#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 381 of 1
For topics that you'd learn in a first introduction to abstract algebra, pertaining to groups, rings, modules, and fields.
what are modules 
You can prove that the seperable degree satisfies
[E:F]_s = [E:L]_s * [L:F]_s
Module is an abelian group acted on by a ring.
So essentially a vector space, but where your scalars are taken from a ring
vector spaces, except the scalars can be in any ring (so the integers, polynomial rings, matrix rings, etc)
Im surprised ur first course involves them frankly
i'm not doing any course
But the professor has not introduced a separable degree yet
I thought that was the definition you posted earlier
Allrighty then, so splitting field of seperable polynomials, or what definition you got?
so like vector(GF(2), [...]) would involve modules?
I mean, a first introduction can consist of two or three courses
E is a separable extension over F is E is alg extension over F and for each x in E its minimal polynomial over F should be separable over F
That sounds like just a vector space, but vector spaces technically are modules
maybe i should look at the definition for vector spaces 
ohhh
do vector spaces need fields?
and modules don't?
Do you have Galois theory available?
No
Can you use that for an irreducible polynomial not to be seperable it must be off the form f(x^p^k) in characteristic p?
Yes
Then I would look at the minimal polynomial of x over F and try to factor it over L
so there exist polynomials q,r such that f=gq+r with deg r< deg g. We know that r neq 0 since f is irreducible, but how do i show that r=1
Suppose K is a field of char p, and K ≠ K^p that means there exists a in K such that x^p-a has no roots in K.
Now how do I show this polynomial is an irreducible polynomial?
hmm i thought it should be because otherwise we wouldve found 2 distinct inverses of g in k[[x]] no? the formal power series one and the polynomial in k[x] too. Oh wait, the one i am assuming is in k[x] is actually in k[x]/(f(x)) right? ie is an inverse of g(x)+(f(x)) not of g(x). So there is only one inverse of g in k[[x]] which is the formal power series one and there is no inverse of g in k[x]?
sorry if this is non-sense
. Its just that I was confused a bit about this
It's not even in k[[x]], but in something like k[[1 - g(x)]]. I mean just imagine like g=2 or something. Then clearly
1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ...
is not a finite sum equal to 1/2.
Think about the minimal polynomial of one of its roots
vector spaces -> fields
modules -> rings
?
A vector space is exactly a module where the scalars are from a field yes
Further
g = rp + s with deg s < deg r.
Eventually you get something with degree 0
This is Euclids algorithm
yes, my problem comes after this. Which is to show that this constant polynomial at the end is actually 1.
It doesn't have to be 1. Any constant polynomial is invertible as long as it's not 0
ah right its k[[1-g(x)]] mb
ohhh i see. ok i think i understand now. tysm jagr, have a great day/night
actually i implicitly used (c)\implies (b) when i was proving (a)\implies (b). So the way you were suggesting was definitely easier
tysm Tiessie, have a great day/night
Its roots are only one a^1/p, and it splits as (x - a^1/p)^p
So then how could it factor into irreducible polynomials?
I see
I can imagine that two finite abelian groups with the same order and with the same number of elements of the same order are always isomorphic due to the classification theorem, but do there exist two non isomorphic non abelian finite groups with such property?
(C3)^3 and the mod 3 Heisenberg group are two examples of order 27 where all nonidentity elements have order 3
doesn't "same order" imply same number of elements?
"same number of elements of the same order" I assume means like "same number of elements of order 5" and so on every n <|G|
That would still imply they have the same number of elements in total, but a little redundancy doesn't hurt
That’s really cool! I guess not unexpected but somewhat surprising
Groups are evil so you expect it to be false but its cool people have spent some time thinking about this
It does seem like group theory research is just “how broken can we make this random property?”
I mean, finite rings can get pretty crazy
I don’t think I actually know anything specifically about finite rings. I think I saw once that they’re all isomorphic to some matrix ring but I’ve never specifically studied them
Other than like, ya know, finite fields
Quotients of Z I guess too
huh are you thinking of artin-wedderburn.
I presume it’s a consequence of that, I can buy all finite rings are semi simple artinian
But I could also just be making up a result, as I said they’re not something I’ve ever really thought about specifically
Well you shouldn't buy that because it's obviously wrong
They're artinian though
Like Z/4 exists for example
Oh yeah duh lol, that’s like the go to example
I am probably just hallucinating something then
Yeah
Well yeah that is true xd
Hm and what is the property that makes them not isomorphic? And I was right about this property on abelian groups making it so that they're isomorphic right
Well the first is abelian and the second is not for example.
And yes for abelian groups it should be true
Oh sorry
I think I said explicitely
That both had to be non abelian
Like I could imagine there existing one abelian and one non abelian
Then just take the product with a non-abelian group I guess
Or there are some examples of order 16
Like which?
So I guess C4 semidirect C4 (the 4th dicyclic group(?)) and C2xQ8 make the best example for you
for part a, view the polynomials $X^4+1$ and $X^6+X^3+1$ as polynomials in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$. If they have any roots in $Frac(\mathbb Z)=\mathbb Q$ then the roots should divide $1$ by the integral root test (since the leading coefficients of each of these polynomials is $1$), ie at least one of $-1$ and $1$ is a root. But plugging in shows that neither of them is a root, hence both of these polynomials are irreducible in $\mathbb Q [x]$.\\Now for part b. I claim that given a field $k$, any reducible polynomial of degree $2n+1$ has a root in $k$ for any $n\in\mathbb{N}$. The proof goes by induction, the case $n=0$ is obvious. Assume that the assertion is true for any natural number $< n$ and let $f(x)\in k[x]$ be a reducible polynomial of degree $2n+3$. Since $f$ is reducible, there exist polynomials $g,h\in k[x]$ such that $f=gh$ with $0<\deg h,\deg g<\deg f$ and $\deg h+\deg g=\deg f$. Now $\deg f$ is odd so it follows from $\deg h+\deg g=\deg f$ that $\deg g$ and $\deg h$ have different parities, ie one is even and the other is odd, say $\deg g$ is odd and then the assertion follows by induction since $\deg g<\deg f$ and so is of the form $2m+1$ with $m<n$.\\The polynomial $X^3-5X^2+1$ is irreducible since otherwise it should have $1,-1$ or both as roots by the integral root test, but neither of them is. Hence it is irreducible by the first part of b.\\I am not sure about part c, so any hints for this part?
ali yassine
just because the polynomials have no roots in Q doesn't mean they have to be irreducible
you have only shown that they have no linear factors
ah yes i remember seeing this and taking it into consideration but then i forgot about it for some reason
like x^4+4 is not irreducible in Q[x]
but has no roots in Q

ohhh why
you're essentially claiming that F[x] doesnt have an odd degree irreducible polynomial of degree at least 3 and an even degree irreducible polynomial of degree at least 2
because otherwise 2+3 = 5 is odd but has no roots lol
holy shit, i just watched a video on abstract algebra and it's so beautiful
what are the prerequisites?
