#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 389 of 1
do you know an example of a 2d or higher-dim local ring
but i also came across them before i saw one good use for them and i also thought they were kind of arbitrary for a while so i relate lol
the dimension can really be anything depending on the dimension of your scheme
k[[x1, ..., xn]]
if the dimension of a variety is n then the local ring at a closed point will have dimension n
oh it's that simple huh
the dimension of a local ring is just the codimension of the point
okay yeah because functions can vanish at just that point, or a curve passing through that point, or a surface, or a hypersurface etc.?
makes sense
yeah
also thanks for your answer but it seems like formal definitions as i understand. i am not talking about this
can we aslo say that these concepts focus operations?
more than numbers
(numbers are just example)
they focus structure of operations
wait does that mean rings like C⁰ or C^k on an n-dimensional manifold are n-dimensional
those are infinite dimensional
ah why
i dont remember a good explanation, i guess intuitively there are just way too many choices
i think thats fair to say
what do you mean by ''symmetry'' in this context
yes, essentially its the philosophy "if it behaves like X then we may as well treat it like X"
so in the future if you come across something that behaves like X (i.e. satisfies group axioms, ring axioms or wtv) then you immediately have a big toolkit of stuff to use
for groups, it started with permutations of roots of polynomials, but it later ended being incredibly important in many other fields, like topology
this is only possible because we abstracted to concept of "symmetry"
im a bit confused on this, i imagine we need gauss' lemma, product of primitive polynomials is primitive, but other than that idk
maybe we can set up a euclidean algorithm?
wait no euclidean algorithm doesnt work here
this lemma might work
and since every nonconstant irreducible in D[x] is primitive
i think i have to prove that though even if it says it in my book
Is conjugation specific to the field of complex numbers
No right
Id assume you'd generalize complex conjugate to some form of automorphism over a general field?
The term "complex conjugation" refers specifically to the automorphism of the complex numbers.
More generally for a field extension F/K one says two elements x, y in F are conjugate (over K) if there is an automorphism taking one to the other.
In other settings, like group theory, conjugation (by g) refers to the automorphism
x |-> g x g^-1
Complex conjugation is an automorphism of C that fixes elements of R. More generally, if you have a field extension F/K then you can look at automorphisms of F which fix K, and the group of such automorphisms is called the Galois group of K/F
C/R is a Galois extension and the Galois group is just {identity, complex conjugation}
Interesting ty both
Why is $(G_i \cap H) G_{i - 1} /G_{i - 1} \unlhd G_i/G_{i - 1}$? It's clear that it's a subgroup, but how do we justify quickly that it's a normal one?
ILikeMathematics
Is H a normal subgroup of G?
And we know that (even though its probably not helpful here) $(G_{i - 1} \cap H) \unlhd (G_i \cap H)$
ILikeMathematics
Then isn’t this trivially false
If G_0 = e and G = G_1 = S_3, and H = <(1 2)>, then it doesn’t hold for i = 1
Sorry I shouldve mentioned this, here is the entire context: Let $G$ be solvable and $$1 = G_0 \unlhd G_1 \unlhd \cdots \unlhd G_n = G$$ with $G_i/G_{i - 1}$ abelian, and $H \leq G$. Then [...] and $(G_i \cap H) G_{i - 1} /G_{i - 1} \unlhd G_i/G_{i - 1}$
ILikeMathematics
S_3 isnt abelian
In which case G_{i+1}/G_i is abelian, so any subgroup of it is normal
@rocky cloak kind of unrelated haha but since as if I remember like there was some blackboard/whiteboard/... discussion here a while ago and I didn’t ask: Do you use a chalkboard at home or just paper?
Let $G$ be a solvable group and $N \unlhd G$. Then $G/H$ is also solvable. Can we justify it like this? We know that for $f: G \to H$ a group homomorphism, if $G$ is solvable, then so is $\im(f)$. Now take $$p_H: G \to G/H, \quad g \mapsto g + H.$$ This is surjective and so $\im(f) = G/H$ is solvable.
But why is im(f) solvable? That is true exactly because of this statement
Thats a theorem I have from my book; the proof went solving G and applying f on the chain
Do you have a more elementary proof?
Alright, thanks
Let $N_1 \unlhd N_2$. Then apparently we can find $U_i$ so that $$N_1 = U_1 \unlhd U_2 \unlhd \cdots \unlhd U_n = N_2$$ with $|U_i/U_{i- 1}|$ is prime. Apparently, we can justify this by the first Sylow theorem. But why? Wouldnt that require $U_i$ and $U_{i+ 1}$ to differ only by a prime power
ILikeMathematics
I don't have that kind of space at home, so paper
sorry unrelated but does ipad worth it for study?
i love mine
I don't know about worth it for study, but for doing presentations online / creating lecture notes it's pretty good
So do you guys have ipad or ipad Air?
Probably ipad, because I don't know what ipad air is
It is a different model with better specs
i have ipad pro

I usually use it outside of my desk where i can’t tex up my notes
does every subgroup of order p in group of order p^n is normal?
Note that this would imply every subgroup is normal (so no)
I have to show in S4 there is only one subgroup of order 12 which is A4.
So if there is any other subgroup H of order 12 which is not A4 then H contains exactly 6 elements of A4 and 6 elements of odd permutations which implies H intersection A4 is a subgroup of A4 of order 6 which is not possible.
Is it correct?
Why H contains 6 éléments of A6 ?
Not sure, take Q16
Q16 has just one subgroup of order 2, but Q16/C2 has a few that are not normal (giving rise to subgroups of Q16 that are not normal)
So in general the argument would be:
Let G be a p-group and H a subgroup. Pick N a maximal normal subgroup in H. Then H/N cannot have any elements of order p, so N=H
I proved that in S_n if H contains any odd permutation then H contains exactly the same number of even and odd permutations
If a group G has order pq (p, q - prime), |Z(G)| = 1 and all non-id elems have order p, the book claims that indices of centralizers of all non-id elems must be q then.
Not quite sure why it is true. I reasoned as follows so far:
centralizer is a subgroup, so its order must be 1, p, q, pq. It can't be pq (because then this elem will be in the center and we know that |Z(G)| = 1. It can't be 1, because every element of <x> commutes with all p other elements of <x>
It can still be p or q
The book claims that it is always p, but why can't it be q?
(here I assume that q > p, of course)
p and q odd *
yeah, there is additional assumption that p doesn't divide q-1, so p can't be 2
I additionally thought about this: if |C(x)| > p for some element, that it must commute with elements of other cyclic subgroup, not only with its own
wdym by all non-id elems have order p ? Like we got an element of order q by Cauchy
well, that was an assumption in a proof by contradiction
and it eventually led to contradiction, so right, it can't be true (by Cauchy or otherwise)
but the thing is that I don't understand that particular step in the proof
let me show you the whole thing
"then the centralizer of every nonidentity element has index q" <-- I don't see how this follows
(and how it follows that easily that it doesn't even require any justification)
but right, the proof might be done more easily just saying that we have element of order q by Cauchy
Shouldn't the centralizer be of the form {e} U disjoint union of p-cycles and hence have order 1+k(p-1)?
Stab is a subgroup of G
yes
this is probably related to what I started writing here: "I additionally thought about this: if |C(x)| > p for some element, that it must commute with elements of other cyclic subgroup, not only with its own"
so if it commutes with other cyclic subgroup, then |C(x)| >= p + (p-1). And in general |C(x)| = p + k(p-1) for some k
So the centralizer cannot be of order q, otherwise, there would be an element of order q
(That's not Cauchy)
why?
