#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 395 of 1
people often study the concept of finiteness abstractly using the concept of filtered colimits
The directed limit of a diagram is an object of your category together with some maps
From the diagram to your object
to elaborate on this, in a lot of nice categories, we have the slogan "finite limits commute with directed colimits" is true. it's not true of all categories though 
What is filtered colimits
what's the condition? they have to exist?
i think it's the same? before posting this message i referenced nlab, and it defined a filtered colimit as a colimit over a "filtered" poset,
and they defined a filtered poset the same way
direct limits are filtered colimits over a small thin category
ah, that is the distinction, oops
*i should have said filtered then, my bad
(co)cofiltered just means every finite diagram has a (co)cone
the point is, same concept as what is described in exercise 14
no clue
haven't studied it
ok so i can say for sure that, at least in any category of algebras, filtered colimits commute with finite limits
yeah, the underlying sets are the same
for example, suppose you have two directed systems M and N. you can compute M × N as the direct limit of all the M_i × N_i
it's a good exercise
note that this only works for finite products
and it only works for direct limits, if you look at general colimits it also fails
so it's very nice
So 16 is just asking to prove that the directed limit is just co limit 
codirected
no this is directed
a large travelling bag
So by the hypothesis every x_i -mu_ij(x_i) gives 0 therefore the submodule generated by those elements is {0} therefore the direct limit is just the direct sum of M_i
Right?
not quite, we have to consider each M_i as having distinct elements here
that being said, modding out by each x_i - mu_ij(x_i) does have the effect of identifying everything in M like how you would expect
Why? They are submodules of some bigger module
just for the purposes of the construction, we then identify them as having equal elements using the mu maps
Sorry i don't get where I am wrong?
It won't be a direct sum though, just a sum
Yes my bad
Ok I get what keith is saying now
In the disjoint union/direct sum you do distinguish between these elements, since they are in different submodules
But once you quotient out you recover the original identification
yeah that is what i mean to say
i might have misinterpreted what you were saying, sorry about that
when you said "gives 0" i thought you meant in C, not in M
and i assumed by direct sum you meant direct sum, as opposed to sum
So is it something wrong in my argument?
the direct limit is a certain quotient
it's just not a massive sum of everything, you quotient a lot of it out
for example, for a point $x$ in a topological space and two open neighbourhoods $U,V \ni x$
PKThoron
two functions $f_U: U \to \CC$ and $f_V: V \to \CC$ become equal if $f_U|{U \cap V} = f_V|{U\cap V}$
PKThoron
(as far as the point x is concerned, those two functions are in the same equivalence class)
what about inverse limit do we cut in same way,
i meant to say, i might have misinterpreted your correct argument
im not sure
in inverse limit p adic integers uncountable still
I think you were correct, I need to look at m_i as a different element
in practice, i think direct limits tend to have smaller cardinalitiy than projective limits, but this is just vibes
yeah, they are different in C, but get identified in M = C/D
is the ultimate idea
inverse limits are subsets/groups/rings wtv of a product
yes cut the whole countable product in case of p adics
inverse limits glue the elements together, while direct limits patch the structures themselves together, in a sense
wdym by "cut"
btw i will rant rn, the terminology surrounding inverse/projective limits (limits) and direct/inductive limits (colimits) is really confusing
(to be clear inverse and projective are synonyms here, so are direct and inductive)
filter out nice ones
right
it's really hard to know at a glance which one someone is referring to 😭
colimits are usually quotients of sums, limits are usually subobjects of products
like in topology, pullbacks are usually some fibered product
while pushouts are some glued sum
inverse limits are \forall, direct limits are \exists
incomprehensible posting, this is not for the sake of pedagogy, i just need to speak my piece
actually,
products are "for all", equalisers are "such that", coproducts are "there exists", coequalisers are "up to"
yes
nice
binary products are "and", binary coproducts are "or", initial objects are "false", terminal objects are "true"?
this sentence is a terminal object nuke
and exponentials are "implies"?
heyting nuke
okay so, what about zero object
falsity?
(to be clear im sorta vibeposting, i dont have a rigorous idea in mind behind what im saying)
the issue with making it rigorous is that, you can always take the dual category, and then it flips everything around
it's probably in one of the geometry-logic correspondences
so you have to restrict to something nice and atp you lost the vibe generality
yea i could like appeal to topos theory or something but idk enough of that to be confident in it
yeah like in categories with zero object, biproduct etc.
I know that "there exists" is something like elements in a fiber bundle
and "for all" is something like sections of that fiber bundle
in some HoTT-adjacent framework
i do know that there exists and for all can be viewed as adjoints in a really brainrot way
yeah
but like, im not thinking about that when i think about most stuff
"there exists a base space element such that x is in the fiber"
"for all base space elements (something something you get a section)"
there is a sense in which i could argue zero objects tend to be false
so like, any possible equation you could write down in the language of, say, R-modules, or groups, is satisfied by the identity element
so in a sense, identity has a trivial theory, which makes it function like a contradition
a lot of theorems are phrased like "if x satisfies blah then x = 0"
so in a way, 0 is the failstate
A preadditive category is not a topos.
trivial category?
Yeah except that
i would argue that the trivial category is false
which is ironic, cuz it's final
ok i guess final objects are falsey when you deal with equational theories
(before you complain, enpeace, my justification is that categories form a GAT)
a gyat?
oh generalized algebraic theory
my absolutely unfounded take is that categories are a "bare analytic structure"
what does that mean
yea im curious too
I have NO idea
just that they somehow permit integrals, have a sesquilinear form with values in a base of enrichment, and vaguely have some notions of flow and tangency at a point, limits and colimits, continuity and cocontinuity, completeness and cocompleteness...
and also the funny "groupoid cardinality of FinSet is e"
whar
sum of 1/|Aut(X)|?
yes
$\sum_{S \in \text{Sk}(\mathbf{FinSet})} \frac{1}{|\text{Aut}(S)|} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{n!} = e$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
groupoid cardinality is crazy lol wtf
what are these integrals
co ends
there's an nlab article...
yes ive just read it
generalization of the class formula
I think there's a generalization which is something like $\frac{|\pi_0|}{|\pi_1|}\frac{|\pi_2|}{|\pi_3|}\frac{|\pi_4|}{|\pi_5|}\cdots$ (or the inverse of this)
I don't get how they are identified in M?
