#groups-rings-fields
1 messages Ā· Page 390 of 1
the easiest way is to use lang's algebra ofc
so you can always refer back to Sn and Cn
ANOTHER BAD BOOK?
man he touches the snake lemma in his rings (+modules) chapter it's so funny
Cuz linear algebra done rong
fun fact: linear algebra done right is actually done wrong
tbf lang does that too
ladw is pretty bad imo
lang is an incel idk
slander
me when i open the jar of shit and it has shit in it
literally the title of the book
Lang is just pretentious ass
for linear algebra you should use roman 
well lecture notes imo will usually not beat a textbook
ladr is a lot easier to read and a lot better written (again, in my experience)
lang is ragebait
this line is taken from that one picture huh
roman looks good but maybe as a Third course in linalg loooool
ladr is written with love, ladw with spite
yea that was meant as a joke
you must read a book that makes you hate life
i'd read it if i had time
more seriously maybe FIS or greub if you want something harder
nope, ladr
if youve already learned about determinants and rref ladr is the Next logical book, fis as well but i think parts of fis are confusing
-10000 social credits

Oh that is okay I guess
As a second book
ladr in his preface says it's intended as a second course
but i read it as a first course and supplemented with another book
its not ok to do a second course in linear algebra
linear algebra is meant to be at most one course
Meanwhile here we do 3 courses of linear algebra and we don't even cover quotient spaces
linear algebra must be learned linearly, obviously. never double back on it
yep abstract algebra is the second course and functional analysis is theThirdCourse
the second course is just homological algebra
my condolences

i like how herstein gives you determinants after putting you through just about every possible theorem you can prove without matrices
It's hilarious how bad are the linear algebra courses
just learn linear algebra from an abstract algebra textbook
artin ,
he assumes everything is finite dimensional too so idk what the point is
A cohomological approach to linear algebra
van der waerden
only understood vector spaces after reading about field extensions so this is true
you are strange
work with vector spaces as modules over fields
Working with modules with poor linear algebra background is a great way to burnout
how much lin alg do you really need tho
lin alg background is propaganda just go straight into aa twin ā¤ļøāš©¹
real
meanwhile I am starting commutative algebra without actually doing linear algebra properly
FR
unironically did this
what is commutative algebra btw
It's okay I've been there and it was a bad idea
commutative rings
algebra which is commutative
pre-geometry
ok idk ring theory so i guess idk if ill like it yet!
whats the point in learning 10 axioms for a vector space when you can just make them an abelian group with extra structure
Ring theory fight of people complaining about whether to add 1 or not
thats just stating the axioms in a nicer way lol
yeah
rng moment
genuinely anyone who doesnt assume unital is a masochsit
Yes so basically the analysis department
are textbook writers allergic to the word rng or something
idk i think its a lot nicer when you can relate subspaces to subgroups, quotient spaces to quotient groups, linear maps to homomorphism, null spaces to kernel
the same department that uses N={1,2,..} and N_0 for {0,1,..}
it was very fun when i made those connections š
why learn specialized abelian groups before you learn about groups in general
why learn about groups when you can learn about inverse semigroups
The road from "yeah bro rank nullity theorem" to "everything is just first isomorphism theorem wow"
instead of N_0 i use boldface W
(ragebait)
lie theorists when the truth theorists walk in
Point and laugh
hello
truth theorists when tarski theorists walk in
true (i think anything weaker than a group is too general for most contexts)
who started the self reacting trend
manifolds
idk
nGroupoid
?
:chad:
manifolds are topological spaces compatible with a suitable pseudogroup of transformations
i.e.

an inverse semigroup
sounds like a lie ngl
pseudogroup?
I wish it was
algebraists have gone too far
too good to be true
*category theorists
how much homological algebra did you have to do to reach this point
enough to reach this point
*asylum residents
mac lane does this notion as an example in his book on sheave
Yes.
LEGENDARY introduction
least funny mathematician
how did ts get accepted with these grammatical errors
some people use question marks like commas
the aura was blinding
Craziest thing I "learned" so far is something called automorphic cohomology
fire intro to some lecture slides i saw
field theory is an agricultural studies course
is there cohomological automorphy
tfw Galois theory has a great lore
facts
why is algebraic geometry have a channel if it's only 7 pages worth of theory
hermann weyl never read yaoi
LMAO?
