#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 385 of 1
So say you have an ideal K in R x S, how might we produce an ideal in R and S to check if K is if the form IxJ?
find the ideals of Z/2 and Z/4, set them up as a product I x J, then include the forms I x Z/4 and Z/2 x J
then compute the quotient of each
i dont know
i've never done anything like that
So an ideal is in particular a subset of RxS. Any way to take a subset of RxS and get a subset of R?
i guess do the set theoretic way of K subset I x J and I x J subset K
R x \varnothing maybe?
Okay, say I have an element in RxS.
It looks like (r, s)
Is there any way to get an element in R from that?
projection map?
That would be a pretty natural way.
oh and preimage of an ideal is an ideal
So if K is an ideal in RxS and we apply the projection map, do we get an ideal in R?
i believe the projection map is surjective so yes we do get an ideal in R
Allright, so then we are able to create an I and J from K.
So now we need to check if K equals IxJ
yep
Maybe we first check if K is a subset of IxJ
take a k in K, since its a subset of R x S its of the form k = (r,s), and since K is an ideal (a,b)K subset K, so (ar, bs) in K for all a,b in R x S
then somehow reason thats in I x J
like i know (ai, bj) in I x J
Maybe recall to yourself how I and J were defined (how they're related to K)
for all a,b in R x S
like through the projection map?
So you have (r, s) in K. Then what it means for K to be a subset is that this also is an element of IxJ
What does that mean? What does it mean for (r,s) to be a subset of IxJ?
right
every (r,s) is in I x J
Okay, let me ask this, what is IxJ?
Maybe I'll go with an example:
Consider 2Z x 4Z the ideal in ZxZ. Is (3, 4) an element of 2Z x 4Z ?
no bc 3 isnt in 2Z
Right, so what is the condition that tells you whether
(r, s) is an element of IxJ?
r has to be an element of I and s has to be an element of J
Alright. So if (r, s) is in K. Would this be true?
it depends what r and s are i think
So, we wish to show that r is in I. What is the definition of I?
Well, it's not an arbitrary ideal. We defined it in a specific way
oh wait but I is the R-projection of K
idk what its actually called
but J is the S-projection of K
Yes, so what does this mean?
The projection should take (r, s) to... what?
just r
Right, so if (r, s) is in K, then...
So for an element (r, s) in K, we have r in I and s in J. Thus K is a subset of IxJ
ah
so then every element of I xJ is an element of K by definition so boom K = I x J
No, every element of K is an element of IxJ by definition, so K is a subset of IxJ
For the other inclusion you have to actually use that K is an ideal
oh
A hint could be that ||(r, s) = (r,0) + (0,s)||
rats
the reverse inclusion usually needs identities, do you have a 1? what happens next
probably not, so theres something wrong with it
As all rings do 
take an (r,s) in I x J, since I is the projection of an element r in K, we have that the preimage of r is (r, 0) i think?
do the same thing for J, get (0,s)
Well it's (r, t) for some t at least
ah
I guess we have to come up with a way to turn this t into a 0
Something we can do to an element of an ideal that turns it 0.
Something like adding or maybe multiplying by something, as one does with ideals
yeah if you got a 1 then multiplying by (1,0) is the move
Yeah, I guess it's hard to add something without knowing more about K.
Multiplying might be easier, since we can always multiply by whatever and stay in the ideal
oh true
my lord how did i not see that
and since K is an ideal its still in K
then do the same thing for J i guess
so i guess we can make it a whole proof
let K be an ideal of R x S and define I as the projection of R in R x S onto R and define J as the projection of S onto S. (idk how to word that better) we now want to show K = I x J. Take a k in K, k = (r,s). Clearly by definition every r in (r,s) is in I, and every s in (r,s) is in J, thus (r,s) in I x J and K subset I x J.
Conversely, take (r,s) in I x J. since I is the projection of an element r in K, we have the preimage of r is (r,t) for all t in J. Since K is an ideal, we have that (1,0)(r,t) = (r,0) in K. Similarly for an element s in J, we get (0,1)(t,s) = (0,s). Finally, we have (r,0) + (s,0) = (r,s), making I x J subset K. Thus K = I x J
very rough
Okay now I'm confused, why are we even working in Zp in the first place if they're algebraic integers
Nvm we're working with congruences with algebraic integers lol
Wait how is this reasoning wrong? If w^3 = 1, then w^3 - 1 = 0 x p. Thus w^3 is congruent to 1 mod p
Where does w^3 come into play
You're working with w^p
I know I was just curious how that specific statement was wrong
Is (-3/p) the legendre symbol?
It isn't but that's not what you were originally claiming
You claimed that w^p is congruent to 1 mod p
Yeah now I see
Anyways I'm just doing cases on if p is congruent to 0, 1, or 2 mod 3
1 mod 3 is easy, 2 mod 3 is giving me trouble
yeah
So then if Z/p has a third root it's 1 because (2w+1)^2 = -3
If Z/p does not have a third root, adjoining one you see that the square root of -3 is not in Z/p, so the symbol is -1
Nvm, since 1 + w + w^2 = 0, we have w^2 = -w - 1. Thus if p is congruent to 2 mod 3, we have 2w^2 + 1 = 2(-w - 1) + 1 = -2w - 1 = -tau
Can someone give me a hint on this problem? I've been trying to use the canonical projection from G to G/N, but I'm lost
yes, that is a very good idea
what do you have right now?
Well my thought was to think of n_p (G) as [G: N_G (P)] for some P in Syl_p (G) and n_p (G/N) as [G/N : N__(G/N) (Q) ] for some Q in Syl_p (G/N), but idk how elements of Syl_p (G) and Syl_p (G/N) are related so it felt fruitless
But my hope was to do something with images or preimages
well at the very least you can get a well-defined map from Sylp(G) to Sylp(G/N)
do you see how?
If P in Sylp(G), is PN in Sylp(G/N)? That's the only map I can think of, but I'm not sure how I would check this
what is the definition of a sylow p subgroup
A subgroup of G which has order p^k where p^k divides |G|, but p^(k+1) doesn't
And what is the order of PN/N?
there is a slightly better one you can use here; a sylow p subgroup is a maximal p subgroup of G
the 2nd Sylow theorem tells us that this statement is exactly equivalent to yours
Sure
so you can think about the p subgroups of G and G/N
oh wait so PN/N is isomorphic to P/(P intersect N), so PN/N has order p^k, so PN/N is a p-group
Indeed it is.
Even more if you give some names to the largest power of p dividing G and N you might get something more quantative
ok thanks guys hopefully this makes more sense once my meds have kicked in (:
sylow's proofs are hard for me to understand
oh wow thank you
On this problem I have an idea but idk if it's a red herring. Can someone help me out?
So if I have a normal subgroup of order p then I'm done, otherwise let's suppose not. So I don't have a normal Sylow-p subgroup meaning that n_p > 1. By the third Sylow theorem, I know that n_p is congruent to 1 modulo p and also must divide p+1. Therefore my only choice is that n_p = p+1.
Now, I know that if two distinct Sylow-p subgroups have order p^k, that their intersection has at most p^(k-1) elements. Therefore, since my Sylow-p subgroups are of order p, their pairwise intersections are trivial. Hence, there are a total of (p-1)(p+1) distinct elements of G in my Sylow-p subgroups.
Well, that means that the G has a total of p(p+1)-(p-1)(p+1)=p+1 distinct elements not in a Sylow-p subgroup.