I can just spoil the answer in this case, the reason why for degree 3 it is enough to check linear factors is exactly because 3 = 2+1 is the only way of splitting up 3 into the sum of 2 or more positive integers
yea i got that, but then i tried to generalize
so any factorization of a degree polynomial is exactly a degree 2 * a degree 1
the generalization does not work
Imma read through it to see where it goes wrong
yea i see your point from here
You're using the induction hypothesis to say that g must have a root because the degree is smaller than f, but your hypothesis is only that reducible polynomials have roots
ohhh right
There aren't really strict prerequisites, but most people learn linear algebra first
no strict prerequsites, but a knowledge of basic set theory and proof methods is usually expected. as jagr said linear algebra is also extremely nice to have but not as crucial
but is there some sort of a generalization to other degrees?
i've already studied differential calculus, i've started LA this week and i know set theory and proofs (will brush up the coming weeks)
I guess the most useful generation is that if a degree n polynomial is reducible it has a factor of degree <= n/2
Sounds like you could jump into it
I mean it does hold for any odd degree in R for example, I suppose that there must be a similar result for other fields which have similar properties of R that allow for such a thing to happen?
over Q it is already kind of a mess, because the polynomials x^n - 2 already guarantees that there is at least one irreducible polynomial of degree n (or literally anything you can make up using eisenstein)
true
like the R thing works because of the analytic properties of R (it is a complete metric space)
hmmm i see
I'm not sure there really are other fields with similar properties to R
It is the unique complete ordered field after all
so I'm guessing if you want something similar to work over another field at some point you need to invoke a non-algebraic property of that field
which is just not common for fields that are not Q, R or C
i see
Over finite fields I guess you can compute gcd with x^p^n - x. I'm guessing that's not very efficient for large n though, given how big p^n gets
yea i see
it's the frobenius polynomial
because any element of the finite field is a root of this polynomial
really useful for working with finite fields mainly due to 2 facts I can think of right now
if |F|=p^n, then |F^x| is cyclic of order (p^n)-1
also Gal(F / Fp) is a cyclic group of order n, generated by the frobenius map x -> x^p
I'm not fully acquainted with proof, relations and functions yet
Well, it helps detect irreducible polynomial of degree dividing n, but you might need to be a little clever in the relationship between n and the degree of the polynomial. So I guess not a perfect method anyway
Only one way to get acquainted, might as well be through absalg
ohhh ok
hmm so what do i do for part a, i can cheat by finding the complex roots and showing that x^4+1 cant be factored in Q[x] for example, but there should be another way
yeah no thats a valid proof idea
ah so there doesnt seem to be a better way 🥀
oh no, there are other ways, but yours is perfectly fine
eisenstein might work if i apply some kind of transform to the polynomials but imagine expanding deg 4 or deg 6 polynomial using binomial just for something that might work 
hmm if you have some way in your mind rn can you tell me about it or give me some hint towards it
shift + eisenstein is a good trick and it is not hard to do here using the binomial theorem
I saw what you deleted 
the exact statement for non prime n is annoying to figure out but there are divisibility tricks relating the prime factors of n and the prime factors of (n k) (for 0 < k < n) that you can use to avoid expanding out the polynomial if you dont wanna do it
Another approach can be to use Gauss lemma. So if it's reducible it must factor as
(x^2 + ax + b)(x^2 + cx + d) for integers a,b,c,d
Not so many options for what those integers could be
so b=d=\pm 1, a=-c and ac+b+d=0 so that a^2=2b which means that b=d=1 and a=-c=\pm\sqrt{2} but \pm\sqrt{2} is not in Q. Hence x^4+1 is irreducible in Q
yea replacing x by x+1 should do the job for x^4+1. Because then all the coefficients of (x+1)^4+1 are 0 mod 2 except for the leading coefficient, and the constant coeff is 2 which is not 0 mod 4.
Usually shifting by x+1 works for these problems
the other one can be done by finding the complex root ig, its not hard to find the roots after setting y=x^3 which transforms it into a quadratic polynomial
tho i dont like this way but well it is what it is
Many such cases. Soon enough you will be able to tell which are irreducible if you stare at LMFDB enough
I see, yea lang also showed that the polynomial x^{p-1}+x^{p-2}+...+1 is irreducible over Q for prime p by doing this same shift
hmmm it remains to deal with part c
just went from k[x] to k[x,y] and its suddenly much more difficult/subtle to deal with things
at least it appears to be like this to me rn
btw its rare to see you here
Theres a book (I think just called "Abstract Algebra") by Artin which develops linear and abstract algebra together, that may be of interest. Its a bit slow, but it is a classic
I'm always here I just don't talk much
i see
always watching
You have the same irreducible in k[x, y] iff irreducible in k(x)[y] as the relationship with Z[x] and Q[x]
hmmm so for example i can use eisenstein criterion by saying that the coefficient of y^2 is 1 which is not 0 mod x+1 and x^2-1\equiv 0 mod x+1 but not equiv 0 mod (x+1)^2?
because x+1 is a prime of k[x]
Sure, though I guess it would just be easier to use that a degree 2 polynomial is irreducible iff it doesn't have a root
ohh i see right
so thats one place where k[x,y]=k[x][y] becomes useful
tysm jagr and HChan, have a great day/night
HKR does abstract algebra! (DnF)
This looks good but with books like these, I fear that I will know less than doing 2 books. Is it reasonable to worry about this?
could use eisenstein ? i dont think it's gonna work and this method is better , but good to have that in mind
yea i did that too, eisenstein works for x^4+1 by shifting and considering (x+1)^4+1 instead of x^4+1, then the new polynomial satisfies eisenstein's criterion
it also works for the other polynomial if you do the same shift, ie if you look at the polynomial (x+1)^6+(x+1)^3+1 instead of the original one
as HChan noted before, you dont really have to explicitly expand using the binomial theorem, the only thing that matters is to check that the coefficients satsify the desired conditions, you can check that since you know that the coefficients of (x+a)^n are of the form \binom{n,k}
Nice ,what’s the argument on the expansion?
You just rewrite as (y)^4 +1 with y =x+1
I guess it’s because it’s bijective with f R to R with x going to x+1
yea, it works because this translation is bijective
the automorphism is is given by f(x)\mapsto f(ax+b) right because it is an automorphism that extends x\mapsto ax+b and it induces the identity on A. I forgot to check uniqueness tho.The inverse automorphism is given by f(x)\mapsto f(a^{-1}(x-b)).
i have to show that for any prime p and for any non zero a in F_p, x^p - x + a is irreducible and separable over F_p. So for separable we can see if y is a root then y+1 is also a root, it implies {y+j | j = 0,1,...,p-1} are roots of that equation and they are p roots and polynomial of deg n over field can have at most n roots hence only these are roots and they are all distinct, therefore it is separable.
i don't know how do i show irreducibility
Ah, I recognise this question
It is a very neat trick
any hint?
