#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 382 of 1
I feel honoured
Well, was I right?
@formal laurel I think I get it
The main idea is that the witt vectors gives a equivalence of categories between rings R which are p-adically complete, p-torsion free rings on which R/(p) is perfect, and perfect rings in positive characteristics
just the way you phrase this here, are finite fields not p-torision free
No
they are the opposite
right
oh I read what you wrote wrong
like R is the witt vectors and the perfect rings are the finite fields
indeed
This correspondance is very cool since using some more computations you can show the perfectoid correspondance.
And this is also related to the Fargues-Fontaine curve
But, yeah, the main example to keep in mind is unrammified extensions of Qp
right, I have no clue about the other two examples
you are welcome to add anything if you want to
anyway thank you guys @formal laurel @rocky cloak @south patrol
KevLee 
you absolutely deserve it
for part $b$...
$o(a^k) = d$ if and only if $\frac{n}{\text{gcd}(n, k)} = d$
Write $n = \alpha \text{gcd}(n, k)$ and $k = \beta \text{gcd}(n, k)$ with $\text{gcd}(\alpha, \beta) = 1$. and $n = \gamma d$
then we have $\alpha = d$. And $k = \beta \text{gcd}(n, k) = \beta \frac n \alpha = \beta \frac nd$, so $r = \beta$. and $\text{gcd}(r, d) = \text{gcd}(\beta, \alpha) = 1$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
for part c:
$o(ab) | \text{lcm}(o(a), o(b) )$ if and only if $(ab)^{\text{lcm}(o(a), o(b) )} = e$. but $a^{\text{lcm}(o(a), o(b))} = e$ since $o(a) | \text{lcm}(o(a), o(b))$, and $b^{\text{lcm}(o(a), o(b))} = e$ since $o(b) | \text{lcm}(o(a), o(b))$. since $a$ and $b$ commute, this implies $(ab)^{\text{lcm}(o(a), o(b))} = e$
then, $\frac{\text{lcm}(o(a), o(b))}{\text{gcd}(o(a), o(b))} | o(ab) \iff \text{lcm}(o(a), o(b)) | o(ab) \times \text{gcd}(o(a), o(b)) \iff o(a) | o(ab) \times \text{gcd}(o(a), o(b)) \text{ and } o(b) | o(ab) \times \text{gcd}(o(a), o(b))$
$\iff \frac{o(a)}{\text{gcd}(o(a), o(b))} | o(ab) \text{ and } \frac{o(b)}{\text{gcd}(o(a), o(b))} | o(ab)$
$\iff o(a) | o(ab) o(b) \text{ and } o(b) | o(ab) o(a)$
$\iff a^{o(ab) \times o(b)} = e = b^{o(ab) \times o(a)}$

now, $(ab)^{o(ab)} = e$ means $a^{o(ab)} = b^{- o(ab)}$, and you can substitute this to deduce the last line
what was your strategy for solving it wai?
Qw lol thank u
Is the external direct product of the abelian group of rationals under addition and the abelian group of rationals under multiplication isomorphic to the field of rationals
I don’t think they are isomorphic idk
Consider the number of elements of order 2
And ig when you say field you mean abelian group
What structure is this called when an abelian group is both under addition and under multiplication over a field F that satisfies all the properties of a vector space
Is that even a thing
Oh that’s nice
WDYM? An abelian group is only equipped with one multiplication.
Sounds like an F-algebra
Maybe I meant a field under both operations over a field F that satisfies all properties of a vector space idk
Commutative ring that has the unity and for every nonidentity element has a unit
like a field extension?
Sounds like an F-algebra
Or ye ig if it's a field then a field extension of F
thats an F-algebra but with a little more structure
I’ve never learned that in field theory what is that
Not quite an extension though
so you may know that a vector space is a field acting on an abelian group
I further learned how like a field of rationals is basically two abelian groups of rationals under addition and multiplication something like that
an algebra is a field acting on a ring with 3 more rules about distributivity and compatibility
Oh that’s cool
some algebras youre already familiar with are R3 with the cross product and C with complex multiplication
How come we don’t learn the algebras as a whole separate structure in GRF
Groups rings and fields
though some people say that the vector multiplication has to be associative
in which case cross product doesnt work
they follow more naturally after having learned about modules
Yep under addition
Does this go hand in hand with representation theory
yeah
though modules are more applicable iirc
i havent done much rep theory yet but i will soon
the theory is quite similar to the theory of rings really, I do think its probably worth talking about them in a ring theory class
algebras over a ring in particular basically generalize rings
because algebras over Z turn out to be just rings
Fields are like the only commutative algebraic structure that I know of
Hm I guess that makes sense
Will fields be heavily studied in the commutative algebras
fields are heavily studied in galois theory
in commutative algebra terms fields are quite trivial
since commutative algebra is usually interested in things like ideals, of which fields have none (other than 0 and themselves)
for fields to be interesting you need to look at extensions of fields (which is basically galois theory)
when some questions are easy you just need to ask harder ones
I would say fields are heavily used in (more advanced than a first course) commutative algebra.
So you have to study them moderately heavily first (e.g. in Galois theory as above).
eh
yeah that's possible I've only really done a first course
What is there to learn beyond the scope of basic Galois theory
I learned like one thing in Galois theory and that stuff already seems very advanced for me
For finite fields/finite Galois theory
Beyond in what direction?
There is oodles more Galois theory of a number-theoretic flavour (ramification subgroups, Galois groups for local fields, class field theory, Galois representations, ......).
Galois representations
There are also various things of a kind of commutative algebra/algebraic geometry flavour (automorphism groups of transcendental extensions e.g. Aut(k(t)/k) = PGL2(k) but for more variables you run into unsolved things like Cremona groups; or inseparable extensions which are kind of wild and I think practically impossible to classify fully; or generalise to various kinds of finite-dimensional algebras over fields e.g. CSAs)
This is just an idiosyncratic list of things I know of.
Oh and this involves infinite Galois groups
If you don't agree that fields are trivial then you are a fake algebraist
The trivial field with one element
The trivial computation of $\pi_1^{\mathrm{et}}(\operatorname{Spec} \bQ)$
Raghuram
On a level that isn’t unknown, but “classical and beyond basic field theory” is everything relating to ètale and smooth stuff
In what sense would fields be trivial
Minor spelling mistake
Confused on what you mean by that
I was joking lol
Hm
Compute galois group of Q
Copy cat
Oh didn't see lol
Copy potato*?
What are Coexter and Cremona groups
cremona groups are just Bir(P_k^n)
birational geometry 🔥
OHHH I get it
the field of reals extends the field of rationals and the field of reals is the extension field does that mean gal(R/Q) is the identity map
So it’s the trivial map basically
I’m not a true algebraist what does this mean
From where did you get that R is a splitting field over Q?
yeah it isnt, there are many real numbers that arent roots of Q-coefficient polynomiais (see: pi, etc) and you're missing many roots (like i, etc). its some strnage field between Q and C
Struggling with a proof: Prove that if N a submodule of M. And M/N and N are finitely generated, M is also finitely generated. I was thinking about defining the generating set of M/N to be some {x_1 , ... , x_n} and the generating set of N to be some {y_1, ... , y_i}. My intuition of the problem is that M would be finitely generated by the union of the two sets; however, I have no idea how to get there
Any m in M is the preimage of something in M/N so you can probably just express that m in terms of those generators from that
(Swap domain and codomain in this sentence: anything in M/N is the image of something in M.)