PKThoron
(take the sum of these over all x ∈ π_0)
by the relations x - μ_ij(x)
if for $i \leq k \geq j$ and $m_i \in M_i$ and $m_j \in M_j$, you have $\mu_{ik}(m_i) = \mu_{jk}(m_j)$ they get identified
cuz we mod out by x_i - mu_{ij}(x_i) and all the mu's are subset inclusions
oh i didn't scroll down
PKThoron
ah ok so yeah i do want to emphasize, indeed, that C consists of a direct sum of all the M_i, and as a result, we have that x_i ∈ M_i can be distinct from x_i ∈ M_j, which is confusing notationally, idk how to properly notate it
i thought my cool image would have explained this identification cleanly :(
yeah it is distinct
maybe someone else knows how to notate this better, idk 
Okay they are different but how they are same in M?
it's like how when you take the disjoint union of two sets, two identical elements can become different
but it's also a notational nightmare there too
uhh
example: $U \supseteq W \subseteq V$ and $f_U \in \mathcal{O}(U)$ and $f_V \in \mathcal{O}(V)$ with $f_U|_W = f_V|_W \in \mathcal{O}(W)$
PKThoron
maybe we should notate the elements as ordered pairs
(i, x_i)
i encodes which structure we're in
and we require x_i ∈ M_i
and we take linear combinations of those, to define M
so we get that D is generated by (i, x) - (j, x) for all x ∈ M_i ⊆ M_j
example of a directed set
I see
Thank you
two elements earlier in the directed sets may "become the same"
like two functions being the same when restricted to a common open set
Any hint for the later one? Okay it says x_i in D but i don't get any further idea
what's D
I guess it's the direct limit module
so $D = \bigoplus_{i \in I} M_i/\sim$ where $m_i \sim m_j$ if there is a $k \geq i,j$ with $\mu_{ik}(m_i) = \mu_{jk}(m_j)$ and $\mu_i: M_i \to D$ is the map sending $m_i$ to $[m_i]$
(more technically I should speak of something like $\iota_i(m_i)$ where $\iota_i$ is the inclusion of $M_i$ into $\bigoplus_{i \in I} M_i$)
ohhh my bad for conflation notation then
D is the submodule of C generated by relation
perfect
so first we must write down what the 0 in M even looks like
since it's a quotient, 0 is the class 0+D
Yes
in other words, if $\mu_i(x_i)$ is $0$, then $x_i$ is in $D$
(again it's actually iota_i of x_i but anyway)
PKThoron
now I wish we could say that makes it automatically of the form $x_i - \mu_{ij}(x_i)$
PKThoron
cause in that cause mu_ij(x_i) is 0, exactly what the exercise demands
but in general, $x_i \ in D$ means it's some finite linear combination of those differences, so in general $x_i = \sum_{r=1}^q \lambda_r(x_{i_r} - \mu_{i_r j_r}(x_{i_r}))$...
PKThoron
Yes
this is where I find it rather helpful to spell out the inclusion maps into the sum module
even if it looks ugly
so $\iota_i(x_i) = \sum_{r=1}^q \lambda_r [\iota_{i_r}(x_{i_r}) - \iota_{j_r}(\mu_{i_r j_r}(x_{i_r}))]$
PKThoron
ok
and then do some godawful coordinate checking in the direct sum module
$\iota_i(x_i)$ is concentrated in the $i$-th coordinate
PKThoron
meh tbh I don't know how to cleanly formulate it either
the idea is that somehow, the right side ends up just saying x_i as well and that the mu_ij term must vanish, which is what you want
How?
I think there are two cases
First when there is no r such that i_r = i, in that case it shows x_i = 0
So we are done
In second case it shows there is some r such that i_r = i
Then we get x_i = \lambda_r (x_i - u_ij(x_i) )
If j = i we are done
If not it gives x_i = \lambda_r(x_i)
yes, and that means mu_ij(x_i) is 0
which is exactly what you wanted to show in exercise 15
I guess probably not the intended method of the exercise, but the construction have actually works for arbitrary colimits.
There is a nicer construction specific to direct limits where the two properties you need proving are obvious. So one possible approach would be showing that these two are isomorphic (because both satisfy the universal property for example).
The construction is similar, but with a key difference.
Start with the disjoint union of the Mi, under the equivalence relation from mi ~ mu_ij(mi). Then you define addition mi + mj by first replacing mi and mj with equivalent things so they live in the same Mk and add there. This gives a well defined module structure and is the direct limit
i think you replied on different question
Because union is easier than direct sum.
An element of a union is just an element in one of the things. An element in a direct sum is some horrible sum
okay
and to define m_i + m_j, since there exists k>= i,j, so by identification mi = mu_ik (mi) and mj = mu_jk(mj)
and both mu_ik(mi) and mu_jk(mj) is in Mj so we can add
okay
so i need to show it has universal property
yeah got it
in that case u_i is just inclusion mapping
not inclusion
i got that it is direct limit but still i don't get how this helps me to solve that problem?
In this construction mi becomes 0 iff mi and 0 are equivalent i.e. if there is a k with mu_ik(mi) = mu_jk(0) = 0
There are no sums you have to worry about cancelling eachother
Well you can describe the relation explicitly as
mi ~ mj iff there exists k with
mu_ik(mi) = mu_jk(mj)
It's obviously symmetric and reflexive and transitivity follows from directedness
Another proof using the universal property could be:
Let Ni < Mi be the set of elements mapped to 0 by some mu. Then Ni is a submodule and mu takes Ni into Nj. Further Mi/Ni -> Mj/Nj is injective.
Then if xi in Mi is not in Ni, then you get a map Mi/Ni to an injective that doesn't vanish on xi. Using the lifting property of injectives and Zorn you can lift this to compatible maps from all Mj/Nj and hence from Mj.
Then by universal property there should be a map from the direct limit that doesn't take xi to 0, so xi can't be 0 in the direct limit
here, do i need to talk about conjugacy of h^i and g^i?
i get why it makes sense, since its the defintion of conjugacy, but can i just take g^i = e and then say
h^i = kek^-1 = e and then similarly h^i = e => g^i = e so
g^i = e <=> h^1 = e so the same powers of g and h are = e, so they have the same order
to me it seems like what im saying is equivelant to them being conjugate without saying it, but the proof uses the fact that any h conjugate to e is equal to e, but have i just shown that instead of stating it essentially?
sorry about the long text tldr: are these equivelant statements to h^i is conjugate to e so h^i = e? and stating that explicitly isnt required
Too me it looks like a you rephrased the proof
yh you've just inlined the step that e is only conjugate to itself which is fine. valid
okay thats what i figured, thank you
thank you so much !
What do I have to show in 19?
Is there any specific part of the exercise you don't understand?
You have an exact sequence
M_i->N_i->P_i for each i that is compatible with the transition maps. Show that the resulting sequence of direct limits M->N->P is also exact
Oh, so M_i -> N_i -> P_i is exact is given, okay
To show M -> N -> P is exact, I have to show each M_i -> N_i -> P_i is exact, right? But that is given already
No, you have to show that the maps induced by M_i->N_i->P_i satisfy exactness
Refer to the previous exercise for how homomorphisms between direct limits are constructed
I see
is the \rho_{s}^{1} \chi a typo here? should it be \rho_{s}^{1} x? (second sentence of proof)
also how did they get the justification that W_1 is stable? like why does f \rho_{s}^{1}(x) = 0 imply \rho_{s}^{1}(x) = 0? im probably just over thinking it bc its true since f is not equal to 0 but i jst want to make sure i understand fully
chi is definitely a typo. They make the full argument right after though. The kernel of f is either 0 or V_1 since V_1 is irred. It can't be V_1 cuz that would mean f=0, so it's 0 and thus f is injective
Yea so the map is identically 0 in that case
and the only way thats possible is if f = 0
Yup
i see, thank you!!