1pt font megamarathon in those 7 pages btw
lemme skim it
lang speaks of this
I should sleep
you probably should too
algebra lore

Algebraic geometers hype the field a lot but when they get asked what's all the fuss about they draw schizophrenic diagrams
half the reason i care about galois theory is because i like galois himself
(I am one of them)
I would like to see you saying that in nG's face
real
so basically his killer robbed us of multiple years of mathematical progression

there will probably be something like
before admitting
I dont think he will agree tho, he will find a reason which no body in the chat understands except him
tfw Galois was smart enough to cook up some great math but not as strong to win a duel š„
"secret opencry" closedcry
the bullet induced an automorphism called death
that fixed the body
galois should have read his findings to his duellist so then he would have been confused, giving galois an opening to shoot
so if the field extension is the body what is the field
See that's why I go to gym cuz if I ever get the opportunity to be in a duel I'd win
the field extension is his general being
the body is the field
BANGš„BANGš„BANGš„BANGš„BANGš„BANGš„BANGš„BANGš„ *reload* BANGš„BANGš„BANGš„BANGš„BANGš„
mb
how many fields are there?
š¾
As many as you want
the bullet was transcendental over the ground field
leading to a countable-degree extension into the afterlife
rip
now add the word medalists, the question becomes how many fields medalists are there? Suddenly the answer is : very little
How does it imply F_p(\alpha) contains F_p^n?
Just buy one at your local store
just glancing at it, but maybe something with the frobenius endomorphism
i think there's something to do with fermat's little theorem? i dont remember
(alpha + a) - alpha = a
But I have to show alpha +a in F_p(\alpha)
I think F_p(\alpha) already normal extension
So all roots of given polynomial will be there
And i assumed given polynomial irreducible
Right?
trying to make a diagram of the 3rd iso thm and idrk how well this gets the point across
Then I don't get why I need a second hint? Because from first hint I can conclude n divides p^n
doesnt group have a zero object
Yeah but for groups itās usually denoted 1 instead of 0
idk, i've always written 1 := {1}
this vexes me
And itās technically not a zero object
Since Grp is not an abelian category
Itās just the initial and terminal object
just trying to motivate it for myself since the typical statement of it was really dry on my first reading
The way I like to think about it is naively dividing is actually a correct isomorphism
Quotient groups are just fractions
yeah
(A/B) \times B \cong A š
truke
Oh no, I need more information
when A is a projective module yes
sick
commutators r so hot 
Ah, i don't see how to show the second hint?
i should try to prove this
not true in general unfortunately
only for exact sequences that split
$(A/B) \ltimes B \cong A$ ?
lexi
imagine the times symbol is pointed the right way idr
Z/4Z is a counterexample
with Z/2Z
we must be able to split
for example
when calculating the automorphism group of the heisenberg group over a finite field
you can get a split sequence from the inner automorphism group
I am dumb 
would the corresponding exact sequence look like this
x->p*x gives the desired automorphism
awesome
in abelian categories replace semidirect with direct sum
Sorry, is it x -> px?
i see
are there any other definitions of group operations on G/N that would be useful besides ones that make the canonical map a surjective homomorphism with kernel N
the quotient group is also nice because the operation is the 'same' as G, it's just being done between cosets of N, where the normality of N ensures this operation is well-defined and results in a group
yep
G/N is a set so you can put whatever operation you want on it but... why?
just wondering if theres any other definition for a group operation on G/N besides the most common one
well that's what i'm asking, is there any other common op
the structure we give G/N has a bit of category theory behind it as well, being the quotient in the category of groups
im sure there's something but especially considering the definition of a normal subgroup is introduced precisely so that quotient groups are well-defined under their canonical operation
i can't see anything else that would be particularly useful
not really
quotient groups are useful precisely because they satisfy a suitable universal property
no what are you smoking
in general you can consider extensions E of A by B, that is short exact sequences of groups 0->B->E->A->0. Equivalence classes of such extensions are classified by the group Ext^1(A,B), and the semidirect product E=B\rtimes A=A\ltimes B is the zero element of this Ext group
not every extension is a semidirect product and not every semidirect product is a product
i kinda dont wanna read another book for LA, is the linear algebra in aluffi's book enough as a "first undergrad level math course of LA"
(id assume this channel is best place to ask)
what is this even meant to mean LOL
for more context its part of the quotient groups section and we have defined coset multiplication to be like (aN)(bN) = (ab)N
ty
too tired to understand this rn tbh maybe best if i sleep
finally got to this though :3
Probably just showing that the cosets partition G and maybe it wants you to think about how abN isnt just aN or bN, what would happen if it intersected either? cosets that intersect are identical, what does that say
i noticed the lines in \bar{a}, \bar{b}, \bar{ab} very recently
but why arent they overlapping in the same space
i know this already
all cosets are disjoint
yes i know
im asking why the coset for ab isnt overlapping with the coset for a and b
wait
ah never mind
the composition makes them equal**
yeah i see
ok yea i get it, i understood when i saw the lines lop
ty both
never ask artin to draw anything ever again
Does anyone have a playlist or something they recommend for a first course on group theory? The book Iām following is called abstract algebra
i incorrectly applied the abelian category statement of splitting to groups
Thanks so much!!