It is a rather unconventional method of proving irreducibility
So the polynomial is separable, so let’s look at a splitting field of it over Fp
Try and see if there is anything interesting you can say about the roots
Oh wait you’ve shown that already lol
Okay, so what does this say about the splitting field?
I think it looks like F_p(y), where y is a root of x^p -x + a
Think about y a little more
An automorphism always permutes the roots of the minimal polynomial of something
Sorry i don't get it what do you mean?
If f is an automorphism, then y and f(y) share the same minimal polynomial
Yes it needs to be an identity on F_p, right?
So you are saying if f : F_p(y) -> F_p(y) and if f is identity on F_p then y maps to one of the roots of its minimal polynomial
Yes, and what is a famous automorphism of finite fields
x -> x^p
And what is y^p ?
y-a
So how many roots will the minimal polynomial have at least?
So it will have y and y-a, any more roots you get from this argument?
I don't know how I get more from this argument?
Well y-a is also an element of the field
So what are some roots of its minimal polynomial?
so now y-a maps to y-2a
I got it, so minimal polynomial has atleast p roots so it will be exactly x^p - x + a, because that polynomial has degree n and minimal polynomial divide x^p - x + a and monic, so it will be equal to that
so in Lang, separable degree of E over F is number of extension of embedding F to C to E to C, where C is alg closure of F, right?
I had that problem on homework last year too
Is it worth learning SageMath in tandem with learning intro algebra? Of course, I don't expect there to be necessarily a universal answer.
Sage is cool, and very easy to pick up assuming you know python (which is also easy to pick up). I don’t think it’s necessary at all but knowing some CAS can be useful for computations you can’t/don’t want to do.
My UG algebra course taught us it and we had homework’s where we basically wrote code to get an idea of how something behaves, made a conjecture based on that and tried to prove it (and these were generally really hard things to notice and also prove…) which was nice. A lot of people actually do research like that, I know Eisenbud often just computes a bunch of free resolutions, looks at it for a while and works something out from that
Also I guess depending on the flavour of algebra you like there could be better options, GAP if you like groups, Macaulay2 if you like alggeo, Magma if you’re 100 years old etc
That being said I reckon sage is the best general purpose option if you’re just getting into it, plus it’s reasonably well documented and easy to learn
TL;DR you don’t have to but it can be a nice thing to know
I see
magma has built in functions that sage doesn't have
This week I tried using Julia's Symbolic.jl to implement a little script to help me prove that a specific bijection I constructed is an isomorphism between groups. But turns out, its more lackluster than I thought: it can't even correctly check the equivalence of something simple.
I thought fuck it let's reimplement it in Sage and spent the whole of yesterday trying to install Sage, which I eventually managed.
Programming has just been a pain in the ass whenever I tried it sadge... well sometimes it can be quite satisfying, but eh. The previous time I got hooked on a programming project, which was also my first time, I spent 6 months writing a LaTeX template... its still not done. Other times I had to fumble my way to success, like writing some Julia scripts; one was a sanity check. Well, kinda a skill issue ig lol
Would it be possible for you to share those homeworks?
I can’t unfortunately, they were Jupyter notebooks hosted on the unis server and I’m not there anymore and didn’t download them :/
Ah rip, that's unfortunate.
can anyone help with b
showing that root -n is not prime
tired now will check solution tommorrow ty
is this like x where xK in I + J?
Yeah
In general (comm) ring, I think ideal arithmetic is so finicky that (heuristically) nothing is true unless it has to be true by "pure ste/order theory". So apart from (I : K) + (J : K) \subseteq (I + J : K), nothing can be said.
well ideal lattice is modular and if you look hard enough, distributive behavior can be found
In a Dedekind domain, you can calculate + as gcd and : as "numerator of / in lowest terms" using prime factorisations: for any prime p, v_p(I + J) = min(vp(I), vp(J)) and vp(I : J) = max(vp(I) - vp(J), 0). So you get something (unilluminating, at least to me).
and I * J is given by the UA-theoretic commutator so there is something :3
Sure, but : isn't meet; it's (relative) complementation.
yeah true true
Which problem?
x^p-x-p or somethint
I see
My galois theory class was badly organized. I did learn some field theory but the actual galois theory was rushed and we didnt even cover it mostly
Ah
😢
I am interested in Galois theory i want to see the connection between the fundamental theorem of Galois theory and the Covering space
Galois theory seems interesting, rn I am trying to learn functional analysis and Galois theory
This semester I have also commutative algebra in my algebra course
Nice
I was liking it until symmetric polynomials or whatever
That was pretty confusing to me
Me too
Lang is a good book for Galois theory i think
Cool, i was using dummit and foote
I am using both
First I used Patrick Morandi
Then I switched to Lang
I liked the construction of alg closure in Lang, it gives the set theoretical construction not identification of field
lwk arithmetic topology
What is that?
tfw etale fundamental groups
im definitely not anywhere near studying that stuff but i believe its the study of connections between number theory and topology (in particular manifolds? iirc)
like there are analogies between prime numbers and knots (legendre symbols and linking numbers for example)
yes that too
it's unique
the monoid of isotopy classes of knots is a unique factorisation monoid with iirc trivial unit group
most algebraic knot invariants i can imagine play well with connected sums but @tidal schooner probably knows a little more than i do
maybe (k)not
and in general its nice to be able to reduce a problem
I love connections between geometry and algebra so I'm especially fond of like quandles
braid groups seem cool too but they're a huge topic so I'd have to set time away for it
Yeah, for certain algebraic invariants (e.g., Vassiliev invariants, Heegaard Floer homology, fundamental quandles), there are explicit formulas for connected sums of knots, though the proofs of some of these are quite nontrivial
This is not true for non-algebraic invariants; recently it was proven that the unknotting number isn't additive wrt connected sums
this is so peak
Vassiliev invariants mentioned
why do some definitions of an ideal have closure under subtraction, some having closure under addition, and others using cosets? i know that theyre all the same but like is there any benefit to which one you use?
they all kinda give different perspective in a sense but like honestly it doesn't matter at all
I've never heard cosets before though
that's just the usual definition lol
o
only slightly obfuscated language
ah
Honestly IDK. I don't feel like the subtraction one is ever really useful, you can almost always verify addition, negation and zero separately.
closure under subtraction js seems like an attempt to reuse the one-step subgroup test for conciseness
like in an additive group yeah a subgroup is closed under subtraction but who says that
Yes, that's the test whose usefulness I'm questioning.
ahhh
why does this group have a huge permutation and linear degree(over C) for it's size?
