#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 392 of 1
i is a unit in Z[i] so this is just {(3), i+(3), 2i+(3)}
this isn't correct
not surprised
but yeah where is (3) itself
i think from what u did earlier,
Z[i]/<a> = { <a> + r : N(r) < N(a) }
oh true
wait but then wouldnt we have 0, 1, 2, i, 2i, 1+i?
bc <3> is just 3Z
you need everything with a norm less than 9
oh true
im not sure about this
not less than 3
so you're missing 2+i, 1+2i
yeah it's 3Z[i]
rats
yeah
:')
oh and 2+2i lol
note that this is the same as taking mod 3 in both coefficients
this a^2+b^2 < 9 condition is strange
it works by coincidence here but it doesn't in generality
maybe i should've done 3^2?
no the problem is like
o
i didnt think of that
it's because of division with remainder
like here you can have 4+4i, for which a^2+b^2 > 25
and the fact that Z[i] is a ED.. i think
it is
which is the same as -1 - i + <5>
or umm even -1 + 4i + <5>
and here a^2+b^2 < 25
ok so it works if you allow a and b to be negative as well
it's just a strange condition
^
yaya
maybe this helps
i would think the order is 9 up to units
like we have that multiplying by units is an equivalence relation
idk im just trying to reason why we dont need the negative values
bc if we need them the order is then 17
isn't Z[i]/<3> a field
it is
saying that the order is 9 up to units is not meaningful
because you are either counting the units or you are not
oh. u just mean different representatives of the same coset probably, which also satisfy a^2 + b^2 < 9
the order is not something that you can ignore the units for
you can mean coset, as succ said, but not unit
probably
sorry yall
all good
and now i have to do this two more times
another way of doing this problem is to just add 1 to itself in each ring until you get 0. This immediately gets you that the characteristics of these fields are 3, 2, and 5
i can do the characteristics fine its just the orders
where does it ask you for the orders
i wrote the question wrong
I have characteristic 6 or 7
it should be orders and characteristics
yeah which doesn't mean anything so I ignored it
i forgot to correct it :')
well once you have the characteristic pick a power of the prime that makes sense and you're done
wdym
you can estimate this based on the area of a square
i drew <1+2i>
is there anything i can say besides that |G| is a multiple of 10 and 6
you can clean that statement up a little bit more but yeah, there's not much more to be said
umm
multiple of 30?

it could just so happen that these stipulations somehow imply that the group must have an order of 600
as a bonus exercise, you can always find a group that satisfies these requirements for every multiple of 30
would that be the converse statement
noooo i cant use lagrange's thm anymore
you don't need any fancy machinery really
(ur saying that every group whose order is a multiple of 30 has elements of order 10, 6?)
is that true
it doesnt feel true to me
no, they're saying there exists a group of size 30k that has an element of order 10 and order 6 for every natural k
oh
can you give such a group of order exactly 30? If G is such a group then Cn x G is a group of size 30n that has elements of order 6, 10
cant u just construct the product group of a group comprising an element with order 6, 10 and a group with order 30
i would need to verify on paper but shouldn't (g, e) and (g', e) (where g is order 6 and g' order 10) have orders 6 and 10 as well
i think you mean group with order 30 containing the desired order elements x some group with size k for whatever k
which is what this is
no i'm saying, take some group G_30 with order 30 then a group G with an element that has order 6 or 10
then take their direct product
okay, how do you get an order 60 group that way
|G x H| = |G| |H|?
so let |G| = 30 and |H| = some integer k
then |G x H| is a multiple of 30
this is not what you said earlier
what
you're saying one group is order 30, and the other group has an order 6 or 10 element
how can either group have order 2
where did order 2 come from
oh for every natural k
but i dont think this is true for a group of order 30
wait
lemme think
no it is
OOps
yeah cyclic groups get everything
wait but it is possible
G = Z_30
H = Z_2
H doesn't have an order 6 or 10 element
right, this just isn't what you said before
this is correct though, Z_30 x Z_k works for every natural k
ah wait i see
you choose the order 6, 10 elements from Z_30
then you dont care about what Z_k is
ok i was like 90% of the way there 😊
you actually can prove that every group of order 30k for natural k has an element of order 6 no i made an error
interesting
also for clarity every cyclic group of order n has every element whose order divides n right
|x^k| = |x|/gcd(|x|, k), so then we can choose k specifically to make the right side any divisor of |x|
if you let x be the generator then |x| = |G| = n
which is why cyclic is needed in the hypothesis
when it says "generated by these elements" what does it mean
<xy> or <x> U <y> or what?
<x, y> I think
what is that
so like x^ay^b for every a,b \in Z?
oh this is true for order 15 elements
i dont think ive ever seen the notation <x,y>
let me go back to the cyclic group section but i can bet money that i've never seen notATtion for the cyclic subgroup generated by two elements
it's not cyclic
Is this sylow theorems or am I stupid
idk havent done that yet
oh
it's the smallest subgroup that contains the elements in the brackets
equivalently the intersection of every subgroup that contains them
ah ok
without context it can also be considered as the free group on 2 elements
oh let me scroll up one sec
i think that's just cauchy?
oh
we know x is either order 2, 11 or 22 by lagrange, and it cant be 22 since y is not a power of x, so x is order 2 or 11, and the subgroup it generates can't cover everything
bazooka for a mosquito type of situation...
i never properly learned the sylow theorems tbh :-( i just learned how to apply them 😭 i should probably internalize the proofs
oh
The proofs aren't particularly enlightening or important to the applications of the theorems
thats kind of the vibe i got but it feels a bit disappointing
I think they can be quite enlightening, at least for a good proof.
But not particularly relevant to how you would apply the theorems
could i get a hint? i know that for phi to be a homomorphism G must be abelian
Write out what it means for phi(xy) to equal phi(x)phi(y) and try to manipulate the expression
yes i did that
unless there's something else i should get besides G is abelian?
i was talking about the injective and bijective parts
Oh, I misunderstood what you were asking then
also, like, i know that x^2 != 1 means none of the group elements can be involutory (for phi to be injective)
but i think there is something bigger im meant to get from phi being injective
Do you know when a group doesn't have any element of order 2?