By applying the first isomorphism theorem to the projection restricted to H yes, but why should H contain a non-trivial element of A_4
G contains a cyclic subgroup H of index p prime => G has an element of order p
H = <h>
?
Yeah it feels like it should give a contradiction but I dont think the formula I gave really helps
mmm, still not sure why it is the case, how do we get that element? Is it some well known result that doesn't even require justfication?
say, we have a group of 14 elements, and we have a subgroup of 2 elements somewhere, how do we build an element of order 7?
I mean, how can you assume that H cap A4 is non trivial ?
sorry not index but order *
I think my obseration doesn't give any contradiction. Let's say p = 3, q = 5, k = 1, then we have q = p + k(p-1) and everything seems to be good...
So H contains 6 elements of A4 right?
Yes but why
aaah, right, then it becomes obvious, thanks
they previously stated that we may assume that if a permutation group contains an odd element then it has an equal number of odd and even elements
OK, so indeed, if all elems are of order p, then there are no subgroups of order q, centralizers or not (because q is prime and then subgroup of order q is cyclic and all its elements have order q, which is a contradiction if q != p)
UGOAT
it's order 12 so contains an involution, all involutions are odd. I didn't feel like that really needed to be stated
(1 2) isn't odd
We can use a neat result on the union of two subgroups to conclude that H contains a non-trivial odd permutation
are we dead ass?
(1 2)(3 4) isn't odd *
ok sure that's fair
Syl_2(S_4) is D_8, all elements of order 4 in S_4 are odd, hence either H \cap Syl_2(S_4) is C_4, in which case we are done, or C_2^2. If this C_2^2 contains a transposition we are done, hence this C_2^2 is O_2(S_4) and the full group is this with a C_3. It isn't abelian as O_2(S_4) is self centralising. As O_2(S_4) \cong C_2^2, H^2(O_2(S_4), C_3) = 0 so any ext. is split. |Hom(C_3, Aut(O_2(S_4)))| = 1 and so this action is uniquely determined and is easily seen to be isomorphic to A_4.
ah actually easier way of doing it, any such subgroup is index 2 and thus normal, therefore is a disjoint union of conjugacy classes. There is a unique class of elements of order 3 and by the above argument this would need to be closed under left multiplication by O_2(S_4), but the union of O_2(S_4) with this class of order 3 elements constitutes all even permutations in S_4, and thus is A_4
O_2 is the 2-core ?
yur
it's been a while !
I felt it strange I had to consider the cohomology of the C_2^2 so just read my second solution it's cleaner
Is my argument wrong?
No but you need to explain why H cap A4 isn't trivial
Hey people, I need some help in structuring how I should learn algebra over the next 2 months (I won't be doing algebra just for 2 months ofc but I have other things planned after the next 2 months which I can't do now so I wanna utilise the time I have rn)
I will be studying for about 1-2 hours a day consistently (and more if time permits)
I have no prior algebra knowledge other than having done LADR 4th ed, and in the past I have done baby rudin ch 1-7, spivak CoM ch 1-3, and folland upto ch 2
I have a book I wanna do afterwards which states the following for its algebra pre requisites: "some basic definitions and results from linear algebra and the theory of rings and ideals are needed" so if I can learn algebra in a way to cover this within the next 2 months that would be nice as well
H contains exactly 6 elements of A4?
yeah but why
ok but why
ah
I proved that any subgroup of S_n, if it contains odd permutations then they have same number of odd and even permutations otherwise subgroup of A_n
but why would H contains at least one non trivial odd permutation XD
No it is my assumption it contains odd permutations otherwise I am done
Because my original question was if H is subgroup of order 12 then H = A4
So if it is not A4 then H contains some odd permutation
ok ok
The answer I was thinking of was "S_4 = A_4 u (12)A_4, so if H \cap A_4 = 1 all non-trivial elements of H would have to be odd, contradiction unless H = C_2, which isn't the case as |H| = 12" but I suppose this is essentially what notknow is saying
I think I'm just confused as to what exactly we're assuming and what we have to prove
Leave it 
Any hint for part b? Also I am thinking can I write any two degree separable extension in terms of F(√D)?
For a field F with characteristic not equal to 2, every extension of degree 2 is generated by the root of a polynomial of the form x^2 - D yes
I think this works: assume F(a) = F[x]/(x^2+bx+c), then by the quadratic formula a = -b/2+sqrt(b^2-4c)/2 so F(a) = F(\sqrt(b^2-4c)/2) = F[x]/(x^2-(b^2-4c)/4)
Yes
For c part, I have to show K1 intersection K2 = Q(√3), is there any other way without computation?
You just have to show they’re not equal, and both contain sqrt(3)
There’s a very quick way to show they’re not equal (hint: ||one of them is a subset of the reals||)
Did you end up using degree considerations? The degree of K1 cap K2 has to be 1, 2, or 4 over Q. Can't be 1 since it has sqrt(3) and can't be 4 since the fields are not equal
Yes
And the degree of Q(√3) over Q is 2
No
How do we prove that for $\sigma = (i_1, \dots, i_k)$, $$\tau \sigma \tau^{-1} = (\tau(i_1), \dots, \tau(i_k))?$$ Let $\tau = (a_1, \dots, a_m)$, then $\tau^{-1} = (a_m, \dots, a_1)$ and $$a_m \overset{\tau^{-1}}\to a_{m - 1} \overset{\sigma}\to \sigma(a_{m - 1}) \overset{\tau} \to \tau(\sigma(a_{m - 1})).$$ Thats not quite what we wanted yet
ILikeMathematics
and re-posting this one from yesterday:
Your presentation tells you that
\tau\sigma\tau^-1 should take \tau(i_j) to \tau(i_j+1), so start by writing a_m as \tau(i_j) for some j.
If U_i, U_i+1 differ by a prime power then U_i+1/U_i is a p-group.
It can be shown that a p-group contains a normal subgroup of order p. This follows from the center being nontrivial for p groups (a fact I hope you've seen) and Cauchy's theorem , so we can find some U' such that U'/U_i has order p and U' is normal in U_i+1.
You continue inductively by now considering U_i+1/U'
The intuition behind the correspondence theorem is that subgroups of the domain and codomain of a homomorphism can be pushed forward and pulled back right?
I'm interpreting it as like, the domain of the homomorphism gets sent to a "smaller" version of itself, with elements collapsing to 1 and the other elements being sent injectively to distinct elements
Similar intuition I had when thinking about the psuedoinverse in ljnalg ig
Then thr kernel is the difference between subgroups in domain and codomain
You can always pull back, but you only get the correspondence when the Hom is surjective
It also preserves normality (again only in this situation)
Ah, ok, thanks
That's not really how this works. Many elements get sent to 1, but the others don't get mapped injectively, since multiplying by something in the kernel doesn't change the image
Oh, so we basically build up the chain by going through all the prime powers that differ and always increasing by one, right?
Yea, exactly
Thanks!
Of course!
Maybe decrease by 1 is more accurate
Every step you do the order of the quotient becomes smaller by one factor of p
But I think that's what you meant
right
Oh and also, this is kind of unrelated haha but do you use a chalkboard at home, or just paper?
