#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 388 of 1
I tend to think about it like this. If it’s just one orbit, all the set elements are connected with action, they are all in one equivalence class. So, in a way, you can transit the whole set using group actions :) So it is transitive
oh
But I have no idea if it’s indeed related to the actual reason of why it is named like that
Thats good, thanks!
If it’s not transitive: it will have two or more disjoint graphs (two orbits, or more)
So you can’t transit it in one go
Oh yes
ILikeMathematics
Yeah ok that works out, thanks!
How is (R, +) isomorphic to (C, +)?
That’s actually a fun problem to show that there always exists an element g of the group that does this cycle. I.e. that if you keep acting with just this element you will traverse the whole set!
It’s called fixed-point free element (because it doesn’t fix any elements of A: no fixed points)
You mean for finite groups?
Both are vector spaces over Q of the same cardinality, the cardinality of the continuum
This makes them isomorphic as vector spaces which is strictly stronger than being isomorphic as abelian groups
I don’t know this stuff
Vector spaces are isomorphic iff they have a basis of the same size
Cuz R is infinite it’s bijective to R^2 which is what C is as a set, and cuz these are both really big compared to Q this is enough to say the size of their basis has to be as large as |R|
This means there’s some isomorphism between them as vector spaces, and part of that isomorphism is a bijective map respecting +, so it also is a group isomorphism
Uhm
I think I conceptually got it but still
My textbook asks this with exclusively group theory background so I think a group theory explanation would probably benefit me more
Linear algebra is gonna be assumed for group theory
I don’t think you can argue this very directly
It didn’t really mention it at all up to this point
I mean usually if you’re studying group theory you’ve already done linear algebra
alright
Thanks anyway
Strictly stronger, but also equivalent 
I’m pretty sure it’s gonna be almost impossible to produce an isomorphism that doesn’t exploit their vector space structure
It didn’t really talk about vector spaces relating to homomorphisms either😭
I was thinking of qualifying my statement that I think maybe by some fuckery it’ll be equivalent but I wasn’t sure
The magic of Z -> Q being epi
Well, you may be right actually, it’s phrased in a way that I think allows for the possibility of it being undecidable
(As in, undecidable without using linear algebra)
is that aluffi
Yeah…
i remember that on my homework, i dont think we were expected to come up with an answer
imo at least the main idea was that none of the tools from that chaoter work on (R, +) and (C, +)
so you cant determine from those tools and need a different approach
You should check Exercise VI.1.1
Also man this is a throwback for me
I think Gomez told me this fact ages ago with this proof and I was like how tf are they isomorphic lol
And it blew my mind, I was like this is fucked up
Yeah I would totally say they’re not isomorphic if I didn’t see it say that they are later
does this require choice?
Yes
ew
I looked this up and apparently it is consistent with NOT choice that R and C are not isomorphic
@next obsidian @small yacht this might interest you
So in a strict sense you CANNOT prove isomorphism as abelian groups without appealing to the vector space structure
lowk choice always pmo when it shows up in algebra
Algebra has choice all over the place. You just don't really see it at first
oh i know
Some of the mods fundamental theorems in algebra, such as every ideal being contained in a maximal ideal are equivalent to choice
it just seems like the constructions are too strange
i remember being really annoyed when showing that projective modules over local rings are free bc it required choice
Non-constructively asserting the existence of stuff is a bit weird I'll concede but constructions using Zorn's lemma are generally pretty easy to understand
one thing that always made me feel better is just using zorn’s lemma instead of explicitly calling it choice
I kinda figured
true
but it always feels like trying to dig a hole by plucking atoms
Zorn’s Zorn’s Zorn’s Zorn’s
Where do you need choice in that proof (also you forgot f.g.)
not finitely generated
all
Wait is that true
kaplansky showed this
I might look at that later, thanks for the reference
There’s some fascinating interactions with set theory and weird homological stiff
I should teach a commalg class so I can brush up on my commalg. Maybe some children here would like this
Wdym
There’s a paper called something like “big projectives are free”
I think the result is something like a projective module whose rank is higher than some bound involving the cardinality of the ring are all free
this is notes from the underground right
Oh I see
not chapter 0
God Aluffi has such cringe book names
lol
Too bad since he's a good writer
yeah i used to shill aluffi so much. i actually have managed to taper my opinion of his writing as time has gone on
That's really interesting
You're probably aware but apparently there's a page about this on stacks about one of the results from that paper
Of course it's a bass paper he does all the weird fucky stuff
I feel like whenever there's a weird fucky kinda set theoretic result in algebra it's always him
notes from the underground sounds like it would be some hiphop adjacent thing lowkey
a kinda low quality non-genuine cash grab but still
vibes
yeah lmao
lords of da underground (lords of da underground)
I heard you were new here, hi!
Welcome! This is a friendly space to share all your curiosities and questions about Mathematics. I'm sure you'll fit right in here, champ. 😊
i genuinely cannot tell if your3 doing a bit Kian 😭
🙃
Nope
It’s a reference to a Dostoevsky novel😭
oh well my bad
i guess its fitting that this is what first came to my mind though lol
About big projectives being free?
One of such results in the paper from what it seems
https://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0GVE
Okay I think I’ve seen this yeah
This stuff reminds me of this one thing Johan proved
You know enough AG right?
So take an ample invertible sheaf O(1) and then for any coherent sheaf F there’s some n where F(n) has no higher cohomology
Stupid lemma: if there was some n where F(m) had no higher cohomology for m > n, over all coherent F, then the same holds for quasi coherent F because such a sheaf is a colimit of coherent sheaves.
It’s stupid because no such n exists by observing O(-k)
But if there was an “O(\inf)” so to speak, then for any quasi coherent F F(\inf) would have no higher cohomology because you take the union of coherent subsheaves and for each of those there’s a finite n where F(m) has no higher cohomology for m > n, and \inf is larger than all n
Well it turn out they showed such an “O(\inf)” exists on certain schemes (I think the hypotheses weren’t too strong)? And it’s super duper hella not finitely generated. And it’s something stupid where like, you make it via taking… direct sums(?) of O(n) for various n in some way that branches out like a tree or something. My memory is kinda hazy on what he said
But it reminded me of the eilenberg swindle and some of this sort of crap with big projectives and freeness and shit
what's a good intuition for S_3?
like i understand it's the set of bijections on a set of 3 elements (or the set of functions that shuffle a set of 3 elements, less abstractly speaking)
but in ch2 of artin (which defines groups, subgroups and additive subgroups of Z, cyclic subgroups, homomorphisms/isomorphisms, equivalence relations, cosets, etc.) he keeps using S_3 as an example for stuff and it feels opaque to me
like i can verify what he's saying is true but it offers no intuition
uhh for example here
it's used because it's the smallest nonabelian group
yeah i understand that
it's also the symmetries of an equilateral triangle if that helps
in fact i think that's the presentation he's using there
where x is a rotation 120 degrees and y is a reflection
he says x = (1 2 3) and y = (1 2)
yep that's it
wdym by symmetries
maps of the triangle onto itself?