Because...
counting formula
So that covers injectivity
ok great ty that's good
wait but
ah yes ok
the problem was that i didnt jump from "x^2 != 1" to "no element of G may have order 2"
i will proceed from here thanks
wait a minute
isnt phi already surjective lol
like if it's injective and maps from itself to itself then it must be surjective no?
The magic of finite sets
idk how i forgot about that
ok so this is only trueif G is an abelian group of odd order
ty
oh wait yeah that's only true for finite sets
wait does it have to be abelian
for it to be a homomorphism yeah
phi(xy) = phi(x)phi(y) = x^2y^2 = (xy)^2 = xyxy
x^2y^2 = xyxy
multiply both sides by something (too lazy to figure out what) to force yx = xy
x^-1 * x(yx)y * y^-1 = yx
x^-1 * x * x * y * y * y^-1 = xy
yeah premultiply by x inverse and postmultiply by y inverse
a related problem
if f(x) = x^3 is an automorphism on a finite group, then the group is abelian
Notable that for the x^2 problem you only used the homomorphism part to show it's abelian, but here that's not enough
wait actually
i used the converse of lagrange's thm fuck
just cuz the group doesnt have elements of order 2 doesnt mean the group's order can't be a multiple of 2
cauchy's thm works
but i havent learned that in the book yet
Note you already have that the group is abelian, so then Cauchys theorem is much easier to prove or follows from the clarification of finite abelian groups if you have that
Classification*
is that that all finite abelian groups are isomorphic to Z/pZ?
i dont have that yet either
:p
They are products of cyclic groups
dont have that either idt
wait what
all finite abelian groups are products of cyclic groups?
yes
Yup
damn
You can even say that they are products of cyclic groups of prime power order in a unique way.
Or a product
Z/a1 x Z/a2 x ...
such that a1 divides a2 which divides a3, etc. Also in a unique way
Even the sporadic simple groups didn't make it to the 27 club
Just a joke
If you include that one other group which is barely of Lie type, it is 27!
not factorial
Let's include Tits, why not
so the classification of abelian groups as u put it is a corollary of another thm in chapter 14
and cauchy's theorem is a corollary of sylow's thm(s?)
I usually use Cauchys theorem as a lemma for the sylow theorems, but you could prove it without
this is all much past ch2 though so 😅
interesting
ch3-5 are easy ones though cuz theyre just linalg, same with ch8
what book are you reading
artin
Anyway, it's pretty easy to prove that an abelian group of order a multiple of p has an element of order p without using any of these heavier theorems
Just induction and Lagrange
i first read dummit/foote 💀
ill just keep cauchy's thm in my toolkit
chapter 8/9/13 look pretty interesting not gonna lie
But i'm biased because i love number theory
see the book i read has ch10 way later
this is pretty big too, 600 pages 😭
lang is the best one to build pain tolerance with
just read something else for homology
huge? lmao if i drop it on someone's head, they're not surviving 😭
i guess academics will have one use in the apocalypse..
our abs algebra prof is so fkin bad, he singlehandedly makes people leave maths and choose different discipline. i sometimes find it way easier to throw this on him in class😭
Did he go “Damnit my foot!”?
wut
isnt 2's multiplicative inverse 1/2
oh wait
i just solve 2k = 1 (mod n) right..?
then 2 * (that) = 1 in Z/Zn
yes
can you not just set up the system $x = u + ta = u + tb$ to show that $x \equiv u \pmod a$ and $x \equiv v \pmod b$?
and this syseq has no solutions only when a = b, which only happens if a = b = +/- 1 (since gcd(a,b) = 1)
oh wait
integer sols
oops
ok abck to drawing board
What is exactly a Kummer extension?
i think it’s just when you adjoin an nth roots from the base field
like the field extensions where you adjoin roots of x^n-a for some a and n
I think that's called a radical extension?
ok wait i think i got it?
for $x \equiv u \pmod a$ AND $x \equiv v \pmod b$, $x = ra + u = sb + v$ for $r, s \in \bZ$. wlog, let $s$ be negative then rearrange to yield $ra + sb = v - u$.
note $r', s'$ can be chosen s.t. $r'a + s'b = 1$ (since $\gcd(a, b) = 1$), so simply choose $r = (v - u)r'$ and $s = (v - u)s'$. then $ra + sb = (v - u)(r'a + s'b) = v - u$. note that if $d = \gcd(a, b)$, then $d \in (\bZ = \bZ a + \bZ b)$ and so $d = 1$ is some integer combination of $a, b$
\begin{problem}[Chinese Remainder Theorem]{Let $a, b, u, v \in \bZ$ be integers, and assume $\gcd(a, b) = 1$. Show there is some $x \in \bZ$ for which $x \equiv u \pmod a$ and $x \equiv v \pmod b$.}
For both conditions to hold, $x$ must take the form $x = ra + u = sb + v$ for some $r, s \in \bZ$. Without loss of generality, let $s$ be negative, and so rearranging yields $ra + sb = v - u$. Note that there is a choice of $r', s' \in \bZ$ for which $r'a + s'b = \gcd(a, b) = 1$ (since $\gcd(a, b) \in (\bZ(\gcd(a, b)) = \bZ a + \bZ b)$. Then let $r = (v - u)r'$ and $s = (v - u)s'$, yielding
$$ra + sb = (v - u)r'a + (v - u)s'b = (v - u)(r'a + s'b) = v - u$$
as desired, completing the proof.
\end{problem}
yes
do youmind checking the proof above as well
your step of letting s be negative is kind of weird
how so
it seems like you're just swapping s for -s
i am
letting s be negative would be like "assume the value of s is negative"
that isn't the same as replacing s with -s
this isnt a structural issue but its kind of unclear as written
honestly i doubt you actually have to do that step, but otherwise i would either say "for convenience replace s as -s" or just add a third variable
wtvr
you could have posted this in #elementary-number-theory honestly lol
ig
beyond the negative wording issue i think this is fine
arent there regular talks
im a bit confused on how to solve x(a,b) + y(c,d) = (e,f) and seeing where x and y lie in Z, like am i solving for x and y on their own and making a system of equations?
question 8
With some linear algebra you should be able to express x and y in terms of e and f.
Then the question becomes when does every integer e and f yield integers x and y (as opposed to arbitrary real numbers)
hmmmmm
would it be like we have x = (e-yc, f-yd) * (1/a, 1/b)?
and then do the same thing for y?