Welcome to the LMFDB, the database of L-functions, modular forms, and related objects. These pages are intended to be a modern handbook including tables, formulas, links, and references for L-functions and their underlying objects.
sphynx studies Abstract Algebra
ok im going crazy
i have to show that if |A| = |B| with A,B sets then F(A) is isomorphic to F(B) as R-modules
im trying to do it categorically using the universal property
but the equalities of the compositions of functions im getting dont work out the way im wanting
f is a bijection between A and B
but i just keep getting that $i_A \circ f^{-1} \circ f = \Psi \circ \Phi \circ i_A$
hiidostuff
but since i_A isnt always surjective i cant show that the composition of the induced morphisms is the identity map
wait
i could just create a natural surjection s_A from F(A) onto A
then $s_A \circ \Psi \circ \Phi = \text{id}_A \circ s_A$
hiidostuff
but ofc that map on the right is just sA circ idA
As soon as you know F is a functor you are done
nah but thats still not what im going for
what
F just means free doesnt it
oh i shouldve clarified
im looking at the free modules on A and B
I know and I am saying this construction gives a functor
Just like cause you said "categorically"
fair enough
i mean im just using the bare minimum category theory that my prof has discussed in class
he didnt mention functors but they seem simple enough
Ye sure
So this is great and now you should show the two maps F(A) -> F(B) and F(B) -> F(A) compose to identity
Hint: use the universal property again to prove the composition is the identity
well i know that theres an identity isomorphism from F(A) to F(A)
Yes
This is the unique map induced by the identity map from A -> A
Yeah exactly
It's fun
but by the universal property of F(A) that map from F(A) to F(A) has to be the unique morphism making the diagram commute
Yee
but we know that Phi circ Psi or whatever makes the diagram commute
so theyre equal
then other way around
This is how uniqueness via universal properties generally goes which is fun
i see
there is a "one-line" proof if you can use the Yoneda lemma
the proof i have in mind makes use of the adjoint relationship:
||hom(FA,M) = hom(A,UM) = hom(B,UM) = hom(FB,M) for all modules M, so by the Yoneda lemma, FA and FB are isomorphic||
but uh
i guess this is complicating things. functors preserve isos lmao
@south patrol wait how is it exactly we know that the composition of Psi and Phi still make the diagram commute
the subdiagrams commute
Yeah I guess id just have to prove that makes the whole thing commute
We've done essentially no category theory
Just basic diagrams to show universal properties
Maybe theres a simpler way to do this
yea. you can reduce this to two sets of equations:
- \phi_A \circ i_A = i_B \circ f
- \phi_B \circ i_B = i_A \circ f^{-1}
oh i see
they correspond to the top and bottom squares
so now take path along the upper right side of the big rectangle
\phi_B \circ \phi_A \circ i_A
and apply the first equation
then the second
what are you unsatisfied with?
My having no idea whats going on
Also I think constructing an explicit map and showing its a module isomorphism could potentially be simpler
Okay i mean I guess I do know whats going on
i guess, how have you defined the universal property of the free module generated by a set
this doesn't even need to be categorical
maybe even think of it as a characterising property of the free module instead
for any map from A to an R-module M, there exists a unique morphism from F(A) to M making the expected diagram commute
which, letting g be the map from A to M and f be the induced morphism from F(A) to M, would mean that f \circ i_A = g
yea, exactly
you can think the homomorphism FA -> M as the extension of g along i_A
so my question is, given an element of FA, how do you compute f at that point?
i could send \sum r_i a_i to \sum r_i g(a_i)
i mean i did know thats exactly what the morphism is
right, so you extend g by linearity
okay, now, apply this in the case that M = FB
given that you have an isomorphism A -> B
ok now i have to rename my functions since i accidentally reused variables lol
uhh with f the bijection, iA and iB the inclusions, phi the map from FA to FB
cool
i mean the explicit map would just send sum ri ai to sum ri f(ai)
yea. and you can repeat this process with f^-1 to get a morphism \psi : FB -> FA
what does that look like
i mean ofc the identity
yup!
so i guess there we go
sometimes its good to be more concrete and get your hands dirty to see how everything is working
yeah
if a book is specialized on this topic its probably better to read it after an introductory chapter from a first course in algebra anyways
it depends on your interests. idk the actual contents of this book but looking at the table of contents, you could go into a commutative algebra textbook immediately after chapter 2
but i'd say 1-4 are more or less standard fare for a first course in algebra
are you self-studying?
My interests are not too specific now: analysis/functional analysis/differential geometry/etc; comm alg/hom alg/alg geo/etc; mathematical logic/set theory are all things I would like to explore in the future
Yes
yes
As for background, I have read an Axiomatic Set Theory text at the ug level, almost finished FIS up to the chapter of inner products, and have completed intro analysis (except sequences of functions which I still need to get back to).
although you shouldn't skip the galois theory bit
I see
maybe you don't need to be super thorough with it
but chapters 1-3 can get you into a commutative algebra book like atiyah-macdonald and/or eisenbud
I always have an strong stubborness to prove every theorem myself and do all of the interesting exercises 
I have been doing this for a few years. Progress definitely isn't very fast; but not proving theorems myself or not attempting the interesting exercises just makes everything feel kinda boring, and I kinda feel that I haven't really taken enough ownership of learning 
I have tried stopping trying to prove all theorems myself, but everytime I find myself going back.
I see
i don't think proving every theorem in the book is totally productive, algebra is about learning about certain structures and the techniques that come with them, the text can be helpful with setting your mind straight with the correct way to think about a theorem
its certainly a good practice, but textbooks often have some pedagogical reason for the theorems being proven in the text so there is some merit to learning from them (obviously this varies theorem to theorem)
Right 
enjoy the math
I was trying to develop an intuition for groups, so i was considering associative magmas, and was thinking if there was a name for the equivalence classes we get when we consider two objects (a and b (in the magma)) the same, iff ai = bi for all i in the magma
i can tell wehere this came from, i was consider members of the magma as functions on the magma, and associativty turned into composition of two elements a and b, is in a sense the same as the equivalence class of ab (under the equivalence relation i gave)
this has to do with smt called greens relations
I saw this one the other day xD
<@&268886789983436800>
it's called R-classes in green relations
BLEEEEEHHH! I like orbits under left translation
Just say right cosets like a normal person
Tbf what I said was a misnomer anyway it’s more akin to taking fibres under the obvious magma morphism M -> End(M)
Let the n-hypercube be the set {0, 1}^n. Is there a neat characterisation of bijections f : {0, 1}^n -> {0, 1}^n which are the reflection symmetries of the hypercube?
the ones parallel to a face are neatly given by f_k : (x1, ..., xn) |-> (x1, ..., 1-xk, ..., xn)
Define reflection symmetry?
if you realize the n-cube in R^n with the centre at the origin, then a reflection symmetry is a choice of hyperplane such that reflecting along that hyperplane doesn't change the resulting cube
you can also think in terms of the automorphism group of the hypercube graph
but I don't know how you'd characterize a reflection symmetry there
Ah, so specifically any reflecton in a hyperplane.
are there others?