I have a whiteboard. I use it mainly when doing computational stuff, to keep track of a lot of information, or just when I'm brainstorming, otherwise I'm usually typing. I will sometimes do scratch work on paper but I'm less of a fan
Ah, alright. I was thinking of getting some kind of chalkboard but my room isn't very large. How big is your whiteboard/do you not run out of space?
Mine is 48 inches by 36 inches, double sided.
I don't usually write out full proofs or anything. I do still run out of room but not too often to worry about it, but it depends what exactly your workflow is like. A lot of times I will leave things up on the whiteboard for a while
Anyways we should move this convo to one of the general channels if you'd like to continue discussing since it's gotten off-topic
Alright, thanks, that was all
For a), so norm of alpha is just the product of its conjugates so if p(x) is the minimal polynomial of alpha then norm will be (-1)^nf(0) where n depends on degree of f so it is in F, right?
Yes, that's right. Alternatively might be better to show that it's fixed by the Galois group
yes, i thought of showing by this way
And I guess it should be (-1)^n f(0)^m where m depends on the size of the orbit of alpha
You can also directly prove that the element is fixed by all the elements of Gal(L/F)
yes let me do
is anything but 0_R in a ring R idempotent and nilpotent?
i am confused here, so this product is taken over all the embeddings of K into alg closure of F so is there possible that alpha^2 can be one product
The same factor can appear several times yes, if that's what you're asking
If x is idempotent, what is x^n equal to?
yes
is it exactly the product of its conjugates with same multiplicity?
It will be the product of its conjugates to the power of [K : F(alpha)]
i think it is best to show fixed by G
Ooh its x !
so x^n = x = 0
if nilpotent aswell
so this product runs over g\in G, right?
yay thank you so much !
g just restricted to K
i mean cosets of the kernel*** (beisdes the trivial one)
like umm under a homomorphism, cosets of the kernel besides the identity coset map injectively
i will think about this for a bit longer
Why are you excluding the identity coset
Yea you're correct then
right nvm
It's the identity element, it gets mapped to the identity
i don't think this the correspondence theorem though
cuz it discusses subgroups not cosets of them
might be referencing something else idk ill figure it out
The last thing you talked about is just how to think of a surjective homomorphism as a quotient map, but before that we were discussing the correspondence theorem
Surjective homomorphisms are equivalent to quotients, so thinking about it in terms of surjective homomorphisms is equivalent
Other than 1, what's the normal subgroup of S_3?
Hint it’s a very familiar group
And it’s the kernel of the sign homomorphism
So we know it’s normal
Ah, so just A_3?
And we also know that [S_3 : A_3] = 2, so there can't be any more, so S_3 is simple. Thanks! So S_3 has the normal subgroups 1, A_3 and S_3
I presume you mean A_3 is simple, which is true
Wait, I asked the wrong question haha
for S3, why don't you write all the subgroups?
what are the subgroups of S3?
Well A_3 has prime order, so it must be cyclic and thus isomorphic to Z_3, but Z_3 only has two subgroups, itself and {e}
So A_3 is simple
i see now, ty for ur help
1, <(1, 2)>, <(1, 3)>, <(2, 3)>, <(1, 2, 3)>, S_3 right?
Are there any more
there's only 3 conjugacy classes so you only need to check if 1 and the set of all 3-cycles or 1 and the set of all 2-cycles form subgroups to classify the normal subgroups
yes
i got it, thank you
1 is a normal subgroup and all the other ones except (1, 2, 3) have sign -1, so only those two come into question, right?
Thanks
sorry what do you mean by sign?
Correct. Because if the sign = 1 then they are in the kernel of the homomorphism. Thus, they are normal subgroups
However you missed (1,3,2)
Odd and even permutations
For part a), do I need Galois extension?
I don't think
Oh to make a group, i think i need that
I mean in the definition of N, the maps from K to alg closure of F, the set of such maps not need to be group
norm is only well-defined for galois extensions
You don't really need it to be a galois extension with this definition, but it makes it a little easier to prove
oh you're replace it with the aut group instead
yeah it doesn't strictly require galois then
When we say something like $G \times H \cong J$ with $G, H, J$ groups, then how is the group homomorphism defined? Usually, we want $$f(ab) = f(a)f(b),$$ but here, is it instead $$f(au, bv) = f(a, b)f(a, v)f(u, b)f(u, v)?$$
ILikeMathematics
why would it be different
it wouldnt be a group isomorphism if it was the bottom one
G × H is still a group
Ah, we can still treat it the same, as if f took only one argument, and then just let a in G x H, b in G x H
Yeah, the argument will be a pair
Well but that's like two arguments
It will be f((x,y))
you can think of it as a concept with an attitude
sometimes we like to think of it as a function with two arguments
sometimes we dont
depends on the context
Also somewhat related: currying/uncurrying of functions
Set is a cartesian closed category
Monad is a burrito
what burrito would be the free group monad
Not sure… tasty burrito? 😋
It's a shame that we don't have a homomorphism $$U \times V \to UV, \quad (u, v) \mapsto uv.$$ The kernel of that should be $U \cap V$ and it's obviously surjective, we would get $$(U \times V)/(U \cap V) \cong UV \implies |UV| = \frac{|U| |V|}{|U \cap V|}$$ which is true but that's just not a homomorphism..
ILikeMathematics
Hey !
Here is my problem (Come from my professor Book). So I have done question 1,2,3 but 4 I have spend a lot of time without going anywhere. Currently, I have a surjection from M to Coker(f). However, this application is not injective (This application come from the following diagramm). Moreover, I have check that (1, x) ~ (2, y) iff f(x) = y
(1, x) ~ (1, x') iff f(x) = f(x') and for 2 just y = y'.
So I see that M1 is actually in M by M2 but I don't know where to go after this...
If someone has any idea I take it !
Thanks you for your help
for I = {1,2} with transition map f : M1 -> M2 the colimit is obtained by taking M1 disjoint union M2 and identifying each (1,x) with (2,f(x)) hence every class has a representative (2,y) and the map M2 -> M, y -> [(2,y)] is surjective it’s also injective because (2,y) ~ (2,y’) forces y=y' so M is iso to M2 canonically therefore the induced map M -> Coker(f) is just the usual quotient M2 -> M2/im(f) which is surjective but not injective unless im(f)=0; so "colim is iso to coker(f)" is not true in general
Not with the aut group, but with the set of embeddings of K into the algebraic closure of F.
Or a definition that also works for non-seperable extensions: the determinant of left multiplication
is sigma a conjugation automorphism out of Curiosity
Sometimes you do. You do exactly when u and v commute for any u in U, v in V
takes F/K to F/K and leaves K elements intact
@ripe harbor Here is my proof of this, without using Sylow theorems and partially based on an example in D&F and an exercise from there. Probably much more complicated than using Sylow, but still fun to do:
If you don't want to use Sylow's Theorems, you can simply use the fact that a subgroup of minimal prime index is normal
ok mb
I was thinking about semi-direct product
Hm, fixed some typos in the proof, but now I don't know how to edit the image in the message :) So pasting it one more time
Ah, I don't know much about that yet
is $\phi^{-1}(a)$ usual notation for the fiber of a homomorphism? i don't like that $\phi^{-1}$ is being used when it's not well defined
Altanis
it is well defined, i meant that it makes me think phi is an isomorphism when it's not
I guess you could do $\varphi^{-1}({a})$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
lol
Idk if there’s other standard notation
yeah is hould just get used to it
Hm, nice, definitely longer than with Sylow. How long did finding that take?