this isn't true in Abelian categories either
Amazinggg
lots of books are titled abstract algebra better tell the authors name
doesnt the splitting lemma give an exact sequence backwards when any of the morphisms split
i thought they just redrew the arrows backward
but not parallel for whatever reason
$\begin{tikzcd} 0 \arrow[r] & A \arrow[r] & E \arrow[r] & B \arrow[r] \arrow[l,shift right] & 0 \end{tikzcd}$
nGroupoid
yes
fiber bundle with a global section š¤Æ
me when I mix analogies out of confusion
is there such a thing as a "projective group"?
what do you mean by projective here
like projective module
every short exact sequence with the group in the middle splits
sure this definition makes sense
Grp isn't Abelian but you don't quite need all this structure to talk about projective objects
Grp feels almost abelian for some reason
yeah they very nearly are
Grp is an exact category
and an abelian category is precisely an exact additive category
it's more than just exact
it's regular exact protomodular
this is enough to get most of the usual homological algebra proofs to make sense
thats quite nice
there are still some painful issues though
i wonder how much stuff one can squeeze out
is there an analog of freyd-mitchell or something for such nice categories
there is a book by Borceux and Bourn (Mal'cev, protomodular, homological and semi-abelian categories) that squeezes everything out that you can
no not really
I don't get why N(r) can't just be N(d) here, why must it be 0
one really painful issue with groups compared to Abelian groups is that non-Abelian group cohomology is a complete mess
like it's fine for H^1 and barely okay for H^2
The definition of a euclidean valuation is that N(r) < N(d) or r = 0
i lowk dont know anything about group cohomology
is it at all related to galois cohomology
yes Galois cohomology is a special case of this in a certain sense
r must be zero by minimality of N(d)
:trollface:
Galois cohomology is group cohomology for absolute Galois groups
Not just N(r), r itself must be zero
in general it's a bit subtle to get continuous group cohomology to work nicely but for profinite groups it's relatively straightforward
in general topological spaces are just the wrong approach for trying to define algebraic constructions like this, thankfully we know better these days
either way it's nice to know some low degree group (co)homology these things tend to come up a lot
like Ext^1 classifying extensions is a hugely useful construction
also H^2(G,A) classifies central extensions of G by A
dude profinite spaces covering regular old spaces is my favourite thing you've shown me

i suppose this is the universe telling me i should learn group cohomology/whatever context it appears in
especially if you know what the words Galois cohomology mean
if you like number theory then one huge payoff is beng able to learn class field theory
those proofs are mostly cohomological in nature
i remember hearing that kummer theory is motivated by number theory too
i should probably learn some basic number theory lol
yeah Kummer theory is another great example of how Galois cohomology controls things in number theory
another fun example is how H^2(Gal(\bar{F}/F),Z/2Z) classifies quaternion algebras over F
number theory sounds like the trenches
Br(F)=H^2(Gal(\bar{F}/F),G_m) classifies central simple algebras over F more generally
it's really nice once you learn enough machinery
i hope that i can learn the machinery before the brain melts
especially once you learn enough geometric techniques and analogies
loads of tight analogies between number fields and 3-manifolds once you have the cohomological machinery
why does cohomology appear everywhere
same reason why linear algebra appears everywhere
ah
to understand very nonlinear geometric things we often have to linearize them and study invariants which capture the geometry without being too hard to compute
well ig its time to read a course in arithmetic
there are lots of local-global phenomena in maths and cohomology "measures" how nice local things may fail to fit together globally
that's the way I see it, roughly
yes that's another nice justification for cohomological and sheaf theoretic methods
like part of why these things appear in number theory so often is precisely because of these local to global problems in arithmetic
have you seen de rham or singular cohomology @novel star?
yes
both
trying to solve something all at once about global arithmetic over Q or Z is often too hard, usually you need to study what happens locally over Q_p and R first, and then try to understand how the local informaton glues back to global information
someday i want to understand this
the local to global step is where all the actual deep number theory is contained, in the form of reciprocity laws
have you seen habiro cohomology? lmao
most unhinged example to name
lol
that kinda reminds me of a problem i saw in lang
and the problem was to prove this result in the rationals
really funny how you can quickly get used to insane stuff like continuous THH over KU around this Habiro story, but the fundamental challenge of just like, solving q-difference equations, never really goes away
Lang
yes
I'm a bit unsure of how to do this
every element of D^{-1}R can be generated by the genertor of R and the some, is it not
The elements of D^-1R can be seen as fractions a/b. For a given ideal of D^-1R what can you say about the set of numerators of the elements in that ideal
they come from all of R?
It's a subset of R yes
Anything else we can say?
they all are generated by one element
Well, what I was looking for was that it was an ideal
sure, it is
But that means it's generated by a single element r yes.