like if you rotate a triangle 120 degrees you end up with the same set of points, just moved around
oh
likewise if you reflect along an axis of symmetry
im bad at Geometry.
but yes i understand
this is still like weird idk
i probably just need to spedn more time convincing myself of these theorems
in this case x is a rotation 120 degrees and y is a reflection
so you can see how $x^3 = 1$ and $y^2 = 1$
lexi
ah
yes and then
x^2 is a 240 degree rotation so
ummm
lemme think
hm ok nvm that's hard to write out
it's like
yxy^{-1} or something
ty for the intuition using triangles that is helpful
it might also help to draw the cayley diagram out
this helped me a lot in understanding these things
the who
i think the geometric perspective of this will be discussed in later chapters
replace sigma with x and tau with y
or this one might be better
replace r with x, s with y, and e with 1
yea, it helps if you have edge colorings
i found that this helped me understand the group structure of S3 better
Idk I feel like integers are more intuitive especially if the geometry behind S_3 hasn't been explained yet
and its a good way to compute product and things
Like he could've very easily let G be the additive integers and H be the subgroup of evens
And then 1H is a coset of odd integers
If I am thinking about this right?
Then the equivalence classes for G are evens and odds
that would have worked as well
Ok great I'm using that intuition then
and i typically see that provided as an example as well
you can generalize this to multiples of any integer
Yeah he'll do that soon
then the cosets are the residue classes mod n
When we get to right cosets and modular arithmetic and quotient groups presumably
yep
What's a residue class?
Oh ok I googled
It's just the equivalence class for that yea
group theory is fun :3

I feel bad I haven't touched my real analysis book in 2 weeks cuz I've been doing thie
This
the cayley graph of the integers looks like this, right?
... -> -2 -> -1 -> 0 -> 1 -> 2 -> ...
okay, yea this is right
yep
i like that lol
isn't the automorphism group of the cayely graph of a group just the original group?
oh
can the order of a group, if infinite, be ascribed cardinals like in set theory
if so would this lemma be true for groups of infinite order
cuz you have a bijection H -> aH since its inverse is a^-1 H
and so the left cosets would be equinumerous
yes, this is true of any group.
thanks.
yea, i think |H| [G:H] = |G| still holds in the infinite case
why does removing the directedness make things interesting?
the group gets a lot bigger
and harder to predict
okay, so like, what happens for an infinite stick extending in both directions, the undirected cayley graph of Z?
Z is still in there as a subgroup
in that case the automorphism group is $\mathbb Z \rtimes C_2$ i believe
but now you can flip things
yeppp
okay i buy that
or wait times other way
lexi
i always forget lmao
automorphisms are isomorphisms between the same group right
i don't use semi-direct products enough and i always have to relearn them
it gets kinda cool because for some geometric figures you can describe them as an undirected cayley graph
and then like, how does the cayley graph of this compare to the undirected cayley graph of Z?
and then work on the automorphism group of that to get the symmetry group of the original figure
wdym
im not sure lol. you can disregard that question
the cayley graph of $\mathbb Z \rtimes C_2$ looks like two copies of the cayley graph of Z laid parallel, where the arrows point in opposite directions, and with arrows across from one to the other like a ladder
i think
lexi
okay, neat
i wonder if there is some sense in which this thing "lives over" the undirected version
well it certainly has it as a subgroup lol
truth
yea, this does seem pretty cool
what were some of the main results of your paper?
it focused on the symmetries of the hypercube
that i demonstrated were $C_2^n \rtimes S_n$ iirc
lexi
and then talked about relevance for hamming distance stuff
on binary strings
nothing too fancy
very cool!
you can do other shapes too
you can use cayley graph automorphisms to show that $D_{2n}$ is in fact the symmetry group for the $n$-gon
lexi
by taking the cayley graph of $C_n$
lexi
so Aut(Cayley(C_n)) = D_n? (i hate having the extra 2 in there lol)
ahh ok so
if we fix H <= G, all cosets of H partition G and all cosets of H are uniformly ordered. thus the order of G is simply the order of H times the number of cosets that exist
and by partition i mean "fit evenly" into G, all the cosets of H are disjoint and their unions equal G
the way i reasoned about the partition argument is that if H <= G is fixed, define any arbitrary homomorphism phi for which ker phi = H. then phi(a) = phi(b) <=> b in a(ker phi) = aH and so you phi determines the equivalence relation that forces cosets to be equivalence classes
"uniformly ordered" is awkward phrasing ha
i would say that they "have the same order"
you can't do this
why?
a subgroup H of a group G is normal if and only if it is the kernel of a group homomorphism
this theorem applies even for subgroups that are not normal
oops
ah yes i see
a subgroup H <= G is normal if every conjugate of every element in H lives in H. then ker phi is a normal subgroup since if a in ker phi, then phi(gag^-1) = phi(a) = 1 for every g in G
so choosing phi s.t. ker phi = H implies H must be normal
yea
why'd he use the congruence symbol then
he said earlier that congruence comes from an equivalence relation determined by a homomorphism
can you show me the paragraph you are thinking of?
right, so a group homomorphism (or more generally, a function between sets) determines an equivalence relation
yeah he uses ~ in general (including for maps of setS) but said congruence is specifically what is used for the equivalence relation by a homomorphism
but this isn't the same equivalence relation
this equivalence relation doesn't come from a group homomorphism unless H is normal
its not the same congruence that he is referring to here
what you said here is wrong
yes, that is a good example
he hasnt discussed those or modular arithmetic at all yet (its in a few subchapters)
they are the congruence relations induced by multiplication by n : Z -> Z
so did he just drop the term congruence relation without explaining what they are
congruence relations and equivalence relations are used interchangeably, they are synonymous
like i dont understand why he didn't write a ~ b if b = ah and then prove ~ was an equivalence relation
i do think that what the author did here was confusing
why did he specifically use congruence
so then why does artin specifically say that group homomorphisms determine congruence and not just a general equivalence relation
like f: S -> T determines an equivalence relation on S, but for a homomorphism he says that the equivalence relation is specially denoted by congruence
i guess if it comes from a homomorphism, he is free to use congruence, but its not the only way he gets to use the congruence notation
..
