn't consider whether he would be able to use them for something useful for the original problem.
Actually, I think fg=0, since if you're in A, then g=0, if you're in X\A then f is 0, but neither are in m_a n m_b
So this should work
Wait a moment, fg will be in P because it is 0 when the supports are disjoint.
I jumped the gun it seems, apologies
You're right
@frail shoal I was wrong, you can have disjoint supports as Tropo demonstrated. I had smth different (that doesn't work) in mind
Ok so this finishes the argument
I was trying to use regularity/normality (given by compactness) when you should just be using hausdorff
Well, that does come in when we appeal to Urysohn's lemma.
Yea sure, I meant to construct the closed sets I want to separate, specifically
👍
why can we take disjoint open neighborhoods?
that's what i got stuck on
wait
i feel so dumb
Felix Hausdorff says so.
i conflated T2 with T1
im gonna explode myself
ok yea then in conclusion ||the definition of hausdorff + urylson lemma literally does give functions with disjoint support||
for this reason
Yeah, I agree that solves Notknow's problem.
glad to know i gave them a good hint after all
Yes
But now I am stuck on new problem
Math is such an ingrate.
I was looking at the definition of the vector additive and scalar multiplicative identity in a vector space and they tend to take the form
I + v = v
J*v = v
Where I is the additive and J the multiplicative identity
The group identity axiom i have here, on the other hand, is
eg = e = ge
the inverse axiom says
gg^-1 = e = g^-1g
this caught my attention because this would seem to imply the identity element wrt the group operation functions differently in a group as opposed to the identity wrt scalar multiplication and vector addition in a vector space.
It seems according to the definition given here that the “identity element” (I don’t know if this is the correct employment of the term) of any group G is an element that always yields itself when “operated with” any other element of G.
The definition of the identity element of a vector space V wrt any of the two “seminal” operations, however, seems to imply that the identity element is that element of V which always yields the “other” when “operated with” any other element of V.
Am I missing something? Are my resources flawed? If not, are these respective “approaches” equivalent or analogous in some way?
There's a typo in your notes. Should say
eg = g = ge
ah
That's generally what identity element means. When you combine it with something you just get that thing back
Got it
Is this not a direct application of 9.4.1 or am I missing something??
More context
as far as i can tell lol yeah
thats it
My understanding of Galois theory is profoundly deepened by this exercise...
I guess it’s a question of “can you not get scared by all the symbols and just apply the result” lol
such questions are typically an "are you awake" check
What does he mean by cosets of the matrices?
$PSL_2(\bZ) = SL_2(\bZ)/\sim$, meaning that for every $A, B \in SL_2(\bZ)$, if $A \sim B$ then they belong to the same coset. so a coset is just the sets of matrices that are equivalent under $\sim$.
it's basically saying to show $PSL_2(\bZ)$ is generated by the coset of $S$ (${S, -S}$) and the coset of $U$ (${U, -U}$)
Like every gS and gU for every g...?
Or is it that PSL_2(Z)/H for any subgroup H, it equals to SH and UH
sigh confusion
are you familiar with what cosets are?
I think so yeah
for some subgroup H of G, a left coset of H is aH for some a \in G
where aH = {g in G | g = ah h \in H}
in this context, it's likely equivalence classes
show that PSL(2, Z) is generated by the (equivalence classes) of those matrices
anyway the center of SL(2, Z) is the normal subgroup {id, -id}, and PSL(2, Z) = SL(2,Z) / {id, -id}
so if you'd rather think of cosets you can just do it in that way
chmonkey im back to being confused with this...
how are the equivalence classes of every element of the form aH, then
like if a \notin H, how is it equivalence class a left coset of H
wait
a ~ b iff a^-1b \in H
a ~ ah since a^-1ah = h \in H
thanks chmonkey!!!
thanks for telepathically helping me
Wai
Cool, so $(a) is basically just (2) and the set of polynomials with odd coefficients quotiented with (2)
There is a better way of describing this ring
hmm?
Isomorphic to something?