It feels too coincidental to just have p+1 elements lying around for them not to be the p+1 elements I'm looking for, but I'm not sure how I would proceed. Plus idk what my prof's hint is about. Am I on the right track? Or I am going crazy?
Yes, those are exactly the p+1 elements you are looking for
So, those p+1 are exactly all the non p-torsion elements of G
Ok cool I'll keep thinking about it, I just wanted to make sure I wasn't completly off track
Thanks (:
: )
So we need the norm here to have a way to compare elements in some sense , right
so basically for the division lhrothm to make sense
Yeah
curious that no triangle inequality is required for this type of norm
well its an extremely loose notion of a "norm"
just there to make sure the euclidean algorithm terminates
fairly weak seems like an understatement lol
yeah that's rly weak lol
is it normally called a norm?
id highkey call it something else
I think my intro to rings course called it a Euclidean function
I don’t know how common that terminology is though
yeah valuation is another big one, basically just needs to play nice with division
Isn’t a valuation stronger than that?
yeah valuations usually have way more structure like the additive property, euclidean functions are super barebones
Suppose we have a subset X of a group G, and X is the kernel of some group homomorphism f:G->H. Does the first isomorphism theorem immediately tell us that X must in fact be a normal subgroup of G?
Might depend on your definition of normal subgroup / your formulation of the first isomorphism theorem.
But it should at least be immediate either way
what to do to demonstrate closure of a group?
do I need to 'solve' it for x and y?
For example:
on an open interval $( \frac{-1}{2}, \frac{1}{2})$, operation $\ast$ is defined as: $x\ast y = \frac{x+y}{1+4xy}$
I'm latex illiterate when it comes to goofy brackets
dan
so what do I do here?
I set it up like $\left| \frac{x+y}{1+4xy}\right| < \frac{1}{2}$
dan
You need to demonstrate that for any x and y in your group
x * y
is also an element of your group
I know but I'm not sure how
Am I supposed to use the inequality and show x and y for which it is true?
And what in case when boundaries aren't set like here?
The goal would be to show that |x+y|/|1+4xy| < 1/2 whenever |x| and |y| are < 1/2.
So you would just have to use properties of the absolute value, for example |x + y| <= |x| + |y|
You can also split into cases of either x and y have different signs or whatever else would be useful
Up to isomorphism there are two groups of order 14. My teacher just wrote down 2 groups Z_14 and D_7 without explaining, could someone give me an approach?
EDit:typo
D_4 does NOT have order 14
my bad
do you know sylow's theorems?
Yes, I do know all three
then you can conclude there is a unique subgroup of order 7 which is normal, and consider the semidirect product with some 2-subgroup
and there are two choices for that product
I assume you mean internal semidirect product, all I know is its definition. I looked this up, they mentioned this as well but this where I don't know where to go next. Any theorem that I will use with this type of product?
just from the definition + sylow theorems we can deduce all groups of order 14
note that all groups of order 14 have a normal subgroup of order 7 clearly
note that all semidirect products are uniquely determined (up to conjugacy classes of images of these actions) by what the action of a non-normal subgroup is on the normal one
i.e. a map from H to Aut(N)
where N is our normal subgroup and H is some subgroup such that H \cup N = G and H \cap N is trivial
but Aut(C7) = C6
and as theres only one element of order 2 in C7 theres only one nontrivial action and thus only one nonabelian group of order 14
but we already know D7 is nonabelian and order 14
so we must have that C14 and D7 are it
does this work for all groups of order 2p
yes
by a similar argument you can show that there's at most 2 groups of size pq for p < q primes, and you get the nontrivial one iff p divides q - 1
Let’s do pqr now
wow that's elegant
i think you can do it inductively, repeatedly applying schur-zassenhaus and using the previous classifications
On this problem, if we assume G doesn't have a normal subgroup of order p, then I've managed to show that the subset X = {x in G | ord(x) ≠ p} has p+1 elements. This should be the normal subgroup of order p+1 we are looking for, but I am struggling to show that it is in fact a subgroup. In particular, I can't figure out how to show closure. Can somebody help?
idt that's a subgroup
also why not consider what's given in the hint?
I haven't been able to figure out how to use the hint
My prof agreed that this is the set I should be looking at when I asked
We know that the number of Sylow-p subgroup of G is either 1 or p+1. So there are either p-1 or (p-1)(p+1) = p^2 -1 elements of order p in G, so I disagree with your first statement
yeah I changed it lol
I realized I framed it incorrectly
hold on
let me retract everything I've said I think my argument was heavily flawed
tdhis is the q
??
yes?
I don't think this is the intended solution given the hint: but something that works
||Note that if there are p+1 sylow p-subgroups, then every element of order p has (at least) p+1 conjugates, so cannot commute with any element not if order p||
||Take any non-identity element x of order not p. And let y be an element of order p.||
||As x and y cannot commute, yxy^-1 is a different element. So x will have (at least) p conjugates.||
||That means all the nonidentity elements not of order p are conjugates of x, hence have the same order.||
||Since this would include powers of x, its order must be prime, say q. And elements of G have either order p or q (or 1)||
||Then Cauchys theorem gives you that no other prime can divide the order of G, so p+1 is a power of q.||
||Then the p+1 elements not of order p must be the unique q-slow subgroup||
Okay, wait the hint actually simplifies this:
||Just consider the centralizer of x. It does not contain any element of order p, so x has at least p conjugates||
I mean, about the same but I guess that's what the hint was going for
@rocky cloak ofc ya answered it lel
So yeah to make a hint instead of a solution: ||an element x has |G/C(x)| conjugates||
sleepy ? i dunno always figures yr frm europe
,time
The current time for jagr2808 is 11:15 PM (CET) on Thu, 19/02/2026.
sorry deleted msgs to keeo chat clean
Thank you 🙏 I had most of these pieces most figured out but I just couldn’t piece them together
Perhaps there is hope for me to finish my homework by tomorrow
Alright I have to show that if $R$ is a PID, $B$ is a torsion $R$-module and $p \in R$ is prime, then if $pb = 0$ for some nonzero $b \in B$, then $\text{Ann}(B) \subseteq (p)$.
hiidostuff
I first considered the submodule Rb
so (p) is clearly a subideal of this submodule's annihilator
the annihilator itself has to be a principal idea tho, say (s)
it then follows that s divides p
so either s is a unit or is associate to p
if its associate to p the result follows
but why could s not be a unit?
if its a unit then all of R annihilates Rb
so then Ann(B) is a subset of R but thats trivial
if r_a is the ring of integers mod a, f(r_a) is the probability an element in r_a has a square root. it seems like the largest element in {f(r_b),f(r_b+1).....f(r_b+n)} is 0.5 as b and n get very large
is f(r_a) like the proportion of elements in r_a with a square root?
yeah
your bio is so funny
🎉
hm so we basically just wanna know the number of distinct quadratic residues mod a?
i thought that was always half the number of elements
wait no
thats what my code seems to be converging to
quadratic residue?
oh are you asking what they are or why i'm saying they're relevant
i have never heard that term
It’s always half mod a prime
right
But if it’s a non prime that guarantees the existence of nilpotents and that drives down the %
they're basically exactly what you're finding, the perfect squares in a modulo ring
they're what's "left over" when you square a number
by distinct do you mean only one?