I meant extension field
Q(x)/f(x)) is the extension field over Q right
Why don't you know what you meant?
No, Q is a field and has no (non-trivial proper) quotients.
Oh
Actually no it’s just gal(Q)
Trying to be an algebraist but saying fields are trivial is kind of vague with no context behind it
I’m not too confident with the material I’ve learned in field theory yet
You know far more about it than I do, as you’re someone who’s probably had a solid background in representation theory
That was a joke so it's kind of futile to try to take it seriously.
Reason why I’m here to know why that is
Actually this would be true for Q(sqrt2)) being a splitting field maybe an extension field
It's both, but yes.
Not for Q(x)/(f(x)) being an extension field
Aren’t groups also trivial as well
Specifically free and simple groups
There is no Q/(f(x)). And I think neither fields nor groups (except when they have only one element) are trivial.
Principal ideal generated by f(x) idk
Quotient ring
Oh I just realized I forgot the (x) for the integral domain Q(x)
I do that all the time
The notation is Q[x]
Hi, I had asked a question related to field theory in #help-6 , was wondering if anyone could look over it and help, thanks
hello i am having some trouble intuitively understanding something
i don’t know how to latex so lemme write it and send a pic
the orthogonal group is isomorphic to {-1,1} mixed with special orthogonal group?
yes
it doesn’t make sense in my brain at all, maybe the problem is that i don’t get what the semi direct product is doing
with C_2 acting via the corresponding diagonal matrices
i wish i had a more specific question to ask
I should be more specific because this action actually depends on n mod 2
oh right because of Z2
not at all
consider the SES SO(n) -> O(n) -> C_2 with the second map being the determinant, if n is odd then -1 in O(n) has determinant -1, but if n is even then it lies in SO(n)
i was typing up a storm, but i think my real question is that i need convincing, so im going to study the proof of this and pray that i am convinced somehow, idk i just feel like SO(N) is much smaller than O(N) so i dont get how this isomorphism is even onto
oops
There are at least ceil(n/2) such splittings that look like that
in particular, in the first case then -1 commutes with all of SO(n) so this product actually becomes direct
How do you define SO(n) and O(n)
what is SES? what’s that stand for
it's literally index 2
it's only half the size of O(n)
and idk what index is
why are you learning semi direct products when you don't know what the index of a subgroup is
O(N) is matrices where A transpose = A inverse, SO(N) = things in O(N) with determinant 1
that’s not what i was told
like i wasn’t taught that
bad course lol
no it's the number of cosets
anyway
I guess I should ask what you actually want answered
is it the map defining the semidirect product you're confused about?
yeah that's not useful at all that's just restating what the presentation of the semidirect product looks like. I was going to say for convivence assume it's the map sending -1 to conjugation by whatever element you're sending -1 to in your section of the determinant map
unfortunately this isn't unique lol but all choices generate an isomorphic group
okay so the map let’s say f, is f(-1) = conjugate of -1
because it’s {-1,1} do we also have to define f(1) = conjugate of 1
well yes otherwise it's not a group homomorphism. Also you can't just always pick f(-1) = the conjugation map by -1 in O(n). Writing c_x for the conjugation map induced by x, we have to pick f(-1) = c_x with det(x) = -1, as this x must be arising from a splitting of the determinant morphism O(n) -> Z/2Z. If n is even and we choose x = -1 in O(n) then det(x) = 1
sorry, awful phrasing
one moment
okay that makes sense
what you're saying works when n is odd without modification, but when x is even you'd need to pick something like, diag(-1, -1, ..., -1, 1) or something
it's still a semidirect product it's just a fiddly detail with the precise action
in fact, when n is odd, because -1 is central this semidirect product becomes direct
which is fun
yeah i have this theorem written down
this module is so hard to me lol, bcs it goes through groups of like order 4 and then suddenly i’m involved in matrix groups and geometry, i don’t think they’ve explained the underlying concepts well so it feels so out of the blue yk
like i didn’t know index was a thing
are you a physicist by any chance
and they don’t explain automorphisms well so i find myself reciting a definition without actually understanding anything
i’m not a physicist just a maths undergrad
have you covered like, the first isomorphism theorem?
well no I guess not cause there's no way you've talked about quotient groups without index being mentioned
yes i only understood today that it’s called that lol, we call it in the module, “the homomorphism theorem”
u would think
i understand that a quotient group is like all of the left/right cosets
but never had index in the definition
I guess it's a simple definition lol as I said it's just the number of cosets
i remember they put index in the formal writing of Lagranges theorem, but it’s just “where i(H,G) is the index” and then no further elaboration ever
this added a lot of understanding thank u for telling me
Real, the way physics students seem to learn group/rep theory is wild
I'm convinced half of the reason people think richard feymann was such a good expositor was because he's the only physicist to not be dog shit at pedagogy
Nah I actually cant allow that, bar one, all of my physics profs were great. Im pretty sure physicts have been interesd (academically) in pedagogy for a good bit longer than mathematicans too. He may just be the one physcist who actually knows how to talk to people
Though not women...
BLEEEEEEEEEEEEEEH
i mean he probably didnt consider them people
Semidirect products take time to get used to; if you want to get comfortable with them I would recommend trying to understand several different simple examples. I can suggest
(i) G = affine-linear transformations of the real line as the semidirect product of H = R^x (multiplicative group of dilations about the origin) and K = R (additive group of translations)
(ii) G = the dihedral group of automorphisms of a regular n-gon as the semidirect product of a cyclic group H = C2 of order two (capturing reflections) and a cyclic group K = Cn of order n (the rotations of the n-gon)
(iii) the group G = B2 of 2x2 invertible upper-triangular matrices (with entries in your favourite field - e.g. either real or complex entries) as the semidirect product of the group H = T2 of invertible diagonal matrices and the group K = U2 of invertible upper-triangular matrices with diagonal entries 1
(iv) your example of G = On(R), H = Z2 and K = SOn(R).
For each example where I have given you groups G, H, K, I suggest the following exercise:
(a) Compute what conjugation of K by H looks like: for h in H and k in K, calculate h k h^{-1}. (It will come out to be in K; figure out which element of K.)
(b) Write an arbitrary element of G as a product of an element of H and an element of K. Convince yourself that there is exactly one way to do this. (Personally, I usually find th next step more intuitive if I use KH rather than HK here, but HK matches the convention you are being taught right now.)
(c) Express multiplication in G in terms of this "HK-representation": that is, for g1 = h1 k1 and g2 = h2 k2, consider g = g1 g2 and find out what the HK-representation g = h k is, expressing h and k in terms of h1, k1, h2, k2.