Glad to help
one more question, why does the ground field of complex numbers imply that there exists at least one eigenvalue?
sorry my linear algebra knowledge is lacking bc i havent done it since 2024
Eigenvalues are roots of the characteristic polynomial in the ground field
Okay so I am looking at F_16 as an artin schreirer extension of F_4; I want to explicitly compute the generators of the multiplcative group of F_16 explicitly, how do I go about it? I mean I can look at divisors of 15 and check the root of my irreducible polynomial (more than one if I look case-wise) and what its order is and if its order is 15 or not but, I feel like there's something very basic I am missing and this process seems very very tedious
is there a better way?
And am I doing it right?
So the root will be a generator, so I guess you're just asking for the quickest way to prove this.
I feel like computing x^3 and x^5 and noting they are not equal to 1 is fairly quick.
I guess you can notice F4 already has all the cuberoots, so you really only need to check x^5.
So
x^2 = x + a
gives
x^4 = x^2 + a^2 = x + a + a^2 = x + 1
x^5 = x^2 + x = x + a + x = a
yep, basically
oh wow, thanks
gosh
a here is?
Like, I got 6 possibilities for irreducible polynomials
and the coefficients for x is not always 1
and if it is then a must not be in F_2
in order to be irreducible over F_4
but this does doesn't consider the cases where coefficient of x is not 1?
I guess this would give me two? Generators? but not all of them?
orr can I find the rest using a similar method is what you are saying?
👀
I'm not sure I follow.
Like that you're thinking of an artin schreier extension means you're considering
x^2 - x - a
right?
And then a can't be 0 or 1 because then it's not irreducible
Once you have one generator it's trivial to find all.
They will just be x^i for i relatively prime to 15
but there are a total of 6 irreducible polynomials and this doesn't give us all of them
What do you mean? Which irreducible polynomials are you talking about?
of the artin-schreirer form
I can just see two
hmmm that's okay
but
to find just the one
x^2 - x - a
and
x^2 - x - a + 1
there's the case where coefficient of x is not in F_2 but a is in F_2
that gives us some polynomials
(I got)
and the case where a and coefficients of x both don't belong to F_2
It gives a polynomial, but not on the artin schreier form
X^p - X - a
hmmmm
fair
makes sense
but then so does artin schreirer always give us
or wait, like, does one of the roots
or by frobenius
does one of the irreducible polynomials' (both roots of it in this case or in general in case of quadratic irreducibles)
always give us generators?
both being generators?
So you're asking if you always have a multiplicative generator that is the root of an artin schreier polynomial in general? That I don't know
They said before that if
Aut_H = Aut_H', then also Aut_H' = Aut_H+H'.
So conversely if Aut_H' is different from Aut_H+H' then also Aut_H' and Aut_H are different. Hence we may set H = H+H'
yep that's what I was asking
alsooo
does this give me two generators?
Conjugate of a generator is a generator so sure.
(It also just gives you all the generators though)
I got it, in this exercise I used exercise 15
gah, I wrote wrong silly me
I meant, it gave me two irreducibles, so it gives me
4 generators
but the totient function gives me 8 possibilities for generators
so if I am explicitly looking for the minimal polynomials in a systematic way, how do I do that
to get all the generators in terms of the minimal polynomial
and this is well defined
Jagr, i think by doing the same construction of disjoint union and equivalence as before, then we can define multiplication in A.
m_i •m _j = mu_ik(m_i)mu_jk(m_j) and it is well defined operation
under this ring structure, identity is any 1_i, where 1_i is the identity of A_i, 1_i is identified with 1_j for each i,j
I have one doubt, so in the universal property of tensor product of family {B_\lambda}, the multi linear maps goes from \oplus {B_lambda} or direct product of family {B_lambda}?
What is Tor_n?
The product
If you're not familiar with Tor you probably shouldn't do this exercise. The definition takes a while to get to terms with, unless you are already familiar with derived functors, homology, and/or resolutions of modules.
No, I am not familiar with those concepts yet
Then you should skip it for now
Then I am trying to show that A-algebra B has universal property of tensor
Yes wrt the product and multilinear maps
But if it is a product, how do I construct a map from product to B ?
Multilinear map
Sorry I got my arrows backwards
I think I'm wrong and it should be the direct sum and not the direct product for this exercise. In general you can define an infinite tensor product by using the product as well but this construction is much harder to describe
I see
you would be working with direct sums here, i think you could generalize this to most tensor product construction processes tbh
definition for pure tensors can be extended linerally to the whole tensor product as you said
I'm not really sure I would call it abuse.
Do you mean because R[x] should only be defined for rings?
I think it’s jus a definition of notation
There’s a notion of M[x] for modules and I think this will end up being the same
I'm used to (I) being the ideal generated by a set
Yes
Can someone please gimme a hint on how middle cancellation implies that a group G is abelian
What do you mean by middle cancellation
but what would that do ?
Well you wanna prove that ab=ba
yes
So you need to find some x such that axb=bxa
What did you choose for x?
this only that you suggested, that way I am getting a(b^-1) = b^-1(a)
Yeah but idt what I took is the right idea
I thought it was at first but idt that's the correct choice
if we take x = a^-1 or b^-1 , it will hold the given property
Yeah that's a better choice
alrightyy
Not necessary, you easier would be to just show that the map R[x1,..,xn] ->R[xpi(1),..,xpi(n)] has an inverse
(But I'm kind of confused why they're asking for isomorphism, when the rings are infact equal.)
I was just thinking of saying this by using commutativity
Even if R wasn't commutative, they would be equal, unless you mean something else by R[x1,..,xn]
It depends on how exactly you defined the notation R[x1, …, xn]
I can think of definitions where they are not set-theoretically equal
Yeah I had said this before but I edited it out because the definition I know defines R[S] for a set S, and since pi is a bijection, S stays the same(which is clearly the superior one vs a definition that depends on the order of the variables)
mhm
So here I'll probably want to show $R/(x)$ is an integral domain. I also know that $(x)$ generates $\Q[x]$( correct me if I'm wrong pls)
wai
so Let $[p(x,y)+(x)] \cdot q(x,y) + (x)$ where both $p,q $ can perhaps be polynomials of exclusively $y$. The product of two such polynomials cannot be a function of exlclusively $x$ so their product can't be $Q(x)$ we're done
wai
This works I suppose
Oh here if you mean x generates Q[x] IN Q[x,y] then that's not correct, since for example (x) has xy not in Q[x]
No on it's own
Sure, not sure how that's relevant though
I didn't really understand this, all you have to do is show that Q[x,y]/(x) is an integral donain
Ye, so I have to show it has no zero divisors right
Which is what I am trying to do
Yeah but like (if I understood what you're trying to say) you seem to be assuming that the image of an element is 0 if it is only exclusively a polynomial in x, which is not true, eg : [xy]=[0]
Well I'm talking about Q(xy)/(x)
Yeah, and I'm saying even in Q[x,y]/(x), you have for example xy=0 and xy is not exclusively a polynomial in x
one way to do this simply would be to show that Q[x,y]/(x)=Q[y] which is an integral domain
Got it
Does this look right for the implication a -> b?