by CRT you only need to look at prime powers
like the number of distinct residues/squares
because we want the number of elements that have a square root, we don't care if an element has more than 1
typically multiple numbers will square to the same thing
yeah thats what i was calculating
oh so you really just invented a prime number checker
nah
because it can be larger than 0.5
im at 0.50000019999928 and generally every time i multiply b by ten another zero gets added between the 5 and 9
modulo odd prime p there's (p+1)/2 residues
so it'll be a little bigger than half but it'll converge to 1/2 when you find larger and larger primes
ah
and it's easy to justify why n/2 + 1 is the upper bound on the number of residues mod n
this number was from mod 5000018 which is composite
worlds worst prime number checker seems like a fun challenge
oh sorry typo, fixed
is mod 2 the only one where every element has a distinct square?
i guess you could do mod 1, and the only number is 0
that wouldn't be a ring though...
oh it can be a rng
or just a ring without unity
anyway this is boring; once you pass mod 2, 1 and -1 become distinct
i thought mod n didnt have negative numbers
well first, mod n is just dividing the integers into equivalence classes, and you can identify every integer with the class it belongs to
usually we can write that like [x], where x is the integer and [x] is the class
mod n, [-1] = [n-1], they're both valid representatives of the same class
second, writing -1 indicates that we have the additive inverse of the 1 element, and we know additive inverses have to exist in a ring
ah so just -1 in the sense of n-1 in mod n
also i should have added that odd primes don't uniquely achieve the floor(n/2) + 1 upper bound, so this is totally fine
maybe that makes it a pretty bad prime checker... but at least it gives you less numbers to check...
whats the time complexity of checking if 2^prime-1 is prime?
is that the right form
i know theres something with 2^n that forms primes
yup those are called mersenne primes
In mathematics, the Lucas–Lehmer test (LLT) is a primality test for Mersenne numbers. The test was originally developed by Édouard Lucas in 1878 and subsequently proved by Derrick Henry Lehmer in 1930.
if a automorphism of Sl_2(R) s.t phi(x)=g^{-1) x g then phi is inner? for some no trivial x,
yeah
x doesnt have to be nontrivial
In abstract algebra, an inner automorphism is an automorphism of a group, ring, or algebra given by the conjugation action of a fixed element, called the conjugating element. They can be realized via operations from within the group itself, hence the adjective "inner". These inner automorphisms form a subgroup of the automorphism group, and the ...
The trivial ring is a ring (with 1) it just has 1=0.
yeah i realized that, i think in fields the convention is to not let 1 = 0 but i guess rings don't have issues with that
I'm assuming u is a specific element here?
Since any automorphism would obviously take I and -I to themselves
what are the dots supposed to be here
like (2n)(3n-1)...( there's no obvious pattern here)
The next one is (4, n-2)
Then (5, n-3)
And so on
What’s written is (2, n) and (3, n-1)
Which looks less clear because transpositions are usually written without the comma I’ve added
oh (2 n) (3 n-1)
lol
I read it was (2n) (3n-1) and was like huh?( which tbf are just the identity lol)
I suppose this can be proven with induction
I’d prove it by “just look” /hj
Almost all inductive proofs are just "look at it"
yes
Okay, and you know what it is or...?
say take unipotent
no its not for all u
Okay, then how are they defining u?
If it was for all u the exercise would make sense
might be possible
yes it might be for all u
I guess you want to think about what alpha does to upper triangular and lower triangular matrices to see where the eigenvectors get moved.
Not sure if alpha is supposed to be an automorphism of lie groups or just groups or if it matters
yeah please take lie group automorphism
this stumped me
some lie theory might need i think then
Pom
if it is irreducible we are done
irreducible over what field
perfect field
huh
Why no derivatives?
Anyway, you can treat this as a polynomial over Q. By the rational root theorem it has no rational roots. So the only possible ways it can factor into irreducibles is either being irreducible or the product of a degree 2 and degree 3 irreducible
Neither of which would give multiple roots
it isnt though
char 0 field is perfect so here done, irreducible implies separable
ah yes
but proving that requires derivatives
or at least the proof i have in mind does
K char 0 and f irreducible over K and c some element in some field extension a root, then c has multiplicity 1.
Proof:
GCD(f',f)=1,therefore all roots have multiplicity 1
"without using derivatives" in undergrad is crazyy
I mean technically derivatives require a concept of completeness no?
oh, in C
yeah ouch
No? You can just take the formal derivative in any polynomial ring I think
I was thinking of the elements
tbf to use derivatives to analyze polynomial roots u need stuff like ivt and real analysis so what i said is kinda dumb
yesterday my prof did take some kahler differentials , in some module bla bla
how is that relevant
like where is completeness related
to what
to derivative\
it's not related

it needs the Leibniz rule and not much else (those who know)
Ω_X/S
Is there a generalized form of the fundamental theorem of algebra for multivariable polynomials?
this just follows from the fundamental theorem right
take f(x_1,...,x_n)
take any values for x_2,...,x_n
then you just have a single polynomial in x_1
and that's guaranteed to have a solution
No
In fact differential algebra can be done over non-complete fields like Q(t)
Derivatives make sense for all polynomials and that’s all that matters
And okay, power series too as a treat
Not quite: you need them to not make the resulting polynomial in x_1 constant. But this can be done.
oh yes that's kind of an embarrasing oversight
I've heard the weak Nullstellensatz be described as a kind of fundamental theorem of algebra for multivariate polynomials: the polynomials f_1, ..., f_n in C[x_1, ..., x_n] have a common zero if the ideal they generate is not equal to all of C[x_1, ..., x_n]
for better explaination just see daniel bump algebraic geometry, very friendly text
Not underrated among those who know 😍
Also I want to say the fact it works for power series is also hugely important
I think a fair few things that work in unramified mixed char we don’t know in ramified can be traced back to the fact you don’t have derivations acting on regular complete ramified local rings
Lol I was gonna say like
de Rham cohomology
Rham de nuts in yo mouth
Can someone please suggest a good reference to study finitely generated groups and their properties in detail.
looks fancy
In mod 17, 3 isn’t a quadratic residue. If I define some a such that a^2 in mod 17 is 3, every number in mod 17 becomes a quadratic residue. In all the other prime mod n’s I’ve tested, I only needed to define a root for one unit to turn all other elements into a quadratic residue. Is that true for all prime mod n’s?
Also what’s the proper name of a?
Adjoining a root a of x^2 - 3 gives a quadratic extension F_17(a)/F_17 in some fixed algebraic closure. If instead we adjoin a root of x^2 - b to F_17 where b is a quadratic non-residue mod 17 we also get a quadratic extension of F_17, which is isomorphic to F_17(a) since two extensions of a finite field with the same number of elements are isomorphic.
Since F_17(b) contains a root of x^2-b then F_17(a) must also contain one.
how do you know f_17(a) and f_17(b) have the same number of elements?
They are both quadratic extensions of F_17, so they have 17^2 elements
3 is still not a quadratic residue after you add a root of 2 to mod 30
30 is not prime...
i would ||prove this by induction||
yea, I pretty much did the same thing
showed that 3 elements had a common genertaor
and we're done
(with the hardest part)
You’ve got an example of such a group ?
Q i think
(Q,+) yeah
the cyclic groups are locally cyclic since subgroups of cyclic groups are cyclic
how do you start classifying the locally cyclic groups?