So then the question becomes what's the ideal in D^-1R generated by r?
I'm unsure
Well in general if you have a ring S and an element r in S, what is the ideal generated by r?
S?
So you're saying the ideal generated by 2 in Z is all of Z for example?
${ \sum s_irh_i \mid s_i,h_i \in R}$
wai
And if we're in a commutative ring we might simplify this a bit
${\sum s_i r; s_i \in R}$
Can even simplify it a little more
wai
huh?
Multiplication is distributive
so ${ar \mid a \in R}$
wai
So then the ideal generated by r in D^-R would be things off the form ar/b
How would this ideal be related to the original ideal?
would be a principal ideal of it
oh 𤦠I thought I had to show D^{-1} R is principal ( that is generated by one elment)
which made no sense
TYSM!
this shows it's a PID yeah
so sorry š
if F is a field contained in the ring of n \times n matrices over Q then i don't get how F can be vector space over Q?
This field is characteristic 0. The result follows
so it contains isomorphic copy of Q
so scalar multiplication defined as qA as qI \times A
Not necessarily
Only if I is the multiplicative identity of the field

For example you can have Q embed in 2x2 matrices via (q, 0; 0, 0)
Then while multiplication by qI and q(1, 0; 0, 0) look the same, technically the latter is how multiplication by q āshouldā be defined
I guess contains a field should mean that it has the field as a subring. Otherwise I guess there's no point for it to have the same multiplication either
then how do I show [F: Q] <= n, any hint?
maybe characteristic polynomial helps here
so degree of char polynomial is n
so degree of minimal polynomial of A <= n
right?
For part a, I am trying to use the given hypothesis that K/F is Galois extension that's means the corresponding subgroup H in Gal(closure L/ F) is normal .
And if G is the Galois group of closure L/F, let's say q is the distinct prime divisor of |G|.
Now I am trying to make subgroup H' such that H \subset H' and [G:H'] has prime divisor q.
Yeah, so with the primitive element theorem you can show F/Q is a simple extension and then this argument works.
What is the problem if I don't use the primitive element theorem?
Well, what even is the argument without F being simple?
Like what is A?
Any hint ?
Something useful is that L'/K will also be Galois where L' is a conjugate of L inside the Galois closure
Conjugate of L means?
g(L) where g is a Galois automorphism
did i overcomplicate this problem? should i have just found a counter example
Your proofās logic isnāt really sound
Your proof technically goes backwards, you need to start from the last line and then conclude that k(m/n) + l(p/q) = 0, youāve essentially worked the other way around. Every step is reversible so itās okay, but you either need to state that, or even more preferable once youāve brought m,n,p,q into existence you start off by saying you pick l and k such that this holds and then derive that the thin is 0
oh interesting
Like just read the line Then:
k(m/n) + l(p/q) = 0.
What? k and l donāt exist yet, what does this mean?
You need to either bring them into existence first or say that youāre searching for such a k and l
Okay yes sorry but
If you say let k,l then this is a universal quantification, a for all
true
So what youāre stating there is that this holds for arbitrary k and l
that makes sense
so should i start off with k = -l then?
then reverse the steps?
so that automorphism fixed K?
i probably should just do a counterexample instead of that proof
Fixes F, but it will satisfy g(K) = K
(since K is normal)
so i have to show L' is splitting field of some polynomial over K
so L is already splitting field of f over K
This wonāt work
oki
I mean it literally wonāt make the equation true
yea
then for automorphism g L' will be splitting field of g(f) over K
is it correct jagr?
I donāt think a counterexample proof will work though
At least if you try to do it in the way I think
The quantification of property 2 you tried to disprove doesnāt allow it

Also to disprove this, after you contradict property 2 you still have to argue that Q isnāt a free group on a single generator
Because your disproof will require the existence of more than a single generator
i shall come back to this problem later then
I don't get how this helps me here
If $f: R \to S$ is a surjective ring homomorphism, then $$I \mapsto f^{-1}(I)$$ defines a bijection $${\text{ideals of $S$}} \to {\text{ideals $J$ of $R$ with $\ker(f) \subseteq J$}}.$$ Now apparently from this follows that with the canonical projection $p_I : R \to R/I$ we get $${\text{ideals $J$ of $R$ with $I \subseteq J$}} \to {\text{ideals of $R/I$}}.$$ But why? $p_I$ is the surjective homomorphism, so shouldnt it be in the other direction?
ILikeMathematics
Sorry i don't get your question
Next you may want to compare Gal(L/K) to Gal(L'/K)
Bijections go in both directions
I think both have the same cardinality
That's right. So they are both p-groups.