x |--> -x is sometimes called reflection in a point in 3 (odd?] dimensions
Also I thought you might mean group generated by reflections
oh yeah I remember reading abt that in some alg top book lol
or at least that this map has nice properties for a sphere in odd dimensions
I think this is just reflection normal to the vectors \pm e_i, \pm e_i \pm e_j
(ie the reflections of the Weyl group of type B_n or C_n)
What about (1, 1, 1) in 3 dimensions?
in 3 dimensions it's
yee
3 + (3 * (3 + 1)) / 2 = 3 + 6 = 9
wait no
ugh
combinatoricsss
oh how I despise you
oh so it is that
Yes
yes
Consider reflection normal to n, ie v |--> v - 2(v.n)/(n.n) n. If this preserves the cube it preserves the integer lattice so applying to v = std basis, 2n_i n_j/(n.n) are integers so when n is normalised to length sqrt(2), n_i n_j are integers; but then sum n_i^2 is a sum of nonneg integers to 2, so either n is \pm sqrt(2) e_i or \pm e_i \pm e_j.
Interesting that all reflections preserving the lattice preserve the cube.
I suppose because lengths are preserved and origin is fixed
But the cube is not all lattice points with length sqrt(n)
(2, 0, 0, 0)
lol
I'll have to formally go through this tmr when I'm a little less sleep deprived
thank you very much though, this is going to be a great help
If it helps tomorrow, the idea is "preserving integer coordinates implies by bashing that you (almost) have integer coordinates with a fixed normalisation => finite list of possibilities".
what genre of math is this
it feels like a mix of combinatorics group theory and euclidian geometry
Depends on where it goes from here I think
I'm guessing it could extend to some combinatorics, some kind of lattice theory, root system theory at least
Im messing around with higher dimensional generalizations of equivalence relations (actually, congruences on algebras) called Malcev-complexes. These are sets of n-cubes (maps Γ : {0, 1}^n → A) closed under higher dimensional generalisations of the congruence relation axioms. The sets of these Malcev complexes for some algebra A form a simplicial set and so one can take the homology of this.
since everything is based on hypercubes i thought it would be interesting to see if i could poke it a bit and see if some nice group representations on the homology groups fall out
You're replacing an (internal) equivalence relation with an (internal) cube complex kind of thing?
Oh, no, a simplicial set.
uhhh maybe?
id have to check
basically you have transitivity and symmetry in all k directions
rather than just "linear" symmetry and transitivity
this kinda idea
I cannot handle the notation
but I get the idea
This doesn't "look" simplicial, though, it looks cubical.
I will read a bit about Malcev complexes.
yes but the sets of such malcev complexes form a simplicial set
its a bit weird and the homology acts as if 1-dimensional complexes (so congruences) act as points lol
Nvm I cannot find a definition of this
This isn't saying not to try, but vibewise I'm sus. The n-simplex has an action of S_n but arbitrary homologies made from simplicial complexes/sets do not have actions of any symmetric group.
(In fact, one usually has to order all the simplices and break the symmetry to define boundary maps. The same probably happens in the definition of homology of s "cubical complex".)
yeah thats the issue i ran into when i was trying to do it naively by permuting the inputs of the squares
however! i have found there is at least a C2 action
idk, im gonna try
there's like three papers or smt about them 
Speaking of, what kinda maths do you do lol? You seem to know a lot about a lot of things
Is it impossible for the additive identity in a ring to have a multiplicative inverse?
Yes, by definition of inverse
In fact, if you allow an inverse to be zero, the only ring that satisfies this is the zero ring (0 = 1)
First prove that 0*a = 0 for all a in R (this is striaght forward and a good exercise to get comfortable with the axioms). Then suppose that there was some element 0^{-1} so that 0*0^{-1} = 1. Then by the proof before,, you must have that 1 = 0 so this only holds in the trivial ring
Okay this last step is driving me mildly insane.
In this context, acting means acting via conjugation,
acting trivially on a group thus translates to centralizing it,
x^g is conjugation: x^g = gxg^-1 and Q^# is Q without the identity.
The reasons left out for the first few conclusions I can fill in:
- For any g in Q^# it follows that [g,A] is a subgroup of Q as Q is normal.
- g is not in [g,A] as [g,A] is a subgroup of <A,A^g> and we assume g is not in <A,A^g>.
- Thus [g,A] is a proper subgroup of Q and A must centralize it or it would be a smaller counterexample.
- To say that A centralizes [g,A] is equivalent to saying 1 = [[g,A],A].
- Since this works for any g, 1 = [[Q,A],A] =: [Q,A,A] as [[Q,A],A] is simply generated of all the [[g,A],A].
How do you get that [Q,A,A] = [Q,A]? Google states that this has something to do with coprime action and uses other lemmas that I also don't know much about to justify it. I can't really find anything useful about those either. Is there some kind of simple divisibility trick I am not seeing to justify this?
Groupprops seems to have the statement but with no proof or references 😭
I'm learning geometric representation theory these days
I remember something similar in a theorem proof on GroupProps or ProofWiki or something similar, where they characterised the possible orders of an automorphism of a p'-group of order coprime to p'. I can't recall more but maybe it will be helpful at some point.
Oh sounds interesting
That would explain the seemingly wide interests!
Okay after searching through several layers of references, I found a proof of this in I. M. Isaacs' Finite Group Theory. The author notes that the proof ultimately relies on another lemma by Glauberman whose proof fills multiple pages
Did not expect it to be this bad...
Hey I can have wide interests of my own accord ;p
But yes lately many of my questions have come from there in some way
Have you heard of the springer correspondence?
well itll all come together in the end in some way
lately ive taken an interest in algebraic number theory (blame Deltoid for that) and im sure there is some way to connect it to universal algebra
i just gotta find it
That's the topic of my oral presentation so I'd hope so 
Oh cool! I considered doing a seminar talk on it next semester, but I'd have to get into the necessary rep theory. Can you recommend something to read into for someone with more of an AG background?
I'm not sure, but I will think about it/ask around. I learnt it largely from Chriss--Ginzburg, which is approximately the opposite.
Say I've proved the symmetric polynomial theorem for Z (every symmetric polynomial uniquely a polynomial in the elementary ones), how does this then generalise to arbitrary commutative rings (w/o using the general lexicographic proof)? The first part is easy, just write f as sum over permutation orbits and apply the case of Z, but how would I prove uniqueness?
OK I just found a wacky (but probably most abstract and general) solution partial solution that I'm pretty sure can be completed.
So you have an algebra map Z[y1, ..., yn] -> Z[x1, ..., xn] mapping yi to ei(x1, ..., xn). You proved that this map is injective with image the Sn-invariant subring of Z[x1, ..., xn] and want the same to hold after extension of scalars to R.
But this is equivalent to its being the equaliser of two maps from Z^Sn (x) Z[x1, ..., xn] = Z[x1, ..., xn]^Sn (this is a pro&uct of Sn copies of Z[x1, ..., xn]), the first maps p(x) to 1 (x) p(x) = (p(x), ..., p(x)) and the second maps p(x) to the tuple (p(sigma(x)) : sigma in Sn).