which is silly and confusing
i would say that it isn't even worth paying attention to the distinction
with my misconception earlier, it happened because i thought he used congruence because i thought he implicitly meant H could be the kernel of some homomorphism
my understanding is that when he calls it congruence in 2.7 he never says thats specific to being defined by a homomorphism. and by that point, he has not introduced cosets yet, where he also wants to use the term congruence
i dont understand why you would make the distinction for a homomorphism if it wasnt meant to be used specifically for them
idk whatever, should i just treat congruence and equivalence relations synonymously?
what did he use it for last time? if it's about homomorphisms, the cosets are the fibers of the natural projection homomorphism
i imagine if he had introduced congruences by the time you had covered cosets and homomorphisms then he'd use the term for both
if anything the part where he uses it for cosets should just be understood as a generalization of when he does in 2.7, once the new concept has been introduced
what did he use what for last time
the "congruence relation" idea
yes
it would be pretty irresponsible to say something was "usually denoted" as something and actually have it entail a specific differentiating definition
what is artin's definition of congruence, btw?
um he didnt define it
oh nice
oh he really just says it like that
he wants to communicate that its just a synonym that is preferred in the context of fibers/cosets
hmm okay
we need to teach setoids lowkey lmao
an setoid
ok sure i can work with that idea
well there is a subtle difference i guess since congruence is specifically an algebraic notion
for some b in the image of a map on sets, the fiber is just the set of elements that map to b right
i liked the d&f illust. for fibers under a homomorphism, solidified my intuition pretty well
let me get it out

yes this is my favorite example
this makes sense though yeah
each fiber contains complex numbers of the same modulus
and so the circle's radius represents the magnitude/modulus of that complex number right
like if you think of a complex number as a vector and then swivel it around, all those vectors are in the same equivalence class
i was trying to explain this to somebody early today with a similar example
and the horizontal line is the set of points that maps to the single point on H?
the horizontal line is like the "H-axis"
it's the codomain H
the points are where the lines get mapped to
those are the fibers living above the points
yeah, the fiber for each element in the image of a map is the set of elements in the domain that map to that element
if i had to sum it up Concisely
i just think of it as a sort of generalization of a bijection, where instead of a unique inverse you have a "set" of inverses
thinking in terms of fibers/bundles becomes important later, say, when you study diff geometry or sheaves
bro got the isomorphism thoerems
agreed, very broad and important idea
interesting
the ordering of this chapter feels awkward though, i feel like he couldve introduced quotient groups in tandem with cosets and used integers as good examples
https://pseudonium.github.io/2026/01/10/Indexed_Fibred_Duality.html
you may find this interesting
cuz quotient groups is a few subchapters ahead
naturality is a beautiful thing ig
diagram so good i just explained to my dad what fibers are
why are they called jets?
im blaming the... physicists?
is that accurate?
woosh
oh nice
how were you thinking of them as subobject classifiers?
okay, maybe i will try to meditate on this too. im not the most familiar with subobject classifiers
okay, cool. will play around with these
For b),
Let r be the primitive l-th root of unity over F_p.
Now if r in F_p^k, then r has to be order l in F_p^k^{×}. It implies l should divide p^k -1 , implies f≤k.
So it implies n≤f. Now I will show r in F_p^f.
Since l divides p^f -1 hence F_p^f has an element e such that e has multiplicative order {l}. Hence from that e I can generate r.
Is it correct?
And any hint for part c, latter part?
So you know phi factors into irreducible polynomials, and those factors will be the minimal polynomials of its roots.
So then what you need to determine is, what are the degrees of these polynomials and do you have multiple roots?
Roots are distinct
Because l-1 is relatively prime to l
So f' and f has gcd 1
So all irreducible polynomials are distinct
So I have to show if I pick any irreducible factor then one of the primitive root should be the root of that irreducible polynomial
The clue is in the first part of the exercise
Not sure I follow this reasoning. But an easy way to show the roots are distinct is just to list all the roots
If they have repeated roots the gcd of f and f' is polynomial of degree ≥ 1
But how is that related to l-1 being relatively prime to l (which is just something that would be true for any polynomial f)?
because i am showing f = x^l -1 has distinct roots, because \phi(x) is a factor of f so if f has distinct roots then \phi too.
now f' = lx^l-1, since l \neq p so l^-1 exists, hence xl^-1f' - f = 1.
sorry not l-1, i think now it is clear
how do i find the number of primitive roots ?
i know over Q
oh it is same
ah it depends
wai
ah i don't get it
Do you know the relationship between the degree of F(a) and the minimal polynomial of a?
in a PID a prime ideal has basically two moods: either it is 0 in which case the quotient is just the original PID again or it is nonzero hence maximal so the quotient is a field and a field is the ultimate lazy PID since it has no nontrivial ideals to worry about 
yea, that's what I thought]
cool
thanks
yes both are equal
So for an lth root of unity a what is the degree of the minimal polynomial of
a^n?
Sure
l is prime and all roots generate by a, so for F[a^n], the degree is same as f
where f defined in the exercise
n is not divsible by l
So then all the irreducible factors have degree f, and then there must be (l-1)/f of them
yes
so when p not divide l there is a primitive l-th root of unity, but when p divide l then there is no primitive l-th root of unity
can i change l by any n ?
could I have help with (a)
There does exist a common multiple trivially yes
but how do I prove it's the least
have you proved ED implies PID?
so try to find the lcm of a and b in terms of ideals
do you how to characterize the gcd(a,b) in terms of ideals?
the interesction is generted by the gcd
no
hmm?
how did u defined the gcd?
yes it is <a,b> not intersection of (a) and (b)
both definition is equivalent
so <gcd(a,b)> = <a,b>
but find if (a) \intersection (b) = (c) then what property c have
a is genertaed by both b and c
so it's a multiple of both
oh yay categorical product
oh right
I'll think a bir more I guess
I appreciate this diagram a lot more after learning $[G:\ker T] = |\im \phi|$. Tyvm for sharing
Altanis
Cuz each fiber can represent a coset of ker phi
i owe it to d&f, it's their visual aid for cosets as well
Not sure why artin didn't include it tbh. Moreover he randomly dropped the term isomorphism class without defining it just now while reading 😭
algebraists ☕
heavily depends on what the action is
lmao
I do like the stuff Artin did in math though
Is it often used to compute |X| though or is it more something you use in proofs?
p[retty silly question, I know
my idea was $( \Z/ (n_{1}\Z \times\dots \times n_{k} \Z) \cong \left(\Z \ n_1 \Z \times. \dots \times \Z \ n_{k}\Z \right)$
wai
Typically |X| is easy to compute / given.
The places I would see this come up would for example be in proving that one of [G:G_x] is not divisible by p.
For example if |X| is a multiple of p, but |X^G| is not, then you know at least one [G:G_x] is not as well
Or the other way, say G is a p-group, so that each [G:G_x] is a multiple of p. Then |X| = |X^G| modulo p.