Let $M$ be an $A$-module. I would like to show that $A \otimes_A M \cong M$. I've constructed a bilinear map $f: A \times M \to M$ given by $f(a,m) = am$, hence this factors through the tensor product. So we have an $A$-module homomorphism $\overline{f} : A \otimes_A M \to M$. It is quite clear that this map is surjective, as any $m \in M$ is the image of $1 \otimes m$ in $\overline{f}$, but I am struggling to show injectivity. Does anyone have any advice?
swifteeee
its easier to write an inverse map instead
no i had the same exact issue first time i was trying that problem lol
lol, well that makes me feel a little better haha
yeah i think with tensor products the more you can avoid dealing with the actual elements in M (x) N the better probably
i just universal propertied the other canonical isomorphisms but i couldnt do that here and i got lost
wow
||alternatively notice that a ⊗ m = (a * 1) ⊗ m = 1 ⊗ (am), so by bilinearity every element of A ⊗_A M is of the form 1 ⊗ m. Then of course f(1 ⊗ m) is zero iff m is zero iff 1 ⊗ m is zero so we are done||
nice tensor symbol
with universal property its Yoneda lol:
||We have the adjunction
Hom(A ⊗_A M, N) ≈ Hom(A, Hom(M, N)) ≈ Hom(M, N)
So by the fully faithfulness of the Yoneda embedding we have that A ⊗_A M ≈ M||
oh yeah. neat
How does one visualize the topology of a weyl group I don’t understand
This all seems trivial to me
Do you mean that ax+b is not the same as a(x+b)?
Why are you considering a topology on the Weyl group?
if by Weyl group you mean the kind that shows up in Lie theory around root systems there is no topology here these are finite groups lol
None other than the discrete one
it’s basically a discrete set 
Finally got this big boy in print!
The paper is a little bit too smooth and thin as for my taste, but it will do. It’s 900+ pages after all, so I guess they needed some trade off in order not to make the book too thick.
NO WAY
I'm doing this right now lol
congrats !
in 13(b) I feel I'm missing something
What do you feel is missing?
In my proof which I'm typing out now
Let $\phi^{-1} (M)$ not be a maximal ideal. Let There be a bigger ideal, call it $\Omega$. Then let $x \in \phi^{-1} (M)$ and $y \in \Omega \setminus \phi^{-1} (M)$. Then $\phi(xy) \in M$. This is as every ideal is closed under multiplication. So $xy \in \phi^{-1} (M)$. So $y \in \phi^{-1}(M)$
wai
Like this doesn;t even use the fact that M is a maximal ideal, never mind the fact that phi is surjectuve
how do you conclude that y is in the preimage?
it doesn't follow
xy \in phi^{-1} (M). x \in phi^{-1} (M) so x^{-1} does too
I know but x^{-1} is in the ideal is it not, and xy is too?
yeah if an ideal contains an invertible element it must be the entire ring
back to the drawingboard then I suppose
esentially what I want to do is show that if there's a larger ideal containing phi^{-1} M it is M , right
infact that is by defn
yeah
hmm
hint: correspondence theorem
yeah, just struk me
so I show S/M iso to phi^{-1} (M) do I not
uh not quite that
ah yes, I skipped this as the proof used lattices which I hadn't done. Guess It's time to do it
Honestly the better proof of that is just to use the correspondence theorem
Like its good to know multiple proofs, but to me this is like the clearest example of the power of the correspondence theorem and actually tells you why the result is true
I mean "the proof used lattices" probably means "the proof is just the correspondence theorem"
Oh, I saw lattices as I was scrolling and got scared 😭
didn't even try to prove it by myself once I saw lattices"
I guess, I just took it to be the very direct proof since (they had posted and now deleted) a elementary proof for R/P in the book
But yeah like if you mean correspondence theorem and youre scared of it, this is the perfect time to get comfortable with it
Here inclusion is of subsets, right
yeah
but yeah the fancy way of saying it is that the lattice of ideals of R/I is the same as the lattice is ideals of R containing I
its good to underestand lattices they come up quite a lot in math
basically they're posets with a notion of a "supremum" and "infimum"
(some only have it for finite # of elements, some can have arbitrary)
in the case of ideals, your "supremum" is the ideal generated by a bunch of ideals, and your "infimum" is the intersection
so essentailly a lattice isomorphism means a bijection that respects these two operations (which also implies that it respects the ordering if you think about it)
so join and meet in ordering theory
b/c a \leq b iff b = sup(a,b)
yeah join and meet are the abstract terms usually used though tbh I always say sup and inf b/c I forget which is join and which is meet half the time
fair enough. Okay, guess I'll spend an hour or two on this then
oh also I'm fairly sure an order isomorphism is automatically a lattice isomorphism, so really the only thing you care about is preserving the order
Eh, guess reading up on lattices will clear those questions
thanks
so essentially a lattice is a total ordering?
oh, right , two elements of P may be incomparable to each other, right
yeah in fact often lattices are very far from total orderings
the standard example of a lattice is the power set of a set under inclusion
where the meet and join are union and intersection
That does make sense
partial ordering where you can do "unions" and "intersections"
except they may not distribute over eachother, unlike unions
better example may be the naturals under division, where meet and join are given by gcd and lcm
(this is in fact the opposite of the ideal lattice of Z)
lattice theory is cool its a shame that many concepts there are only implicitly used in modern day math
this is basically saying if an inf exists for. a set, then a sup exists?
oops this
yes
this is very nice in the case of so-called Moore families, or closure operators
wait it's saying if any set has a least element , that same set has a sup?
oops, yes
if every subset has a meet then every subset must have a join
however, kinda conventionally the meet of the empty set is the top element
that isn't really conventionally it basically must be true if you look at the def of the meet
yeah okay true
(which imples every complete lattice must have a top and bottom element)
peak
we love complete lattices
complete lattices? you mean closure operators? 
I did this result in BY3
yes
The correct generalisation is “every total category is complete”
explicitly:
∨X = ∧{y | x ≤ y for all x ∈ X }
Yep
I read this as BYD and was like huh?
Nah it’s baby Yoneda 3
hmm, this is going to be fun to prove in the absence of additive inverses
I mean really all I need to do is each chain is bounded above for then zorn's lemma comes in clutch
its completely provable without zorn
Now that I’ve written them I feel like it may have been better to swap the order of BY2 and BY3
For reals I'd basically take the negative seqeunce, I aim to do something like that I suppose?
well you only have the data of an ordering and a meet
is this an easy theorm to prove 😭
yeah
F should have had it by now
ah]
got it
thanks
Guess doing this for the frist time at 12 am is not the best idea 
This made me think, do any of the standard axioms of ZFC show up as theorems? (I.e. are there any “natural” theorems that turn out to be equivalent to one of the axioms)
I expect the answer is no, at least not in an at all interesting way
"every ring has a maximal ideal" is equivalent to a weaker form of choice
i believe
Well yeah sure lol I mean there’s like 100 ways to do it for choice but I was wondering about any of the ZF axioms
I imagine the answer is no because they just don’t say “enough” but I hadn’t considered this before
nvm just choice
i don't know and dont think so yeah lol but im not an actual logician
Yeah there’s about a million statements that turn out to be equivalent to choice
I may ask in foundations but that place scares me
i love choice
Same, honestly I’m at a point in my life where I am annoyed by notes or books etc when they say “caution, this requires choice”
Yeah, I use the axioms all the time, I’m not fussed
It’s honestly not even pointing out the use that irritates me, it’s specifically being like WARNING!!