Well, now you still have x depending on y. But the idea is to solve the system of equations yeah. Do you know how to solve systems of equations using linear algebra?
yep i do! i was just confused on how to get the system of equations lol
bc theres only one equation
I mean you're given two equations
xa + yc = e
and
xb + yd = f
OHHHHH
omg im so sorry
i forgot thats how you do it for coordinates, thank you so much 😭
okay i got this, and now i just have to find when this is an integer, or 1 preferably
or i guess solving when x = 1 and y = 1
bc (1,1) is a basis for Z x Z iirc
it should be
the question seems to be asking for a Z-basis, so your basis will need 2 elements
i forgot about that in the original question xD
I mean there's an infinite amount of such bases so you'll have to find them all not just one
So you want
(eb - fa)/(cb - da)
to be an integer for all e and f.
I'd start by picking e and f so that eb - fa is as small as possible. How small is that?
i ended up setting that equation equal to n, and then trying to solve from there
unless thats useless
Not exactly sure what you mean by that
(1,1), (0,1) is also a basis
rats
my hint is that the matrix you get by considering these pairs as the rows are all determinant 1 or -1 and integer valued
nevermind then
maybe e = f?
Maybe consider some concrete examples.
How small can you make
2e - 3f?
What about
4e - 6f?
6e-7f
Banned!
i dont know how small i can make those honestly, bc you can provavly just choose e = 1 and f = something large to get a very very large negative number
Small in absolute value
ah
well since i think we want it to be small in the integers maybe we can set e = 3 and f = 2 to get 0
So my point is:
If you want m/n to be an integer and m is very small, then n must also be very small
But m=0 doesn't help there
then i guess we can make m = 1 and get 2e = -3f + 1 to get e = {-3f + 1}/{2}
im sorry if this is wrong i know im being really frustrating by not knowing what to do
So, yes.
2*2 - 3*1 = 1 for example
yeah
What about the 4 and 6 case
i think the smallest we can get is 2 with 4(2) - 6(1)
or maybe theres some higher multiple where the difference is 1
oh we're doing bezout nonsense?
whats that
So what's the relationship that would make 2 and 3 give 1, but 4 and 6 give 2?
Or why shouldn't we be able to make 1 with 4e - 6f?
what jagr is about to help you discover. This would not be my approach at all fyi. After he's finished I'll tell you how I'd do it. My method has a geometric interpretation
god damn sentence fragment heaven in ts post whatt am I smoking
because theres no integer multiple of 4 and 6 whose difference is 1
I guess when I started this approach I assumed tt knew elementary number theory. But best not to diverge now
i havent taken a number theory class
and its not a prerequisite to this class
for some reason
agreed
sorry yall
twin ur currently doing elementary number theory
yes this is a restatement of what jagr said, but why isn't there
And why wouldn't that be possible.
How can I manipulate the equation
4e - 6f = 1
to make nonsense?
i know but like :')
maybe like e = {6f + 1}/{4} = {3f}/{2} + {1}/{4}, which doesnt have an integer solution?
Well, why is it clear it doesn't have an integer solution?
bc getting a common denominator requires f to be n/2
by jove they've got it./.......!!!
:')
Indeed, so maybe how I would put it is that if we divide by 2 we get
2e - 3f = 1/2
anyway yeah you just divide by 2 lol
that makes sense
im guessing im overcomplicating this
Similarly for an a and b
ae - bf
will always be a multiple of any common factor of a and b
interesting
And in fact Bezouts theorem/ Euclids algorithm tells us we can achieve
ae - bf = gcd(a, b)
ohhhhhhh i remember seeing that a long while ago
i know what the euclidean algorithm is yeah
So then all the way back to
(ae - bf)/(cb - da)
needing to be an integer.
Then we know
gcd(a, b)/(cb - da)
must be an integer
Then what does that tell us about cb - da?
cb-da is also an integral combination of a and b
Well how would it be related to gcd(a, b)?
i want to naively say -(gcd(a,b)), but that doesnt seem right, i thought it would be negative bc we're subtracting b from a instead of a from b
Let me ask this.
Would it be bigger or smaller or equal to gcd(a, b)?
(in absolute value)
i want to say smaller or equal to
we just established that the smallest integer comination of two integers a,b is gcd(a,b)
so how would it be smaller
wouldnt that not make it an integer then?
ye
it has to be equal to gcd(a,b) in absolute value
that makes sense
ok jagr what the fuck are we supposed to do from here? this is INCREDIBLY convoluted
Now x and y are completely symmetric. So we can also conclude that gcd(c, d) = ±(bc-da)
Hence bc-da = ±gcd(a,b,c,d)
And the original equation tells us
xa + yc = e. In particular xa + yc = 1 should be possible
hm
I'm sending it. \begin{align*}
xa+yc = e, xb+yd &= f \iff \begin{pmatrix} a & c \ b & d \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} x \ y \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} e \ f \end{pmatrix} \ & \iff \begin{pmatrix} x \ y \end{pmatrix} = \frac1{ad-bc}\begin{pmatrix} d & -c \ -b & a \end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} e \ f \end{pmatrix} \ &\iff (x,y) = \frac{1}{ad-bc}(de-cf, af-be)\end{align*} is an integer solution if and only if $ad-bc = \pm 1$ so the bases of $\bZ \times \bZ$ are in 1:1 correspondence with the $2 \times 2$ integer valued matrices with determinant $\pm 1$.