Thanks!
How can a function that takes you to a function be a homomorphism?
Groups can be groups of functions no?
so Aut(G)is a group of functions on G
I guess. What would the operation be, then?
function composition afaik
I guess that makes sense
I have a question for you
What is S_3( this is key)
Permutations of 1 2 3?
what are permutations really ( they are bijective functions, think about this)
like (132) isn't that a function from (1,2,3) to (1,2,3)
Hm it is
Oh, and operations in S_3 are just compositions of those
I probably would’ve figured this out quicker if I thought of groups as automorphisms of an element of a groupoid
,w groupoid
is that cat theory lingo
Yeah, sry 😭
Category where every morphism is an isomorphism
sorry for the blurry picture, i'm guessing that for Z[x], it factors into 2 * 2 * (x^2 - x + 2), and then i have to show that x^2 - x + 2 is irreducible?
i'm not quite sure how to do it for Q[x] and for Z_11[x]
and irreducible means every factorization has a unit, but Q[x] is also a field iirc? so then how would we have an irreducible element in Q[x]
ah wait i did smth wrong
Q[x] is definitely not a field
i had it as x^2 - x + 4 instead of x^2 - x + 2
x has no inverse
oh shoot youre right
But indeed in Q[x] you can divide out the 4 and make the polynomial monic
Same thing for Z/11Z
monic?
Leading coefficient is 1
ah
it's neither
you use it to study the properties of either [G:G_x] or |X^G|
so for example you'd use this formula to prove the Sylow's 3rd theorem
i ended up doing that and got it to factor into irreducibles but i dont think i'm doing it right
bc i dont think i can just divide by 4 out of nowhere
Uhmmm a collection of sets where every function between them has an inverse
no,no, it's just that I know no cat theory
4 is a unit in Q and Z/11Z so it doesn't really influence the factorization and irreduciblility of the factors
ah
It's different in Z though
Thanks, yeah, I guess the most important thing you follow out of it is that |X^U| = |X| mod p for U a p-group, and then you use that everywhere
hi new to rings, but just wondering. do other rings like say M_n(F) have an analogue for primes?
like are there prime matrices. i assume this doesnt rlly work for matrices since the multiplicative inverse doesnt exist for all matrices (or is there a different reason?) but are there non standard analogues for primes in other rings or groups or fields or whatever
i'm not sure what you mean by "non standard analogue" but there's just a general notion of a prime element in rings
The usual convention is that an ideal of R is prime if it is proper and if aRb is contained in the ideal then either a or b is in the ideal.
Then an element is prime if it generates a prime ideal.
In Mn(F) the only ideals are (0) and Mn(F) so you don't get any nonzero primes
I see, we havent gotten to that notion yet, its only been in the context of Z
ooh okay, i dont know what most of these words mean they only now defined a ring. But thank you ! i shall look into this
also do we have left/right cancellation in rings?
like if c(ab) = c(ba) can we say ab=ba or no
noncommutative rings have analogues of primes but they're define differently
Jagr gave a definition but an equivalent definition is that an ideal P is prime if for any two ideals, I and J, IJ \subseteq P implies I \subseteq P or J \subseteq P
Oh right so is this because there isnt always multiplicative inverse or is it because multiplication doesnt always commute? as in which property implies which i forget
only in rings with no zero divisors does this hold
they're usually called domains (or integral domains if they're commutative)
so an ideal is a subset of the ring? do we not define primes in the integers as elements, and not subsets? this generalization confused me with how it would work wrt to integer primes
though idk what an ideal is so maybe i just need to follow the course a bit more 😅 so when we say 5 is a prime in the integers, what ideal are we refering to? or have i confused it
primes and prime ideals are the same think basically in Z
so is an ideal not always a subset then?
the prime ideals in Z are sets of the form {px | x in Z}
i.e. pZ
where p is a prime number
so how does 5Z represent the prime number 5 in Z?
The ideals of Z are exactly of the form nZ for n a non-negative integer. And then nZ is a prime ideal if and only if n is prime
This is actually the historically origin of the name ideal.
Since statement about non-negative integers can be made into statements about ideals in Z, it turned out ideals better generalized certain statements, so they are what numbers "should" have been. They are the "ideal numbers"
that's interesting
i see we learn about ideals at some point so this will probably make more sense later !
thank you so much !

Specifically, it's that unique factorization might fail in ring of integers of a number field, but factorization of ideals into prime ideals work.
So Kummer made a definition for "ideal numbers", and then dedekind extended this definition to arbitrary rings (naming them just ideals)
oh nice
yeah before i fell asleep last night the thought of "why are ideals called ideals" crossed my mind
The original reason he defined these is because he wanted to prove FLT
Since when you have a statement like x^p + y^p = z^p you can factorize this in Z[ζ_p] and through unique factorization get a contradiction
But cyclotomic fields are very rarely UFDs
So to get around this he introduced his theory of ideal numbers which today are a predecessor to ideals to rephrase the statement in terms of ideals
i see
He only managed to prove FLT for regular primes but it was still a huge accomplishment!
He was the first to notice that in dedekind domains even though we don't have unique factorization of elements we do have unique factorization of ideals
So his proof went along these lines
The idea is quite clever
You write the factorization of Fermat's equation in terms of principal ideals generated by elements like (x+ζ^k y) and their product equals some principal ideal to the p-th power
Now by unique factorization you have that each of these (x+yζ^k) ideal is equal to A^p_k where A_k is some ideal
i.e. it's an ideal that to the p-th power is principal
But p doesn't divide the class number
So clearly A_k has to be principal as well
And now by some case checking (I forget the details off the top of my head) you get a contradiction
yeah that's slick
Classical Cyclotomic methods don't really get you much farther than this
maybe i'll look at that proof tonight before bed
There are some generalizations and stuff
But if you wanna prove the full FLT you need two very difficult hypotheses
One is Vanderviers conjecture
And another is a technical hypothesis we don't really know much about lol
Can’t wait for 2^31+1 to provide a counter example
,w 2^(31)+1 is prime
L
That’s basically prime
,w 2^(31)+3 is prime
damn
hi everyone i'm back, i'm trying to express the gcd of 49349 and 15555 in the form a(49349) + b(15555) = 61, but i'm not quite sure how to find a and b for some reason
here is the euclidean algorithm i did
i think i vaguely remember needing to go backwards in it?
or smth?
Notice
61 = 549 - 488
and
488 = 2135 - 3*549
so
61 = 549 - (2135 - 3*549) = 4*549 - 2135
Etc
does the fact that, for homomorphism $\phi: G \to H$, $|G| = |\ker \phi| \times |\im \phi|$ have any connection whatsoever to rank nullity in linalg
Altanis
Yes, they are both consequences of the first isomorphism theorem:
Im phi = G/ker phi
i can see that
my book puts this fact before that thm tho
but yes i see it ty
well i mean i could basically prove the first isomorphism thm rn, i know there's a bijection from the left cosets of ker phi to im phi
ah that'll do it. thank you!