My category theory notes do it and it just rubs me the wrong way lol
Like you’re a K theorist, why are you entertaining any skepticism of choice
i mean it's not really about scepticism of choice right?
it's more to do with constructive vs non-constructive
my favourite example of this is zermelo's theorem
In game theory, Zermelo's theorem is a theorem about finite two-person games of perfect information in which the players move alternately and in which chance does not affect the decision making process. It says that if the game cannot end in a draw, then one of the two players must have a winning strategy (i.e. can force a win). An alternate sta...
Maybe their target audience includes topos theorists
I think it's good to be aware of where choice is used and if it's necessary, even if I don't particularly care that much
Yeah I mean this isn’t something I lose sleep over and I am joking in how I say it, but I do think displaying it as a warning is kinda silly. Mention it sure, but idk it feels silly to warn people about the use of one of the axioms from the commonly accepted foundations. Especially when most people in that room are topologists and algebraists
i don't see how it's silly
Like I know Tom Leinster has a particular issue with this, his ETCS notes have a whole section dedicated to where our topology course uses choice unnecessarily and I just can’t help but feel that’s silly
What's going on here, oh NVM
It’s the presentation as a warning that I think is odd, as though it’s something to be scared of or avoid
Not a thing i waana read at1 am😭
I’m not saying that choice free maths is bad or uninteresting or anything
tbf there's at least one place in topology where using choice is imo quite bad form and that's proving net continuity implies continuity
it's just a note that the proof is nonconstructive
even though the choice proof is kinda the most obvious one
I am pretty sure there are quite a few things equivalent to foundation that show up as theorems
I don’t remember details tho
Also i think also replacement
Although maybe not for this last one cause any equivalent statements to a schema must also be schema
Anyway this question is a social one cause there are always SOME statements equivalent to all of our axioms they are just not always interesting enough to be theorems
Yeah this is what I was getting at with “natural” which is of course vague and very open to interpretation. I’m sure there’s a bunch of not very interesting statements you can make to be equivalent to something or other
by that means theres probably no topology on the weyl group nvm
isnt the weyl group one of the largest in size other than the monster group out of all the finite groups
its like over 600 million or something
Infinity is significantly larger than any finite number you can think of
"the" weyl group?
are you thinking of a different group?
i can think of a pretty small weyl group
wait there are different types of weyl groups
Equivalence is done in ZF
It’s simply the largest sporadic group
you should probably read about the construction of a weyl group
i knew it was a sporadic group but i didnt know of other groups larger than the monster group
so let $\alpha=\begin{pmatrix} a&b\c&d\end{pmatrix}, T=\begin{pmatrix}1&n\0&1\end{pmatrix}$ and $S=\begin{pmatrix}0&-1\1&0\end{pmatrix}$. WLOG assume $|d|\geq |c|$ and write $d=qc+r$ with $q,r\in\mathbb{Z}$ and $|r|<|c|$, then $r=d-qc$ and $\alpha T^{-q}=\begin{pmatrix}a&b_1\c&r\end{pmatrix}$ with $b_1\in\mathbb{Z}$. multiplying $\alpha T^{-q}$ by $S$ swaps $c$ and $r$ and then replaces $c$ by $-c$ (it doesnt matter what changes in the 1st row). Since $|c|>|r|$, we can write $c=q_1r+r_1$ and repeat a similar process to what was done above by first multiplying $\alpha T^{-q}S$ by $T^{q_1}$ and then multiplying by $S$. After repeating this process a sufficient number of times, the bottom left entry of the resulting matrix will be $0$. This matrix is of the form $\alpha\gamma=\begin{pmatrix}a_1&b'\0&d_1\end{pmatrix}$ with $\gamma\in\Gamma$. Now $\alpha\gamma\in SL_2(\mathbb{Z})$ so $\det(\alpha\gamma)=a_1d_1=1$, hence $d_1=c_1=\pm 1$. Using the remark that says $S^2=-I$, we can take $d_1=1$ and hence $c_1=1$ which means that $\alpha\gamma=\begin{pmatrix}1&b'\0&1\end{pmatrix}\in\Gamma$. Hence $\alpha=\alpha\gamma\gamma^{-1}\in\Gamma$ and $\Gamma=SL_2(\mathbb Z)$
ali yassine
is this correct?
the finite simple groups have 18 infinite families and the 26 (or 27) sporadics, the infinite families have simple groups of arbitrarily large size given a parameter
and you can have nonsimple groups as well
Also is there a specific reason to why the hint asked for |d'|\leq |c|/2 rather than just |d'|<|c|
lol ik what you mean when you said simply
was that intentional
I would honestly love to say it was lol
Let n be the size of the monster group. Consider Z/n+1Z
A Weyl group is a symmetry group of a root system. Different root systems have different symmetry groups, so they come in all different sizes.
Could even be infinite depending on your definitions.
Algebraists seething over 4 year old chads
Yeah? Well ill consider Z/n+2Z
Z/0Z
Do I win?
finite group
well i mean if Z/nZ is finite for all n, Z/0Z must be finite too
What's a little in-prefix between friends
I must concede because 0 is in fact a natural number
unrefutable logic
Z is finite because every proper quotient is finite
every residually finite group is finite 
It looks fine, only I think you typed c1 instead of a1 in the 2nd and 3rd last lines.
ohh yea true, tysm for checking it and pointing this out
have a great day/night
What if it's like mid afternoon
then its still day
Valid
wai
yeah that's one way, though I think the other way is a bit more direct
Showing if $R/phi^{-1}(M)$ is a field then $\phi^{-1} (M)$ is maximal?
wai
oh right, I'll want the opposite direction
Very stupid question, but I'll first want to show $R/ phi^{-1}(M)$ forms a field right
wai
As a hint think of 2 maps starting from R and ending with some sort of field in such a way the kernel is exactly what you want
mhm
for this I'd need to know R has a maximal ideal
Zorn
Ofcourse lol
So your problem is you're not sure if R has a maximal ideal?
Fwiw every nonzero unital ring has a maximal ideal
sure if you do that then phi^{-1}M is a maximal ideal
rather than showing its a field directly, its good to try and show its isomorphic to a field you already know about
given the information you have, there's only really one candidate
hint: ||projection||
such as M/S
which is direct from phi's surjectivity
The projection map now you said?
Isn't that overkill
hmm, lemme try both
I mean yeah, basically that
map a \in phi^{-1}(M) to phi(a)+M
I'm sure there's an ugly way to do this but this is very neat and natural
and now we're done
It's okay that's one of the things you should be getting comfy with if you decide to do more algebra
Composing maps is helpful

I do want to do algebra so yeah
we're done now I think
right yeah this is the homomorphism we got then the projection S -> S/M
awesome. Thanks so much!
General advice: Other than practice(ofcourse) how to keep track of results
specifcially in algebra
Apply them to what you care about
just to be clear, passge here basically refers to the homomorphism g-> g+ ((f(x)) right
yes the bar is denoting that you're working modulo f(x)
the line" passage to the quotient" always cracks me up tbh
it sounds like a story
I thought you were Ultra for a minute.