But well, if I want to prove the result at the end for general subgroups U, V, that isnt necessarily the case
In the Correspondence Theorem for a group homomorphism $\phi: G \to \mathcal{G}$, suppose you have two corresponding subgroups $H \le G$ and $\mathcal{H} \le \mathcal{G}$. I want to show $|H| = |\ker \phi| \times |\mathcal{H}|$ is true. Is this proof OK?
\begin{proof}
Consider the restricted homomorphism $\phi|_H: H \to \mathcal{H}$, which is well-defined and surjective. Then we can consider the cosets of $\ker \phi|_H$ and use the Counting Formula, yielding $|H| = |\ker \phi|_H| \times [H:\ker \phi|_H]$. Note that since $\ker \phi \subseteq H$, $|\ker \phi|_H| = |\ker \phi|$. Moreover, note $[H: \ker \phi] = |\im \phi|_H| = |\mathcal{H}|$. Thus $|H| = |\ker \phi| \times |\mathcal{H}|$ as deisred.
\end{proof}
Altanis
For part b), is there any other way to show this, do I need to find the minimal polynomial?
yeah lgtm. never seen this called the counting formula before lol
god looking at canonical decomposition really cleared up a lot of brain fog about homomorphisms. 1st iso thm seems like such a natural consequence of the group/ring structure now. also just a really pretty diagram
To show the existence of theta, i have to show these all characters are distinct, how do I show?
yes you should find the minimal polynomial, but it is not as hard as you think
Where is this from?
notice that you have
\begin{align*}
\alpha \sigma (\theta) &= \alpha \sigma (\theta) \
(\alpha \sigma \alpha) \sigma ^2(\theta) &= \alpha \sigma (\alpha \sigma (\theta)) \
(\alpha \sigma \alpha \sigma^2 \alpha ) \sigma ^3(\theta) &= \alpha \sigma ((\alpha \sigma \alpha )\sigma (\theta)) = \alpha\sigma (\alpha\sigma (\alpha\sigma (\theta))) \
&\vdots
\end{align*}
So what your expression is really equal to is $$\theta + (\alpha \sigma )(\theta) + (\alpha \sigma )^2(\theta) + (\alpha \sigma )^3(\theta) + \dots + (\alpha \sigma)^{n-1}(\theta)$$
HChan
me!
it's like the fundamental theorem of arithmetic for algebra
I see thank you
Oh cool
Hmm, now I realise that this is basically identical to the canonical decomposition of any function into surjective/injective components, that we were discussing here in details a couple of days ago
I.e. to this:
it is not just identical, it is in fact the same thing
it just so happens that the injective surjective components of a group homomorphism are themselves group homomorphisms
That’s basically my retelling of a proof from D&F (for the abelian part) plus my solution to the exercise for the cyclic part, so I haven’t done it all from scratch.
mfw regular category
A regular category is a finitely complete category which admits a good notion of image factorization. A primary raison d’être behind regular categories C is to have a decently behaved calculus of relations in C (see Rel).
exactly what got me looking into it lolol
when you realize each fiber is just a coset of the kernel it follows directly
Yeah, but what is interesting is that this decomposition is more general and not specific to groups, so it can be done to any function on any sets, not only group homomorphisms
of course!
Is option c correct? Because how f(t) = 1/t^2 is fixed by G?
where is 1/t^2 coming from
So f(t) = 1/t^2 is an element of k(t), right?
okay the notation here is kind of dogshit
b) should be Prove that the element a = (t^2-t+1)^3/t^2(t-1)^2 is fixed by G
and c) should be prove that k(a) = Fix(G)
Oh I see
Let's p>3 then 2, 3 and 6 are distinct over F_p.
And say these polynomials have no solutions over F_p.
Then over the splitting field of (x^2-2)(x^2-3)(x^2-6) then F_p(√2), F_p(√3) and F_p(√6) are intermediate field of degree 2.
But we know there can be only one intermediate field of degree 2[ we are working with finite fields].
Hence, these fields are equal, and they satisfy the equation x^4-x, that's means they satisfy the equation x^2+x+1. But these all are distinct so this 2 degree polynomial has 3 different solution which is a contradiction.
Is it correct?
Why do they satisfy x^4 - x?
That’s true if p = 2
This doesn’t really need any Galois theory
I’m not sure I agree with your statement that there is only one intermediate field of degree 2
It’s true that there is one degree 2 extension of Fp up to isomorphism
But I’m not sure that necessarily means they are the same extensions
Ignore that statement
The thing is Galois group will be cyclic therefore there should be exactly one intermediate field of degree d
The unit group of a field is cyclic
What are the squares in a cyclic group?
Sorry i don't get your question
You can consider x -> x^2 as a group homomorphism of F^x
So then the claim amounts to showing that 2, 3 or 6 is always in the image of this homomorphism for all p
More specifically, ||show that if both 2 and 3 aren’t in the image, then 6 is||
i am stuck
Quick question: the map K[x, y] -> K[x, y] that sends x to a constant a and leaves y is a K-algebra homomorphism, right? Or I guess more generally you can send x and y to whatever independently and still have a homomorphism, including swapping x and y for example?
say that group is generated by a then 2 = a^i and 3 = a^j
Yeah, to check k algebra homomorphisms it is equivalent to verifying that the base ring homomorphism commutes with the respective k-maps that give the algebra structure
so i have to check if 2 and 3 are not in the image then i + j is divisible by 2
yeah
if i is even then we will have root in F
similarly for j
so both has to be odd
hence the sum is even
so for 6 we can choose a^(i+j)/2
that will be a root
right?
Yes
You can send x and y to any element you want and this will define a k-alg homomorphism. This is because k[x,y] is freely generated by x and y as a k-algebra
thank you @quiet pelican @velvet hull

what does it mean by biquadratic extension?
Iirc all finite subgroups of the group of units are cyclic, but not all subgroups. Q^* is definitely not cyclic. Though you can have infinite cyclic subgroups.
yes but in my question field is finite
so biquadratic extension means the Galois group is Z/2Z \times Z/2Z?
Extension generated by 2 square roots
i see
Yes as long as it's actually degree 4
Which is usually what people mean
so we need the extension has to be Galois extension
Well it'll still be a galois extension if it has deg 2
It just means one of the roots you added was already in the base field
but when extension has degree 4, it doesn't imply the extension is Galois
So when we change the base Q to F_p, Galois group does not change?
not every degree 4 extension is galois no, but every biquadratic extension of degree 4 is, I was just saying that if you write Q(sqrt(a),sqrt(b)) that's not guaranteed to be a biquadratic extension
That's not necessarily true, and also doesn't make sense generally (since the extension is defined using roots of elements of Q, you need those to have analogues in F_p).
It's possible to have smth that's not a square over Q but is over F_p. Many finite fields have square roots of -1
This exactly shows the galois group does change
then what is biquadratic extension?
do we need a and b such that they are squarefree
An extension generated by 2 square roots. Usually when people say "biquadratic" they're assuming that it's a degree 4 extension
Yea that works
so why Q(\sqrt a, \sqrt b ) doesn't implies it is biquadratic extension?
What if a=4?
What if a=2 and b=8?
oh yeah
i don't get it how do i use the biquadratic information when base field is F_p?
Every finite extension of finite fields is cyclic
yes
no no i know the Galois group can't be Klein 4 group in case of finite field
but how does the extension not changed in F_p?