If you're working over a finite field (say with q elements) then dim V = log_q |V|, so that would be another way to connect them
im very excited to get into quotients because it was a really cool topic in my linalg book but didn't have much use
ummm where is this from
that's very interesting
and |V| denotes the order of the vsp as a group?
wait what
ah yes finite field
i was confused cuz |V| < infty but thats cuz i worked over R/C
And n-dim vector space is isomorphic to k^n and |k^n| = |k|^n = q^n which you can rewrite as
log_q |k^n| = n
this swould be covered in my abstract alg book right lol
i understand though
\begin{theorem}[Chaining Property of the Index]{Let $K \le H \le G$ be subgroups of $G$. Then $[G: K] = [G: H][H: K]$.}
Let $[G: H] = m, [H: K] = n$. Then choose $g_1, \dots, g_n \in G$ and $h_1, \dots, h_m \in H$ for which $g_1H, \dots, g_nH$ are distinct left cosets of $H$ and $h_1K, \dots, h_nK$ are distinct left cosets of $K$. Then note their unions partition $G$ and $H$ respectively. Fixing some $1 \le k \le m$, note $g_kH$ is partitioned by $g_kh_1K \cup \cdots g_kh_mK$. Doing this for each $k$ yields $mn$ distinct cosets of $K$ that partition $G$, completing the proof.
\end{theorem}
\begin{remark}[Chaining Property for Multiple Subgroups]
By induction, we can generalize this theorem for subgroups $G_1 \le \cdots \le G_n \le G$ of $G$.
\end{remark}
is there an analogue for groups of infinite order perhaps?
Altanis
could you use cardinals and just redefine what m * n means for cardinals
I think so?
although (assuming axiom of choice) m * n = max(m, n) if one of m, n is infinite (and both are non-zero, which we get for subgroups)
So really you only get something interesting if K is the same cardinality as G
Yes, essentially the same proof works for infinite groups too.
Idk how cardinal math works so :p was just wondering
Alr nice
The proof is basically more important than the statement here.
If {gi} are coset representatives for G/H and {hj} representatives for H/K, then {gi * hj} give you representatives for G/K. This is true infinite or not
And so you get a bijection between G/K and G/H x H/K.
What is the group theoretic definition of G/H
Is it the set of all cosets of H?
I haven't gotten to quotient spaces yet but I feel like I could make that guess
Alr
Wait what about left and right cosets
Does the quotient group or wtvr comprise both
G/H = left cosets
H\G = right cosets
Oh interesting
For a quotient group you would have the left cosets equal to the right cosets
This is equivalent for normal subgroup H right?
Yes, for normal subgroup the left coset gH equals the right coset Hg
Cuz normal subgroups are invariant under conjugation so it shouldn't matter where the group element is appended to
Ah ok
(problem 4 part b) How does one construct an isomorphism? I don't want the solution to the problem, I just need to know how to solve it lmao. My professor insists on teaching through examples so we haven't done really any definitions or methods yet. The full problem is for context, since most of what I've seen otherwhere is isomorphisms over vector spaces.
You can explicitly write the elements for each one if you want
then match
Is there an order they should be in, or does it not really matter.
And how would I do it generally
Identity maps to identity, transpositions map to transpositions etc
Note that GL2(F2) and S3 are both defined by an action. The former acting on (F2)^2 and the latter on {1, 2, 3}.
So for example if you can cook up three things that GL2(F2) permutes you would get a homomorphism to S3
Like this?
Also, what does 'defined by an action' mean?
Just that they are some set of functions where the group operation is composition.
For S3 they are bijections on {1,2,3} and for GL2(F2) they are invertible linear maps on (F2)^2
yeah if you can show that GL2(F2) acts faithfully on a set of 3 points then you are done p much
So in a general case, I would look for things that GLn(Fp) permutes in a similar way to Sk?
GL3(F2) would have an isomorphism with S8 since 2^3 different 3x1 column vectors can be made, each aligning with one element in S8?
not quite, because you wouldn't get all of the permutations
its a special thing for GL2(F2)
basically because all possible permutations of the nonzero elements can be reached
nonzero = nonzero vectors?
but yeah in general you can get a lot of nice isomorphisms or relations between symmetric groups using this method of just finding a nice set that the group acts on
yeah
another example is that the general affine group GA2(F2) (i.e., transformations of the form x\mapsto Ax+b where A is in GL and b is in F2)
is isomorphic to S4
because GA2(F2) acts on (F2)^2 in the obvious way, so each transformation gives you a permutation, and you can show that (1) all permutations can be reached and (2) a permutation fixing every point must be trivial (this part is obvious)
hm i guess this belongs in another channel actually cuz it's not really abstract alg related
It doesn't?
no sorry i was talking about something i sent that i deleted
ah kk
For non-commutative rings what structure does the set of torsion element enjoy? I know for commutative ring it is a submodule but in the non-commutative case the property of being a subgroup fails
"As p-Sylow groups of G, P and Q are also p-Sylow groups of N_G(Q)" when can we make such a statement? I didn't send more context yet, maybe it's possible to answer this in general so that it's not necessary
Don't we need the power of the prime p in |G| being the same as in |N_G(Q)|?
N_G(Q) is the normalizer of Q in G, why is that the case then?
Note that Q is a subgroup of N(Q), and that the power of p dividing |N(Q)| can't be bigger than the one dividing |G|.
So Q will be the p-sylow subgroup of N(Q). Whether P is depends on whether P is a subgroup of N(Q) at all.
nvm they would just be a set. nothing interesting
I don't get the c part, how the class equation is, the center can contain more than q-1 elements, right?
q is defined as the order of Z
Ah my bad
(And hence the intersection of Z with non-zero elements is a-1)
Okay | q - r | > q-1, where r is any root of unity, how does it lead to contradiction?
Okay, q-1 = \phi_n(q) × t
But it implies |t| < 1
But t must be an integer, because everything in sight is
(It would help to see (d))
Why? Yes other things are in Z
phi_n is an integer polynomial
So phi_n(q) is an integer
Which divides the integer q-1 an integer number of times
And that number is t
I think i have to prove phi_n divides x^n-1 / (x^m_i -1) in Z[x]
Gauss’ Lemma
How?
They divide in Q basicallt by definition of phi_n
Is this not true for bijective functions (it looks like it claims for every function). Example a' related to a'' but not equal.