Not the first time
Lol a story
the passage was treacherous, not all functions made it out , but all that entered were changed forever
The Passage to the Quotient ™️ 🎥
is there a difference between ker f and Ker f?
usually they both are just the kernel of a function
the first letter is capitalised in the second one
it was in the context of homomorphisms and i rememeber i saw both versions so i though they meant different things

could you show us the context
and name the book you're using
it s not in english though
Like if the book really wants to mess with you , it could do mean different things , but that's a horrible thing to do
like it's easy to write K instead of k
they literally never mean different things. I will give chat 5 gifted if they're actually meaning different things
same thing, assuming 1' is the identity and this is a group
Lol
ker is baby and Ker is daddy
Can i have 5 gifted anyway
I've seen people use one to denote the morphisms part of the kernel and the other the object. But I don't think that's a general trend
,w morphism
So basically the kernel (of a group homomorphism say) consists of a two things:
A group which is the kernel, and the inclusion map of said group into the domain.
Both of these things (the group and the inclusion map) are sometimes called the kernel of f.
Not OP, but never heard of kernel being used in teh 2nd conetxt
Also as an aside ideally how much algebra would I want to know before cat theory
Would groups , rings and fields upto an undergraduate level be enough
I suppose I should start with the appendix of D&F
And some places say toplogy , so I guess a good part of mukres
no
Okay
im so sorry amamono
The difference for me is generally if I do \ker or \mathrm{Ker} because I have forgotten \ker works
Not many hard prerequisites, so just depends on your motivations.
That's probably enough examples of categories to get started. But if you want to actually apply category theory to algebra you probably want to know a little about modules as well.
I see, thanks.
The topology you want tends to be more algebraic, so probably most of munkres. The fundamental group is the prototypical example of a functor generally
But you don’t really need that
And then I guess chain complexes of modules are a very interesting category but not strictly necessary. At the end of the day it’s just a language to talk about stuff in, so the areas it touches are basically endless. You don’t need to follow every example
I see
Guess I'll have to wait atleast until next sem for cat theory then
You don’t have to, category theory doesn’t really have any strict prerequisites beyond a basic familiarity with mathematical thinking. The thing is just that you want actual examples to get your hands dirty with, and they’re generally groups, rings, modules, chain complexes and topological spaces. But if you only know some of those you’ll be fine, if you want to learn it I think you probably know enough to survive you just won’t follow all the examples. That’s basically always true though
But I do personally think it’s better to know some topology first, just as motivation, but reasonable people disagree
I want to do it properly, not over and over again as I learn more
so I';ll wait
Maybe I'm misunderstanding this, but basically this is saying such groups have elements such that for each natutral number there exists an element with a bigger, yet finite order
yeah the cat theory course im in rn isnt assuming much algebra background so the examples are like, pointed sets... partial functions ..
and some basic groups stuff
Yes, every element has finite order, but the orders get arbitrarily large
so i guess it is doable lol but yeah the examples arent as interesting maybe
and 3-generated means it's generated by a set of cardinality 3
Fun fact for you: there exists infinite 2-generated groups such that every element has order p for a fixed prime p.
In the area of modern algebra known as group theory, a Tarski monster group, named for Alfred Tarski, is an infinite group such that every proper subgroup, other than the identity subgroup, is a cyclic group of order a fixed prime number p. A Tarski monster group is necessarily simple. It was shown by Alexander Yu. Olshanskii in 1979 that Tarski...
wait, so every elment has prime order, or for every prime there exists an element of order p
Every element has the same order
(Every nonidentity element)
what,every element has the same order, but is non-finite
a little mind boggling innit
this just means both the group and subgroup have a n-generator right
not the same one
Yea, that goes without saying
how would this work for the trivial group though
just {e}
I mean sure it's finitely generated, but it's not n-generated
Typically people use n generated to mean having a generating set with cardinality<= n
I guess you can also think of it as allowing duplicates in your generating set
The second is much more useful for me, allows me to make sense of the 2nd statement more easily and have it be a direct result
well, ofcourse I have to show it has more than one generator
List all finite simple groups :3
Prove burnsides basis theorem:
If S is a minimal generating set for a p-group G then there is an Fp vector space V and a group homomorphism G -> V sending S to a basis.
Or with a little more detail:
Let F(G) be the normal subgroup generated by commutators and pth powers in G (the Frattini subgroup). Then G/F(G) is an Fp vector space an a set is a minimal generating set iff it's image is a basis
yeah already done : (
A p-group is nilpotent, so there is a well defined homomorphism from G -> products of G/M where M describes the maximals subgroups,
and G/M ~ Cp
Let $A$ be generated by $(a_1,a_2 \dots , a_n)$, each being distinct. Then $A={a_1^{k_1} \dots a^{k_n} \mid k_i \in \Z , 1≤i≤n }$. Let $H≤A$. Then every element of $H$ must be of the form $a_i^{h_i} \dots a_k^{h_l}$. Suppose an element that's not of this form were in $H$, call it $t$. Then it follows $a_1^{b_1} \dots a_{i}^{b_i} \dots a_{l}^{b_l} \dots a_n^{b_n}=t$. We then multiply this by $a_i^{-(h_i+b_i)} \dots a_l^{-(h_l+b_l)}$. So $a_1b^{1}\dots a_{i-1}^{b_{i-1} a_{l+1}^{b_{l+1}} \dots a_n^{b_n} \in H$.
oops, wrong reply
np
Groups of order p^2 being abelian?
Too easy maybe...
My idea is to ultimately show that then $H$ is the entire group( this is what you do for cyclic groups)
wai
it is lol, G/Z(G) cyclic => G abelian
Pick a random integers prove there is no simple group of the order / construct example
Or prove there is exactly one simple group of order 168
hmm
wai
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would induction be a better idea, this is becoming a symbol soup
i'll try thx
NVM,got it!
I got a nice one too if you want : Determine the smallest group G such that G = Z(G) x D(G) where Z(G) and D(G) are proper and nontrivial. (D(G) = G')
@candid patrol what are u doing here?
group theory of course
Let $A$ be generated by $(a_1,a_2 \dots , a_n)$, each being distinct and no power of any $a_i$ is any power of $a_j$. Then $A={a_1^{k_1} \dots a^{k_n} \mid k_i \in \Z , 1≤i≤n }$. Let $H≤A$. Then every element of $H$ must be of the form $a_i^{h_i} \dots a_k^{h_l}$. Suppose an element that's not of this form were in $H$, call it $t$. Then $a_1^{b_1} \dots a_{i}b^{i} \dots a_{l}^{b_l} \dots a_n^{b_n}=t$. Then $a_1^{b_1} \dots a_{i}^{-h_i-b_{i}} a_{l}^{-b_{l}-h_l} \dots a_{n}^{b_n} \in H$. But this is a contradiction to our assumption, we're done.
wai
If this is correct though probably a bit much of a symbol soup
eh, there are some small errors but is fine I think
||C2 x A5||
||G' = Z' x D' = D', so D = D'. Smallest group where this happens would be A5 because all smaller groups are solvable.||
Let $A$ be generated by $(a_1,a_2 \dots , a_n)$, each being distinct and no power of any $a_i$ is any power of $a_j$.
This is as if it were then the group would be generated by a subset of $(a_1,\dots,a_n)$
Then $A={a_1^{k_1} \dots a^{k_n} \mid k_i \in \mathbb{Z} , 1≤i≤n }$. Let $H≤A$. Then every element of $H$ must be of the form $a_i^{h_i} \dots a_k^{h_l}$. This being a representative element of $H$, $h_j$ are fixed . Suppose an element that's not of this form were in $H$, call it $t$. Then $a_1^{b_1} \dots a_{I}^{b_{i}} \dots a_{l}^{b_l} \dots a_n^{b_n}=t$.