Of course but I was looking for something else
Nice thx
i think also if you take any subset of the prime numbers and restrict the rationals to denominators consisting of those primes as factors, then these are locally cyclic groups as well
mm i think
so like the dyadic numbers?
oh yes
i wonder if theres an uncountable locally cyclic group
R probably now that i think about it
the field structure of it as a ring makes it that way prob
nah nvm
taking a rational and an irrational as generator is a counterexample
shouldve been obvious from the get go ngl, oops
Z^{\omega} should be locally cyclic?
what about a copy of Z \oplus Z in it
lmao right that isn't cyclic
oh also just as a quick note
seems the prufer p group is also locally cyclic
which isnt surprising
seems that the classification of locally cyclic groups are direct sums of Q and the prufer p group
in which case its impossible for locally cyclic groups to be uncountable
ohhhh
this ends up just being a result of modules over PIDs
direct sum of Q is the free part and prufer p group is torsion
I suspect no, because my intution is telling me that locally cyclic groups should be limits of cyclic groups
and cofinite groups are always countable
wait no no
if i took the subgroup generated by an element with torsion and an element without i wouldnt get a cyclic group
so its either free or torsion
Ghost ping :(
twin... rotate yo damn phone 💔
,rotate
u really are the goat...
that's my name 😎
anyway doing cohomology of groups before simplicial sets/spaces is weird to me and it's no wonder this seems unmotivated
the idea is you want to see the shape of your group G. And to see the shape you need a space: so you construct a space with a single loop for each element g in G, but you want gh to be related to g and h so for you add in a (degenerate) 2-simplex connecting each element to its product, which become 3-simplices for products of 3 elements and so on. Assuming A has trivial G-action for now, this map then sends each of these simplices to an alternating sum of their faces and squares to 0, making it perfect to form a chain complex with the objects being the sets of n-simpices and these maps forming the differentials. This turns out to be exactly the chain complex you want to compute cohomology (it yields the derived functors for the fixed point functor A -> A^G sending G-modules to their fixed points)
these are trivial if you just write down what the statements mean. For example G acts transitively on X x X - the diagonal means, for instance, there is some g such that g(x, y) = (gx, gy) = (a, b), x != y, a != b. Solving part 1. You can see that the action is transitive on X by setting a = y, b = x; and so on
if you want a concrete example of a strictly 2-transitive group action I suggest thinking about GL_2(k) acting on k^2 for your favourite field k
or even simpler, I suppose, S_3 acting on 3 points
can anybody help me understand the permutation group, especially things like multiplying from the left/right and conjugation.
Example: $H=⟨(12)⟩={e,(12)}$
Take $g=(13)$, $g\in G$.
Conjugate: $g(12)g^{-1}$
The result is $(13)(12)(13)=(23)$ but I didn't quite understand the process.
BlaBla
So what do I look at first? I look at 1. Right bracket, 1 -> 3, move to left bracket, there's no 3 there so I skip it. In the last one 3 -> 1 so it should be 1 -> 1?
Next, 2 is in the middle bracket first going from the right. 2->1 and then 1->3 so 2->3
I can't visualize it I need help understanding it.
you're doing it correctly I'm not sure where the confusion is
I don't understand this: (13)(12)(13)=(23)
Also, is $g^{-1} = (31) = (13) = g$?
BlaBla
well I'm confused how they got (23)
if you swap something, then swapping it again gives you what you started with
you just explained exactly how they got (23) perfectly lol
lmfao
let me draw a picture
ahhh Im a degenerate
1 -> 3 and then 3 -> 1 so 1 is fixed
that's why it doesn't show up
essentially these are like function compositions right? First one mapping, then it potentially maps to something else.
I mean they are function compositions. Permutations are automorphisms of a set
I don't see the automorphism though because the way I understood it, everything needs to change.
if we just have (13) then 2 remains fixed so it's an endomorphism?
I primarily used this illustration to understand it
but then again that endomorphgism mapping might just be kernel thing
Note that endomorphisms of sets are just functions from a set to itself
Bc theres no structure for the morphism to preserve
yeah I know. I just have trouble understanding the difference between endomorphism and automorphism
An automorphism is a bijective endomorphism
Endomorphisms dont have to be invertible
Take {1,2,3} and map everything to 1
Thats an endomorphism with no inverse
The reason why we care about automorphisms of sets is that they form a group
Endos dont
(For sets of cardinality n this is just the symmetric group of order n)
ahh so about the case (12) where 3 -> 3. It's automorphism because 3 still gets mapped (or target set gets 'filled').
if 3 just dissapeared from the domain then it would be an endomorphism because it wouldn't be a bijection (3 in codomain would remain empty)
The element (12) in S3 is the function sending 1 to 2, 2 to 1, and fixing everything else
Everything being 3 lol
But (12) is written the same way in S4, S5, etc
In which case 4 and 5 are fixed, etc
so any Sn function will be an automorphism?
or there are cases where this isn't true?
Every element in Sn is an automorphism of the set {1,2,...,n}
If it weren't an automorphism, it wouldn't have an inverse, which violates a group axiom
Thanks very much
group cohomology of G = simplicial cohomology of BG?
its a beautiful result that these are equivalent
i guess it's kinda funny if you view it as understanding $\varinjlim_{BG} M$ in two different ways
Prismatic Potato
You can skip chapter 1 of artin
i did
You don’t think groups are cool? lol
.<
actually ch2 was good
i probably just dont like ch3 and ch4 cuz its linalg repeat lol
dyk if artin visits the minimal polynomial?
Okay yeah 3-6 is more linear algebra again
Just skip to chapter 7 lol
I forgot how LA pilled artin is
Is the LA section in artin good
The definition and basic properties are explored but not an actual proof of the advanced theorems (Cayley Hamilton), that requires a lot of algebra that this book does the setup for
Oh wait it is covered
Much later, in chapter 14
in that case try lang
If you want to torture yourself
Safe to say that you probably won’t be bored
Hello, I was wondering if anyone recommends any books to read after Pinters Abstract Algebra. Im in 9th grade, so nothing too abstract, I’ve done calculus, but not linear algebra, Thank you for your help.
you've read pinter's book?
Yes
Linear Algebra Done Right.
Oh, good. I was thinking of reading that, but didn’t know if I should read a general applications based linear algebra book first.
Oh I was half trolling
But it's not a bad idea to read ladr because it'd go well with the algebra you already know
FIS (friedberg insel Spence) is good as well (wrt operator theoretic stuff) while still having a traditional approach to matrices, rref, and determinants
Also as a 9th grader you'll learn a first course in linalg anyways in school (assuming you go to college and do a major that will teach you linalg)
I know a small amount of all of those. Just from pinters
I self taught calculus so I won’t be doing it for awhile
Alright, thank you
Are there two pinter books or something I'm confused
I really liked the results of group theory and ring theory
Like symmetries of groups and ideal quotient rings
Integral domains etc
No, I haven’t
More ladr shilling but it has a section on quotient spaces and ch8 is useful when viewed through the lens of quotients 
Oh, that sounds cool, thanks. Also do you know if John still wells number theory book is good? I’m asking because I already have it
My main point is that if you end up doing linalg I think ladr would be best with an abstract alg background
Of the books I know
In 9th grade?
Yeah, thats the main reason I started with pinters, to get more maturity with more abstract stuff
Ok, well thanks for all the advice.
Yeah, right
We indeed read Basic Number Theory in postgrad
are you in india
Yea he's studying for the jee rn
I’m still on A Course In Arithmetic :/
i think those courses are fine because in advanced courses , everything goes over head,
yes bro, for eg waterhouse
it is so much dense , and prof following that , prof skips details also, so that became a nightmare
Arithmatic theory is an advanced course , as i know
Btw, is 6-transitive impossible for all groups?