This holds for all functions. It should be easy to verify that the given relation is an equivalence relation.
in the case that f is injective, then a ~ b if and only if f(a) = f(b) if and only if a = b
I think i misunderstood, my real question is if f is bijective then doesn't this equivalence relation require every element of A to have their own unique equivalence class (also meaning the equivalence class has only one element). Because if not, then let's say a certain equivalence class C has two or more elements, and we let x and y \in C and let x != y (because there exist two distinct elements). Then x ~ y, yet f(x) != f(y) from the bijective property, but this is a contradiction that x ~ y iff f(x) = f(y).
yes
where F(S) is a free group generated by set S
I was somewhat surprised that it is just unique up to isomorphism, and not fully unique
does it come from the fact that we can choose any fresh elements for the sets to represent S^-1 and empty word?
i.e. here:
so we can have different isomorphic free groups on S, that differ only on S^-1 and on empty word, but are exactly the same on S
Wdym fully unique ?
that just one object exists
You could take S = {a} and then S = {b}, both F(S) are isomorphic, but are different since a and b are different as a letter
mm, but the corollary says that the set S is the same, we fix it
"F(S) is unique up to isomorphism which is the identity map on the set S", that's for a fixed set S, so your example is not applicable
so my question is why it doesn't say "There is a unique F(S) for every set S"
I think the answer comes from that screenshot that I quoted. I.e. from our ability to choose any elements for S^-1 set and for the empty word. So our F(S) is not unique, because we can choose say 384 to represent the empty word, but in another universe we can choose \pi to represent the empty word. The result would be technically the same (because we are not using pi or 384 as actual numbers, just some symbols for "empty word"), but the construction is still slightly different. Hence those free groups on S would only be isomorphic, but not the same.
but wanted to double check
something a bit stronger can be said, the free group is unique up to unique isomorphism
Mmm, I don't really see the subtle difference induced by that additional claim that isomorphism is unique... Can we have an example. Say, I have a set S={a}. And I generate some free groups out of it. Can you show me two different free groups on this set that are isomorphic to each other and that unique isomorphism between them?
The difference would be as you described, for example a^-1 was something different.
Then the point is that there is a unique isomorphism fixing S
Once S is fixed everything else is determined
right. So the uniqueness of the isomorphism there is saying that once we determined what symbols we use for a^-1 and empty word, the mapping {a -> symbol for a, a^-1 -> symbol for a^-1, 1 -> symbol for empty word} is fully determined by "a |-> symbol for a" (in this example a is the only one member of S)
you could also label the elements of S as (s,0) and their inverses as (s,1).
this way there's no need to choose S^{-1} or the bijection, and F(S) is well defined
yeah, but effectively it is choosing S^{-1} in a way
you choose that elements of S^-1 are to be tuples of elements of S combined with 1
yes and also making it clear how to distinguish elements of Sx{0} and S^{-1} ( := Sx{1})
grr the notation for this is confusing
Mmm, combing back to the uniquness of isomorphism. I think it is saying that we can't "permute" this mapping: {a -> symbol for a, a^-1 -> symbol for a^-1, 1 -> symbol for empty word} in any way. Once we fixed correspondence between a and symbol for a and we chose other symbols.
i.e. we can't say map "a^-1" to symbol for empty word and claim that this is isomorphism
anyway, this is all a little bit "meta", and confusing indeed
what's "symbol for a"
ah, right, we have no "symbol for a", we just use "a" itself
but by "symbol for a^-1" I meant an element from S^{-1} that we chose to be the inverse for a
I think I was also confused by what exactly "unique isomorphism" means
but now I think I get it. Once we fix those two free groups and their elements, the fact that isomorphism between them is unique means that there is just one bijective function that preserves the group property
and this isomorphism takes "symbol for empty word in free group 1" to "symbol for empty word in free group 2" and so on
I like to think of it as the isomorphism induced by the universal property
Right. That’s what they use in the proof of that corollary
hi guys just joined this channel because i need help with mathematics
ill iform yall if i need help
haha, but there is a person with exactly the same pfp already @crystal vale
lol guess ill change it then
is the phrase "reversing the roles of g and g^-1" valid
Yeah
if you want more fomality, then you can introduce, say, $k$, as $g^{-1}$. And then you have $khk^{-1} \in H$, or substituting back: $g^{-1}hg \in H$
dying_sphynx
Oh, the power of p in |Q| has to be less than the one in N(Q), and even if they're not the same, it's still a Sylow p-subgroup of N(Q). Thanks! For some reason I was thinking for a moment that we want the powers to match, which they don't necessarily, but that's fine
I mean, they will match.
Like say p^k is the largest power of p dividing |G|. Then |Q| = p^k. As Q is a subgroup of N(Q) we must have that p^k divides |N(Q)|. Since |N(Q)| divides |G|, this must in fact be the largest power of p dividing |N(Q)|
Oh, say the power is k as Sylow-subgroup of G and q as ... of N(Q). Then k <= q from Q <= N(Q) and q <= k from N(Q) <= G. So k = q. Does that look right?
not quite sure how to do this with polynomials, i know for regular numbers you just do the euclidean algorithm but this polynomial is super weird
You do the same thing
what
:')
wait can't i simplify this proof by saying |gHg^-1| = |H|?
i do
but i was told that wont give us a solution in Q[x]
or is it just multiple polynomial divisions to get the gcd
don’t do the exercise skip it
Unironically this
skip it anyways 
Have fun doing long division then 
chat 💔
what’s the point of finding the damn gcd of two degree-10 polynomials lmao?
The point is to go back idk how many years to remember how to do long division
Annoying exercise
computationslop
maybe there's some easy factorization lol
Of course there might be one but it's not obvious at first glance
this proof is valid, right? if so, which proof is preferable
but but but students gotta learn how euclid's algo works 🥺
wait k[x] is a PID right
yes
Yeah it's an ED
I didn’t even properly read the exercise lmao I just saw a polynomial of degree 10 and gave up
Yup that's why you can do euclidean algorithm
in k[x] yes
yes
poylnomials with coefficients in k
use wolfram and see what u get
LMAOOOOO
it means field extension
ohhhh
oh
i have not learned that
i don't think that's what they meant...
ah
Yeah Korper
oh interesting!
my book uses F for field like a NORMY
Körper
F is only for finite fields
ooh
haha yes good one
Hold my F_(1+i)
I just messed around by hand for fun since I was too lazy to do the full algorithm properly I tried to write your little polynomial as (x^3 + 2x - 1) times something then I divided the big polynomial by x^3 + 2x - 1 and checked that the two resulting quotient polynomials are coprime so if I didn’t screw up the gcd is x^3 + 2x - 1
🫡 i'll see if i can verify it
But perhaps the isomorphism I used at the beginning is unnecessarily strong
From that, we get that there is only one q-Sylow-group of Z/(q(p - 1)Z) up to isomorphism
ILikeMathematics
i definitely did smth wrong, my answer was your answer times -59
I think you have to be a little bit careful here about infinite groups (then using |A| = |B| when those both are infinities is kinda suspicious). I think I liked the idea of the previous proof more. You just need to show that H is a subset of gHg^-1. For each h from H you find a corresponding h' from H such that h = gh'g^{-1} and that's it. It will be h' = g^{-1} h g . And we know that this is an element of H, because h is from H, and H is normal (and thus closed with respect to conjugates).