We now multiply across by $a_i^{-h_i} \dots a_{l}^{-h_l}$.
Then $a_1^{b_1} \dots a_{i}^{-h_i+b_{i}} a_{l}^{-b_{l}+h_l} \dots a_{n}^{b_n} \in H$.
But this is a contradiction to our assumption, we're done.
wai
Ok I choose 808017424794512875886459904961710757005754368000000000
Z/nZ
Hi folxs
general advice wanted
So i just read this proof and it does make a lot of sense to me, however, I'm unsure of how I'd come up with this ( I suppose here we can just say it's a nutural extension of the case of n=1)?
And in general when is it a good idea to read the proof of a theom
I mean this a pretty simple proof 😭
I often think that when reading proofs of theorems and honestly sometimes it is just hard if you’ve never seen that idea before and that was probably a great result when it was first published. I try to just give myself grace with that. Usually you’re coming into subjects that already have like 50-200 years of thinking done, it’s only natural there’s some stuff you’d never come up with on your own.
But the important thing is I suppose that you file the idea of the proof away, and maybe you can do something similar later.
For this specific proof, I would be thinking induction straight away because n=1 is pretty easy and I could probably just write that down straight away, so I’d want to see if I could extend it. Then as you say, the induction step is basically the same thing again.
I do get the feeling though, the one I really remember feeling recently was when I first saw the computation of the cohomology ring of RP^n, I followed the proof well enough but I just had no clue how anyone came up with that
I wanted to say this so badly but I restrained myself.
tbh I spent ~1 hour trying to come up with a proof without this, in hindsight trying ot work from the general case to n=1 was a bad idea
alright i have to show that the vector space of functions [a,b] to R is infinite dimensional
its a question im asked in abstract alg 2 which is why im asking here
my idea is that i assume theres a finite basis
f1, ..., fn
then for a linear combination a1f1 + ... + anfn = g for some g in the space where the image of g is at least size n, i can use these values to solve for each ai
Contradiction will be hard, it’s easier to find a big enough linearly independent set
oh ur totally right
is there a way to show two groups are isomorphic by using a presentation of one of the groups?
you could show some generators satisfy some relations, but i guess the problem is knowing whether they generate the "freest" group?
is this what you're referring to? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Group_isomorphism_problem
yes
what if you have more information than just the presentations?
you can check two finite groups are isomorphic, but i'm wondering if there's a way to do it efficiently
i don't know anything about this problem beyond what i could read about it online, i think other people here may have more to say
ok thanks for your input 🙏
oh i found van Dyck's Theorem
You can use that sometimes but there's no protocol you can run given the presentation that will definitely yield an answer.
the theorem gives you a homomorphism, and you can map onto a generating set so you know it's onto, but the problem is if it's not one-to-one. then you get an isomorphism with a quotient group i guess (rather than the whole group)
ok so i have to show that for all endomorphisms phi: V to V with V a finite dimensional vector space, there is an integer m such that the intersection of phi^m and the kernel of phi^m is 0
im pretty sure i have it i just wanna make sure my argument is rigorous
if phi is injective we are done as ker phi = 0
thus suppose not and repeat
then im phi has dimension less than V
for some k <= m, phi^k is either an injection from im phi^(k-1) to itself or it maps to a space with smaller dimension
but if we keep coming across spaces with smaller dimension, the process has to terminate since the space itself is finite dimensional
so either ker phi^k = 0 if theres an injection or im phi^m = 0 if there never is an injection before m
Is there a way to take a physical object and assign two rigid rotations such that they act like the quaternions i and j? I want to teach my class about quaternions but I'd like to have a physical way of thinking of them.
Given that as a complex number, i is a 90 degree rotation, I'm wondering if something similar can be done in 3D, since that's what Hamilton was trying to do with them anyway.
I think any two rotations by 90° about perpendicular axes work?
Not unless you're identifying some of the faces of, say, a cube
And I'm having a hard time visualizing it
If it turns out it's not possible, I'd be open to any "hands-on" way of visualizing quaternions
No, I'm wrong.
The quaternionic group has only 1-dimensional and 4-dimensional irreducible representations over R, and the former all have -1 act trivially. So the smallest dimension in which you can faithfully represent them by rotations/reflections (or equivalently linear maps) is 4.
That's annoying. 😛
Oh well, thank you!
It's good to know such a thing doesn't exist in terms of just rotations
Though it means I'm back to the drawing board on how to teach it more concretely
saw a d&f exercise answer proving two groups isomorphic based on same generators/relations, given the two groups are of the same order (which was already explicitly given)
wondering about this myself now
OK one thing you could do is let i, j, k be rotations by 180° about x, y, z axes. This is not faithful but it is faithful except for -1. So you can remember the extra thing as some "twist" (I think this is probably related to spinor stuff).
Like draw a ribbon at the point acted on such that it gets twisted by 180° on two i's if you can come up with such a way of drawing it.
Kind of confused here. This is what I did.
Let $A \subseteq I \subset \R$ where $A$ is a prime ideal. Then Let $a \in A,b \in I \setminus A$. Let $a,b$ both be non-zero divisors. Let $n=o(a)≠o(b)$. Then $a^{n}b \in A \implies b\in A$. This is a contradiction. Thus $A$ must be a maximal ideal
wai
The question ofcourse is why doe such a,b need to exist
What is o(a) here? And how are you concluding that b is in A?
order of A , so a^n=1. And I'm assuming ab \in A
If a is a unit then A is not a prime ideal
That makes sense. Should have not missed that
The way I’d do it is via the “I maximal <=> R/I is a field” and “I prime <=> R/I is an integral domain”
yea, I thought of that at first too
shame I didn't prove it using that
showing R/A is a field is fairly easy too 😭
this is key to said proof ofcourse
I guess if you want to follow this approach consider m and n such that
b^n = b^m
with n and m different (must exist because R is finite).
Then
b^n-m (b^m - 1) = 0 is in A so either b is in A or (b)+A = R
How does this prove the second proposition
The meet and join are only defined in terms of the order.
E.g. the meet is the largest thing smaller than all the Hi.