(Of course, the largest subfield of L contained in E' and E'' is their intersection)
Also, the point is that you use the same trick with alpha and beta to ensure that these are square roots of elements of K. I only said to do it with alpha, but this might not have been totally clear
... Another note: I could have referred to L^H' instead of E', in case that causes confusion
how would I do this
Like isn't (x) = Q[x,y]
a little verbose, but the proof idea is correct
Let $L/K$ be a Galois extension of degree $45$. I want to show this has at most $12$ subfields using Galois theory. So, we know the Galois group of this also has cardinality $45$ and every subgroup must divide it, so possibilities are the orders $1, 3, 5, 9, 15$ and $45$. Exactly one for orders $1$ and $45$, for $5$ we can use the third Sylow theorem: $$n_5 \mid 45, \qquad n_5 \equiv 1 \pmod{5}.$$ But how is that possible?
ILikeMathematics
when they say = in the example, do they mean isomorphic?
is it fair to say theyre equal for groups, rings, etc if theyre isomorphic or is the ≅ notation needed
Yes most likely
Them being strictly equal depends on how you implement them
But they’re certainly isomorphic
Depends how you define Z5 as a ring
I mean you could have Z5 = Z/(5)
If it's something else then yeah just isomorphism
I think defining Z5 as the quotient ring is common
Yes though you can also define it manually
youll often see algebra textbooks eventually just use = for isomorphism
usually its when the isomorphism is obvious just by the structure of both objects
I've seen things like a vector space and it's dual are isomorphic but not "canonically" so (whatever canonical means). But when we have an inner product they are canonically isomorphic (by using transpose iirc). So is a vector space with inner product somehow "more isomorphic" to its dual than a vector space without additional structure?
Are there other examples of this?
oh? does it make sense to define rings as a ring theyre isomorphic to
ah i see, we've just been pretty consistent on the notation so this confused me. thank you !
how does that work?
If you define Z5 = Z/(5) then it's equal not just isomorphic
You also could define Z5 more manually like pseudo said
In the grand scheme of things, it doesn't matter how you construct Z5 specifically, since it works the same anyway (Cat theorists salivating)
What would say is that the inner product picks out or induces a particular isomorphism between V and V*
How it's possible?
You just list the factors of 45 and see which are 1 mod 5
If we think of the vector space as lists of scalars, then the map $\phi: V\to V^*, v\mapsto v^T$ where $v^T$ acts on V by matrix multiplication
Tiessie
Welllll this is not quite what you want to do
Or something like $v\mapsto \langle v, .\rangle$?
Tiessie
Yes
For the former, you need to choose a basis of V to represent it as lists of scalars
Right
And it’s possible to have an inner product on V without a particular basis being specified
However, the inner product still gives you enough information to define a specific isomorphism V -> V*
Which is this
I'm more so curious about this word canonical
Third Sylow theorem says that $n_5 \mid 9$ not $45$.
Lin Xia
I've seen it in another places too but I never quite understood the significance
One explanation of the word canonical is that you can choose the isomorphism uniformly across different spaces
you can formalize that with category theory but you don't really need to know all the details to understand the idea
the non-canonical isomorphism of a space with its dual requires picking a basis
so if you had two vector spaces, there's no way to ensure that the way you picked a basis in both cases is compatible
One theme in higher mathematics is that it doesn’t just matter that two things are isomorphic, but how they are isomorphic
If V is finite dimensional, then it is isomorphic to V*
but with the double dual isomorphism, it's the "same" isomorphism regardless of the vector space
But there are many possible isomorphisms you could choose, and it’s not clear if one really stands out from the rest
However, if you’re given an inner product on V, then there is a standard way to choose an isomorphism between V and V*, using this inner product
You could then say this is a “canonical” isomorphism
This is kind of true though not sure if I like thinking of naturality this way these days
Is there some category theory language for this?
Yes, it’s to do with the concept of a natural transformation
Yes loads
One of my favourite examples is the group operation
For every group $G$ you have a function $*_G : G \times G \to G$ called the group operation
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
The canonical counterpart to this is the fact that you can define a map V->(V*)* without referencing a basis, and this will be an isomorphism for any finite dimensional V
It’s what you use to multiply elements of your group
This is a natural transformation $U \times U \to U$ where $U : \mathbf{Grp} \to \mathbf{Set}$ is the forgetful functor
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
More generally, any kind of algebraic operation (group inversion, ring multiplication, a ternary thing like “a(b + c)”) defines a natural transformation
FYI I'm familiar with abstract algebra up to and inclduing module theory
Ah then I can give a good motivation for naturality
I think a good word to keep in mind when thinking about naturality is orthogonality
Two things can be geometrically orthogonal, meaning at right angles to each other
But there’s also a notion of two things being conceptually orthogonal - this means they refer to separate, independent ideas
As an example I was booking travel to a conference recently, and figuring out how to get to the airport was mostly independent of figuring out what flight I needed to take
Right
They’re independent legs of my journey
How good you are at swimming is also mostly independent of how good you are at mental maths
In that sense they’re orthogonal skills
One insight from cat theory is that there’s often a connection between these two senses of orthogonality
For example, with the travel example, it doesn’t really matter which order I book the legs of my journey
I could book travel to the airport first and then book the flight, or do the opposite order, and end up with the same result
You can actually represent this with a kind of commutative diagram
Note that the independent legs of my journey have now become geometrically orthogonal processes
In the most literal terms, the two arrows are at right angles to each other
This sort of thing happens quite often when you have two independent processes - you can run them independently such that the order in which they finish doesn’t matter
(One thing that’s confusing is another name for this is running the processes in parallel, but obviously parallel and orthogonal are very different geometrically)
Does that make sense?
For sure
This actually happens a lot in algebra
You have internal operations that happen within your algebraic structure
Like the group operation, or vector addition, or scalar multiplication, or ring multiplication, or field division
And then you have external operations that happen between two algebraic structures - the homomorphisms
The way you define homomorphisms is to ensure they are “orthogonal” to the internal operations
In the sense that it doesn’t matter what order you apply the internal and external operations in - you arrive at the same result
For group homomorphisms, that’s $\phi(ab) = \phi(a) \phi(b)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
These would just be called morphisms right
Is a natural transformation then a specific kind of functor?
Again, you can represent this with a commutative diagram
In the most literal sense, the external operations are orthogonal to the internal ones
Well, this is actually what naturality is about
Naturality is a categorification of the concept of orthogonality/independence
The way it manifests within category theory
Because the internal operations are always orthogonal to the external ones, the internal operations define natural transformations!
Another good example of this are operations on lists in programming
You can have “data-changing” operations such as squaring each element of a list, and “shape-changing” operations like reversing the list
These are orthogonal to each other as well
So the shape-changing operations end up defining natural transformations
It can be seen as one yes - more often it’s viewed as an arrow between functors
But you can also view it as an arrow-valued functor, as well as a bifunctor - each point of view has its merits
The double dual example earlier is saying that the evaluation map V -> V** is orthogonal to all linear maps V -> W
What do you mean by arrow? Morphism?