Or equivalently, the kernel of their difference.
(And the analogous statements over any R are also equivalent.)
So the question is reduced to: how do we show that some exact sequence 0 -> A -> B -> C remains exact when we change scalars? I think this follows from B, C being free Z-modules, so that the image in C is free so the ses 0 -> A -> B -> im -> 0 splits, but I got stuck after this.
I guess you would need
im -> C to also be split to really seal the deal
Yeah that's why I got stuck. In fact I guess for the base change to work im -> C has to remain injective.
Which should be equivalent to showing that C/im is flat. Maybe that's an approach...
Like say you have an element
(p1, p2, ..., pn) such that there is a non-zero integer z with
z(p1, ..., pn) = (q - q(sigma) : sigma)
Then you want to be able to choose q divisible by z... Doesn't seem totally obvious
im about to start reading artin's abstract algebra book. the college ill be attending this fall has some higher-level algebra courses that come after a standard algebra sequence. after taking two courses of abstract algebra, the following opens up (some undergrad courses, some grad that id be able to take after the necessary prereqs):
commutative algebra -> algebraic geometry 1/2, algebraic groups
noncommutative algebra
intro to representation theory
there's also some courses on lie groups and lie algebras, then a course on methods of representation theory..?
my question is that when i finish reading artin, would i be able to know which courses would appeal to me? the descriptions for those courses fly way above my head and i don't really know what their contents are
Ya probably
"Suppose R is a ring such that x^3 = x for all x \in R. Prove that 6x = 0 for all x \in R."
i'm really not sure how one would go from x^3 = x to somehow get 6x = 0? my best guess is to just. multiply x^3 = x by 6, but that doesnt help with anything at all
bc we're only given its a ring and x^3 = x, so then i guess we can try to calculate 6x, which is 6x = 6x^3, but then wow what a shock i cant do anything again
Calculate (x+2)^3 and (x+1)^3
x^3 + 6x^2 + 12x + 8 and x^3 + 3x^2 + 3x + 1
Now calculate them “another way” (using the equality you’ve got)
And note that ||8 = 2^3 = 2||
wdym calculate them another way? do you mean like just simplify with the property?
Yes
i got 6x^2 + 13x + 2 and 3x^2 + 4x + 1
I disagree
Wait no I don't
But you haven't done what I expected
Simplify (x+1)^3 = x+1
oh
idk why i didn't recognize that
i still dont see how that helps us finding 6x = 0
Ok so you get like
6x^2 + 12x = 0
3x^2 + 3x = 0
And you want something that looks line nx = 0
How do you get that?
solve the system of equations to cancel 6x^2
Yes
right that makes sense, but does this just give us x + 2 = 0 and x + 1 = 0?
or something?
i'm trying to get to the point where you got 6^2 + 12x = 0
and 3x^2 + 3x = 0
(x + 2)^3 = x+2
x^3 + 6x^2 + 12x + 8 = x + 2
x^3 = x, 8 = 2^3 = 2
So 6x^2 + 12x + x + 2 = x + 2
And cancel
Then do the same with x+1
is this actually meant to be τ(f(α))?
it doesnt make much sense to me
i think it should be f^σ(τα) or something like that
my reasoning is that the coefficients being a_k^σ means that σ is applied to f here, so we are talking about f^σ and not just f. Then we are evaluating at τα
tau(f(x)) = f^sigma(tau(x))
ohhh is that by definition or something like that?
I mean, not really by definition. It's just that
tau(ab) = tau(a)tau(b)
So for example
tau(ax + 1) = tau(a) tau(x) + 1
etc
hey, this is an exercise of mine. any tips for what characterization of projective modules might be best to use? and would there be any vital corollaries or propositions to use? (dummit and foote, 3rd ed)
It should be easy from any definition
it isn't easy to me yet 😢
Just unwind all the universal properties
Ok yeah it becomes immediate using the commutative diagram one, im just slow at setting things up, thanks
I guess from the Hom(P, -) exact or the P(+)Q free definition it's just immediate.
So one of those would be best
Wow yeah the hom(P, -) one is even quicker
i know im supposed to verify that psi is a homomorphism, but i'm not quite sure how i would apply psi to a polynomial?
i dont believe i'm allowed to do psi(a_0 + a_1x + a_2x^2 + ...) = psi(a_0) + psi(a_1x) + ...
but if i cant do that i'm not sure how i would do it without that
So first you would need to define psi.
You know that a ring homomorphism needs to satisfy
psi(a0 + a1x + ...) = psi(a0) + psi(a1)psi(x) + ...
so maybe just define psi that way
I mean, it would be hard to ask about properties of something that doesn't exist I guess
yeah, i just never know when i'm supposed to define a map or not
bc i thought the map was psi(a) = phi(a) and psi(x) = x
Can't you just argue that since 2^3=2 gives you 6=0, that you have 6x=0. In particular this forces your ring to have characteristic 2, 3 or 6.
i guess that should've made sense to me with "show that there exists a homomorphism"
the 6=0 makes me very hesitant
A ring is still a group under addition, so in particular 2^3=8 gives you the equality 8-2=2-2. But I get what you mean, it's awkward to phrase with only the elementary language
The other argument still requires you to how to make sense of general integers as elements in your ring (defined by consecutive addition of the 1 element)
these problems are really hard but of course they will be
wdym?
like when you evaluated (x+2)^3 = x^3 + 6 x^2 + 12 x + 8 presuppposes that, say, 6 x^2 is even inside your ring, or 8.
The binomial theorem would actually need some more care, since it only holds in commutative rings. Or in particular when (a+b)^n has a and b commuting with each other (as is the case with integers)
ah true!'
that makes sense!
how do you recognize stuff like that when doing a proof?
because i just tend to think i can do something, but then boom i made an assumption i didnt realize was an assumption
By banishing all non-commutative rings unless they are sufficiently nice in some other way
LOL
Or well, I am not sure if you've even seen the binomial theorem as a result for rings before
i have yeah
Well, what does the statement say?
Part of the pedagogy of naming it a theorem is to seperate it into its own little "tool" box. When you pull it out to apply it to something, remember the requirements.
well i havent seen it used a ton, but we used it that binomial is only valid in a commutative ring
One way to formalize it a bit more is just to construct a canonical ring homomorphism Z \to R, for R any unital ring. n is then a shorthand for the image of n. If need be, you can call it say phi and then involve it in your notation
phi(8) = phi(2^3) = phi(2)^3 = phi(2) and so phi(8)-phi(2)=phi(6)=0.
what does canonical mean?