great I'm gonna have to align it
The Real Wew Lads Tbh
oh my god why didnt i think to use matrices
Yeah, so the key idea here is that systems of equations correspond to matrices and then we can use linear algebra to solve them
the geometric interpritation of this is if you think about the submodule M of N := <(1,0), (0,1)> generated by (a,b) and (c,d), then for this to be equal to N there has to be a Z-valued linear transformation L moving (a,b) onto (1,0) and (c,d) onto (0,1). If this linear transformation doesn't have determinant with abs. value 1 then the best we can do is <(det(L), 0), (0,1)> (in other words, we need this L to have a trivial cokernel)
this is a lattice theoretic result where a sublattice is the full lattice if and only if it's volume is equal to the volume of the full lattice up to a unit in the underlying ring
that msg was mainly for jagr
🫡
but yeah when you're working with R-modules that look like R^n you should immediately be thinking about linear algebra
Or if you hate geometry:
det(AB) = det(A)det(B)
interesting, we didnt quite go over a ton of modules unfortunately
much to my dismay lol
they're just vector spaces but with a ring instead of a field
yeye exactly
i shall attempt to write a proof using the matrices bc that makes sense
but ty yall :]
i'm sorry if i constantly forgot stuff or made you frustrated at all i am not the best math student in the world
it's ok dw boss
Get some repetition while also applying the knowledge in new situations
Must be a good way to learn I think
Now in the future maybe systems of equations will scream "matrices" a little louder and
ax - by
will scream
gcd(a, b)
but what if I'm not in a heckin gcd domain
truth
that's a thought actually is there a notion of a gcd domain but for ringoids
yes there is
In AR theory you typically deal with categories where morphisms factor as compositions of irreducible morphisms
So throw in uniqueness and you'd have like a UFDoid
yeah that's kind of what I thought
although I was thinking in a much more silly way, like an euclidean algorithm on idealoids
which seems unlikely to work
I think non-commutativity is what kills you there
a commutative ringoid, or as I like to call it, a commutative ring
what is ar theory 👀
amean rvalue theorem
ohhhh
now time to try to prove that Q under addition is not a free abelian group
the fact that it isn't makes me cry
oh AR for auslander reiten
im guessing its bc 0 isnt unique but
google kept giving me some stupid augmented reality whatever
wdym, it definitely is unique
you just gotta find a Z-linear relation between elements of Q
hashtag nevermind then LMAO
groups 101 proof
truth
me when i forget evrything all the time
algebra moment
idk how to work on having a better memory
this is what that little piggy said all the way home
me when my academically challenging degree is academically challenging
OH i realize i didnt explain correctly, i meant like 0 cant be expressed uniquely as a linear combination of basis elements
contradicting the basis part of a free abelian group
but i dont think that works
Yeah, so you can split into two steps:
- Q is not cyclic
- any pair of elements of Q are Z-linearly dependent
Conclusion Q does not have a Z-basis
ah
This question came up today in the exam
$$\text{ev}(1) = \sum_{a \in \mathbb N^{(I)}} h(1(a))s^a = h(1)s^0 = h(1) = 1.$$ Why is $\sum_{a \in \mathbb N^{(I)}} h(1(a))s^a = h(1)s^0$?
ILikeMathematics
Does that look wrong @candid patrol ?
$$ev: R[X_i \mid i \in I] \to S$$$$f = \sum_{a \in \mathbb N^{(I)}} f(a) X^a \mapsto ev(f) \coloneqq \sum_{a \in \mathbb N^{(I)}} h(f(a)) s^a$$
ILikeMathematics
$ev$ is usually index by some $X \in \mathbb{N}^I$ and it just sends $f$ to $f(X_1, X_2, X_3, ...)$. I don't know what you're writing here, what is h? is f a polynomial? why is there no subscript on the X?
The Real Wew Lads Tbh
X^a is the product X_i^(a_i)
a is in N^(I)
R[X_i] is the set of all maps from N^(I) -> R
ev = ev_(h, s) with ev_(h, s)(r) = h(r) for all r in R and ev_(h, s)(X_i) = s_i for all i in I
hey all :] im trying to prove in a euclidean domain that if nu(a) = nu(ab), then b is a unit
i was able to prove the converse surprisingly!!
what's nu?
euclidean norm!
just any euclidean norm
i know that if b is a unit then nu(b) = nu(1)
but i dont know if thats 1. helpful and 2. an if and only if
oh it is an if and only if!
i was trying some euclidean algorithm stuff and had there exists q and r such that
a = abq + r where 0 < nu(r) < nu(ab)
i mean maybe if ab is a unit then we have 0 < nu(r) < nu(1), which is minimal, then r = 0
but then i have to get b is a unit 😅
well if r is 0 we have a = abq. We're in a euclidean domain, thus an integral domain. So multiplication is cancellative and we may conclude that bq = 1
ab certainly need not be a unit, what if a is 0?
exactly
but i jus need a bit more justification on why r = 0
well a definitely divides ab so eventually we will arrive at a step where r = 0
it's quite subtle imo
i suppose so, i just need to use my brain
does this work?
im guessing i need some more justification but i cant seem to find where i need it
Is the statement for a specific (nonzero) a or for all a?
Seems to be a specific a
should be nonzero a bc thats what asked in the question!
i didnt specify thats what we wanted though
"you should do it as an exercise"
well if my proof works i'm done with this god forsaken assignment
and i can get back to my pokemon cards 
Proof looks good. Assuming your definition of euclidian norm has
nu(a) <= nu(ab)
it is!
thank you for your help yall i love yall
soon i will be able to help others in my position
no worries, it's good for me to revise my ring theory
How do you usually remember all the lemmas in ring theory? Like maximal ideal => prime ideal, prime => irreducible, integral domain then prime <==> prime ideal, PID and prime <==> irreducible and so on?
Is there some nice diagram you can draw or something that contains most of these?
quick question: Given a field F, an extension E/F and 2 elements a and b in E. Is it true that F(a,b)=F(a)(b) and F[a,b]=F[a][b] just like how things work when a and b are replaced by variables x_1 and x_2?
Practice. For example these facts about maximal/prime ideal get used a lot for other things and can get drilled in from that
Like is it valid to treat a and b as variables over F in some sense so that some properties like this one are preserved?
Yes, this will be a straightforward exercise
But this sounds dodgy depending on what you mean lol
because I imagine this helps well with say finding the degree of the extensions ig
Yes
instead of having to deal with polynomials in several variables you can find the degree of the extension over F(a) and then find that of F(a) over F
then multiply them together
i see, well I didnt have any precise meaning tbh. I was only looking for something that might help in the calculations around these extensions like the degree for example
is it just using the evaluation map on each variable one at a time vs using the evaluation map on all of them at once?