yea, but the meet and join need not belong in the set right
Well they do actually, but that's not relevant
if you really want you can use the defining (universal) property of meets and joins
which is
Just try to write down what it would mean for
$$\left[\bigcap H_i\right]^a$$
to not be the meet of $H_i^a$
jagr2808
essentially, $x \leq \bigwedge_{s \in S} s \iff \forall s \in S, x \leq s$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and $\bigvee_{s \in S} s \leq x \iff \forall s \in S, s \leq x$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
these are the universal properties of meet and join
the intersection of subgroups is a subgroup, the subgroup generated by any number of subgroups is a subgroup
but yeah the fact that is being used here is that any order isomorphism is necessarily a lattice isomorphism
and you can get fancy with it but really it's just a consequence of the fact that the meet and join are the greater lower bound and least upper bound
I got that bit, I just didn't see how it's immediate
there's some element between those two elements greater than H_i^a
If you remember from real analysis, if a is an upper bound for a set S that is \leq all other upper bounds, then a must equal the supremum
The same idea is true here
(and yeah you can see this using universal properties and category theory but if you aren't comfortable with that you can also just prove it directly)
I know no cat theory :(
this follows immediately because you get sup S \leq a but also a \leq sup S
okay, so I just replicate that
right because sup S is a least upper bound but also we assumed a is a least upper bound
right
hence they're the same and we can say "the" least upper bound because it's unique
a lattice is completely decided by its order so an order isomorphism induces a lattice isomorphism
All good it's an important point
Because for example a monotone function is not necessarily a lattice morphism
i really wish they'd teach like general lattice/order theory more
I do too but tbh it doesn't really fit into any class
It would be nice to maybe cover lattices in a proof class I think
just because they come up everywhere
I remember doing posets but not much more than that
mhm, I've only done very little order theory , but it's so fun
Like a few pages ( so basically nothing)
like the first couple sections of the first chapter in Burris and Sankappanavar is super informative
the stuff about algebraic lattices, compact elements, relations with closure operators
and having lattice theory lets you make a lot of statements more precise
mainly a lot of the time in math you have two natural lattices and prove they are order isomorphic, and sometimes you then also go through the proof that they preserve the other stuff (even though it follows)
I;m using roman rn 😔 , shoudl get hugerford instead , but too late for that [ because this is a reading project]
and Galois connections of course
Maybe I'm just forgetting the notation here , but isn't HvK the join of H and K
so is this just saying the join of HK=HvK
yes
yippee permutability mentioned
This is a talk I gave at the Bridges conference on mathematics and the arts (http://bridgesmathart.org/), on 18th August 2014, about my paper with Vi Hart with the same title. The slides are available at https://www.math.okstate.edu/~segerman/talks/quaternion_group_as_a_symmetry_group.pdf
The paper is available at http://archive.bridgesmathart....
this video shows how to do it in 4d
more here at 5:50 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RhuaPhahHbU
Right, but I think they are looking for a 3D visualisation so they can show it to people.
On a tangent ( as this came up in my group theory book), would cardinal arithmatic have any pre-requitsites
Still, a video for 4D is nicer than just "there exists a 4D faithful real representation".
context
If you just want the answers, not really.
This doesn't even need cardinal arithmetic.
eh, it doesn't, I know
but the book mentions it like so
And it has a section about cardinals , so I was wondering if there's any good reason to do it right now
Don’t talk about my size
What's in that section? Is there a table of contents you can share?
sure
see section 1
Sure if it's 3 pages just read it
All of those preliminaries (except misc, ofc I don't know what that is about) are probably going to be useful to be familiar with sooner or later (or sooner).
I'm reading 'em as and when they first pop up in theory, I suppose that's good?
Also works
There are |HK| blocks are the map ,f, is surjective right
wdym
f is defined to be surjective ye
and hence there are |HK| pre-image sets
yes
cool, was obvious but for some reason took 5 minutes to click 😭
np
surj just means if your codomain has x elements then there are exactly x fibers
does it show u how you can get theformula for |HK|?
and where |H \cap K| comes from
it does, but I'lll do that bit tomorrow once I read the bit on cardinalities ( as it does that using the same method)
good luck!
TYSM!
idk how your book does it but tl;dr, basically another pair of h, k in the same fiber can be written as a product of only elements from H or only elements from K, hence an element in H \cap K
yup, I think that's what this book does too, and I was thinking of trying something similar anyways
then rewriting into unique elements you end up getting |HK| * |H \cap K|
division badaboom
very cool, gl friend
so peak
This book is SOO GOOD
currently struggling
with D&F?
yeah, just so many exercises
D&F is a slog , yeah. But been very rewarding for me so far

like come on
aim for like 20 at most
maybe skip the repititive ones
I didn't use D&F for groups, so can't comment
Have fun /srs
will have a look soon, I'm on a bit of a time cruch rn as I have a reading project
So need to finish the readings and exercies planned for this friday :)
npnp
The current time for math_rocks is 12:00 AM (IST) on Wed, 04/02/2026.
checks out 
which part?
got it lol, just so late I'm slow now
got it for naturals atelast
cadinals , tomorrow :)
The way of calcultaing |f^{-1}(x)| si beautiful thouhh
I'd never have come up with that way myself tbh, would have thought of a much more complicated way, which is sad
Yea this is probably why, good night
can you check my proof for the following exercise please
Let $G$ be a finite group acting on a finite set $S$. Writing $[w]$ for $1\cdot w$, we have the direct sum
[
\mathbb Z\langle S\rangle = \sum_{w\in S}\mathbb Z[w].
]
Define an action of $G$ on $\mathbb Z\langle s\rangle$ by defining $\sigma [w]=[\sigma w]$ (for $w\in S$), and extending $\sigma$ to $\mathbb Z\langle s\rangle$ by linearity. Let $M$ be a subgroup of $\mathbb Z\langle S\rangle S$ of rank $#(S)$. Prove that $M$ has a $\mathbb Z$-basis ${ y_w}{w\ins}$ s.t. $\sigma y_w=y{\sigma w}$ for all $w\in S$.
qchs
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proof:
It suffices to prove the transitive case (just take direct sum). Let $w$ be in $s$ and consider the set $S_w$ defined by
[
S_w = \bigcap {\sigma\in G_w}\text{fix }\sigma,
]
where $\text{fix }\sigma$ is the set of fixed points of $\sigma$ (I don't know the proper notation for this). Observe that there is a basis for $M$ that consists of ${d_w\mathbb Z[w]}{w\in S}$, where $d_w$ is some nonzero integer. Let $g\in G$ be in the pointwise stabilizer of the image of this set under some $\sigma '\in G\G_w$. Then $\sigma '^{-1}g\in G_w$ and so $G_{\sigma 'w} = \sigma 'G_w.$ We see that we can define the desired basis ${y_w}$ by setting $y_w = \text{lcm}(d_1, ..., d_w)\sum_{s\in S_w}[s].
nvm this is wrong
qchs
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this is wrong because it assumes that there is overlap between the $S_w$, which might not be the case
qchs
I don't see why M would have a basis consisting of multiplies of the [w]s
free abelian group of same dimension as group containing it
Say G=S=C2={1, g} and let M be generated by 1+g and 1-g
Then M does not have such a basis
{1, g} forms a z-basis though
that doesn't have rnak 2 though
It does
o wait
Like there exists bases for ZS and M with this property, but the basis given by S doesn't work
hmm
I'm also sceptical of your original claim
Like I don't think M is just a permutation module
yeah the basis thing screws it up
So yeah maybe there is some mistake in your exercise or maybe you wrote it down wrong
a mistake in the exercise is somewhat likely
since its lang
here is langs statement
and the theorem he cites
Yeah I just found it myself, so then it clearly is a mistake on langs part
(as the cited theorem is different)
is that why it took way longer than normal to solve (incorrectly)
Your solution more or less solves the correct statement though I guess
Or I mean, once you have the basis consisting of multiplies of things in S you're done
this question is confusing me
how is it not immediate that phi restricted to W is a linear transformation?
if phi behaves nicely with V elements then it does with W ones as well
is it asking to show that phi restricted to W is an endomorphism?
and same with phi bar
It is immediate yeah. I guess phi-bar very slightly less so.
Main part of the problem is the second part I guess
Could I have a hint for 5 please?