Ok I'm actually not sure what they're getting at with the hint, but you already get all square roots over F_(p^2) since finite fields have unique field extensions of every degree up to isomorphism
It IS though? That's the point of the exercise, the extension becomes degenerate since the polynomial becomes reducible
Is there a nice way to shift from normal subgroups to regular ones? We can prove that $$|NH| = \frac{|N||H|}{|N \cap H|}$$ with the third isomorphism theorem, but we need $N \unlhd G$.
ILikeMathematics
The same holds for regular subgroups though
I thought about maybe using some trick with the normalizer..?
I have never heard of a regular subgroup outside of very technical results involving p-groups and as a synonym for normal subgroup
I’d be interested in knowing what property youre talking about
Sorry haha, I meant just subgroups in general
Not necessarily normal
Oh.
LMFAOOOO
Im confused as to what your question is asking still, are you asking if there is a way of finding new subgroups using normal subgroups?
If we can go from
|NH| = |N||H|/|N n H|
with N normal in G, H subgroup in G quickly to
|UV| = |U||V|/|U n V|,
U, V subgroups in G
Like taking U, V arbitrary, then considering instead U and the normalizer of V, applying the first result, and somehow reverting back to V
Yeah it’s still true but your UV might not actually be a subgroup
The elementary combinatorial approach still works
Oh, there is such an approach? My approach to the first was using the second iso theorem
Oh
Basically by definitions
You genuinely just count the elements brochaco. Consider the cosets of U in UV
How would one write this down though? Is it possible to write it more precisely than
"|UV| = |{uv | u in U, v in V}| consists of all combinations of U and V, without double-counting the ones in the intersection; so we need to divide out |U n V|. Thus |UV| = |U||V|/|U n V|"
You also consider the cosets of the intersection in U
This will be |U|/|U n V|, so assuming you can show the number of cosets of V in UV is |UV|/|V|, then construct a bijection between these two and multiply by |V|
Thinking about the map from the second iso might be a good candidate bijection
Alternatively, this is closer to your approach, consider the map f : U x V -> UV and show that for any element of UV there are precisely
|U n V| elements of U x V that map to it
This does require use of the group structure though which is a bit yuck
Alright, thanks, I will try both
My book already showed that $|G : H| = |G|/|H|$. Now, consider $$\varphi: UV/V \to U/(U \cap V), \quad uvV \mapsto u(U \cap V).$$ This is obviously surjective. Now $$x \in \ker(\varphi) \iff \text{for }x = uvV, \text{ u} \in (U \cap V) \iff x = uvV = V = 1$$ and so the kernel is trivial and we have injectivity
ILikeMathematics
ILikeMathematics
Oh wait UV is not necessarily a group so we cant directly apply [G : H] = |G|/|H|
Hm, I guess we just directly show that then by writing out the definition of UV/V
Ker doesn't make sense unless one of them is normal, since you don't have a group structure
oh, right..
Is the map I consider the right one though?
I would consider the map wew outlined above, but yours will work too. However, you need to show that it's well-defined first
You're gonna need to show that the proof of lagrange works even if UV is not a group, basically
Maybe I'll try the second approach, this seems quite long
Let $$f: U \times V \to UV \quad (u, v) \mapsto uv.$$ This is obviously surjective. How do we show that for each $x \in UV$, exactly $|U \cap V|$ elements map to it?
ILikeMathematics
Let $a = xy \in UV$. Then $(x,y)$ maps to it. But also, let $i \in U \cap V$ be arbitrary. Then $i^{-1} \in U \cap V$ and we have $$a = xy = xi^{-1}iy = xii^{-1}y$$
ILikeMathematics
Ok well 2, possibilities but 2 of those will overlap, so |U n V| possibilities
That should be it. This seems more elegant than the first method
To see irreducibility of integer polynomials a good criterium is mod p reduction
Is it interesting to embed Z-> O_K and doing mod ideals there and checking irreducibility?
Uh I mean
Maybe?
It seems a lot harder to compute residue fields in O_K than it is in Z lol
I assume that if p = fg with f,g in O_K[x] are irreducible then p should be irreducible if say f not in Z[x] (assuming monic or primitive or whatever)
Like a stupid example,
p(x) = x^2 - 2, this decomposes as p(x) = (x-sqrt(2))(x+sqrt(2)) as the polynomial x-sqrt(2) is not in Z[x] the polynomial is irreducible
by UFD on O_sqrt(2)
I meant something closer to this @wraith cargo
Let $H \leq G$ and $[G : H] = 2$. I want to show that $H \unlhd G$. The conditions means that there are two cosets of $H$ in $G$, so $G = aH \cup bH$ with $aH \cap bH = \varnothing$. So, let $g \in G$. Then WLOG $g = ah_1$ and so $$ghg^{-1} = ah_1hh_1^{-1}a^{-1}$$
didn't know unlhd did that
Yeah, it's standard notation the proof isn't too complicated
We need to show this is in H
ILikeMathematics
Got an idea on how to continue this approach?
Or would you do it differently
hint: consider exactly what the two left and right cosets must be
$G = aH \dot \cup bH = Hc \dot \cup Hd$ for some $a, b, c, d \in G$.
ILikeMathematics
bigger hint: 1H is always a coset of H, don't overthink
So one of the two elements in G/H is 1H
The other one needs to be G \ H = aH for some a in G
I'm sorry I was answering the delivery
It's literally just ||consider conjugation explicitly||
now consider two cosets aH, Hb where neither are H. what can you say about them?
Uh, I did that..? We have $$gHg^{-1}$$ and the left coset is in $G$; thus either $1H$ or $G \setminus H$ as we established..
I feel like I'm somehow overthinking this
ILikeMathematics
Either H1 or G \ H
yeah boom
Ok so if gH = 1H then this is 1Hg^{-1}. Now we have two possibilities
Hg^{-1} = H1 in which case we are done
Or Hg^{-1} = G \ H
if gH = G\H then Hg will be G\H proof over
Mainly because Hg contains g, which isn’t in H
Wait why
g in Hg sure
g not in H because g in gH = G \ H
Cosets are disjoint. H and gH are the two left cosets, H and Hg are the two right. By disjointness gH != H, and thus must be Hg and we are done
It’s essentially the pigeon hole principle with an extra step at the start
Oh, if Hg^(-1) were H, then g^(-1) in H and so g in H, so gH would also be H. But it isnt. So Hg^(-1) = G \ H
So when gH is G \ H, then gH and and Hg^(-1) are both G \ H
Ok so what if both are G \ H, isn't that a problem?
We need this to be H
(a) condition for normality is that for each g, gH = Hg
A subgroup is normal if and only if Hg = gH for all g
Well looks like the nice guy has finished last ONXE AGAIN 💔💔💔
WELL
Oh, right, my definition is gHg^(-1) = H but thats equivalent
Right multiply by g twin ✌️
Yeah
what are u studying from btw
mainly just some lecture notes with problem sets and Artin's book
Now let p be the smallest prime dividing |G|. Show that all subgroups of index p are normal
could Sylow be helpful here?
as a warm up let p be a prime dividing |G|. show that G has a cyclic subgroup of order p
Not really, the proof is a bit more complicated than the proof we have for p = 2
This is a nontrivially hard thing to prove iirc
Ah right Sylow could only give us a chain of normal subgroups at most but not really that any of those are normal in the actual one
shhhhhh
My hint for my problem is to consider the action of G on the cosets of H
As a warm prove that all finite simple groups are 2-generated
How do you come up with it/how do you know what action to consider or even considering an action in the first place? Is this just having seen this before? In the p = 2 case, we didn't need actions at all
All normal subgroups arise as kernels of a group homomorphism, we attempt to construct a homomorphism with kernel H
All group actions give a map into a symmetric group, find one where it’s easy to see that the kernel is H
||just the projection G -> G/H right?||
Yur
Do you have some general tips on approaching these? Do you usually think of examples or do those not help much for the general case anyways?