Yes, I use the terms interchangeably
Okay
One thing I like to emphasise is the geometric side of category theory
“Morphisms generalise functions” is a decent intuition, but an equally important one is “morphisms generalise paths”
Not all morphisms take the form of structure-preserving maps, and getting too attached to this can hinder understanding
Paths in a kind of graph theory sense?
Yes exactly
In fact any graph automatically defines a category
Where the morphisms between two vertices A and B are precisely the paths in the graph that start at A and end at B
Called the “path category” or “free category” of the graph
Much like any group is a quotient of a free group, any category is a quotient of a free category
So it can be specified by supplying a graph, plus a rule about when two paths should be considered “equal”
This is the “generators and relations” PoV on categories
Kind of like group presentations
Yes exactly
None..
No, my book says its | |G|
Well, you already wrote down the divisors, so let's go over them one by one.
The first one is 1, is that equal to 1 modulo 5?
Right. Thanks!
Now it follows that np = 1, 6, 11, 16, 21, 26, 31, 36 or 41
So np = 1
Because none of those divide 45
One might notice that any divisor of 45 that is not a multiple of 5 will be a divisor of 9 (and vice versa)
when i think about it, the data of an inner product, a linear map V ⊗ V -> R, uncurries into a linear map V -> V*. so in a literal sense, an inner product space is literally a vector space equipped with a map from itself to its dual
i forgot the other axioms of inner product spaces though
oh, i honestly have no idea how to interpret the other axioms in the uncurried way
i mean i could do it very literally but i mean, like, a useful interpretation
An isomorphism V -> V* is exactly a non-degenerate bilinear form.
The axiom
<v, v> >= 0
is maybe harder to uncurry
hell yeah
maybe symmetry and positivity could be viewed as making the operation resemble multiplication
dunno
sure mb
wai
Like suppose p/(x) * q/(x) = (x) then one of them would have to have x so would simplify to (x), which is the 0 in this rong
ring
But in Z[x_1,x_2,...]/(x1x2,x3x4,...) when you quotient by (x_i) you still have x_j x_k = 0 in your ring...
so the quotient isn't an integral domain
so (x_i) can't be prime
hmm
wdym
well take R/(x1) right
this means x1=0
but you still have x3, x4 != 0
but x3x4 = 0 in your quotient ring
Notice that whenever you have
xy = 0
a prime ideal would need to contain either x or y.
So if you're looking for minimal primes you might try to force it to only contain one of them
so I want the prime ideal to only contain x and its multiples and sims
0 has to be in your ideal
I think the best is just a literal way, I've seen that in literature a bit
So let's call our prime p.
Then
x1 x2 = 0
What does that tell you?
i.e. a map phi from V to V^* is positive semi-definite if phi(v)v\geq 0 for all v
One of them is a zero divisor
Well they are both zero divisors by definition
for inner product spaces you have the notion of a positive operator which gives you positive semi-definite forms
I'm going for dinner now will be back in 15
oh... I thought it was much too concise
thanks!
When exactly is Gal(L/K) abelian? Is there some criterion?
These are called abelian extensions
And characterizing these is a big thing in math
In number theory specifically this is known as class field theory
Oh
And one more thing: When we consider Z/20Z and want to know the number of group homomorphisms Z/20Z -> Z/20Z, do we consider these w.r.t addition or multiplication?
Addition
But then isnt there only one group homomorphism?
Because g(1) = 1
so g(2) = g(1 + 1) = 1 + 1 = 2
This isn't true
So there will be as many homomorphisms as generators
Arent all of these also automorphisms?
It doesn't have to map 1 to a generator
Any mapping of 1 to a generator will be an automorphism, but 1 can be mapped to things of lower order as well
The only condition is that f(20)=20* f(1)= 0, so f(1) has order dividing 20, but that's every element in Z/20
So you can map 1 to any element
You should check this is always well-defined
but that's every element in Z/20
Is there a quick way to see that?
Lagrange's theorem
oh
Whats the problem if our only justification is that we map 1 -> a for any a in Z/20Z
And that will give us the rest of the homomorphism
Well you're explicitly defining this map via representatives, so you need to make sure it's well-defined.
So first showing it's independent of choice of representative. The next step would making sure that the image of the generator satisfies the proper relations, but here as we said this just means being an element with order dividing 20
So for example if you were looking for maps Z/2->Z/3, then sending 1 to 1 is not well-defined, since if I choose 3 as a representative of the equivalence class 1+2Z, then that representative will get mapped to 0
Formally the easiest way to do this is to define a map
Z->Z/20
By mapping 1 into any element (since Z is free abelian) and then using the first isomorphism theorem to get a map
Z/20->Z/20
Thanks!
When I say first iso here I just mean that if you have a map f:A->B and a subgroup N of A contained in the kernel, then there's an induced map
f:A/N->B, not necessarily injective or anything
(changed containing to contained in)
So if G is finitely generated abelian group then each subgroup is also finitely generated, right?
Yes
Why is $\text{Gal}(\mathbb Q(\sqrt[4] 2)/\mathbb Q) \cong \mathbb Z/2\mathbb Z$? Why cant we also have $(\sqrt 2 \mapsto \sqrt 2, \sqrt[4] 2 \mapsto -\sqrt[4] 2)$?
ILikeMathematics
What is the other element you found in the group?
well i guess you can intuit that the Galois group cannot have order 4, as the extension is not Galois
The Galois group permutes the roots of x^4-2, and an automorphism in the group is determined by where it sends the fourth root of 2. The only purely real roots are plus or minus the positive root, so at most you have the identity and what you wrote (so I don't know why you're alluding to something else being in there)
Maybe I'm making a mistake
yeah this is correct
the automorphism you are describing is in fact the only nontrivial element in this Galois group
Ah, we cant have sqrt(2) -> -sqrt(2)
Thanks
Guys, is that true that f € Aut(G) iff \bar(f) € Aut(G/Phi(G)) ?
I know there is a similar thing with p'-automorphism wich induces identity on G/Phi(G)
euro is a new one
i think ive seen ppl. use euro
I've definitely used euro before on whatsapp
ahahha it's cause i'm french
What is Phi(G) here
frattini subgroup
So if G is finite, then all that's needed to verify is wether f is surjective.
Note that if bar(f) is surjective, then G = Im(f)Phi(G).
If Im(f) was not all of G you could pick a maximal subgroup containing it. Then it would also contain Phi(G), contradiction. So Im(f) = G
In the infinite case I guess G = Q has G = Phi(G), so there it wouldn't work
Does anyone know of a computer algebra system that does localization?