S_n on {1,2,...,n} should be n-transitive
except Sn and An?
Any group with S_6 (or A_6 ig) as a quotient can be 6-transitive
There's probably others
there are no 6-transitive groups other than {S_n, A_{n+2} : n >= 6}
A_n is n-2 transitive so A_8 is the smallest one that works
Crazy fact
I want to know why? what is the essence of this fact?
even group of infinite order can be 6-transitive?
S_6 x C_2 be like
Only proof I know of is the classification of finite simple groups and all groups are finite
This isn’t 6-transitive
How do you map (7,8) to (1,2)
I’m not having it act as a subgroup of S_8
Then how are you having it act
Via S_6 x C_2 -> S_6
Noob wew
That’s essentially the regular group action which is sharply 1-transitive. I will need to be convinced that this is 6-transitive
Because I literally have a paper open from 1967 saying that the only two known (at that time, later proven by CFSG) 6-transitive groups are precisely what I said they were
Hmmm
How do they define 6-transitive?
Which action?
I looked it up and n-transitive requires faithfulness of the action?
Because I do remember this statement holding with some extra conditions but icr them
Ah OK k-transitive subgroup of Sn
I didn’t know this was a thing
Hmm perhaps we are working with different definitions
I mean obviously if you define a group to be something transitive you mean a subgroup of Sn.
Otherwise you would define the action to be as such
Yeah this
Hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
Truge…
I mean I guess
If you don’t enforce that every group is n-transitive for all n
By acting on {*}
Via which embedding into which S_n?
(Because this isn’t well defined for groups not given as a subgroup of S_n)
An and Sn are both given as subgroups of Sn
So nothing weird about saying
Sn and An+2 are the only 6-transitive subgroups
What does An+2 act on to be n-transitive
I think the classification of k-transitive actions is supposed to classify the possible images of such an action (presumably on a finite set).
{1, ..., n+2}
Which is equivalent to classifying k-transitive subgroups of Sn (implicitly acting on {1,...,n}) for each k and n.
Let A be a finite-dimensionaa algebra over a field k. For any a in A, are the characteristic polynomials of left and right multiplication by a on A the same?
unital associative
No, consider the monoid algebra of the monoid {1, a1, ..., an} with the multiplication xy = x if y = 1 else y; then right multiplication by any of a1, ..., an has rank 1 but left multiplication has rank n.
However, it is true that lmul has det non-zero iff rmul does. In this case, are the determinants necessarily equal? Is there an "explanation" for this, e.g., the eigenvalue of the two mul maps must differ only by 0's or something?
Me when I answer my own question on MSE
Consider the ring of 2x2 upper triangular matrices. Let e1, e2, f be the standard basis with f nilpotent.
For x = ae1 + be2 you have
xe1 = e1x = ae1
xe2 = e2x = be2
xf = af
fx = bf
So left multiplication has determinant a^2 b and right multiplication has a b^2
Right. The determinants are still polynomials on A though. So they must have the same irreducible factors. The multiplicities must be interesting.
For upper-triangular, we get a1^n ... an^1 on the left and a1^1 ... an^n on the right, where a1, ..., an are the diagonal entries.
I think those are the multiplicities of composition factors in the regular representation.
Oh duh
They are the idempotents for the indecomposable projectives, so it makes sense
Is the result true for division rings (fd over our base field) at least?
I would still think no, but worth thinking about maybe
can i know your google scholar profile
#help-2 message might fit here
OK so take any (fd) A. A/J(A) is semisimple. There is a canonical correspondence between left and right irreps of the latter, so the same is true for A. (Maybe this more conceptually follows from duality between A-mod and mod-A?) In fact a left and right irrep correspond iff they have the same kernel. Call a fd division ring D and natural number n good if the left and right irrep of M_n(D) have the same determinant/characteristic polynomial (as a polynomial on the vector space M_n(D)). I also believe that everything is good, but I've only proved it for D = k the base field so far. Anyway the det/char poly on any left or right rep is the product of the same for the composition factors. In particular if all the simple ring factors of A/J(A) are good, then for the regular rep of A the left and right det/char polys are the product of the irreducible ones with exponents the multiplicities, and they differ exactly in how the composition factors of A as a left and right module differ.
Doesn't one need to have papers for that? 
u arent in phd yet?
Okay, so I guess we may assume it's central in which case tensoring with the algebraic closure reduces to the ring of nxn-matrices.
So then I guess it's true
Why can we assume it's central?
I was thinking that if you have K/k and a K-linear map then the k-determinant is determined by the K-determinant
Haven't thought that thought all the way through
Oh. I think I actually proved this for characteristic polynomials at some point. You get an interesting answer.
Nice so this gives the exponents are multiplicities of left/right composition factors and nothing else differs always.
IG it would complete things to show the determinant on an irrep is an irreducible polynomial.
We can assume we are working with M_n(D) acting on D^n.
Ah, if D = k yes.
Although TBF IDK how to prove that det is irreducible I just know it's
.
by eisestine
Really? For which prime?
Also isn't Eisenstein for univariate polynomials? You'd have to pick which n^2-1 of the n^2 variables to treat as scalars.
try for 2 x 2
Sure, det(a, b, c, d) = ad - bc. So which variable and which prime do I use Eisenstein for?
OK I forgot that det is multilinear 
xw-zy treat any one variable as prime
Doesn't Eisenstein just guarantee degree irreducibility? (Which is obvious from being degree 1)
Slick proof:
Mn(k) x Mn(k) -> V(det)
(P, Q) |-> P (some fixed rank n-1 matrix) Q
is a surjective map of varieties.
As the former is irreducible, so is the latter.
I've heard this but it doesn't rule out a power of a prime ideal as far as I know.
That's true, but I guess that's an easier case to rule out
OK yeah write det = M1 a1 - ... ± Mn an as say first column expansion. Then because this is linear in a1 the only way to factor it is a common factor of M1 and C = M2 a2 - ... ± Mn (in polynomials over the other n^2-1 variables). Inductively M1 is irreducible, so the only issue is if M1 divides C. But because M1 doesn't use any of a2, ..., an it would have to divide their coefficients, i.e. M2, ..., Mn. But these are irreducibles which are no associate (they have different variables) so we're done.
Using det or equivalently the characteristic polynomial seems kind of cleaner than using the trace for character theory TBH... IG the latter is more obvious for the OG setting of groups since it is linear so can be specified on just the group elements.
this is an assigment problem, so i discarded first two, so how do i solve later one?
hint only
What do you mean you discarded the first two?
What about ||x^4 + x^3 + x^2 + x + 1||?
so it is hit and trial?
I guess a hint then is that it's an unsolved problem whether every finite group can be a galois group over Q
I think a reasonable hint is that ||they are all possible (except I'm slightly uncertain about A_4) and you should try to find examples of each, because that will be instructive||.
Is “Can every transitive subgroup of S_n be a Galois group of an irreducible poly over Q” unsolved?
all shouldn't be possible ||as it needs to be a transitive subgroup of S_4||
||These all embed as transitive subgroups.||
In Galois theory, the inverse Galois problem concerns whether or not every finite group appears as the Galois group of some Galois extension of the rational numbers
Q
{\displaystyle \mathbb {Q} }
. This problem, first posed in the early 19th century, is unsolved.