In this case it means unique
ah
Otherwise its kind of a vibe word, use it when there is a natural choice/obvious map.
ah
back to the other problem, i'm allowed to do this right?
like assume the map has those properties?
i would imagine yes but i'm second guessing myself
and i know in a polynomial ring we have component wise addition and multiplication so this problem seems pretty simple
what properties?
that psi(a) = phi(a) and psi(x) = x
like i dont think i have to prove that the map has those properties
First define a map, see that it is a ring homomorphism and then check if it matches the requirements
A good strategy to prove that something exists is to define a thing and show that it is the thing you're claiming exists
If I started a thread on my studies (of group theory, hopefully followed by other algebraic topics) and posted a question there, should I just wait until someone discovers it there or should I cross-post or link it here?
i dont think im doing this right
bc we dont know if the R's are commutative
so i cant really do anything from here
maybe i defined the map wrong?
I don't see R being commutative having anything to do with anything, but you should probably finish defining psi.
Like
psi(a0 + a1x) = psi(a0) + psi(a1x) doesn't actually tell you anything unless you know what psi(a0) and psi(a1x) is
Doesn't a link to the thread get posted here when you create it?
Test thread
i think it works if i put the x's on the outside of psi, so like psi(a_ix^i) = psi(a_i)x^i, which gives us psi(x) = x
and then if i say psi(a_i) = phi(a_i)
Yeah, then you get a complete definition in the end at least
Yeah, I created it a week ago or so
It’s supposed to be a long running thread :) But that’s fine, Kerr is already there, trying to help me
I see. I don't know the etiquette I guess
shoot i actually dont know if i'm able to do this last step (sorry for constantly talking over yall)
I guess I won’t break too many etiquette rules by posting it here
Why not? Or what do you mean?
like i dont know if i'm allowed to do the very last step of gathering up similar terms
doesnt that count as commutativity?
Well addition is commutative
OH WAIT RIGHT
OMG
i definitely know what im doing
bc addition is abelian in every ring 
wait no i believe i have to define my map in terms of multiplication too
Can I sell u on sums? (\Sigma)
shoot i probably should've done that
i'll change it
i think i need to take a break from this problem and work on another bc im dying bc of this problem
Maybe make some bullet points for future you
Uniqueness is virtually already done
huh
i know its supposed to go suppose there is a homomorphism phi' s.t. psi'(a)=phi'(a) and psi'(x)=x
Wha does a homomorpjism do to a polynomial?
It just gets to be applied to everything individually
right
So what happens to ax^n?
Mapped to the same thing
What happens to any sum of them? Mapped to the same thing
GGez
oh right we can say since each psi'(a)=phi(a)= psi(a) and psi'(x)=x=psi(x), each polynomial gets mapped to the same as if it was from psi, making psi'=psi
Yeh
You can say something fancy if you want
Maps are determined by what they do to generators, and as a ring R[x] is generated by x and R, and you’ve said the maps agree on these
If that’s meaningful or not is up to debate
very fancy 
are we talking about the generator of psi and psi'?
no that doesnt make sense nv
nvm*
As a ring
You know what it means for a group to be generated by stuff right?
Or a vector space
Etc etc
yeyeye
we havent gone over generators of rings yet
You probably won’t
ah
truthnuke
I LOVE THIS LMFAOOOO
thank you all for reminding me how to prove things exist
my memory when it pertains to proofs and logic is similar to that of a black hole, whatever goes in is probably not coming back out bc i forgot it already
I love morgan freeman true
what is the intuition behind homotopy operators
like i understand what a homotopy is in the topological sense
but not in a category of chain complexes
Homotopy preserves something of the objects weaker than isomorphism i guess
but where does that f-g=dK+Kd thing come from
Wdym by homotopy operators
Do you mean homotopies
i suppose i could take it on faith
i think some people call them chain homotopies
@south patrol i forget what they preserve
One perspective is you take the "interval" J which is the complex Z -> Z in degrees 0 and 1 (with the identity map) and then a homotopy between two maps C-> D should precisely be a map C (x) J -> D which restricts to your two maps on each edge
It’s because not all quasi isomorphisms/weak equivalences are isomorphisms right
Homotopy types
But also the maps induced on homology
Oh theyre still isomorphic
Wdym
The homologies of the two complexes?
Well ig here you are talking about homotopy equivalences rather than homotopies between maps
if you can convince yourself that two morphisms between topological spaces being homotopic is nice, then a homotopy operator (i prefer chain homotopy) feels like a (somewhat) natural generalization to chain complexes
But yes, homotopic maps induce the same thing on homology and hence chain homotopy equivalences induce isomorphisms on homology
hatcher has some stuff about this in his algebraic topology book
Moreover if you take the e.g. simplicial chain complex for an interval with a simple triangulation then you get this situation after applying chains to a simplicial homotopy
you can look/work through those examples and you'll see where the f-g = dk+kd thing comes out
i suspect one can also find concrete examples in the context of smooth manifolds
but im not very good at those so dont take my word for it
Yes
all roads lead to the cartan family
well homotopy equivalence is still strictly stronger than quasi isomorphism
H. Cartan did so much goated AT tbh like I was reading the Cartan seminar where he computes the (co)homology of Eilenberg–Maclane spaces
but a homotopy is a more general concept (iirc its equivalently a quasi isomorphism of mapping cones??)
Idk what you mean by more general
didn't h cartan like invent projective modules or something
a homotopy is a relation between chain maps
Well okay sure I see this just don't see how it relates to the parenthetical remark lol
It's ok
tbh idk who that is
omg imagine being alive in the 50s and 60s doing algebra with all these people
i pity them though. they didnt have tiktok
kind of essential
Yea ofc I was saying I’m I think the concept of chain homotopities is motivated from wanting a notion of weaker equivalence here
But also it’s late and I’m brain rotted at this point I could be waffling
weak equivalence between maps yes :3
Wtf can i have your autograph please
here you go
Thank you 🙏🙏🙏
In my head the advantage of chain homotopies is that they're guaranteed to be preserved by any additive functor, whereas the failure to preserve quasi-isomorphism (or equivelently, the special case of quasi-isomorphism with zero = exactness of a complex) requires the invention of the whole theory of derived functors/categories just to fix.
holy shizzle that's why they're called derived categories
Derived categories seem cool, I might end up learning about them as part of my diss but I’m not sure. The ideal of localising a category sounds equally sick and terrifying
calculus of fractions and all that
lol
apparently sheafification is given by a localisation too
I saw somewhere vaguely on an nlab page
so today we done fundamental theorem of Galois theory
ooh what is it?
Uh, why?
this is from Riehl's category book
ooh orbit category
its funny how i took diffgeo last term and my brain already reset "Cartan formula" to mean the steenrod squares thing
cooked
Good
That's what cartan formula means for me and I'd say homotopy formula otherwise
I had to prove cartans formula in my curves and surfaces exam which was kinda painful
I’m pretty sure I got close but the two sides didn’t quite match up, but it was such a mess it was hard to tell, and I still got full marks lol
I also then got a 0/10 for the next question and simply a comment of “no”
( iirc a special case of the Poincaré lemma)
In retrospect it’s wild that this course, officially anyway, comes before linear algebra
How can anything come before linear algebra
Actually even Cambridge kinda does this ig
Wait it does?