Honestly you just have to see a billion exercises and practice switching between concepts and getting a feel for general approaches
legally acquire from a reputable provider d&f and spam exercises until you dream about groups
worked for me
It’s funny cause you eventually define quotient objects as equivalence classes of epimorphisms
haha, now I have exactly the same comment as I had about your other problem: this was proved in D&F before Sylow's theorem appears (I used this lemma in my proof of your previous problem about cyclic groups of pq order). It's done in the chapter about group actions, as suggested by @delicate orchid
literally just had a think about this that made 1st iso thm click
1st iso theorem ❌
Admits an epi-iso-mono factorisation ✅
but to be honest, now I can't fully recall the proof, need to look at it again
The proof of the classification of groups of order pq?
no, this current lemma: if p is a smallest prime dividing order of finite group G, then any subgroup of index p is normal in G
Ah ok
(generalisation of the p=2 case that is much easier to prove directly)
Consider that the second cohomology of a p-group with coefficients in a p’-module vanishes and the size of Aut(C_p) 🆘🆘🆘🆘🆘🆘
It’s easier to prove because S_2 has no subgroups!
Haha D&F has everything!
“Follows from Schur-Zassenhaus”
Alright, thanks
Have you seen group actions before? I wasn’t expecting you to actually be able to solve it I was bringing it up just to tell you that this generalises!
Reading about group actions kinda changed how I think about groups now :)
Yes I have
Swagtastic
I also became excited about prospects of learning some geometric group theory, where groups acts on some spaces and we can study things like Cayley graphs, groups acting on graphs or trees and whatever
ggt is very cool
In what way? Every proof I have seen that uses group actions uses |X^G| cong |X| mod p for G a p-group in the end
I want to learn more of it but its kinda intimidating ngl
I haven't properly started and I know little about geometry per se, but I think I can deal with graphs and trees first :)
You WILL learn Bass Serre theory and yoy WILL like it
maybe just in general, that now I realise better that those group elements permute some sets
and induce some homomorphisms into S_A
Does Cayley’s theorem use this?
so it helps to think about problems, maybe just indirectly
That f: G -> S_G with g -> [f(g): h -> gh] is an injective group homomorphism? That's what I call Cayley's theorem
also I appreciated that concepts like normalisers and centralisers were finally unified under "stabiliser" umbrella :)
Yeah. Essentially “the regular action exists” lol
Ah, no, the proof of that was just .. trivial..?
Yeah kind of lol
Yeah it was just checking the definitions
The only known proof that all groups of order p^aq^b are solvable uses group actions in a very non-trivial way LOL
Also things like (Not) Burnside lemma are quite useful to count things (and is based on group actions)
The proof of Cauchy's theorem did some really neat trick with group actions
once you get to group extensions and see semidirect products and how all groups are essentially just built out of simple groups “acting” on other groups I think you’ll see the true value
considering the set of all elements of the group that whose product is 1
Oh yeah I remember that
and then of course |X^G| cong |X| mod p
nice, reminds me about similar trick in the proof of Wilson theorem in Elementary Number Theory...
is "group extensions" in D&F?
I remember coming up with the proof of Cauchy for p = 3 and struggling to generalise it lol
I have absolutely no idea
Do you tend to think about multiple exercises at once? Or think about one until you're done and only then go to the next
I switch if I get stuck for a while
But honestly I haven’t really done any exercises for like a year lol I’ve been too busy writing
What's an example of a finite group $G$ and $H \leq G$ with $a, a', b \in G$ with $$aH = a'H \quad \text{and} \quad abH \neq a'bH?$$
ILikeMathematics
I was thinking about matrices, but there is probably a simpler solution
Something like Z/nZ doesnt work because it's abelian
I actually don’t know off of the top of my head
Other than the free group on 2 points but that’s incredibly boring
Oh, well I haven't had free groups yet anyways
Imagine the most boring group possible
That's like ({e}, *)
That’s the free group on 0 points
WLOG a’ = e
So we need exactly a \in H and b^{-1} a b \notin H
So like, G = S_3, a’ = e, a = (12), b = (123), H = <(12)> works
So any group with a non-normal subgroup works for this
That’s interesting
I meant as an example to this particular question. But the only pure group theoretic thing thats interesting about it specifically is that it contains all other countably generated free groups
At least Thats the only one I know of. My mind is open to being changed
And DONT give me that coset enumeration bullshit
Oh, right, thats a nice simplification
G = S_3, a’ = e, a = (12), b = (123), H = <(12)> works
how did you think of this? Does this also work for many other things as counterexample/is it "famous" or did you just think of this for this specific exercise
That’s the smallest example of a group with a non-normal subgroup, and a pair of elements exhibiting that fact
I think this H(ab) = (Ha)(Hb) is the feature that makes operation on cosets work (and it requires H to be normal). And in this example you are asked to find something where it doesn't work
so it's reasonable to look at things which are not normal
like <(12)> in S_3
Ah, alright
Let $G = \langle g \rangle$ be of order $n$ and $k \in \mathbb Z$. I want to show that $$\text{ord}(g^k) = \text{ord}(g^{\gcd(k, n)}).$$ We know that $\gcd(k, n) = ak + bn$ for some $a, b \in \mathbb Z$ and so $g^{\gcd(k, n)} = g^{ak}$ but that doesnt seem helpful.. We know that $$\text{ord}(g^k) = p \quad \text{with $p$ minimal so that $g^{kp} = 1$}$$
@ripe harbor I wonder, in which order are you studying things? When I first saw your messages, I thought that you are just starting group theory, because you were asking some question about subgroups or something relatively simple. Then, after a couple of days I've seen you proving something with Sylow -- I thought, wow, they progressed really quickly! But then I looked at your older messages and saw that you did some fields and rings previously. So now I am intrigued by the way you are studying!
ILikeMathematics
Are you doing like multiple passes over abstract algebra?
Or studying things on demand once the need arises?
Haha, if with older messages you mean like one or two years ago, yes, I self-studied some AA but I wasn't officially taking it. Now I am, I'm doing groups right now and I'm at the end of the chapter right now, so I'm doing a bunch of exercises about everything in it
What about you? I saw you have a thread, are you doing a second pass or learning things now?
mostly learning this bit. But I am just studying math as a hobby (i.e. I already have a degree in applied math, but that was some time ago)
Ah, nice
We also know that ord(g^gcd(k, n)) = n/gcd(k, n) but that also doesnt seem helpful..
o(g^k) = o(g)/(gcd(o(g),k))
I don't have that unfortunately
Only o(g^k) = n/k for o(g) = n and k | n
Like you don't wanna use it or you don't know it ?
latter, we haven't had that
Can we use this?
[something else we could use is g^m = 1 => n | m]
[and ord(gh) = ord(g) ord(h) for gcd(ord(g), ord(h)) = 1].
Thats pretty much all lol
you should try proving it, then the required result follows immediately. what you know already is just a particular case of that identity, when k | n gcd(n,k) = k, so o(g^k) = n/k. you should try proving the stronger result.