There are some permu...
not ||Z/2 × Z/2|| right?
||Consider all (ab)(cd)'s.||
so it has ||2|| orbits
||Gal(ℚ(sqrt(2), sqrt(3))/ℚ)||
I guess you're asking a slightly stronger question, but I would be surprised if it wasn't also true (and hence unsolved)
||No, not {1, (12), (34), (12)(34)}. {1, (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23)}.||
yea but we want Gal of splitting field of an irred degree 4 poly so if we take a primitive element in that extention then the splitting field will strictly contain the degree 4 extension
Same
But yeah my point is that tje question being asked at least seems stronger
so yea this group doesn't ||act transitively on the 4 roots, it has 2 orbits||
or am i confused
I think you should double-check the orbits.
I don't think these groups can be transitive groups on any other number than 4 elements though [okay A4 and S4 can of course act on much bigger things]
can anyone tell me what is transitive subgroups?
ah oops
For any pair of elements x and y there is a group element g with
g(x) = y
okie this was wrong lol
so here G acting on some sets? i think G acting on roots of minimal polynomial
Galois group of P is transitive iff P is irreductible
i see
one direction seems trivial
Actually funnily enough it's always wrong in a sense. Even if the degree N of the Galois extension is greater than that n of your starting f, the extension has a primitive element and the minimal polynomial g of that has degree N. So your Galois group G acts transitively on roots of f but freely ane transitively on roots of g.
i didn't get confused, just i don't understand what's going on?
let me understand
so here f is irreducible so G acting transitively on roots of f
so G acting on set which has cardinality 4 and G acting transitively
so how does this information help me?
is there something that some groups can't act transitively on set whose cardinality 4?
yee S_3 sitting inside S_4 for instance can't
G also acts faithfully, because the roots generate the extension so G is determined by what it maps the roots to.
So the action must embed G as a subgroup of S_4 which acts transitively on {1, 2, 3, 4}.
By the orbit-stabiliser equation, |G| would have to be divisible by 4. In fact a group G has a transitive action on a set of cardinality 4 iff G has a subgroup H of index 4 (you can take the action of G on G/H).
yes, because stab is a subgroup and by orbit stabiliser theorem |G| / |stab| = 4
i don't get it
i understand when say G acts transitively on set but what does it mean by G is transitive?
Yes. So in terms of using the transitive action idea to rule out a Galois group, if G has no subgroup of index 4 (in particular, if |G| is not divisible by 4), it can't be a Galois group of a degree-4 irreducible polynomial. If it has, then the test is inconclusive and you have to try something else.
like @tough raven said, by orbit stabilizer a transitive subgroup will have order divisible by 4. but S_3 here has order = 6 which isn't divisible by 4 so it can't possibly be a galois group of an irred degree 4 poly 
It means some action has been fixed and it's asking about that action.
but in a given problem every group is divisible by 4
yes
i think it is stronger condition that we need subgroup of G such that it has index 4, does order of G is divisible by 4 implies it has subgroup of index 4?
Actually you can make it stronger: G needs to have H of index 4 such that the intersection of all conjugates by G of H (= the largest normal subgroup of G contained in H) is trivial.
In Sn, a subgroup H is transitive if it acts transitively on {1,2, ..., n}
This corresponds to the action of G on G/H being faithful.
i don't know how to check Z/2Z \times Z/2Z transitive group or not?
Mabye start with S3 in S4
You can't without picking an action.
Is there a general method for finding an explicit construction for a (constructible) regular n-gon? I.e. a pentagon?
i mean, Galois group of P is transitive (identified as a subgroup of S_deg(P) with the natural action) iff P is irreductible
You can memorize the constructions to n = 3, 5, 17, ..., (Fermat primes) then is there a way to add them up to construct e.g. a 3 * 5 = 15-gon?
Oh yes multiplication is possible (though I don't think it's by any means short).
Constructing a regular n-gon is equivalent to constructing cos(2pi/n) (or equivalently sin(2pi/n)). If you can construct cos(a), sin(a), cos(b), sin(b), you can construct cos(a+b), sin(a+b) by trig formulas. Now if you got the regular m-gon and regular n-gon, you got cos, sin of 2pi/m = n 2pi/mn, 2pi/n = m 2pi/mn. By adding up a bunch of these you can get to gcd(m, n) 2pi/mn = 2pi/lcm(m, n). So you can make a regular lcm(m, n)-gon.
The really difficult part would be Fermat primes. They're constructible by a bunch of Galois theory but working it out would involve finding a formula for the primitive F_n = (2^2^n + 1)th root of unity using 2^n nested square roots.
Hm, ok. I found an exercise that asks you to find 3 different explicit constructions of a pentagon, are these just something you might see along the way and remember, or is there some general way to find other constructions given one of them?
Oh Z/2Z \times Z/2Z can act transitively on set of cardinality 4
This IDK; I never studied or thought about explicit constructions of regular n-gons and I think at this point it gets too specialised to figure out just from the general theory.
Thanks
Bah I can't stop thinking about this
Specifically if there's a larger class than semisimple and commutative algebras where the left and right composition factors agree.
And the irreducibility of the determinant here.
Also it's pity this doesn't work for non-associative algebras, esp. Lie algebras where I think it would be very useful.
Suppose D is central with dimension d = k^2 and base-change to the algebraic closure (or any splitting field). Then the algebra becomes isomorphic to M_{nk}, the module to M_k^n (with M_{nk} = M_n(M_k) acting, which is isomorphic to M_{nk⨯nk} acting on M_{nk⨯k}), so the determinant becomes det_{nk}^k under a linear change of variables (not necessarily defined over the base field).
The change of variables phi depends only on D, not n, but the relevant question is: "which powers of phi(det_{nk}) are defined over the base field?". And this could perhaps depend on n.
So my prof just introduced Holomorphs and I’m curious why we care. It feels somewhat random to consider the group G ⋊ Aut(G)
It is not
The action is tautological
holomorph is a cool name
the main reason to consider it
I feel like I'm very close to understanding how to count elements of certain order but I'm not there yet, can anybody help me?
I know that if x | n (x being the wanted element order and n being the order of the group), then phi(n) is the result. However, I'm completely lost when it comes to group products.
For example, what is the number of elements of order 9 in Z27 x Z3? I know there's the lcm(a, b) = 9, but I don't know what a and b are (I know they're from Z27 and Z3 respectively).
It's worth noting that there's not a uniform way to count elements of a given order in any old group.You seem to have gotten a bit muddled about which groups the results you're talking about apply to.
What you said in the second paragraph holds only for cyclic groups
The result about phi(n) is applicable only to cyclic groups, like KnightWatch said, which means it only holds for groups like Z_m
If you want to think about the group Z_27 x Z_3, you need to think differently, since that's not cyclic (maybe try proving why?)
Here's a way to get started. Let G and H be any old groups. Remember that the group G x H consists of elements (g, h) where g and h are elements of G and H respectively, and the product is just (g, h)(g', h') = (gg', hh')
Now notice therefore that (g, h)^n = (g^n, h^n). So what's an element of order n in G x H? It must be one where g^n = 1 and h^n = 1
Maybe you can use this to figure out the answer for the group Z_27 x Z_3 now
it si for abelian finite groups at least
Oh whoops @astral ivy forgot to ping you with what I wrote above, sorry
This is true in principle but in practise it's harder. When we have an f.g. Abelian group in the form of a product of cyclic groups, it's easy. But we often aren't given them in that form. It's not a priori easy to calculate the number of elements of order two in a group like (Z/123Z)^\times, at least not without knowing some number theory
Why (Z/123)^times lol ? I mean, by the p-Sylow decomposition, computing lcm is esay
FINE
i admit artin is better now that ive read sections of his book that arent things ik already.