well actually since Q is a field cant we simplify by multiplying by -1/59?
bc units
Maybe like this: Instead, consider a general group G of order pq(p-1). Then |Syl_p(G)| in {1, p, q, (divisors of p - 1)}. But also |Syl_p(G)| = 1 mod p so it can only be 1 or q. But q is not possible, otherwise p | q - 1 even though p > q. So |Syl_p(G)| = 1. Now |Syl_q(G)| in {1, p, q, (divisors of p - 1)}. But also |Syl_p(G)| = 1 mod q so it can only be 1, p or a divisor of p - 1. It cant be p otherwise q | p - 1. It cant be a divisor of p - 1 otherwise q | d - 1 and so q | p - 2, (now im still trying to find a contradiction here, why is q | p - 2 not possible...)
$q \nmid (p - 1)$ but $q \mid (p - 2)$ where $p > q$ are prime seems fine..
ILikeMathematics
here how you should think about it
take a group G of order pq
then clearly it has a sylow p-subgroup of size p and a sylow q-subgroup of size q
Now using Sylow's third theorem you should show the number of p-subgroups is 1 and the number of q-subgroups is also 1
so clearly they're normal and their intersection is trivial
as well you should show that they generate the whole group
then you can conclude that your groups is exactly Z/pZ x Z/qZ
It seems this didnt use q nmid p - 1?
Ah probably here
Yeah ok this is basically my way just that I considered G of order pq(p - 1) and then used the third Sylow theorem, but yeah, then that seems unnecessarily complicated
Thanks!
yeah I'm not really sure what you were doing haha
I think I've seen this exercise in D&F, before Sylow theorems chapter
are you specifically interested in solving it using Sylow's theorems, and not other means? I suppose so
Ex. 4.4.2 in section on Automorphisms (they show in the text that this group is Abelian, and then in the exercise additionally show that it's cyclic)
Yes but I think I almost did that now, just thinking about the last step. What do you mean by other means? How else could we solve it
they show in the text that this group is Abelian, and then in the exercise additionally show that it's cyclic
this?
What's your definition of normal here (since you say gHg^- < H by definition)?
Because the usual definitions of normality I can think of would be
- gHg^-1 = H
- gH = Hg
- H is the kernel of a group homomorphism
Now whats left to show is that P cong Z/pZ and Q cong Z/qZ
since there is an ordering for finite presentations (for fp groups), did anybody try going through them one by one see what groups come up? I understand that the isomorphism problem for finite presentations is not decidable, but one could just abort after some time and write down unknown. Also let me know if this is the wrong channel
I want to show P and Q are cyclic. Take a in P. Assume 2 <= ord(a) < p. Then ord(a) | (...) [to be completed] but p is prime, contradiction!
Well showing that PQ is the whole group is the "hard part". Their orders are p and q respectively, so they are automatically cyclic.
Why?
Why are they cyclic
We just know they have p and q elements
Groups of prime order p are cyclic (particularly they are Z/(p)), as you seem to have also proved.
How does the proof go?
Take any non identity element x. Then ord(x)>1 and also ord(x)|p by lagranges theorem. This must mean ord(x)=p because p is prime
showing lagrange's theorem now
So |<x>| | |G|
Why the thinking emote? That should seem right
Thanks!
It is
But also, I havent established yet that Z/pZ x Z/qZ cong Z/pqZ
Do we construct the isomorphism explicitly?
normal means that, for fixed g in G, ghg^-1 in G for every h in H
gHg^-1 = {ghg^-1: h in H} btw, the textbook uses that
hi, here it states in a division ring every non zero element has a left and right inverse, and seems to say that they are always equal.
My prof said they can sometimes not be equal, and then corrected himself to say one inverse may exist while the other doesnt. He also said that whether theyre the same doesnt matter if its commutative (i.e they will be the same) but it seems theyre the same regardless. Would then commutative imply that both inverses always exist and are thus the same?
Also, what we have until now is QP = G
See chinese lemma
And Q cong Z/qZ and P cong Z/pZ
I dont have that available
Is (Z/qZ) * (Z/pZ) actually the same as (Z/qZ) x (Z/pZ)?
Not sure what you mean by *
I see, then I guess dying sphinx gave you a good hint
In a commutative ring, one sided inverse exists implies two sided inverse exists yes (and they will be equal by what you said)
If you're in a commutative setting them ab = ba
So if ab = 1, then you would also have ba = 1.
UV = {uv | u in U, v in V}
I see, so there are cases where only one exists?
Yes
ah okay. thank you <3
What is true is that if
ab = 1 and bc = 1, then a=c
But it could be that ab = 1 and there's no such c
What I have right now is: $$G = PQ$$ with $$P \cong \mathbb Z/p\mathbb Z \quad \text{and} \quad Q \cong \mathbb Z/ q \mathbb Z$$ so $$G \cong (\mathbb Z / p\mathbb Z) \cdot (\mathbb Z / q \mathbb Z),$$ no?
And not the cartesian product yet
ILikeMathematics
And to show that G=PxQ, you need P intersection Q to be trivial, and every element of P commutes with every element of Q
Yes
Which would be the case since p and q are (presumably) distinct primes, so the intersection is trivial
Yes, that was their exercise.
Yes, I showed the intersection is trivial
Other means = without Sylow
But why does that help
How does that allow us to turn multiplication into a cartesian product
I’ll show you
I won’t prove it here by in general if G is a group with subgroups H,K with HK=G, the intersection of H and K is trivial and hk=kh then G is isomorphic to H external product with K
Try the homomorphism φ(h,k)->hk and check its an isomorphism
Ok but actually, I think we dont need cartesian products here. We can just show directly that (Z/pZ)(Z/qZ) cong Z/pqZ, no?
Since we cant use CRT anyways
Im just not sure about the isomorphism yet
Ah, alright
external product with K* yes
Thank you lol
where this is the normal product UV = {uv | u in U, v in V}
I don’t know how exactly, I haven’t yet tried to solve that exercise, but I can try and share with you later, if you are interested
Oh, sure
What can you tell me about P and Q
They are cyclic, of order p and q
So we get $G \cong \langle a, b \rangle$ with $P = \langle a \rangle$ and $Q = \langle b \rangle$
ILikeMathematics
Nice, what do you know about cyclic groups and groups whose orders are distinct primes?