Is there a word for a polynomial f in K[x] whose splitting field over K has degree (deg f)! ?
I haven't heard of such a word, but normal could make sense as this would happen if K[x]/(f(x)) is normal (assuming f irreducible anyway)
Hm, ok, thanks
I'm asked to show that the splitting field of $2x^5-10x+5$ over Q has degree 5!. I know that this polynomial is separable, (and should be) irreducible, and I know that it is enough to show that adjoining roots one at a time gives a chain of field extensions with degree 5, then 4, then 3 and 2. But I'm not able to calculate the degree of these simple extensions. Here's my attempt. Label the roots $\alpha_1,\dots,\alpha_5$. To show the second extension has degree 4, we need to show the irreducibility of a quartic in $\mathbb Q(\alpha_1)\cong\mathbb{Q}[x,y]/(2x^5-10x+5)$. That seems infeasible.
person2709505
Oops, I missed the factorial.
Then I don't think I have a good name
I suppose that in light of my second question, my first was a bit misleading
Are projections onto linear subspaces lipshitz?
Solved. I had the wrong approach entirely.
Anyone know a good survey article on the monster group?
yeah that's good
makes sense i just wrote this out on a first pass
you just note that the product has order rs (by set theory)
and then (x,y) has order rs so it must be cyclic
i see
because it has an element of order |G|
indeed
does this thm have a name
Internal direct product theorem?
looks right from googling
lowkey would not call it a theorem
i dont really understand the point of this proposition
this is true, now what
conditions to decompose G into a product I guess
play around with some examples
I don't think it really has much of a name but is helpful to know for understanding direct products and recognising a group as a direct product. Later you will see variants about semi-direct products which are very useful and much more general
Say I have a group G defined by some generators and relations. Obviously, if H is isomorphic to G, then it has generators satisfying the same relations. Is there a converse statement? What if I impose extra conditions, like H and G both finite and of the same order?
I am not sure what sort of converse you mean. It seems the converse is saying whether giving generators and relations determines the group, but this is true by what it means for things to be generators and relations for a group
what is a "direct product" (or if you have any reading on them)?
Ok, I have never seen a proper definition of "generators and relations"-- does it mean the group is the free group on n generators quotiented by the normal subgroup generated by the relations?
Probably what you would call a product (of groups)
so like (a, b) * (a', b') = (ab, a'b') is a direct product?
Yes. Or more precisely if you say a group G is generated by some elements (of G) subject to some relations, then the map from the free such thing to G is an isomorphism
Ah ok great
This is the multiplication in the direct product yes
How about this somewhat related statement: if G is given by n generators satisfying some relations, and H contains n elements satisfying those relations, then G is iso to H
This is false
But I think it may be true if G and H are finite of the same order. Or it may just be badly false
im pretty sure it's $(a, b) * (a', b') = (aa', bb')$
lexi
but similar idea
It sounds fishier and fishier the more I think about it
for the law of composition on a product group?
yeah it's the obvious thing to do
i could be wrong but im somewhat sure
ah wait you wrote something else
in what you wrote it should be (a,b) * (a',b') = (a a', b b')
oh that makes sense
so wait is a direct product distinct from the law of composition on a product group?
ah wait yes i see
the direct product is how you would multiply cartesian-ly?
yes
the "product group" is a little bit of an ambiguous term since there are multiple ways to form a product of groups, but usually it refers to the direct product
also keep in mind that the operation may be different in each component
weird. i'll look into this later
why is it weird?
i don't understand the point of a direct product nor why it's different from the group operation artin chose for product groups
it's not
is this from artin?
this is a direct product
ahaha yeah I noticed
direct products are useful in the study of abelian groups
ok so yeah the product group usually uses the direct product for its group operaiton
For abelian groups that are written additively you can refer to the direct product as the direct sum
is it cuz u can decompose them into
yeah
but yeah the idea is still imitating cartesian
i learned before that cyclic groups of order rs can be decomposed into a product of cyclic groups of orders r and s
the direct product is the most natural way to get a product of groups
yeah when you get to semidirect product you'll question why tf would someone define something like this
until you see dihedral groups

ok so the proposition above is basically just a way to show if G is isomorphic to H x K
and that's useful cuz yes
btw both G and G' are isomorphic to normal subgroups of G x G'
so it's very well-behaved
is this beyond what i've learned
cuz idr that result
not in this book but im familiar with it (i learned it in linalg)
also i guess like technically yes ive done it i know [G:ker phi] = |im phi|
we have $G/\ker \phi \cong \operatorname{im} \phi$ right
lexi
you've done isomorphism right
idk what order artin does things
wait idk if you even need the full first iso theorem for this
yes
at 2.11 rn
the map $\pi \colon G \times G' \to G$ where $\pi(x, x') = x$ and the map $\pi' \colon G \times G' \to G'$ where $\pi'(x, x') = x'$ are homomorphisms
lexi
projection maps?
yes
$\ker \pi$ is the set of all elements $(0, x')$ where $x' \in G'$, and $\ker \pi'$ is the set $(x, 0)$ where $x \in G$
lexi
homomorphism kernels are normal subgroups
yep
and it's pretty easy to set up an isomorphism $\ker \pi \cong G'$ and $\ker \pi' \cong G$
lexi
there's probably another way to show this but i think this way is the nicest
oh wait
did you mean a normal subgroup or every
with first iso theorem you can show that $(G \times G')/G \cong G'$ and $(G \times G)/G' \cong G$
you havent done quotient groups yet i just realized
lexi
i understand the idea (i think?)
yeah
G/N for normal subgroup N is the set of cosets of N
wdym
then the zeros are elements in the trivial coset N
yeah
so dividing G by N basically means N acts your zero elements
you might also be able to see how this relates to the kernel of a group homomorphism
are G and G' isomorphic to every normal subgroup of G x G' or just that specific normal subgroup?
yes
phi(ak) = phi(a)
just those specific normal subgroups
so G/ker phi distinguishes elements by eliminating the kernel component of them
yes
in linalg its the idea that u + v = u + w under V/kerT if v, w are kernel elements
so vectors that differ only by ker phi are equivalent
yea ik there's a sticker lol
it's cool this is true for structures less heavy than vector spaces
and also cool to see the commutative diagram
it's true for almost everything worth studying in algebra
for rings too?
groups, rings, fields, vector spaces, modules, algebras
(idk what a ring is
)
you name it
abelian group with an associative multiplication operator that distributes over addition in the abelian group
generalization of numbers
i.e. a structure where you can add, subtract, multiply and the usual distributive rules apply
well i know the definition because im a popmath indulger but idk like the actual theory surroudning it
rings have an analog to normal subgroups as well, that lets the first iso theorem work
it's very rich
looking Forward to it (maybe..)
it sadly isn't as 'clean' as quotients in vector spaces where you can quotient any subspace
of course this makes sense in the context of vector spaces being fancy abelian groups
in subspaces all cosets are equal
and all subgroups of abelian groups being normal
and yes abelian-ness is sufficient for normality
important to note that ideals are not subrings, unlike normal subgroups
(unless you use the convention that rings may be nonunital, in which case you should reevaluate your life choices)
i left unital out of my definition up there for simplicity's sake
I wouldn't say adding a 1 makes it more complicated
but yes i usually take rings to be unital
i mean in relating ideals to normal subgroups
I suppose
but sometime you're gonna have to accept that all of these things are equivalence relations anyways 
an ideal is just a normal subgroup with extra structure
anyway
the equivalence relation is exactly the coset relation on the additive group
algebras are awesome
im trying to understand galois theory
peak
its cool that "polynomial evaluation" is a ring homomorphism
It’s kind of universal
im a little stuck on $F[x]/(p) \cong F(\alpha)$
lexi
i understand it intuitively but idk how to prove the isomorphism
herstein very annoyingly leaves this as an exercise
well clearly F[x] has krull dimension 1 and (p) is prime and nontrivial, so F[x]/(p) has to be a field and then you're essentially done
what are you stuck on exactly
this might sound dumb but
how do we know which root we get?