Macaulay2
Ok then I don't know how to read documentation hahaha
Oh ok
The thing is I want to localize not a polynomial ring
But like Z/nZ by some prime ideal
fwiw i just tried to do this in M2 for a bit and i couldn't figure it out
I mean, you don't need a computer to localize Z/n
I wanted to verify something
So I think localization in Z/nZ is just the quotient ring
And I kind of did some calculations but I'm not sure so I wanted some computational intuition
You can post your work here
The prime ideals of Z/n are just (p) for primes dividing n, and the localization is Z/p^k where p^k is the largest power of p dividing n.
Which is just a quotient ring of Z/n yes
I don't understand where is the axiom of choice needed/used here
don't we construct the chain of ideals and show that each inclusion is strict so the chain is infinite
This is in dummit and foote proving that every PID is a UFD
that statement looks a little strange
is it just the fact that i choose r11 , r111 ?
where is this from?
Dummit and foote
Well you do need to make an infinite number of dependent choices to construct the chain
so this, right?
I am choosing from the set of divisors one of them
yeah
Okay, got it thanks
As (\mathbb{Z})-modules let (B = \mathbb{Z}[1/p]) and if (A = \mathbb{Q}/B)[p],) do need anyting else to show that (A = 0) than that (a/b +B = (pa)/(pb) + B = 0)?
mh_le
ah yeah, I now realize why it doesn't make sense.
I see thx you
What can you say about Sylow subgroups ?
Can we be sure there arent any more?
and what about the 5-Sylow ?
Why do we care?
We want to quotient by order 27
Why not
But yes you can show that 3-Sylow subset ker(f) for all f : G -> Z/5
||(There is also one 5-Sylow, so G is nilpotent)||
np
Hello!
I’ve got a question - this is for an assignment, so don’t help me too much. I’m largely just checking i have the right idea.
I need to prove that there doesn’t exist a simple group with order 132.
I’ve split 132 into its prime factorisation, $2^2311$.
Having a look at the Sylow 11 groups; the number of these 11-groups must either be 1 or 12. If it is 1, we are done(said 11-group is normal, and hence G is not simple). Suppose then there are 12 Sylow 11-groups.
Then there are 120 elements of order 11(intersection of sylow groups are the identity, and order 11 groups elements are all order 11 bar the identity).
Therefore we have 11 elements that are not in the sylow 11 groups. Now we consider the Sylow 3 groups. Either there is 1,4 or 22 of these groups. Can’t be 22, to few elements to work with. If it is 1, we are again done.
Suppose it is 4, then we have 3 elements left for the sylow 2 groups; there are either 1,3,11 or 33 sylow 2 groups, but there actually is exactly 1 sylow 2 group due to the number of elements left.
Therefore for any “choice” we have made, there is always a Sylow p-group that is a normal subgroup of G, and hence G is not a simple group.
I haven’t properly typed it up, so it isn’t in the formal wording just yet, but is my thinking correct? Cheers!
Makon W
That works
Another way to deal with the “4 Sylow 3 subgroups” case is to note that acting on them by conjugation gives a non trivial map G -> S_4 which must have non trivial kernel by looking at the order
Oh, and then the kernel of a homomorphism is a normal subgroup! I like that lol.
I'm trying to see that A/I tensor_A A/I is isomorphic to A/I but I'm struggling to prove injectivity
Mostly the problem is I don't know how to prove that some tensors aren't zero
For example if I is a proper ideal of A how could I prove that in (A/I tensor A/I) we have that (1+I) tensor (1+I) isn't zero
The general method to proving that an element in M(x)N is to define a bilinear map from MxN where it doesn't vanish.
Hence it can't be 0 by the universal property of the tensor product
An alternative aproach to solve your exercise is to use right exactness to prove that
A/I (x) M = M/IM
Quick question. I have the following statement that my professor asked me to prove. That $\mathbb{C}^{}/S \cong \mathbb{R}^{}$; however this is not true is it? Shouldn’t the result be $\mathbb{C}^{*}/S \cong \mathbb{R}_{0>}$ ?
Surf
By S do you mean S^1?
But yeah the usual thing would be R_{> 0}
Yes S^1 sorry
And indeed R^x and R_{>0} are not isomorphic groups because the former has the element -1 of order 2
Correct
So yee well noticed
Ok cool stuff
I think the order of H is irrelevant here
I mean H has to be p-group
But not necessarily order p
Yeah agreed
H is contained in one of the Sylows and all the Sylows are conjugate but conjugation doesn't change H
Yes
So I am trying to prove one fact which I think is true, if G is p-group then every normal subgroup intersect with center
How do you prove that the centre of a p-group is non-trivial?
Can you use that proof technique here?
If $q\in \mathrm{Sym}^2(V^*)$ we can define $\mathfrak{so}(q)$ to be the trace zero matrices that preserve $q$. For dimension $3$ in the reals, I was able to show that the classification of quadratic forms gave the isomorphism classes of $\mathfrak{so}(q)$, using invariance of the Killing form. Is the same true for arbitrary $V/k$?
Zander
No. Usually the situation is that you have two fields F and K (with F contained in K) and an element a of K. Then F[a] denotes the smallest subring of K containing F and F(a) similarly for smallest field. Or you can view this as what you get from messing around with a applying ring operations.
Unfortunately there is also the minor conflict with the notation F[x] for a variable/indeterminate x, meaning a polynomial ring
Here you only need stuff of the form a + bsqrt(2) because sqrt(2)^2 = 2, so you can simplify any expression involving powers of sqrt(2) to something of that form
Interesting. Idk why the author dropped that notation randomly with no clarificatiob
It's very standard notation, so they might have assumed the reader was familiar with it.
Or I guess it's just the standard name for Q[sqrt(2)], you don't need the general pattern of this notation to be told that
I think is is actually consistent with F[x] for a polynomial ring. If we imagine that, say, polynomial or rational functions already exist "out there" somehow, and already know how they react to + and ×, then then F[x] is indeed the smallest subring of "out there" that contains F as well as x.
Or you can think of F[x] as the value of all formulas in the theory of rings with values in F and x. Then when x is an indeterminate the formulas just return formal expressions (that are considered equal if they're equal for all values of x)
It is consistent but also kinda different
This notation is common for number fields
Though you need to be careful with "if they're equal for all values of x" if F happens to be finite. Perhaps amend with something like "even if the value you choose for x is from some extension of F", but then can begin feeling very fuzzy until you know enough theory to know what the possibilities are -- which supposes you already understand polynomial rings to begin with.
x does not take values in F
Clearly it doesn't because otherwise your proposed intuition wouldn't work. :-)
btw if you follow this logic then Q(sqrt(2),sqrt(3)) would be a+ b sqrt(2)+c sqrt(3) which is almost correct
Intuitively it should make sense that this field should have dimension 4 over Q
but in this one you have 3
apologies for no reply im running on very little sleep and can barely comprehend anything rn lmao
Type of shit numerical analysis would do to me
Take a rest pookie
unfortunately im unable to fall asleep in school for whatever reason
its too uncomfortable to sleep
soon tho :>
could you define dimension?
vector space
Cardinality of any basis
Right, Q is a vsp over itself
Yes, but more relevant: any field extension of Q is a vector space over Q
I dunno what that is so I'll wait till i see in my book :p
Think of Q(i). This has a basis {1,i} over Q correct?