Just use the second isomorphism theorem ^^
is a "congruence class" the same thing as a residue class
They are isomorphic to Z/pZ
How?
and a residue is the representative of that class?
(H n N)/N cong HN/N
namely that cyclic groups are abelian, and that groups of distinct prime order intersect trivially. Then you can use the isomorphism I showed you to prove that you indeed get the result you’re looking for
Not really sorry, I didn’t notice that you already said G = PQ
Ah, alright
Using the assumptions I outlined above, you can prove that you have an isomorphism between G and the product of the two quotient groups you have
Can we directly show that $$(\mathbb Z/p \mathbb Z) \cdot (\mathbb Z/q \mathbb Z) \cong (\mathbb Z/pq \mathbb Z)$$ without dealing with any cartesian products at all?
ILikeMathematics
Since the isomorphism you showed at the beginning was the one with the cartesian product..?
I’m lagging
Yes, just use a generator argument
Yes by finding an element of order pq
Ok yeah thats what I want to do, we have Z/pZ = <a> and Z/qZ = <b>
Okay perfect. Then what is the order of a and b respectively
p and q
Nice, now what would the order of ab be?
So what can you say about G
So now what we need is showing that ab is in G, right?
Then we are done since <ab> c G and they are of the same order (G is of order pq) => <ab> = G
Well, what’s the order of G
Done
ab is in G because you already stated it’s the product of two groups. So a in P with b in Q is ab in G
Done
Oh thats great! Thanks a lot!
No problem
...but it is, right?? Zn is the identity coset 0 + Zn of the additive group (Zn, +)
I think they just want to distinguish between Zn with a subgroup structure and 0+Zn the coset
This is, like, incredibly stupid and confusing though
Oh

I think what they're trying to say is it's not a multiplicative coset?
Since you are using yhe same notation as in the multiplicative case
Still incredibly dumb and confusing way to put that
in general a subgroup is always one of its own cosets though right
Like Zn is not a coset in the sense the {Zn: n \in Z} does not partition Z
A subgroup, yea
yes
Again I think this is just trying to make some sort of semantic/notational point but failing spectacularly
i wrote notes on that page as such
but i was very confused reading that sentence on a first pass lmao so i asked about it here
always saw the integer multiples of n written as nZ, justifying the Z/nZ notation for residue classes mod n
-# you made the top 10 communist countries video?????
hello. i have some questions. Could you explain the concepts of 'group', 'ring', and 'field' in abstract algebra? I am specifically looking to understand the underlying logic behind them and why they are so fundamentally important
that’s not a question that’s several semesters
They’re so important because they make precise the different ways that’s you can combine objects and their general behaviour.
Fields are the stuff you know from highschool, the real and complex numbers, you can multiply and divide, and everything commutes
A group is the information behind symmetries. Things associate, have inverses, but they might not commute and you only have one operation (think about rotating and reflecting an n-gon)
Rings are stuff that look like the integers or polynomials, you can add and multiply but probably not divide and they need not commute (all fields are rings, and all rings are groups under addition)
As to anything more specific, you’re just going to want to pick up a book like Artin Algebra
A field is something you can do high school algebra in
A group is something you do geometry with
A ring is something you can do number theory on
/hj
Like I say /hj, but that’s a good low level motivation actually
A very succinct summary of what I said lol
Though condemning rings to number theory is unfair, rings are actually interesting
Commutative rings are boring
Non-commutative rings are fun
Speaking of which I should catch up on the NNR lecture I missed
What are you doing right now? Like localisation?
Yeah
Noncommutative things shouldn't exist
My course was in bijection with the Oxford one so I presume the Cambridge one is pretty much the same
matrices aren't real
Localisation is cool, hard though
We just finished the regular (ie no left or right zero divisors) case, and now we’re doing the zero divisors case
Oh we avoided zero divisors in ours, that sounds fun
i know no one asked me but that sounds boring af 💀 😭
a semigroup (X, *) is a set X with an associative binary operation under which X is closed
a monoid (M, *) is a semigroup with an identity element 1 such that for each x in M, then x * 1 = x = 1 * x
a group (G, *) is a monoid where each element x has an inverse x^-1 such that x * x^-1 = 1 = x^-1 * x
a ring (R, +, *) is a triple where (R, +) is a group where + is commutative, for which the identity is called 0, and where (R, *) is a semigroup. if (R, *) is a monoid, the ring is unital. if (R, *) is a commutative monoid, the monoid identity is called 1, and the ring is commutative. furthermore, * distributes over +.
a division ring (R, +, *) is a unital ring where each element has an inverse under *; ie that (R - {0}, *) is a group
a field (K, +, *) is just a commutative division ring
hope this helps
wdym lol
localization
oh well
it's a simple idea in principle but it's hugely important
probably one of the most important tools for constructing new rings with very interesting properties
It’s just like formally inverting things, I.e. adding inverses or letting you divide, and this is really easy in commutative rings, you just kinda make fractions in the obvious way. But for noncommutative rings it’s really not clear how you should do this
And in fact you can’t always do it
well they're called local for a reason lol
In the case of commutative rings the original motivation is geometric
Also yeah local rings are interesting, it’s a simple definition but like, that’s kinda what algebraic geometry is all about
your ring of rational functions that behave well around a given point is in fact a local ring
Not that I find algebraic geometry interesting but it doesn’t mean the theory is easy
they show up in function germs
this is why it's called "local" to begin with
not just algebraic geometry but also complex and differential geometry
i took abstract algebra lesson already some years ago. but i didnot understand the main meaning of them i think
nice
but i will think your message
thank you so much
i dont want formel definitions
formel definitions are everywhere
pick a space (like R^n)
pick the ring of real-valued functions on that space (like C⁰(R^n, R))
in reality, this is not just a ring, but an R-algebra
check a point x in that space
hey, your answer is realllyy gooodd
then the continuous functions around that point x are either invertible in some small neighborhood of x
or f(x) = 0
in other words, locally around x, continuous functions are either invertible or they satisfy f(x) = 0
the functions f such that f(x) = 0 form a maximal ideal in that "local ring"
only in local rings
if f(x) != 0 it's a unit
in Z, (2) is a maximal ideal but that doesn't mean everything else is invertible haha
makes sense
usually local rings show up in manifolds and functions
cause they all satisfy that local invertibility thing
continuous functions on general manifolds
differentiable fcts on diff manifolds
smooth fcts on smooth manifolds
holomorphic functions on complex manifolds
regular functions on algebraic varieties
local rings like (Z localized at everything but p) are a bit stranger to understand
I don't fully understand them either