Yes
Lastly you might want to think about the map
Gal(closure L / K) to product of all the Gal(L' / K)
I think there is a relation between Gal(LL'/L) and and Gal(L'/K)
I see
So it is injective mapping
Because one product is Gal(L/K)
Wait
I got the map but I am trying to find the kernel
So g is in the kernel iff g is identity on each L'
And where I will use K/F is Galois extension?
Oh, I was taking the actual map instead of f for the kernel accidentally. Then yes it works out, thanks
I mean we've already used that for L'/K being galois
Oh yes K is normal
So what I think is, closure L is a closure of L over F, so if L = F(a_1,..,a_n) then closure L' = F(b1,...,b_m) b_i's are the conjugates of a_j's.
So for each b_i, there exists automorphism such that a_j -> b_i, for appropriate j.
Hence if g is identity on each L' then it implies g is identity on closure L, because if g is identity on each b_i then g is identity on closure L.
Is it correct?
i see
b), if F = Q and K = Q(ā3), L = K and closure L = Q(ā3, i), so K/F has degree 2, L/K has degree 1 but closure L /F has degree 6.
Is it correct?
Thank you jagr
I know an alternate method: this is not a simple extension , but a finite extension, so we will get infinitely many intermediate fields. So I know the existence of infinitely many intermediate fields. But the question demands for an explicit representation of the intermediate subfields. Hint?
Well you could pore into the proof of why a field extension with finitely many intermediary subfields is simple and from there realize an algorithm to do such a thing
I think doing this will give you enough information to figure this one out
can you characterize a ring via its ideals
Wdym?
it seems like you can tell a lot about a ring via which sets are ideals and which arenāt
you have a certain lattice of ideals as well
just not always enough to stop different rings from pretending to be the same
ah
Tho I mean also
You always have R as a trivial ideal
So I'm not sure what kind of answer you want a priori
I think they mean given the lattice of ideals can you reconstruct the ring
This is already a non-starter because of fields
Well sure any simple ring
But fields are an example where even if you look at left and right ideals you don't get new information
Unlike M_n(F)
Since the Galois group of cyclotomic field over Q is abelian group therefore every subextension should be normal but this extension is not normal therefore it can't be subfield of cyclotomic field.
Right?
That works
Any hint?
You know what the Galois group.
$$\text{Tr}(\xi_{n})=\sum_{g\in G} g\xi_{n}$$
Calisto
if n=1 then $\xi_{1}=1$
Calisto
The galois group is trivial and so you have it by default
is this because the shift map is injective but not surjective
like you can just choose $(l \circ s)(n) = n$ by
$$l(k) = \begin{cases} k - 1 & k \ge 2 \\ \text{anything} & k = 1 \end{cases}$$
because of the fact that 1 has no preimage in s
Altanis
The only possible surjection that would make this works leaves the codomain
f(n)=n-1 would be the natural choice
What book is this?
artin still
...
why?
It's so over
idgi
actually yeah this is sufficient. Every surjection has a right inverse
I believe that is a necessary and sufficient condition
but michael artin is based so i'll let it slide
in any case it's just defined like that here
i think
i dont think he uses \bN elsewhere unless he specifically makes it clears it's {1, 2, ...}
yeah i had an answer to the question, was just making sure it was due to its lack of surjectivity that it had no right inverse
yeah anyways what you did is good enough i think
cuz its similar to the shift operator on ell^2 or even just matrices/operators that arent injective/dont have full col rank or arent surjective/dont have full rank rank
is there some "algebraic" way im meant to do this or am i supposed to just shove this into the euclidean algorithm
euclidean algorithm
but there is an algebraic way to make sense of GCDs
This is a very important thing to be comfy with
If you look at Z as a ring then you can take the ideal (a,b) and if you find an ideal generated by one element say d such that (a,b) = (d) then d is your gcd
thats interesting
this (a,b) is precisely the linear combination ra+sb
its cool that you can phrase so much elementary number theory in terms of ideals
Number theoryā¦..
Yeah number theory shines when you use tools like this
Otherwise it's just blindly walking at midnight
it kinda feels like ideals are the 'right' way to look at these things
instead of the numbers they can represent
is it..?
yes it is
š¤¢
It comes up a lot in Galois theory proofs for example
what does
Yes they are
i just know the number d s.t. Zd = Za + Zb is the gcd of a and b
and m = lcm(a, b) Zm = Za AND Zb
Like the properties of a field extension depending on whether or not a number divides another number or like even some definitions use gcd
The Euler phi function ends up relating to cylcotomic polys
you can rephrase factorization into subideals
i dont think this book even taught the euclidean algoirhtm yet actually gimme a sec
Historically, ideals were invented to solve a problem that occured when you looked at arbitrary ring of integers
ok it was mentioned but wasnt like given much time**
you can draw a subset lattice and it will be the same as the lattice of factors which is really cool
The issue is that UFD is not always guaranteed so the way to go about this is to introduce ideals
i have no idea what any of this is So i feel like if the euclidean algorithm is important fo rfuture topics it'll just get re-emphasized
maybe computational wise it's kinda pointless sure
but know how to do an example
isnt it just dividing the larger number by the smaller number a bunch of times till u get no remainder
pretty much yeah
321 / 123 = 2 r 75
123/75 = 1 r 48
75/48 = ...