Yes that's an example of what I mean by a vector space
Yes
What's the definition of this
All I know is Q[x] = a + bx for every a, b in C (treating Q as a subfield of C)
Is Q[x, y] = a + bx + cy?
[ℚ(√2,√3) : ℚ] = [ℚ(√2,√3) : ℚ(√2)] · [ℚ(√2) : ℚ] = 2 · 2 = 4.
Une base est donnée par :
{1, √2, √3, √6}.
alors dim_ℚ ℚ(√2,√3) = 4.
Q[x] = a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + ... + anx^n for ai ∈ ℚ
a + bsqrt2 for every a,b in C
tfw you try work out things step by step then you get someone spoiling it
Right
bwa
Q
oh sorry didn't mean to hahahaha.
not C
And you can easily check this is a field
ah yes good catch enpeace
tfw i read a+bsqrt(2) and I assumed everything afterwards is correct
and it happens that if x^2 ∈ ℚ, then this collapses to what you said
So now with Q(sqrt2,sqrt3) you want to maintain the property of it being a field
@azure cairn be careful to note that e.g. (\bQ[x] \subsetneq \bQ(x)), since they are ring and field extensions, respectively
I have never seen this
(more generally if x satisfies a polynonial equation of degree 2)
I don't know what any of this means 😭
this is not true
Artin just dropped Q[sqrt2] as an example of a subfield of C
x² is a polynôme how is it in Q.
I thought brackets are ring and parens are field
they can coincide
but anyways you want to multiply things. In particular you need sqrt(6)
you also specifically wrote down sqrt 2 vro
And said Q[sqrt2] is the set of complex numbers a + bx for every a, b in Q. Idk what Q[x] means in terms of being a polynomial ring
Yeah I was looking at sqrt 2
I meant in general
x is an element from an overlying field
I wanna explain but math terms with me are in french help🥲😂.
then what you wrote is still wrong
qiu
Correct example now
I don't understand where sqrt(6) comes from. Again, the only thing i know so far is that Q[sqrt2] = {a + bsqrt2: a, b in Q}. Idk what the notation Q[sqrt2, sqrt3] means
Is there a way to get sqrt(6) by using a+sqrt(2)+csqrt(3) where a,b,c in Q?
It just feels like he introduced notation too early
Right ok so
,w a + sqrt(2) + csqrt(3) = sqrt(6)
Means you can have any combination of sqrt 2, sqrt 3
Did you forget a b
a + bsqrt2 + csqrt3 = sqrt6
right
Is this possible
Idts?
yes that's the point
ℚ(√2, √3) is the smallest subfield of ℝ containing ℚ, √2, and √3.
In other words, it is the set of all combinations obtained from √2 and √3 using +, −, ×, ÷. that's why you found √6.
I hope the translation is correct.
Right but where did sqrt6 come form
Oh
Remember we need a field
I didn't know that's what Q[sqrt2] meant, the smallest subring of C containing Q and sqrt2
Because ℚ(√2, √3) is closed under multiplication.
Now:
√2 · √3 = √6
Therefore, √6 ∈ ℚ(√2, √3).
Ohh I see
sqrt(2) times sqrt(3) is not in the set (yet)
Oui ça forme la base.
Q[sqrt2, sqrt3] = {a + bsqrt2 + csqrt3 + dsqrt6 : a, b, c, d in Q}
another way to view this as follows: think of Q(sqrt3,sqrt2) over Q(sqrt2)
And yes if you treat this as a vsp the basis is 1,sqrt2,sqrt3,sqrr6
So a+b sqrt(3) where a,b are in Q(sqrt2)
sqrt4 also know as 2
Typo
or Q[sqrt 2, sqrt 3] = Q[sqrt 2][sqrt 3]
Non, ℚ(√2, √3) = {a + b√2 + c√3 + d√6 | a,b,c,d ∈ ℚ}..
Bro turned on French mode
That's what I said no
I'm still adapting to English math hahaha.
Anyways I see. For posterity this was just dropped out of nowhere. I didn't know Q[x] meant the smallest subring of C containing Q, x
yeah no worries
And the beauty about this is that Q(sqrt2,sqrt3) is the smallest such field which contains the roots sqrt2 and sqrt3 (and obviously their combinations)
Have you gone to rings?
but that's still not the right definition.
Q[x] is the set of polynomials in the variable x with coefficients in Q,
Q[x] = { a₀ + a₁x + a₂x² + … + aₙxⁿ | n ∈ ℕ, aᵢ ∈ Q }.
it's the smallest subring of ℂ containing Q and x.
I assume yes cuz ur already in fields
No
oh hmm
I'm in a chapter about vector spaces
Then I probably shouldn't talk more about this
SO I think he's just introducing basic stuff about fields
And will discuss it more in depth later
but how they did a field without defining a ring??
It's okay imo
It's a set with addition and multiplicatjon operations that is an abelian additive and multiplicative group
unless you are doing field extensions and whatnot
That obeys associativity and distrivutivity
anyways what I wanted to say is that for example you can think of Q(i) as a quotient of Q[x] by some ideal
If what I said makes no sense dw about it
I don't know
Ok
a field is a ring so that's lack of structure in her course.
right yeah
vector spaces are modules but you can do linear algebra without knowing what a module is
Again, it's in the future
some courses still introduce fields (but don't do anything advanced with it)
It's the same flavor as "oh but a group is a groupoid"
Like artins book just introduces a field I'm assuming to define a vector space properly but isn't doing anything with fields yet except what a linalg book would do (like defining characteristic of a field) and connecting it back to group theoreitc stuff
it should've been groups to rings to fields to vector spaces.
I vaguely remembering our introductory linalg course mentioning PIDs to talk about minimal polynomials
a vector space over a ring so it doesn't matter but unlike not defining the structure of a ring.
well it really does matter whether youre working over a field or not
Well idk what to say @french person (I'm typing in the forward message box so I can't ping you directly). Here is the table of contents
vector spaces are generally defined over a field.
you said "vector space over a ring so it doesnt matter" idk what you meant by that then vro
I said it doesn't matter defining a structure of a module cause it's just a vector space over a ring, it won't change anything about vsp.
but not defining rings can make it difficult later for polynomials for example, or even studying fields without knowing they're rings.
yes and then i said that the structure of modules really depends on whether youre working over a field or nor
yes I see, little bit messy if you don't organize your thoughts.
i think an interesting part of module theory is learning why modules are nice in general and why vector spaces are really nice, even for modules
i think during the period i was ua-pilling myself, sometimes i would do things with modules again, and like, remember things that feel impossible. like, "wait, that shit is true???"
stuff like, how the submodule lattice is isomorphic to the quotient lattice
most recently this happened for me when i reproved to myself that
0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0
v v
0 -> D -> E -> F -> 0
induces a unique map of ses's
like i vaguely recalled it but it felt too nice to be true, so i had to check it
although i think this is actually true of groups so this is a bad example
yknow what this yap is kinda dumb. sorry for wasting everyone's time here
probably an elementary question, but for a fixed m, for which n and subgroup H of G = (Z/nZ)^{\times} do we have that the quotient G/H \cong (Z/mZ)^{\times}? equivalently, for which n can we get a surjection (Z/nZ)^{\times} → (Z/mZ)^{\times}? I guess I got a quite ugly/nonexplicit answer by considering the sylow decompositions but I'm looking for something a bit more explicit
let f(x)\in F[x] be an irreducible polynomial of degree 6 and let K/F be a quadratic extension of F. I am asked to check whether the following is true or false: f is either irreducible over K or factors as a product of 2 irreducible polynomials of degree 3 in K
any hints?