Artin or Waerden? 🤔
Just needing someone to confirm this (I've done the math but I'm a little tired and can't stop feeling a little anxious about it)... If \lambda : R \to End_R (R_R) (R-endomorphisms as right regular module) by left multiplication, it is an isomorphism, but if \rho : R \to End_R( _R R) (R-endomorphisms as left regular module) by right multiplication, it is an anti-isomorphism. Are those statements true?
Yes, End(R_R) is isomorphic to R as a right module, and R^op as a left module
Oh, lord. It really feels like something is wrong when working with duality... Thank you so much.
What do you mean?
Somehow, easy things turn odd or confusing when I have to start to think about their dual concept or statement that I only feel relieve just after I'd done all the work around it instead of accepting it
I guess the key point here is just that right R modules are the same thing as left R^op modules
Which is just kinda a case of unwrapping what those words mean
That's true. Ty!
can we classify continuous automorphism of Sl_2(R)
i think we can do for lie group automorphism
i want to show any lie group automorphism induces Adjoint lie algebra iso
Yes
The continuous automorphism group of SL_2(R) is PSL_2(R)
hints and steps
Figure out the inner automorphism group and the outer automorphism group
thanks for your valuable answer
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1632734/1166895 this tells about it, of course not vary obvious
this shown that every induced lie algebra automorphism will be Adjoint so by lie theorem every automorphism is adjoint also SL_2(R) is simply connected we get it is just inner
again this is an assignment problem, so if it has infinitely many roots, then L\{0} has infinite subgroup, {x \in K | x^n = 1 for some n in N }, but it is proper subgroup
i don't know where i have to use finitness of extension
I'm confused on what you're saying
We need finiteness of extension because, e.g. C is a field extension of Q with infinitely many roots of unity
The only way I can think to do it rn relies on every finite field extension being finite dimensional, idk if you're allowed to use that
Out of curiosity, how else are finite field extensions defined?
yeah
Oh, I thought it was like finitely generated as a ring or something
just see that you can irreducible polynomials of every degree, like cyclotomics, if L has infinite root of unity of course it has to be infnite dim,
I think I'm just being dumb
sorry i don't get it
All finitely generated field extensions are finite is the theorem
no
Q(\pie) is finitely generated but not finite extension
Finitely generated as a ring
Try to find the degree of the minimal polynomial of a primitive n-th root of unity
yes it euler function at n
Yeah, its degree is n-1
?
The degree of the polynomial
For prime n only
shouldnt it be for every positive integer n
Oop my bad
But yeah this is on the right track
infinitely many roots will force arbitrary large irreducible poly, as cyclotomics
how?
u have cyctomics
you mean as an algebra?
That's probably what it was yeah
makes more sense
Oh, weird, is there a counterexample for R then
as in the reals
okay I misremembered the exact statement
if R is finitely generated as an F-algebra such that R itself is also a field, then that implies that R is finite dimensional as an F vector space
but that requires quite the nontrivial proof
perhaps it's useful to note that if there infinitely roots of unity then there are infinitely many primitive units of unity
anyways I forgot that finite was defined as finite dimensional
and the other thing was the theorem
wait maybe this is dumb because every root of unity is a primitive nth root of unity for some n
like obviously true
i suppose "primitive root of unity" in of itself doesn't mean much
Maybe it's easier to think about it containing primitive nth roots for arbitrarily large n
Then, you can show the extension has degree at least phi(n)
How?
idk
Well every root of unity is a primitive root of unity
How?
every root of unity can be written as exp(i 2pi*n/m)
reduce the fraction n/m to n'/m' and ur root of unity is a primitive m'-th root of unity
No problem
ur welcome.. but doesn't seem like we've solved the original problem
that was quite trivial,
Yes
maybe if u take a single primitive n-th of unity for infinitely many n, you get a Q-independent set
no idea
You just have to show that the degree is arbitrarily large
so, phi(n) goes to infinity as n goes to infinity
How do I show, so for given n, there are finitely many d such that f(d) ≤ n, where f is Euler function
With integer factorization
You can show that the totient function is multiplicative, that it goes to infinity on large primes, and also goes to infinity on large powers of "small" primes
I know it is multiplicative
I know f(p) = p-1
So it is for large n we have m such that f(m) > n
You can prove, using the expression for the totient function ϕ in terms of prime factorisation, that ϕ(n)≥√n for all n other than 2 and 6.
This is stronger than what you need but it isn't much work to prove.
so i think it is enough to show for only p^n
i got it, thank you, mse and aops 
so i find out the Galois group is D4( order 8 ), but i have to find the lattice of subfields? is there any easy way rather than doing computations?
Do you know the fundamental theorem of galois theory (aka the Galois correspondence)?
What do you mean, why would you do that?
FTGT tells you the lattice of subfields is exactly (the opposite of) the lattice of subgroups
yes
So you just need to describe the lattice of subgroups
so i have to find the fixed fields of subgroups right?
I mean you can, but the exercise isn't asking you to do that
then what it is asking?
To describe that lattice of subfields
but i have to write explicitly subfields?
Say the galois group was Z/4 then we would have the lattice
Q < K^2/4 < K
Why?
What does that even mean exactly?
sorry i don't know what does it mean by K^2/4?
The fixed field of the subgroup 2Z/4Z
so is it fine to write it without explicitly find the subfields?
I mean your describing what the fields are and which contain eachother, I don't see how you would need anything more to describe the lattice of subfields
so do i need to find subfields explicitly or not?
If you don't feel this describes them explicitly enough then feel free to describe them as specific as you like
Okay let me ask this to my professor
All I'm saying is that the exercise is asking you about the lattice of subfields. It does not say "describe what each subfield is as specific as possible"
Yes I understand
so i am not sure this extension is normal or not, how do i find it?
how do i show \sqrt{2-\sqrt{2} } is not in K?
do i have to write explicitly in terms of basis and arrive at contradiction?
sqrt(2 + sqrt 2) * sqrt(2 - sqrt 2) = sqrt 2
Yes
I see thanks
Jagr, is it correct?
fun fact for bi quadratic extension galois group of irreducible is D_4
no
you mean if K is splitting field of polynomial f which degree 4 and f is irreducible then Gal(K/Q) is D4? then no
i meant bi quadratic
what does it mean by bi quadratic?
i am not sure what to do here, just adjoin the roots?
this does give you a splitting field. Just simply into a nice description of K
i don't know what nice description it can have?
There are two “canonical” generators
I don’t quite mean “canonical” and more like
“The answers that any two humans who know the area well will give you are the same”
a quadratic in y evaluated at y = x^2
Don’t forget the normal subgroups
so do i have to mention corresponding extension is Galois extension?
i don't know i just know it is Q(\sqrt 2, (10)^1/3, w), where w is a primitive 3rd root of unity
Yeah that’s how I’d write it
Now just prove that’s the splitting field
x^n=x implies x(x^{n-1}-1)=0 so an element of A is either a unit or a zero divisor. Now let p be any prime ideal in A and consider the ring A/p, we know that A/p is an integral domain and the goal is to prove that it is in fact a field. Now 0 in p so any zero divisor is also in A/p, but the zero element of A/p is p so any non-zero element in A/p is of the form x+p where x is a unit not in p and hence it has an inverse x^{-1}+p so that p is maximal
is this correct?