I mean F(a, b) is the smallest field containing F, a and b. While F(a)(b) is the smallest field containing F(a) and b
So should be immediate they are the same
so for example on one hand you take f(x_1,..,x_n) to f(a_1,x_2,..,x_n) and then take that to f(a_1,a_2,x_3,...,x_n) etc.. and on the other hand you take f(x_1,..x_n) to f(a_1,..a_n) immediately and its the same thing except that the first goes F[x_1,..,x_n]=F[x_1][x_2,..,x_n]->F[a_1][x_2,..,x_n]
->F[a_1][a_2]..[x_n]->...->F[a_1][a_2]...[a_n] while the second goes F[x_1,...,x_n]->F[a_1,...,a_n]
ah right lol
does something like this do the job too even tho its overcomplicated or is there something wrong here
right
on the other hand this handles it easily
tysm everyone
have a great day/night
So you arent thinking of some diagram to remember these?
Prime means the quotient is an integral domain. Maximal means the quotient is a field. A field is obviously an integral domain
These kinds of relationships build up in your mind over time
Alright, thanks
?
finals week is next week and i've just realized idk how to study for math exams besides doing the practice midterm and making a notecard :')
I mean many actually beneficial methods are best used over time. For example, spaced repetition improves your ability to accurately remember concepts; spaced repetition can take many forms, but the general idea is to review material frequently, and then less frequently as you get more comfortable with the material (for example using flash cards). To test your ability to remember, free recall is helpful. This is where you pick a topic and write down everything you can remember, right or wrong, from the given topic.
There are many more things to consider when reviewing, and I learned a lot from reading “Make it Stick” by Peter brown. Honestly I haven’t used many of these methods myself yet, but I am trying to use them more. If any one has anything to critique or add, please reply! I’m always curious to learn new study methods, or just more about learning in general.
working with it enough tbh
in the ring theory ive done ive considered PIDs a singificant amount more than anything else, and so i just assume that PID is where all the nice stuff cuts off
Not sure what diagram to draw tbh
I want to find $[K:\mathbb Q]$ for $K=\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{18},\sqrt[4]{2})$. So $\sqrt{18}=3\sqrt 2=3(\sqrt[4]{2})^2$ so that $K=\mathbb Q(\sqrt{18},\sqrt[4]{2})=\mathbb Q(\sqrt[4]{2})$ and $[K:Q]=4$.
Is this correct?
ali yassine
Yep
ok next is $K=\mathbb Q(\sqrt[3] 5,\sqrt{-2})$, how do I prove that $\sqrt[3] 5$ and $\sqrt{-2}$ are algebraically independent (i think thats the correct term, is it?), ie that $\mathbb Q(\sqrt[3] 5,\sqrt{-2})$ cannot be reduced to $\mathbb Q(\sqrt[3] 5)$ or $\mathbb Q(\sqrt{-2})$?
ali yassine
Well one way is to note that sqrt(-2) isnt in the Q(cubed root of 5)
Which is immediate since the latter is a real field
I mean sure but isnt that what I am trying to prove
Yes but as I said Q(cubed root of 5) is contained in the reals
Or another way to look at it is that the degree of one is 3 and the degree of the other is 2
So one cant be an extension of the other
Since 2 doesnt divide 3 and 3 doesnt divide 2
oh yea right, but what about the other direction? I think its also immediate by noting that any power of sqrt(-2) is either a rational number or a multiple of sqrt(-2) so sqrt[3]{5} isnt an element of Q(sqrt{-2})?
ohhh
I mean what you are saying here is true but the proof of it is what I said
what you said proves that sqrt(-2) isnt an element of Q(cbrt 5) but does it also suffice for the other direction?
like shouldnt i also prove that Q(cbrt 5) is not contained in Q(sqrt(-2)) too
For that the degree argument suffices
yea fair
ok so [K:Q]=[Q(sqrt(-2)),Q(cbrt 5)] [Q(cbrt 5):Q]=[Q(sqrt(-2)),Q] [Q(cbrt 5):Q]=(2)(3)=6
Modulo your typo yes
Should be [K: Q(cbrt 5)][Q(cbrt 5):Q]
ah yes mb
Number theory...
is it necessary to explicitly prove that [K:Q(cbrt 5)]=[Q(sqrt(-2)):Q]?
ohh ok, np dw about it
I mean the fact that the first one is smaller than the second one is immediate
As the first one isthe degree of the minimal polynomial over Q[cbrt 5] of sqrt -2
And since the other one is 2 and the first one is not 1
You have it
Theres probably a more elegant way to do it
right
I was thinking about saying that it follows from the fact that sqrt(-2) and cbrt 5 are algebraically independent because from this the minimal polynomial of sqrt(-2) over Q(cbrt 5) should have coefficients in Q right?
it cant have cbrt 5 in the coefficients since that would contradict the fact that sqrt(-2) and cbrt 5 are algebraically independent.
or would it? 
i mean yea it would
By algebraically independent you mean what exactly
I mean that cbrt 5 and sqrt(-2) dont satisfy any polynomial relation with coefficients in Q
Well I don't exactly get what your argument here is
if sqrt(-2) is a root of a polynomial with some of the coefficients in Q(cbrt 5) and not in Q then this would lead to a polynomial relation between sqrt(-2) and cbrt 5
but we know this cant happen
so any polynomial with coefficients in Q(cbrt 5) having sqrt(-2) as a root should in fact have all of its coefficients in Q
thus the minimal polynomial of sqrt(-2) over Q(cbrt 5) is the same as that over Q
which means that [K:Q(cbrt 5)]=[Q(sqrt(-2):Q]
is this correct?
Not sure of how that would lead to a polynomial relation exactly
Like a polynomial relation would be when one is a polynomial over the other
But I dont see how youd isolate one of them
Like you have anx^n+...+a0=0 where the ans are in Q[cbrt 5] and x is sqrt(-2)
How do you express x in terms of cbrt 5
Or the other way around
Youd need to solve the equation
so what I am trying to say is something like the following: assume that $\sqrt{-2}$ is a root of a polynomial $f(x)=\sum_{n\in\mathbb N}a_nx^n=\sum_{m,n\in\mathbb N}b_{n,m}(\sqrt[3] 5)^mx^n$ where $b_{n,m}\neq 0$ for some $m>0$ and $b_{n,m}\in\mathbb Q$ for all $m,n$. Then $(\sqrt[3] 5,\sqrt{-2})$ is a root of the polynomial $g(x,y)=$\sum_{m,n\in\mathbb N}b_{n,m}y^mx^n$ and hence $\sqrt[3] 5$ and $\sqrt{-2}$ are not algebraically independent over $\mathbb Q$ which is a contradiction
ali yassine
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yes, and this is a non-trivial polynomial relation if at least one of the coefficients is in Q(cbrt 5) and not in Q right
Thats why I was asking what you meant by algebraically independent
Because when you say that qe proved that they are algebraically independent what we proved is that one is not a polynomial in the other
And you are claiming that that means that there isnt a polynomial in those variables that evaluates to 0
Which is not at all clear and if I understand what you are trying to say its actually false
Since like cbrt(5), sqrt(-2) is a root of g(x,y)=x^3-5
And like I know you are trying to say that you need to include sqrt(-2) in the coefficients
But I wouldn't even know how to make that precise
I dont say it can't be done just I don't see how
did you mean something like g(x,y)=(x^3-5)(y^2+2)?