we only get the adjoin of one root right
when we quotient by the irreducible polynomial
and it's the one corresponding to the polynomial $x + I$ in the quotient field
lexi
okay think about this example: Take Q[x] and the polynomial x^2+1. What would happen when you send x->i? how about x->-i?
we get both roots in the extension field either way
but the degree of the splitting field is just the degree of the polynomial
what about if it's greater
yeah either way the resultant field is the same up to isomorphism
but surely the extension doesn't contain all the roots under all circumstances
since we can have a degree 3 polynomial yielding a degree 3 extension
but that has a splitting field of degree 3! = 6
like $\mathbb Q[x]/(x^3 + x + 1)$
lexi
this can't contain every root of that polynomial, because it has a splitting field of degree 6 but this field must have degree 3
yes
so how do we get all of them
factoring the polynomial in the extension then quotienting whatever is irreducible left over?
you construct the splitting field
yep you keep adjoining roots till you get a field that has all the roots
ok that's reasonable
each time you go up the ladder adjoining a new root you record the degree of the extension
that sets the boundary $\deg p \leq [E:F] \leq (\deg p)!$
lexi
ok the simple element theorem
implies that if i have a polynomial with a certain set of roots, i can find a single element of order up to n! that 'generates' the splitting field
or whatever it was called
i don't really understand the proof for that
yeah essentially the degree of a splitting field is a divisor of n!
oh
oh right yeah
because we're going down the definition of a factorial but skipping multiplying by some numbers if we get to a polynomial we can actually reduce in our current extensions
An identity morphism A->A is obviously isomorphic
automorphism is an isomorphic arrow A->A
These look the exact same, the difference is one you start with A->A then conclude it's isomorphic, and the other is your premise being that the morphism A->A is isomorphic, these looks practiclaly same 😭 (im thinking that a morphism is an automorphism iff and only iff it is an identity morphism)
is there a difference?
an automorphism $\sigma \colon A \to A$ is an isomorphism of $A$ onto itself
lexi
it does not need to be the identity
take A=C and the map to be complex conjugation
it maps the object A onto itself but it can move elements around
this is an automorphism of C but its not the identity on C
sorry i dont understand this example
np, so do you know stuff around complex numbers?
just what is a complex number and what is complex conjugation
i know that its root of i and it rotates on the complex plane thats kinda it
if f(x) = -x, f is an automorphism of Z
But -x is clearly not itself
ok so here is the misunderstanding that you have, an automorphism doesnt necessarily map an element to itself
we're saying that Z and -Z are isomorphic, but not equal
the only map that maps every element to itself is the identity map
but an automorphism is still of form A->A?
an automorphism of A is a bijective homomorphism from A to itself
A -> A does not mean everything is mapped to itself, just that the map has domain A and image in A
sure
im sorry im not familiar with homomorphism either?
maybe think of "set automorphisms," which are permutations
read up on the basics
my book allufi doesnt cover it yet
well thats essential to know what an automorphism
he will soon
I have a hard time believing that, does he perhaps say morphism instead?
are you in the groups chapter yet? you should go through that one fully
yeah
?
homomorphism is half the answer
he covers isomorphism on sets as bijection, then he teaches categories and morphism and now the next chapter is about ismorphism
ok so an automorphism of A is a morphism A->A which is bijective
alright then thats good, lets take an example of an automorphism of a set A which isnt the identity
okay let me see what are you working with here?
man you're not even at the groups part finish that chapter first
Groups?
im simply following the order the book gave, idk im sorry
take A=Z and f:Z->Z defined by f(x)=x+1
it'll take you a hot second to get there then, yeah
It's not a good idea to jump into categories like that
check that this map is a bijection from Z to itself
do you suggest to skip automorphism to 2 chapters ahead?
so its an automorphism of Z as a set
aluffi runs categories-first
but its clearly not the identity map
eww
if this is your first scrape with abs alg i'd recommend d&f over aluffi probably
now you know why I hate category theorists sometimes
start abstract algebra with infty categories
Ohh yes I see but it's only on a particular structure on Category on Sets right?
if the morphism doens't behave like a function
then it wouldnt make so much sense
is my point
is that right?
an automorphism in general isnt necessarily the identity regardless of the category you are working in
let's say you have a set C representing deck of cards. if you shuffle the deck of cards, then that's a non-trivial bijection of C onto itself, which is an automorphism in Set
it's the same deck of cards, but you shuffled the elements around
but if the categories are not objects of sets then these examples wouldn't work right?
automorphism sort of captures that concept
the morphisms are different in each category
complex conjugation is an automorphism of fields, and taking the negative of an integer is an automorphism of groups but not fields
I mean yea morphisms in a category depend on the objects of this category
what brings you to ask what an automorphism is? i don't recall that coming up so early in the book unless i'm misremembering
i understand the difference now but im just asking for a bit more understanding because these examples on autmorphism looks like it relies on the concept of objects being sets
its quite literally in the same chapter where isomoprhism is covered
wait let me show
Please just drop categories for now and learn about groups instead. Use D&F
what you should do is move on and you will understand more of the category theory when you have more examples in the bag
no dont use D&F
Whatever just use anything else
maybe lang is the way to go sotrue
is this aluffi ch0
:chad:
well there's your answer really 
yes
i dont get it
😭
Mamma mia
you need more examples
lol as i told you, dont stick to this rn
ohh ok
do yourself a great favor and read the first few chapters on groups in d&f. much more straightforward
How does aluffi introduce groups? Does he say "groups are groupoids with one element?"
i definitely understood the autmorphism examples on sets/functions though
you will encounter automorphisms all over the place when you learn about any algebraic structure
an automorphism can also be defined on groups btw, this is just a step above
yeah.
so can i just continue allufi with this much understanding
like categories are an abstraction of all the algebraic structures you will learn about (i think?)
thats good enough, I think thats what you can do for now with the examples you have
It's kinda not funny anymore
categories abstract the relations in the class of all such algebraic objects
did you typeset this LOL
wtf
yea he really explains it, super unfunny
ok thank you for helping i didnt expect such a reaction on allufi 😭
I mean I didnt say anything about aluffi
i remember one of my friends was learning algebra from this
No I learned something today. I won't recommend Aluffi anymore
I hate this so much
everyone else did lol
and he thought that was the funniest thing on the plannet
carl e linderholm moment
he also doesnt expect you to have many examples rn
what a fucking nerd
book of proof was pretty funny
so dont get worried lol
every single person he told that to said that as well
if you like the book continue with it, if you dont then ask for some other recommendations
aluffi is very contingent upon the exercises iirc
herstein doesn't touch groups until after introducing modular arithmetic and permutations and separately formulating group axioms on both
if you struggle there are easier ways to familiarize yourself with abs alg
theres 1000+ for a reason
Inb4 someone defines the abelianization of a group as the first cohomology group