Let a be a root of f and consider the degree of a over K
You know the degree of a over F is 6
F(a) isnt necessarily an extension of K tho right? But ig we can take a subfield K' of F(a) which is isomorphic to K and then everything is fine? In that case [F(a):K']=[F(a):F]/[K':F]=6/2=3
So any root of f has a minimal polynomial of degree 3 over K and hence if f is reducible over K, it must be a product of two degree 3 polynomials. Is that right?
well we dont need to use sylow cuz these are abelian groups, so we can use the classification of them instead
that being said, it should ultimately come down to number theory yea
there are explicit results on what Z/n's unit group looks like
they're somewhat nontrivial though
I doubt there's a very "nice" answer to this.
Like the canonical examples would be when n is a multiple of m then the map Z/n -> Z/m gives you a surjective map on unit groups.
But there can be lots of "accidental" relationships.
Like
(Z/3)^x = (Z/4)^x
or
(Z/35)^x = (Z/39)^x
in particular, Z/(p^d) has a unit group that is isomorphic to [ignore this, i wrote the wrong thing]
for p > 2
for p = 2? different story
actually i feel like i just spread lies
but i forget the correct thing
but anyway from there you can use CRT and the fact products of rings preserves unit group
The unit group of Z/(p^d) should be cyclic, so Z/((p-1)p^d-1)
ohhh that's it yea
I appreciate the toki pona love in your bio
o moku e kala pona
Ĉu iu ĉi-tie parolas Esperanton?
ala
Toki Pina low-key does a better job at being an interlang than Esperanto I'm sorry 😭
I guess both are crushed by English in that department, so not useful metric
Crushed in the sense that English is already there. Not in the sense of actual practicality
Being there is the practicality, no?
i like toki pona cuz i like minimalism and i think it's well-designed
when i was much younger i fantasized about building a minimal language
so when i grew up and realized that one exists already, i was like. wtf
it's similar to the reason i like algebra
I used to make a bunch of conlangs with their own family trees and loanwords and shit
Don't have the time for that nowadays unfortunately
it feels like the most minimal math to me in terms of how many rules you need to establish first
How did conlangs autocorrect to complaints
(tying this back into this channel)
Let $p$ be a prime, $u\in\mathbb C$ be such that $u^p=2$, let $\Phi_p(x)=x^{p-1}+x^{p-2}+\dots+1$ and $\zeta$ a root of $\Phi_p$. I want to find the degree of $\mathbb{Q}(u,\zeta)/\mathbb Q$. I am thinking that its $p$ but is that true?
universal algebra is then just making up your own rules lol
ali yassine
admittedly there are rules to UA, which you learn very quickly when trying to explain to someone what a "term" is
Like at first I said that its p because the set {u,u\zeta,..,u\zeta^{p-1}} is a basis, but no element of Q can be obtained from a linear combination of these elements
Well, definitely can't be p. Because zeta has degree p-1
How do you get u^2 from those elements?
As a basis
you dont haha
ah right lol
ok let me rethink this
ok its p(p-1), is that right?
Maybe you have an argument for why in mind
well I mean its Q(u)(zeta), u has minimal polynomial X^p-2 and zeta has minimal polynomial of degree p-1
right, but just saying this doesnt give the exact degree right?
I mean knowing that its a multiple of both means that it is np(p-1) for some positive integer n
Well it would have to be some number between
lcm(p, p-1) and p(p-1)
so many options to choose from
one last thing, is it acceptable to just say that
[Q(u,zeta):Q]\leq deg(X^p-2)deg(Phi_p)=p(p-1) and that at the same time [Q(u,zeta):Q] is a multiple of p(p-1) since X^p-2 and Phi_p are the minimal polynomials of u and zeta respectively, or should I prove these statements/ justify in details
I'd probably go with the
[Q(u, z):Q] = [Q(u, z):Q(u)][Q(u):Q] thing, but meh...
I see
why are yall sully face reacting
mathcord moment
yeah that looks sick
tbh i assumed i was just missing something
yall dont seem particularly toxic ?
idk lol
Hmm, maybe just no group visualization fans in here? Let me remove my original post...
have you posted it on eg r/math and the 3b1b subreddit?
nvm dumb question
On the second(1.21 b) qn at the bottom, am I missing something, or can I just take p = q = 1 and a = any element of h not 1.
a is supposed to be taken from A not H, so no you can't just take that
It's also not given that 1 is in Q
what are some applications for groups in the real world?
chemists use it a bit if i remember right
crystallography gets into some pretty hefty group theory in particular
I guess cryptography is the big thing (see for example Diffie-Hellman key exchange)
In chemistry certain properties of molecules can be determined by the character table of their symmetry group.
Similarly in solid state physics there is some relationship between representations of the symmetry group of the Hamiltonian and observable states (I forget exactly how that works, but something like that)
it wont help you do your taxes but its useful in the general STEM world
I mean to do your taxes you may have to upload something over an https connection
So then you're using group theory 
very good point
1 is a left factor of all words, so it is.
Yeh, that was stupid mistake
what does it mean by M is divisble Z-module, i think it means for each m in M and for each n in Z, there exist m1 such nm1 = m
Yes
From the Dynkin diagram of D_4
e4
|
e1 - e2 - e3
can I determine that e1 + 2 e2 + e3 + e4 is a positive root directly from the diagram? As in, without actually showing that <e1 + e2 + e3 + e4, e2> < 0, so adding the two gives me a positive root?
I believe there's a theorem of Kac that the positive roots are exactly those positive integer vectors where the Tits form is <= 1.
So square of all nodes minus product of endpoints of edges, and indeed
1^2 + 2^2 + 1^2 + 1^2 - 1*2 - 2*1 - 2*1 = 1
(in the case of Dynkin diagrams it's when the Tits form equals 1, since it's never negative)
Oh interesting
So when we say R is a Noetherian ring, that means every ideal of R is finitely generated, as Z-modules?
No, as an R-module / as an ideal
For example Q (the field of rational numbers) is Noetherian even though Q is not an fg Z-module
What is he referring to in the 2nd bullet point?
i don't think it's true for C_n since, for example in C_6, [4]_6 does not generate a subgroup.
Every element generates a subgroup
It’s what the definition of generate ensures
4 generates the subgroup {0,4,2}
Why did I decide that it doesn’t
Ugh sorry my brain isn’t working rn
Joe mama