No I meant what I wrote
True
When I was studying this for the first time I also tried to do things the way you are trying to do them
But it never seemed to work
At the end of the day what you are doing when you think of degrees is in a sense making it a question about linear algebra
Which is usually simpler
Because linear algebra is easy
While studying relationships that arent linear is tough
You are welcome
Have a great day/night
You too
Let $G$ be a group of order $p^2$, $p$ prime. I want to show that $G$ must be abelian.
ILikeMathematics
I thought about using the first Sylow theorem, we know that there exist subgroups $${e} \unlhd N_1 \unlhd N_2 = G$$ with $|N_1| = p$ and $|N_2| = p^2$
ILikeMathematics
That’s not Sylow
It is the first Sylow theorem
Not at all
For |G| = p^k * m with p !| m there exists a chain of normal subgroups so that |N_i| = p^i and N_i normal in N_(i + 1)
Thats what I know the first Sylow theorem as..
What do you consider first Sylow theorem then
The one about conjugation of a p-group being in a Sylow group?
And all Sylow groups being isomorphic?
Thats my second
The one on the wiki
And my third is the one with n_p cong 1 mod p and n_p | |G|
Anyways so Im using this theorem
Do you think it helps?
Let G be a group and G/C(G) be cyclic, then G = C(G) where C(G) is the center
I want to use this
We know that |G/C(G)| = p^2/|C(G)| so either |C(G)| = 1, p or p^2
We need to rule out 1 and p and we are done
no
1 is not the case as the center is not trivial
Why not
the center of a p-group is never trivial
Why?
consider class eq
yeah, just use Lagrange theorem
also we cannot rule out p, that proves G is abelian too
Why would it?
Oh
G/C(G) is cyclic since of order p
|G| = [G : C(G)] * |C(G)|
And if center = p^2, then obviously it's abelian
So p^2 = 1 + sum
You can't have such orbits, I believe
I forgot the proof
Its not p^2 = ...
S is the set, not the group
Oh nevermind
In the case of center its the group
but Z should be the set of fixed points
What about the trivial group
Ok yeah no it makes sense, we just mod both sides by p
Left becomes 0 since G is a p-group, right becomes |Z|, the sum vanishes because G != G_a
So p | |Z|
So Z is non-trivial
Thanks!
Actually I had the same question, can't remember, how I convinced myself of that
Hm, could we do this without the G/C(G) cyclic => G = C(G) lemma?
If we construct this chain, we can say N_1 = <a> and N_2 = <a, b>, no?
Maybe that helps
Question 1 guys
a Sylow-p subgroup of G would have order p^2, so be G itself
Yes, thats fine, our N_i are just subgroups
I knew how to prove that P exists but i don't know how to prove that P is only one
It doesnt ask for P to be unique, does it?
but it doesn't ask u to prove P is unique
How did you prove existence?
i assume HK = {hk: h in H, k in K}
I got it, it's pretty simple
You mean to a)?
in p^n you can have only orbits of order 1 or p or p^m such that p^m | p^n
how do you know S_H, S_K are p-groups?
isn't a p-group a group of order p^n for some n
That's the meaning of p group
Has an order p^n
im fucked up
Right
Are you talking about the justification for Z(G) non-trivial?
Or a new proof without using the lemma
I'm talking about theorem I posted, proof of which I forgot 🙂
Ah
I believe that's the key theorem, so no need to not use Lagrange theorem and it's extension to group actions
I wanted to not use sylow theorem here
That means we have a gPg-1 intersection H belongs to Sylp(H)
in the same way we can make by conjugation with another element from G (g1) such that... g1Pg1-1 intersection K belongs to Sylp(K) then what i want is to prove that g=g1 to make P is the same with H, K
Ohh
I think i wanna solve question2 in question 1
Oh GOD!!!!!!!!!
.. and the center is an orbit
I JUST REALIZED
How it makes sence in that exercice!?
Can u explain more
Im not talking about your exercise lol
Nope... I just realized again that i'm right now i want to prove P intersection belongs to both Sylp H and Sylp K
If you know about semidirect products you can finish from here
Actually I did it over the G/Z(G) cyclic => G = Z(G) lemma
That works too. Just need that p-groups have nontrivial center
Let $G$ be a group of order $55$ and $\phi: G \times X \to X$ a group action with $|X| = 39$. I want to show $X^G \neq \varnothing$. Assume it is $\varnothing$. Then $|G.x| \geq 2$ for all $x \in X$. Also, since $|G.x| \mid |G|$, we get $|G.x| = 5$ or $11$. And we also have $$39 = \sum_{\substack{1 \leq i \leq n \ x_i \notin X^G}} [G : G_{x_i}].$$ How would we continue here?
|G.x| shouldn't divide |X|
It will divide |G| though
ILikeMathematics
To continue, try to write 39 as a sum of 5s and 11s
We cant
Three times 11 doesnt work, twice doesnt, once doesnt and no 11 doesnt
Ok so we are done
Boom boom
So basically it was just the orbit formula, everything before that was useless lol. Thanks!
Also really quick: Is it true that $|\langle 1 \ 2 \rangle \langle 2 \ 3 \rangle \langle 3 \ 4 \rangle | = 2^3 =8$?
ILikeMathematics
Yeah, right?
Is this cycle notation?
yes
Then no
To do what?