...
then you choose the remainder before 0 and thats ur gcd i think
yeah then you terminate and do backwards substitution to get your linear combination
cuz gcd(321, 123) = gcd(75, 48) = ... = gcd(some number, 1)?
or not 1 uhh
just some simple gcd expression
is there an idea of linear independence in modules
oh idk how to do that
i should prob check that out lol
ah ok i see
is there anything you learn in elementary number theory that you don't in group/ring theory
some niche things
also i realized you can phrase $\operatorname{lcm}(a, b)$ as $(a) \cap (b)$
lexi
for the most part you can learn about 80% and that's more than enough
like what?
continued fractions
ah
This one is niche in the sense that you don't really see it in group/ring books
But it's very important
yeah it sounds important
Yes, it is the exact same definition
It just no longer enjoys some of the nice properties you see in linear algebra
can you talk about a module having a "basis"
No, not in general
Because maximally linearly independent and minimally spanning are no longer equivalent conditions
i think theres a term called free module for modules that have bases?
idk if that's relevant tho
It works in that case, yes
oh i see
I'd say learning it from an elementary number theory book is not the best way to get a good insight on it
it'll just feel like random result
e.g. {(0,2), (2,0)} in Z^2 is a maximally Z-linearly independent set but does not span
im trying to understand fundamental thm on finite abelian groups
i want to know the proof because its quite important
You're learning Galois theory correct?
yes
I'd postpone quadratic reciprocity
till you are comfy with it
The natural way to see it is through a bit of galois theory
ik anything in Q[x] with roots in Q has a corresponding polynomial in Z[x] with roots in Q
hmm I can talk about it if you're curious
ok...
This will also be your first example of a representation
ok i see
Okay consider Q(zeta_n)/Q
im up to constructible numbers with galois theory
cyclotomic extension?
lexi
complex numbers?
3 = 321(-18) + 123(47) :D
yes
you can make that isomorphic to $\mathbb T \times \mathbb R$ cant you
lexi
using exponential map
?
$\mathbb C^\times \cong \mathbb T \times \mathbb R$
lexi
where T is circle group
sure but this won't really help here
ok

we know this group is abelian
ok the group is {1, 3} so its isomorphic to C2
yes and where can you send 1?
1 is the identity of C2 so it has to go to 1 in C
right and how about 3?
and 3 is of order 2 so we need to find an order 2 element of C
which must be -1
so its {1, -1}
okay you have the interesting homomorphism
theres also {1}
you can also take everything to 1 right
you can always do that
yes so in total we have 2
ok...
extend what to the integers? the starting group?
yes
well 0 has to map to 1
and then i pick wherever 1 goes to and that determines how the rest of the group maps
hmm what i'm trying to consider is the following: chi(a+m) = chi(a) where m is the modulus here
but the members of any group are in bijection with maps in $\operatorname{Hom}(\mathbb Z, G)$
oh
lexi
im not sure what you mean
what's the modulus
it's 4 in this case
yes
so this map has to have a "period" of n?
so what we did so far is we defined a function chi: Z->C which is multiplicative and periodic with period m
yes
exactly
also by how we started chi(a)=0 iff gcd(a,m)>1 right
multiplicative? like $\chi(ab) = \chi(a) \chi(b)$
lexi
yes
woah
if gcd(a, m) > 1 then a is not in (Z/nZ)^x
do we?
yes exactly
how do we know we have phi(n) of these
I'll let you think about this
the group doesnt necessarily have a single generator to use
but maybe the periodicity puts a restriction?
oh that's the confusion i see
how would I do this?( without assumung its ab/(a,b) and proving that is it)
ok
I suppose contradiiction would work here?
Suppose $a \mid m; b \mid m$ and $l \nmid m$ So $m= lp+r$ , not sure what to do beyond this though
wai
i have no idea how to show this
I suspect minimality somwhere
i feel dumb
are we okay with the fact that any homo from Z/nZ -> C^x is determined by where the generator goes?
yes
okay
for the additive group
so you decompose G into cyclic factors
we are assuming fundamental thm on finite abelian groups?