Yes
I will want to find something this is iso to as finding what (2,x^3+1) is would probably be futile
it's 2(p(x)+ (x^3+1)q(x) yes, but that doens't make finding the ideals any easier
Z[x]/(2,x^3+1)=(Z/2)[x]/(x^3+1)
how
Z/2 is a field, so (Z/2)[x] is a PID, and you want to find ideals containing (x^3+1) in this PID (think about factoring x^3+1 in (Z/2)[x])
yea, but how are they isomorphic
I mean R/(a,b)=(R/(a))/(b') where b' is the image of b in R/(a)
okay, thanks
How does it follow that p must be associate to one of the irreducibles
We have ab = pc.
p is in the decomposition into irredcucibles of the RHS, so by unique factorization it should appear in the decomposition of the LHS, up to asssociates.
I don't get this
p is in the decomposition into irredcucibles of the RHS
oh
Well, what if c is reducible
I suppose that doens't matter here though
okay,got it
thanks
@pearl birch
Why did you ping a random pre-uni person who can't even see this channel?
first message this dude has ever sent 💔
I think everybody can see the advanced topic channels; it's just posting that requires jumping through hoops.
the hoops being clicking one button in the roles tab?
I think it might be two buttons actually
i was just testing my keyboard
Don't do that in a channel next time
(Esp. whilst pinging someone)
real af
how do i prove that [G, G] is normal?
i think the fact that gamma_g is an automorphism might be relevant, but i don't know how to go from there
Honestly the hint is the slick way to see things but it seems to be confusing so maybe worth saying that you can give a very concrete commutator that works here.
Ok so if you use that fact, and write
$\gamma_g(aba^{-1}b^{-1})=\gamma_g(a)\gamma_g(b)\gamma_g(a)^{-1}\gamma_g(b)^{-1}$
What is this?
ShiN
an element of the form aba^-1b^-1!
Thank you!
what book is this?
Aluffi's algebra chapter 0
oh interesting
@small yacht okay there’s another way which isn’t necessarily rigorous but nonetheless I will explain
explain waht
This subgroup is canonical which means more than being normal (which you can say means it’s fixed by all interior automorphisms which by definition is just conjugation), but it’s in fact characteristic meaning it’s fixed by all automorphisms
Now what I mean by canonical is that it’s defined by some properties which make no specific reference to specific elements
Let me list a few,
The center Z(G) references no specific elements
[G,G] references no specific elements
The unique subgroup such that…
The largest subgroup such that…
The idea is that an automorphism preserves all group theoretic properties of a group, so it needs to send something defined purely group theoretically to itself
Think of it this way, for the center Z(G)
Membership in the center is dictated by satisfying a bunch of equations, for every element g in the group you need to satisfy gxg^-1x^-1 = e (if you clear the inverses you get gx = xg)
hheh i have no idea what that means
A group automorphism preserves that equation, so if x satisfies that equation over all g, then it satisfies the equation f(g)f(x)f(g)^-1f(x)^-1 = e
When you let g vary over the entire group G, then f(g) also runs over the entire group cuz f is bijective
oh hey i learned out of that one
So you see that gf(x)g^-1f(x)^-1 = e for all g, and so f(x) is in Z(G) because membership in Z(g) is based upon satisfying that equation enumerated over all of G
This process is also reversible (cuz f is an automorphism) which tells you if f(x) ended up in Z(G), then x was in Z(G) to begin with so Z(G) is sent to itself
What I wrote above is literally just a rigorous way to write down “Z(G) is the elements that commute with everything, and an automorphism needs to preserve that property)
this reminds me of a stupid example of a canonical subgroup, i call it stupid cuz it almost never comes up, but i think it's funny. you can consider the subgroup generated by all elements of the form x^2
it's also irrelevant here
Similarly [G,G] is generated by a bunch the things of the form [g,h] over all g,h in G
And when you apply an automorphism that gets sent to [f(g),f(h)]
Again cuz f is bijective these elements run over all pairs so you get the same thing
It’s okay if you don’t understand now
One day you will.
And you’ll go.
Wow, Chmonkey was right all along. He’s so smart.
i agree
right now i'm more concerned wit
h
how to prove that G/[G, G] is commutative
hint: you want to prove that ab = ba, modulo [G, G]
if you're stuck, try ||moving all the variables to one side||
Well, i could start with ab[G, G] = ba[G, G]
multiply both sides by a^-1b^-1 to get
aba^-1b^-1[G, G] = [G, G]
So it is true for all a, b. Though i feel like I could find a more elegant way
oh
well
could just do it in reverse
this is essentially what all proofs have to look like
starting with an equality is bad i thought
because you could do something like multiply by 0 on both sides, and if you do not catch it, it will seem liek you proved it
ok that's true. a philosophical opinion i have is that the reason why groups are so popular is that it's actually impossible to make this mistake in some sense
start with [G, G] = aba^-1b^-1 [G, G]
multiply by ba on both the right
[G,G]ba = aba^-1b^-1[G, G]ba
because [G, G] is normal, [G, G]ba = ba[G, G]
therefore
ba[G, G] = ab[G,G]
qed
really?