To get order 8 (as order 2 multiplied 3 times)
What's the motivation for studying rings? Like groups are symmetries, but why study rings? Like, why these specific axioms? In group theory, Cayley's theorem essentially shows that the axioms we have are the "correct" ones. Is there anything like that for rings?
Like you want an element of order 8 in S4?
In S_5, I want to get a subgroup of order 8
So I want to glue together 3 subgroups of order 2
Well, there is a subgroup of S4 of order 8.
You can think about it geometrically
What is something with 4 points and a nice symmetry group?
Oh, D_4
If we didnt know D_4 though, is there a way to constuct such a subgroup
Well, I'm not sure what "the gluing idea" is exactly.
But just looking at some elements of order 2 or 4 and check what they generate would work
Ah nevermind, I was thinking about composing permutations but that doesnt help
Because in the end we will still be cyclic
And the order needs to be a prime, not 8
In the same way that groups arise as symmetries of sets, rings arise as endomorphisms of abelian groups.
In particular if A is an abelian group, then End(A) (the set of homomorphisms from A to itself) is a ring where the multiplication is composition.
Just as in Cayley's theorem you always get a ring homomorphism R -> End(R).
The analog for a group action by a ring is what one calls a module and they show up everywhere.
The other day we thought about this for quite some time, but we couldnt find a way other than looking at $\phi: G \to \text{Sym}(X)$ which I dont really want: \[10pt] Let $G = \langle a, b\rangle$ be a group with $\text{ord}(a) = 7$ and $\text{ord}(b) = 11$. Let $\phi: G \times X \to X$ be a group action and $|X| = 8$. Show that $\phi$ cant be transitive.
ILikeMathematics
The problem is that we can only say 77 | |G| but not |G| = 77
and why do i care about the endomorphisms of abelian groups? why abelian groups specifically?
I often hear that rings are the study of "what's a number" or what behaves like a number and its properties
but that's not clear because N is not a ring, and the definition of a ring doesn't encompass all the properties of Z
what should I be looking for intuition-wise? and why do we care about this specific definition of a ring
Thank you!
Idk I would say numbers are a good thing to think about
N isn't a ring, but when you work with natural numbers you want to do subtraction so the integers are fairly natural
Rings are pretty broad and you can be interested in them for various reasons.
It is true that Z, Z/nZ and number rings that appear in algebraic number theory are all rings, so rings are very much a generalization of numbers. But they can do more than that.
I think the insight comes from linear algebra, where it was realized that systems of equations correspond to homomorphisms of vector spaces, and these do form a ring (the ring of nxn matrices).
Zzz
Any ideas?
really just the best intuition is to write down a bunch of examples and abstract their common properties
this is how most algebraic structures come about
I want to prove that for $n \geq 2$, $[S_n, S_n] = A_n$ (the commutator group). We know that $$A_n \unlhd S_n \quad \text{with} \quad [S_n : A_n] = 2$$ and that $N = [G, G]$ is the smallest normal subgroup of $G$ so that $G/N$ is abelian. Can we use these?
ILikeMathematics
Historically what was the motivation that made us reach the current definition?
Also the ring of nxn matrices has a unity, so it is not clear how we got to the standard definition without the unity?
group theory is the study of symmetries and that's clear. every symmetry is a group and every group is some symmetry, and we need exactly the group axioms for this no more and no less. Is there is something similar for ring theory
ring theory is the study of {something}. every {something} is a ring and every ring is {something} and we need exactly the ring axioms for this no more and no less
The standard definition has unity.
Every ring is the endomorphism ring of a module, it is just a linear version of symmetries really
The way you get the definition without unity, is just taking the standard definition and dropping unity.
People relax axioms of things all the time. Not to characterize some specific thing, but because they only use the axioms they need to prove the theorems they want
Thank you very much
So ring theory is the study of "linear symmetries," right?
Also another question if you would let me. If that's the intuition behind ring theory, what is the intuition behind commutative algebra. I know that it is a subset of ring theory, but why do we specifically care about commutative rings?
So commutative algebra is motivated a little differently. It's two main applications would be in number theory (so this is very much the generalization of numbers type thing), and the other in geometry. If you have some space X then the set of (continuous/smooth/whatever) functions to R or C forms a ring, and ring properties here encode geometric properties which then motivates commutative algebra
well clearly since S_n/A_n is abelian, then A_n contains the commutator subgroup
now you have to show that S_n doesn't have a larger abelian quotient
I don't understand the geometry part of your answer.
Also if commutative algebra is motivated by number theory and geometry in the same time then what are these 2 fields have in common that commutative algebra studies?
I really liked the answer you gave for ring theory being the linear version of symmetries. Is there a similar answer for commutative algebra
modern algebraic geometry is the answer
it encapsulates both classical algebraic geometry and number theory
so what's commutative algebra? 😅
what is it studying? I think it is different from modern algebraic geometry
it's not
modern algebraic geometry and commutative algebra are almost the same
there are some major differences
but classical algebraic geometry is very different
while modern algebraic geometry is very deeply connected to commutative algebra
commutative algebra is about commutative rings and their modules
but that´s very intertwined with modern algebraic geometry which is, well, about mostly the same but viewed through the lense of geometry
Right. Why is S_n/A_n abelian though?
order 2
yes but why do i care about these rings and these modules specifically?
What is the deep structure that commutativity resembles?