or wait a minute
do we need that
you technically can do it without it
if $a \in G$ has $a^n = 1$, then so does $\chi(a)$
lexi
so everything has to map to some root of unity
yes
$\mathbb C^\times$ doesn't have any finite subgroups with elements outside the unit circle does it
lexi
lexi
as well
yeah
yeah you're just mapping things to S^1
what I wanted to touch upon is quadratic residues
so a such that x^2 = a mod p
yeah "square roots"
yeah
right so the idea is to use the characters somehow
the homomorphisms to C
yeah but which one exactly
yeah the point is that we take the nontrivial chi such that chi(x)^2 = 1
if g is a generator of (Z/pZ)^x then we can write a = g^k then a is a quadratic residue iff this k is even
and odd otherwise
yeah
oh wait so chi(x) = 1 or chi(x) = -1
yeah
in (Z/4Z)^x we have
the trivial one:
chi(1)=1, chi(3)=1
non trivial one:
chi(1)=1, chi(3)=-1
the second one is called the quadratic character
i see
yeah the first time you see it it's kinda weird and daunting
but let's rewind back to what we did so far
We started with Q(zeta_n)/Q
then considered the galois group
there is an isomorphism from that group to (Z/nZ)^x
then from there we took another map to C^x
so really what you should be thinking is characters of (Z/nZ)^x should be thought as characters of this special galois group
it just means homomorphisms from G -> C^x
oh ok
okay here's the second part of the story
I think it's best explained with a familiar example
i hear it as "trace of matrix" in rep theory
yeah different sources do different things
oh ok
so the point is that this galois group is actually encoding deep arithmetic info for certain ring of integers
now you might ask how so?
for this let's consider Q(i)/Q. The corresponding ring of integers is Z[i] correct?
yes i think so
yeah do you remember my ramblings about primes not being primes?
for example 5 = (2-i)(2+i)
but some stay primes like 3
yes good job
now we consider characters of Gal(Q(zeta_4)/Q)
which is the same as characters of (Z/4Z)^x
but we already talked about these!
okay take the quadratic character which gives chi(1)=1 and chi(3)=-1 as usual
now
5 = (2-i)(2+i) correct?
yes
chi(5) = chi(1) = 1
chi(13) = 1 as well
nice
okay let's check the ones that stay prime and see what we get
for example 3 and 7
what is chi(3) and chi(7)
-1 for both
chi tells us if something is prime or not?
YES
or has unique factorization
no it just tells us whether p is splitting or not
yeah that's the real reason why you should care about quadratic reciprocity
and chi(2) is set to 0?
yeah but do you find it kinda interesting
yup
So I guess another way to look at these things is taking the quotient Z[i]/(p)
yeah and you can check that this is isomorphic to F_p[x]/(x^2+1)
because it doesnt matter what order you take quotients?
is there a theorem for that
i should try proving that :3
rewrite Z[i] as Z[x]/(x^2+1) and you go from there
but the thing to note here is that this boils down to understanding what happens to F_p[x]/(x^2+1) for every prime p
this is basically the question x^2 = -1 mod p
so when is -1 a quadratic residue mod p!
oh right x^2 + 1 often splits over prime fields
hmm
so we're just asking if $x^2 - a$ splits over $\mathbb F_p$
lexi
yes and that is what you might do in elementary number theory
In number theory, the Legendre symbol is a function of
a
{\displaystyle a}
and
p
{\displaystyle p}
defined as
ā¦
this legendre symbol is the quadratic character
so in that notation the legendre symbol (-1/p) is the main culprit of our story
were we talking about the dirchlet character
Can I say every infinite subgroup if SL_2(R) has an element of infinite order.
Feels like "yes"
Not a very easy question
i feel like there's something topological you can do here
yeah anyways I just wanted to shed some light into this topic cuz it's very poorly done in elementary number theory
yeah i see
its quite fascinating yes
number theory is cool and i feel like most elementary introductions don't do it justice
from what i can see of what "real number theory" looks like
This is called a universal property, so I imagine it must be somewhat important. Though I don't immediately see how. Where would this be used, normally? Sorry I've only had very minimal exposure to category theory, so idk exactly what is the significance of this universal property (of polynomial rings)
in general one might except similar rules like this for general ring of integers
universal property means it uniquely defines what the polynomial ring looks like
Can't we embed the group of roots of unity inside SLā(ā) as rotation matrices?
How does that help
This is an infinite group and all of its elements are of finite order.