oh, i see how
thx that's actually very good to know
np
i will say you can avoid using normality by doing it a little more carefully
hmm
well ok i guess. normality is needed to even be able to mod out by it
otherwise it's not well defined
easy just divide both sides by [G, G] \j
Something involving a and b = e
Where this is true iff a and b commute
Then u can just ask yourself if this is 0 in the quotient
side note: there is something called the normal closure of a subgroup, which is the smallest normal subgroup containing a subgroup. if you try to fix the obvious issue you end up getting this concept i think
this is mostly irrelevant to the topic at hand tho
i just love tangents
nooo 0 doesn't have an inverse with multiplication
i dont knwo waht you mean chop chop monkey
Like okay x = y
indeed
Iff xy^-1 = e
yes
So do something like that
ab = ba
iff
aba^-1b^-1=e
or
a^-1b^-1ab=e
it's cool how every equation in the language of groups can be rephrased as "blah = e"
by language of groups i mean like. multiplication, inverses, identity
you can also sorta cycle stuff around
Me when I invent model theory
i think so
cuz the left side is in [G, G] so in the qutioent this amounts to saying e = e
i hope to do a model theory phd over the next 5 years orz
I'm so sleepy should i be doing math this sleepy
Wowza^2
yowza
i have a group theory module next year im looking forward to it but need a book to get started over the summer :p
or a libretexts course they are fire
I’d probably just use whatever text your course will use
Ask friends or something if they know what the course usually uses
ngl this looks complicated
Lol
i prefer applied maths as im doing a joint honours but this looks like the more formal side
Yeah
I mean it’s probably a proof based algebra course
You’re just gonna have to get used to it by doing it
Algebra is pretty abstract as a subject, maybe moreso than analysis given how it’s usually taught
It is literally called “abstract algebra”, no?
Idk some ppl call it that
I call it algebra
Once you grow up and become a big kid everyone knows you aren’t talking about y = mx + b
i love proving polynomials of degree 4 are irreducible it brings me so much joy
(sarcasm)
trying to show 1+i is either algebraic or transcendental over R
right
It’s finite dimensional
I mean you don’t need to show the polynomial is irreducible lol
If it’s a zero of that polynomial
question 10
sigh
So if you let a be anything in C\R you have the following inclusions
R < R(a) < C
The first < is proper and since C/R is degree 2 this forces R(a)/R to be degree 2
So R(a) = C and deg(a,R) = 2
Get real
hmm interesting
There just isn’t enough room
ah i see, so since C is a 2 dim vector space over R the extension is finite, so it must be an algebraic extension thus 1+i is algeraic
Yeah
and then somehow show that dim(a, F) is 2
I mean you’re forced to have R(a) = C
like you said
true
And then the degree is 2
I don’t think so…
It’s some dumb shit like
have a good sleep :]
x^2 - 2x +2 or something
It’s definitely x^2 -2x + c
Cuz youd be squaring the 2
And I’m too lazy to compute the c lol
real
I mean it’s just that you end up with 2i when you square 1 + i
i need to remember what F(a) as a field is
yeye
Yea
And the linear term is the only way it can die
Fractions with a
But if a is algebraic the it’s the same as F[a]
Where you allow polynomials in the a
hm
Sorry I guess like rational functions in a
But a isn’t formal here it’s the actual element
That’s why you need a to be inside a field extension L
Cuz the only way you know how to make sense of those expressions is by using the operation in L
yeye
fields are hard bleh
Field impawsible
literally :(
I was chatting with my professor about structure of padics and half of the stuff he explained i forgot within the next minute or so
There so many objects floating around
so real omg
Haha padic valuation tells you the pness of an element
true!!
So many of the properties for padics have to change for p=2 and its so unintuitive to me
Like how filtration of multiplicative group of the integers starts at 1+4Z2
Even quadratic formula be like bleh in char 2
Ohhh
lowkenuinely 😭😭😭
I listened to that a lot in 2017 post breakup
truth!!
A kiddo to me now