what are "commutative linear symmetries" exactly in that intuition
Ah, right
They’re friends :)
in classical algebraic geometry, you have an alg closed field k (which I hopefully shouldn't have to motivate why we care about these), and consider subsets of k^n which are solutions to systems of polynomial equations. Between these sets one may look at functions which are restricted polynomial functions. It turns out that looking at this collection of sets and functions is essentially the same as looking at the collection of finitely generated commutative reduced k-algebras and k-algebra homomorphisms
Classical algebraic geometry is algebraic geometry which isn't derived/spectral etc
rings generalize simultaneously number systems, functions, and linear operators
on a higher level, commutativity is important because it allows you to have localisation, and this in turn allows you to extend the above fact to arbitrary commutative rings
which happens to include a lot of things we care about
there is a bit of a mystery why commutative is so relevant
in some sense commutative seems to correspond to geometry
Assume it does and S_n/N is abelian with A_n c N. Then N must contain an element with sign -1. I feel like that will help in some way
or rather "classical" geometry
funny, this is essentially my current research project
okay I expressed myself incorrectly
this is because if you have some sort of geometric space, the functions on the space will form a commutative ring
(on a more general scale, of course)
R is commutative
(functions being real or complex or values in some field)
It's not An subset in N
sniped
you want the opposite, i.e. N c A_n
Oh
lexi
especially if you dont have the order of the extension to begin with
yeah when I said larger quotient I meant smalled subgroup haha
Ur a small subgroup
Assume it does and S_n/N is abelian with N c A_n. Then, since S_n/A_n c S_n/N, we have |S_n/N| >= 3
I think i will go with the intuition that commutative linear symmetries are numbers instead 😅
i didn't study algebraic geometry yet so i will be lost. I just hoped to find a motivation for commutative algebra which i am studying now like how "what's area" motivates measure theory, and that motivation helped me study measure theory really well so i wanted to do the same with commutative algebra and ring theory
the "linear symmetries" for ring theory really clicked with me and i liked it. I feel that numbers with commutative algebra is ok, but it doesn't tell me why these matter in geometry so idrk if i can have a simple motivation like "what's area" for that without needing prerequisites i don't have
i would be actually interested in reading such a research
well, it has a prerequisite of universal algebra
I don't know if you've ever heard of that?
i heard of it yes, but didn't study it
i just know that it studies what structures can exist
Linear symmetries for ring theory?
^
Commutative algebra is pretty dry on its own, that's usually why people recommending studying it at the same time as studying algebraic geometry or algebraic number theory
this would make me ask what's the fundamental problem of algebraic number theory or [modern] algebraic geometry
yeah, you study algebraic structures (over sets) in their generality, and in particular you try to say something about exactly what properties cause these classes of algebraic structures to behave the way they do
that's really interesting, I might consider studying it in the future
before that rings and module needed i believe
Yeah of course
I think it's really cool, though not as popular nowadays
to great sadness and despair
practice final was revealed 
Eh? Any module gives rise to an endomorphism ring, but the only canonical way(that I can thikn of) of getting R as the endomorphism ring of a S-module M is to take M=R and R=S
Which is completely circular. (R-)linearity requires the ring structure of R
I mean, that's the only canonical way to make G the symmetry group of something as well
The question is more what concept is it rings capture, and they are the things that act on modules.
Sure but saying "groups are the collections of symmetries of groups" is pretty silly. Z and its extensions and k-linear endomorphisms give a rich class of structures motivating the ring axioms, I agree there.
Do people try to discover what groups are realisable as class ideal groups over a number field like they do Galois groups?
Over Q, I mean.
It seems people do
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/252313/is-every-group-an-ideal-class-group-of-a-number-field
It's certainly not true that S_n/A_n is a subset or subgroup of S_n/N.
Am I stupid or is S_n/A_n not just Z/2Z lol
You can define an embedding S_n/A_n->S_n/N but you should be careful with using "subset" loosely in these kinds of settings
Yes but I meant as sets
Ok
My point is like embedding Z/2Z into something is just picking an involution so it’s pretty damn arbitrary
Which I guess is also your point
Is a better intuition of associative structures string manipulation or function composition
(Ik how to prove that these are the same)
Or do you have smthing better than both
I think both are good. Why pick just one?
Like let us say i want to think about associative magmas with a single sided unit, I find that the function viewpoint gives me much more information, but is more difficult to think about, so was wondering if the same applies to other things as well, maybe there is something which combines the simplicity of string manip and the information of function?
In particular the function viewpoint told me associative structures with a single sided unit is just the same as a associative structure with a unit, but with classes of objects for each object in the structure with a full unit
The string manip told me nothing special.
If you need something simpler than the function viewpoint why not just ignore it when you don’t want to think about it
I don't need something simpler, just wanted to know if there was any such thing.
Because just right now, I was doing that famous exercise about showing that left inverse and left identity and associativity is enough to guarantee group.
I'm not sure what you mean here. You can cook up collections of functions where you only have one sided unit
For example take the set of constant functions. Then every element is a right unit.
Every associative operation can be realized as some set of functions under composition in fact
Because if * is a binary operation then
f(y) = x*y
is a function.
And associative is saying exactly that composing two such function is the same as using the operation:
composition of functions applied to z = (x * (y * z) ) = (x * y) * z
fundamentally, these are the same thing
string manipulation, as you call it, is simply function composition when you cant assume any relations between the functions
if you extend this to functions between multiple objects you get the idea of paths in a directed graph (i.e. free category)
Ik how to prove that
Ik how to prove that, i am just saying which is a better intuition
^
Ik that, but same thing doesn't mean same intuition
neither is better
Then I don't understand what you mean by function composition telling you that one sided unit implies unit.
thats also not true
Indeed, hence my confusion
the operation xy = x is associative and every element is a right-unit
Exactly the example I gave
oh
i may have neglected to read
more intuitions is better than less
that too
Can anyone help me understand the process around Wilson's theorem? I just keep getting it wrong...
I know that by definition (p-1)! = -1 (mod p) iff p is prime.
Example: Find a remainder of $(1001!\cdot 994!)^{19961} (mod 1997)$ if we know 1997 is prime.
So, 1997 = p
1996! = -1 (mod 1997)
The issue begins when I need to manipulate the original number.
dan
1996 = 1001! * 1002...1996
but how exactly do I transform those 'free' digits into 994!
am I even supposed to ask here or this falls more into elementary number theory?
this seems more number theory
hm, apparently you can use sylow lol
ah like write 1002 as -995
and so on
we didn't study Sylow on this course
this gives that 1002\times \dots \times 1996 \equiv - 995!
ahh I see
but how did you get to that arithmetic?
this is very tricky for me
did you just 1997 (modulo number) - 1002
see you have 1002 which is like very big so you reduce it mod 1997
🥲
and then (-1)^994 or whatever is the number
yes
its like -1^995 right?
yes
that's tricky
because how did you count there being 995 or 994 operations between 1997 and 1001 or 1002?
that's the confusing part for me
not really obs we get -1 from 995 to 1 and from odd to odd there are always odd number of number so the prod is -1
see 1002 corresponds to -995 right
and 1996 correponds to -1
well yeah, -(1997 - 1002) = -995 I guess