I meant embedding the group generated by e^(2Ļi/k) for integral k
Yes, they were asking for an infinite group
They didn't talk about countability
From whatever I've seen, irrational rotations are not called "roots of unity"
I may be wrong about that though
tfw SL_2(R)/SO(2) = H
Iwasawa decomposition
I got confused š , I foror that it's closed under multiplication from teh ring, not addition
yeah no worries
can you pinpoint exactly the ideal?
write it explicitly
in terms of generators
waow i just realized the nth roots of unity are cyclic subgroups of (C, x) and angles form cosets mod 2pi
H as in half plane or quaternions
(upper) half plane
Altanis
$\inner{z} = \left{\exp(i\frac{2\pi k}{n})\right}{k = 0}^{n - 1}$, so then the product of each root of unity would be
$$\prod{k = 0}^{n - 1} \exp(i\frac{2\pi k}{n}) = \exp(i \frac{2\pi}{n} (0 + 1 + 2 + \dots + (n - 1))) = \exp(i \frac{2\pi}{n} \frac{n(n - 1)}{2})$$
$$= \boxed{\exp(i \pi (n - 1))}.$$

rip
this is ragebait
Altanis
finally
and so all finite subgroups of the multiplicative group C is cyclic, which is cool when i first thought bout it
woah that's cool
?
note that this is either 1 or -1
i believe this is $(-1)^{n+1}$
lexi
oh wait, can we say R[x] is a vector space over R with an infinite basis
wait that's just a module isn't it
nvm
LMAO i just realized
oh thats literally what its called
$e^{i \pi (n - 1)} = (e^{i \pi})^{n - 1} = (-1)^{n - 1}$
Altanis
yep
there is a short group-theoretic proof. let $Z_n=\langle a\rangle$ be the cyclic group of order $n$. the product $1\cdot a^1\cdots a^{n-1}$ reduces to $a^{n/2}$ if $n$ is even; otherwise, it reduces to $1$ if $n$ is odd. in your subgroup of $\mbb{C}^\times$ these are -1 and 1
yeah i was thinking you could pass this through the canonical isomorphism
yep
i mean they're implicitly doing that since the isomorphism is exp...
yep!
inclined to believe that was the idea of the exercise
are you sure you have it the right way around between even/odd
mb it is the other way around lol
bsharp
you get a^(n(n-1)/2) if you multiply all the group elements yes
so then you split into cases dpeending on if n is even or odd
uh leme use paper rq
Altanis
?
where did the a^{-1} term go for n even
you're looking for $a^{(n-1)(n-2)/2}$
bsharp
what
$Z_n=\langle a\rangle={1,a,\cdots,a^{n-1}}$
bsharp
$a^{kn} = 1$
lexi
for any $k \in \mathbb N$
lexi
$a^{(n - 1)(n - 2)/2} = a^{(n-2)/2}a^{n - 1} = a^{n/2 - 1}a^{-1} = a^{n/2}$
Altanis
for n even
wait what no
1 + ... + (n - 1) is n(n-1)/2
,w sum from k = 1 to n - 1 of k
i see
ok for n odd $a^{n(n-1)/2}$, you have integer $n(n-1)/2 \equiv n \pmod n$ so its $1$
Altanis
then for n even we have $a^{n(n-1)/2} = a^{n/2} a^{n-1} = a^{n/2} a^{-1}$
Altanis
many such cases
ok i see
then for n even we have $a^{n(n-1)/2} = a^{(n^2 - n)/2} = a^{n^2/2} a^{-n/2} = (a^{n})^{n/2} a^{-n/2} = a^{-n/2} = a^{n/2}$
Altanis
:D
then a^{n/2} for roots of unity would be the 180deg rotation so -1
very cool ty both
\begin{problem}{Let $a, b \in G$ for some group $G$. Show $|ab| = |ba|$.}
First, suppose $ab$ generates a finite cyclic group, so $|ab| = n$ for some $n \in \bZ^+$ (equivalently, $(ab)^n = 1$). Then note
$$(ba)^n = b(ab)(ab)\cdots(ab)a = b(ab)^{n - 1}a = b(ab)^{-1}a = 1,$$
meaning $|ba| \le n$. Suppose $|ba| = k < n$. Then
$$(ba)^k = b(ab)^{k - 1}a = 1 \implies (ab)^k = 1,$$
but $n$ is the smallest positive integer for which $(ab)^n$, and as such, no such $k$ exists. Thus $|ba| = n$.
Now suppose $ab$ generates an infinite cyclic group, so there is no $k \in \bZ^+$ for which $(ab)^k = 1$. For the sake of contradiction, suppose $ba$ generates a finite cyclic group, and so there is some $\eta \in \bZ^+$ for which $(ba)^\eta = 1$. Then
$$(ba)^\eta = b(ab)(ab)\cdots(ab)a = b(ab)^{\eta - 1}a = 1.$$
Rearranging yields $(ab)^{\eta - 1} = b^{-1}a^{-1} = (ab)^{-1}$, which implies $(ab)^\eta = 1$, which is contradictory. Thus $ba$ generates an infinite cyclic group. In any case, $ab$ and $ba$ generate groups of the same order.
\end{problem}
is this proof OK?
Altanis
i would imagine i dont need to show |ab| = |ba| have the same cardinal assigned to them
cuz artin just said a group is finite order of n or "infinite order" 
time to steal your latex setup

there are Comments. let me fix that