Yes
Streamlined proof: if p is prime, A/p is an integral domain where every element satisfies x(x^{n-1} - 1) = 0. If x =/= 0 we can therefore cancel it to get x^{n-1} = 1, so x is a unit with inverse x^{n-2}
I also have another question, is there anything interesting that happens if the nilradical and the jacobson radical are equal?
Look up what a Jacobson ring is
maybe I will. but NOT because you told me to
I don’t care about you
alright
tysm mico and Chmonkey, have a great day/night
the first condition requires closure right
“Together with a law of composition” requires closure
if "equipped" were used there instead of "together", that wouldnt imply closure
It would
how?
Because a law of composition on a set G is a function G x G -> G
yes
so the law of composition is the thing that guarantees closure
oh wait i misread the first bullet point lmao
yeah so by definition of a law of composition, G is guaranteed closure when equipped with one
Yes
When closure is stated, it’s usually stated as a redundant axiom to help ease the transition into the defn of a subgroup
Just nitpicking, but closure is not a property of G, it's the law of composition that is closed
It’s a property of G (the group) not G (the set)
Or G under the law of composition I guess
yea
when denoting the multiplicative group of $\bR$, is it fine to write $(\bR \setminus {0}, \times)$?
Altanis
it feels iffy to write it as (R, *) since 0 is obviously not in the group
Yes
my book writes it as R^+ and R^(\times) which i dont like 😢
R^\times or R^* are common for the multiplicative group
im fine with R^\times and R^* but i dont like R^+
cuz i use that for positive reals
and i dont want to mix and match notation so if i do (R, +) ill do (R, *)
but then (R, *) feels wrong to me because 0 isnt in the group
Well it's definitely technically wrong too
For what it's worth, I've seen books mix (R, +) and R^\times
The easy solution would probably be to write R and R^\times
Eh idm verbosity that much
you can also just say (as an additive group) or something
under addition
why use symbol when word do trick
i dont mind verbosity in symbols
but itd be annoying to write out (as an additive/multiplicative group) every time
you don't need to every time, but fixing it for clarity at the start of something might be useful if there is ambiguity, in any case R^\times is fine for multiplicative
anyways i think its decent practice to be as clear as possible, and if you have to puzzle over a notational standard to stick to, its probably not ideal to everyone
now another thing is that i like how (R, +) and (R \ {0}, \times) look
but that might be solely due to its novelty
like how i used to like the notation f: X -> Y in 10th grade but now idc
What? That notation is great. Is there even an alternative worth considering?
no i still like it, but ive gotten used to it
I guess good notation is like good special effects. They're best when you don't notice it
should I show in detail that the natural maps here are well-defined & homomorphisms? or should I just do the computation that they are inverses to each other?
yeah you should show everything
on the level of modules, showing well-definedness usually nontrivial
well-definedness should be automatic if you prove it in the right way (just verify both satisfy the universal property)
ok though I suppose you need maps from M\otimes B and N\otimes B into the tensor product on the left
but even then the maps you get should come from the universal property
is there a way to prove the fact that projective modules over local rings are free without using full axiom of choice
Wouldnt this give an axiom of choice-free proof that every vector space has a basis? Just take the local ring to be a field, then every module over it is free (and thus projective)
This is trivial using tensor rules
🙁
You need to prove commutativitity, associativity, and that tensoring by B over B does nothing
logic why must u hurt me so
Each of these isomorphisms exist in a very simple way which you can write down explicitly
And then you can compose them
What?
How would associativity work here when we're tensoring over different rings?
Maybe i misread the question actually
Okay I tried to type it out but it was annoying
But you have to prove associativity on the level of bi-modules
If you have a right A-module, an A-B bimodule, and a left B-module you can show that
M (x)_A (N (x)_B L)
This comes down to showing that the universal property plays nice with bimodules
From there you do
(M x_A B) x_B (N x_A B) =
(M x_A B) x_B (B x_A N) =
((M x_A B) x_B B) x_A N =
(M x_A B) x_A N =
M x_A (B x_A N) =
M x_A (N x_A B) =
(M x_A N) x_A B
I feel like my logic is fine
- suppose you can prove the statement “every projective module over a local ring is free” without choice (or any equivalents)
- then let your local ring be a field and M a projective module over that field
- then it follows from the claim that M is a k-vector space with a basis
So it’s a corollary that every vector space admits a basis, and we didnt use choice
But the claim that vector spaces admit bases is equivalent to choice
Why is M automatically projective lol
Yeah my original message was probably wrong, but the new one is fine, just take M to be a projective module
But you haven’t shown all vector spaces have a basis
You showed all projective vector spaces have a basis
okay this makes sense
I wonder if maybe you can get away with just dependent choice or something
we haven't done bimodules at all, so I think I'm just typing out the slop and maybe hand waving part of it
but this is a nice way to do it that's less element-wise grinding
I mean
It’s just a universal property thing
Just show that both of them factor the right kind of B-bilinear maps
that's true
And use the fact that maps out of M (x)_A B -> N for a B-module N is exactly A-linear maps M -> N
This is the adjunction of push-pull
Again, a lemma
Really really simple
I mean I'm using the fact that elements of the form n (x) m form a basis, and I can just work on them individually, which is easy
a lot of this can be copy-pasted in the tex
It’ll end up turning into “maps from this into a B-module L is an A-bilinear map from M x N -> L”
true
How do you show the map exists?
$$\begin{array}{{2}{@{}c}{15}{@{,}c}}
f & {}:{} & (M&\otimes_A&N)&\otimes_A&B& {}\longrightarrow{} & (M&\otimes_A&B)&\otimes_B&(N&\otimes_A&B) \
&& (m&\otimes&n)&\otimes&b & {}\longmapsto{} & (m&\otimes&b)&\otimes&(n&\otimes&1_B)\
\end{array}\qquad\text{and}\qquad\begin{array}{{2}{@{}c}{15}{@{,}c}}
g & {}:{} & (M&\otimes_A&B)&\otimes_B&(N&\otimes_A&B) & {}\longrightarrow{} & (M&\otimes_A&N)&\otimes_A&B\
&& (m&\otimes&b)&\otimes&(n&\otimes&b') & {}\longmapsto{} &(m&\otimes&n)&\otimes&bb'\
\end{array}$$
nHail
And I think it’s gonna be virtually impossible to show it’s injective manually
just take these two maps, fg = id, gf = id
You can almost never define a map out of a tensor product like that
I mean what you would need to do is show that the map out of the similar product is bilinear
But the relations inside the tensor product are so fucked trying to define on simple tensors won’t work
You can’t show it’s well-defined
Or well, doing so is equivalent to saying the map out of the product is bilinear
can't you? we have this from class
Okay yeah yeah this is showing the map out of the product is bilinear
yeah exactly
I think it’s kind of backwards to do it this way though tbh but I’m just a hater
Tensor products should be worked with universally
And then you unwind to see what the map actually is
yeah I think we're just kinda brushing over the bilinear map thing and working with linear maps from the tensor
which as you said is equivalent
maybe \otimes is one character longer than \times
I mean it’s the same thing lol
The thing says “above universal property” which is gonna be that one
it's like a page up, there are some other remarks in between saying that {a (x) b} is a generating set, etc.
No I mean I know what that was gonna say
This is saying it factors bilinear maps and is universal for it
oops, swapped the word order of this and thought you said "which is that one gonna be"
yeah this is the only relevant universal property
Wellllllll relevant here sure
Hom-tensor is… well it’s the same thing, but in a more useful form
Theoretically
sure
Anyway whatevs