Oh
Idek why theyd ask this then
The first part i mean
Hint 1: ||For any polynomial f in Q[x] there is a rational number you can multiply it by to make it into a primitive polynomial in Z[x].||
Hint 2: ||if p(alpha) = 0, then f divides p||
Multiplying by the lcm of the denominators gives a primitive polynomial in Z[x] right?
Nvm
At least since f is monic
So we know that we can multiply f by some coefficient B such that Bf is in Z and is primitive
Bf(a) = 0 and so f divides Bf but I'm kind of stuck here..
Maybe the contradiction is to show that Bf is the product of two polynomials, one of which isn't primitive?
The problem is that if we're assuming that f is in Q for contradiction this won't work
Oh wait hold up
Alpha is an algebraic integer
a group G with a normal subgroup N doesn't necessarily have a subgroup isomorphic to G/N, right?
G = Quaternion group, N = {±1}
thanks 🙏
Tho if G is abelian then such a subgroup exists
Well at least if G is a finite abelian group and N is a subgroup of G such that the orders of N and G/N are relatively prime, then there exists a subgroup M of G isomorphic to G/N. Moreover, G=N\oplus M
not true (e.g. Z = G, pZ = N) but it is true for finite abelian groups!
hey group theory geniuses
so Bungo was helping me with this earlier, and i eventually got it, but i was curious
i was doing this problem showing that these two matrices generated the unique sylow 2-subgroup of SL_2(F_3), and i solved it with the technique of using the projection homomorphism
from G -> G/Z(G)
i was wondering why it was important to factor out G by {I, -I}
what does why mean? beyond that the quotient is easier to work with
oh
i guess thats my answer
was just curious as to why we chose Z(SL_2(F_3))
easier to work with
good enough for me
that subgroup PSL_2(F_3) is isomorphic to A_4
yeah, but i guess it was just a curiosity as to why the center
i see
what is "a minimal prime ideal" (of a commutative ring)? Surely the only prime ideal that is minimal under inclusion is the nilradical?
The nilradical isn't necessarily prime though
I think you need to associate your minimal prime to another ideal I, so it’s the largest prime extension of I in a sense
For example in Z/6Z
I guess not in a sense, that just is what the smallest prime ideal containing I is lol
oh good point
it doesn't mention any other ideal though
where Sigma is the collection of multiplicative subsets of R (which do not contain 0)
I think the criterion here is actually the nilradical is prime iff there’s only one minimal prime but my comalg is mega rusty so I could be slightly mistaken there
I heard somewhere that the nilradical is the intersection of all minimal primes
So I think that's true
nilradical is the intersection of all primes in general I know
I guess that's sufficient
that sounds correct, because it would itself be the only minimal prime ideal.
For any collection of sets, there is a unique minimal element in the collection iff the intersection of all sets in the collection is in the collection
I feel like I don't need unique here
it's clear minimal elements do exist because Zorn's lemma
chains of multiplicative subsets are fine
be careful, Zorn has a condition which is not always satisfied
oh huh, apparently you can
that's interesting
Union and intersection of a chain of prime ideals is prime!
oh right of course lol
Ohh right, Tysm for the correction.
Actually I checked an exercise which I remembered to check if I was correct and that's how I wrote this after the false claim, but I didn't delete the false one because I wasn't sure whether it's true or no and I said that someone would probably correct me hahaha
Anyways tysm, have a great day/night
Oh is it because intersection of two minimal primes cant be prime cause it would contradict the fact that the starting two were minimal
just to be clear, here the primes are arbitary, right
I suppose I'll need to use symmertic groups here
ab = (1234)(56)
right, and that had order 6
It has order 4
Which is not prime
6 is not prime
(If you wanna use symmetric groups, because of how disjoint elements of the group behave when composed, think of a prime r such that there are primes p,q such that p + q = r)
Thats a big hint
the way you proved ab\notin Z is weird, as in the phrasing looks weird to me, also how does it follow that a^k=e from (ab)^k=e and ab=ba?
That;s what I was going for 😭
I has this exact thought in mind
also how does it follow that a^k=e from (ab)^k=e and ab=ba?
a and b can't be inverses as they don't belong to the same subgroup, so the only option is both a^k and b^k=e
You actually end up getting only a single triplet of primes that work
Note that since r must be greater than p and q, r must be at least as big as the third prime number
And so r is odd
mhm
and so one must be 2
Yes
p=2 and q is say 5
That works
So then r is 7
What can we do with those primes now?
then I have to work with S_7 and do something with that
Good idea
(12) and (12345) is the first thing that comes to mind
Hmm
Whats the issue when you compose these permutations?
We're trying to get a permutation of length 7 right
Well this will reduce the length of the perm
True
Is there a different set of permutations we can use?
not if they're disjoint
then the order will be the product of their individual orders
Exactly
Ohhh wait I mightve goofed hold on
Yeah oops
I blanked and thought the order is the sum
I think we gotta do a little more heavy work then
So what instead I want is to reduce the order
Yes
also congrats on green
So like i would work with 2,3,5 here personally
Thank you!
I'm trying to prep for a tutoring session with someone struggling with a rings & fields class
Does anyone have a simple example of a non-injective, non-surjective ring homomorphism?
I'm trying to help them understand images and kernels
Z -> Z/nZ[x] or something
You can also just take a really silly map of direct products
Hmmm... yeah polynomials over Z_n should be good enough, ty
Probably any homomorphism that's the kinda "interesting" I'm looking for would be too much for them ^^;
you could also do something like Z/9Z -> Z/12Z
...Is that allowed?
the nonzero one
you can talk about matrices
there are maps between them if they not coprime
That’s a place where they’ve seen images and kernels
Hmm okay yeah, I could make a matrix example I think
wonder if non-in/surjective maps of topological spaces would induce such maps of C*-algebras by gelfand-naimark 🤔
Primes gotta be distinct
Oops🥀
for Gelfand duality a surjective map between top spaces induces an injective map of C* algebras and vice versa I believe
you have to be a bit careful if they're only locally compact and not compact
idk if this is the right place to ask... i know eventually areas of analysis, especially functional analysis, become algebraic. i'm reveiwing undergrad real analysis content right now and trying to pick up more algebra, and i was wondering if anyone has a resource for how algebraic ideas can be applied to prove standard undergrad analysis theorems
ik this isn't the point of undergrad analysis, i already went through the standard proofs, so i'd wanna try something like this for fun
i suppose one example is the Fundamental Theorem of Algebra
in the sense that you can prove it analytically (and i think this is done in most undergrad analysis courses)
and you can also prove it algebraically
anything more interesting? haha
there are certainly a lot of connections between analysis and algebra
but other than the fundamental theorem of algebra, i cant think of any at the undergrad level lol
i didnt know there was an algebraic proof of the fundamental theorem of algebra, does it not use any results that rely on analysis?
oh i guess it uses intermediate value theorem lol
bummer
this answer gives one via galois theory but does use the intermediate value theorem lol
You fundamentally need analysis, because C is an analytic object
You either need some form of ordering or topology to form the reals
I think the IVT is the least analysis you’re gonna need for a proof
In the sense that like, it’s a “minimal” topological requirement for the reals
right that makes sense
What analysis does it use?
That’s the same proof we were talking about before
That is a sick proof, I hadnt seen that before
Yeah the thread is full of fun proofs lol