Vectors and matrices is first term of first year
Well I joke but like vectors and matrices doesn't even have the notion of a vector space right
Or at least barely
Edi does (or did, they’ve fixed this stupid fucking system now) like computational LA sem 1, then the actual LA module is in the second semester of third year
I guess you can argue otherwise that linear algebra starts in high school given the matrices stuff
Which just means you already know linear algebra by the time you get there, because all your other courses have already taught you it
I guess I mean "abstract" linear algebra
Thankfully as of this year they’ve scrapped that nonsense and you just do it properly right away
They also did group theory in semester 3 and again with slightly more content in semester 7 for uhh some reason
(unpopular opinion, maybe?) matrices cringe
Idk why that is unpopular
Nothing managed to instill such pure disdain of matrices quite like my lie algebras course
More abstract = more betterer 
I wasn’t ready for how much grinding through matrix computations I’d be doing this term
Also had a class about it this term?
Yeah haha, though I haven’t done much for it, the contents pretty chill and I don’t like the prof so I’ve kinda been ignoring it
There’s also no homework which never helps for my motivation
There was also no homework with mine, modulo repressing the traumatic memories
I might just have to accept that my blue collar linear algebra computational skills peaked in my first semester and it's never gonna be the same
I’ve long since come to accept my metal maths peaked at like age 16, while still being solid until 18, and since then I’ve just been hopeless
i can send you the homework questions i had from last semester if you want
imagine using matrices when you could gröbner instead 
There are problems, I’m just bad about doing them if they’re not for submission lol
I just don’t make the time
ah okay
And tbh I’m not stressed nothing we’ve done so far is particularly taxing
idk I just find polys more intuitive than some weird shit I haven't really seen before
(ik what matrices are n such these days, but it's still not "intuitive enough" for me to not call it bs)
there's a sweet spot
if the notion of a vector space is intuitive then i would say matrices are equally as intuitive
you write out a linear transformation between two vector spaces in terms of a matrix and idk that's already pretty awesome
i experienced that very differently
until I played with matrices over SR
(idk if over is the right word, SR -> symbolic ring, just sagemath abuse)
oh idk what symbolic ring is
all the non trivial math ik is because I abused sage enough
idk if it's an actual math thing
basically just a polynomial ring
(that's the best description I can come up with)
tbh idk any sage
sage ist just glue
its like pari, singular, flint and a shit ton of other libs glued together
i only recognize singular from that list
anyway whenever i need to compute something
macaulay2 always calling my name
that one is wrapped in sage as well
not a standard math term afaik but they probably mean "ring with an adjoined indeterminate (=symbol)" which is indeed the polynomial ring
yeah makes sense
there's like 4 different implementations anyways
sagemath code is "special"
but it's the best FOSS thing we have
🙂
Sage is nice until I need to read the docs then I want to pull my hair out
Most of the time anyway, sometimes they’re well written. Just not often
what docs are you reading? 
usually I just end up with ?? it which gives me the source code for the function
I don’t have like an example to hand (I’ve not written any sage in quite a while) but I’ve often found a lot of the documentation to be really opaque
I mean, a lot of things aren't really documented past doctests
i know for a polynomial to be a unit it needs to cancel every other polynomial's coefficient except for the a_0 and b_0, and a_0 * b_0 = 1 i think?
but im lost yet again
like i know we want to somehow reason from the product of two polynomials that they cancel to get 1
like we have this thing
ad we want it to equal 1 somehow
hint: think about the highest power of x
im guessing the units are only the constant polynomials but i have to justify it 💔
I think it's a "free" division ring on all variables introduced so far.
when are two polynomials equal
i did it i think
nice
yayyyyyy
first abstract algebra 2 midterm is tmr :') terrified
hoping to get a C or above, which will be an improvement from last semesters fiasco of exams and finals
gl
good luck!!!
you can do this!
ty yall! i'm taking the exam in a few hrs
I'm sorry what is this
this is written more complicated then it is
what's teh actual theorm 😭
I'm unsure of how to even read this
presumably $o(a)$ is the order of $a$?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yeah
for this it may be helpful to use the universal property of o(a)
$o(g) | n \iff g^n = e$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
$\frac{\text{lcm}(\text{ord}(a), \text{ord}(b))}{\text{gcd}(\text{ord}(a), \text{ord}(b)) } | \text{ord}(ab) | \text{lcm}(\text{ord}(a), \text{ord}(b))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
ah so
a divides b and b divides c
$a | b | c$ just means $a | b \text{ and } b | c$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
you also might want to prove the following result
$\text{ord}(a^k) = \frac{\text{ord}(a) }{\text{gcd}(\text{ord}(a), k)}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I have
ok then this should help
yea, I'm done :)
btw how did you prove 1
hm hang on
i can understand the first implication
how do you get the second
oh i think i see
it's cause n / gcd(n, k) and k/gcd(n, k) are coprime right
that's very nice
Yea
my way was more long-winded
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so you need to show that $n | km \iff \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(n, k) } | m$, and then you can apply baby yoneda
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and i guess that's a general number theory fact
that's quite interesting actually
so you can define a virtual object under $\mathbb{Z}$ by $(n, k) \prec m \iff n | km$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
i wonder if a similar thing happens in reverse
would you say (x^{n})^m = x^{nm} is the universal property of exponentiation perchanse?
Yes this is essentially how exponential objects are defined
$\text{Hom}(A, B^C) \cong \text{Hom}(A \times C, B)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I mean this isn’t something i came up with myself
In mathematics, specifically in category theory, an exponential object or map object is the categorical generalization of a function space in set theory. Categories with all finite products and exponential objects are called cartesian closed categories. Categories (such as subcategories of Top) without adjoined products may still have an exponen...
no I know lol
it's just funny to say it for numbers
or multiplication in a group
i understand the perspective though
me when the exam is 50 minutes long, we started early, and the first person handed in their exam a minute after our sub said the exam was over
welp
how do i go about finding the order of $G$? i think i have $<a>$ and $<b>$ found out but i'm not sure what to do with the fact that $(ab)^2=e$? i distributed the exponent and got $(ab)^2=a^2b^2=a^2e=a^2$
Ushy✨
You can’t necessarily distribute the exponent
Because the group isn’t necessarily abelian
ah ok
I guess the most straight forward thing is just to start listening elements, noting which are equal and counting how many you get
Another approach if you've seen some examples of groups could be to think of an example that has an element of order 2 and 3 and see if this could be it
@rocky cloak by any chance do you know of witt vectors over a ring? and any sort of motivation for them?
I think maybe @south patrol does
The main idea is that the witt vectors gives a equivalence of categories between rings R which are p-adically complete, p-torsion free rings on which R/(p) is perfect, and perfect rings in positive characteristics
The construction can be given in an explicit manner or you can use deformation theorem which in this case is controlled by the cotangent complex.
In the case of the finite fields, for instance, this just unramified extensions of the p-adic numbers. For general extensions this ring becomes sligthly more complicated
p-adic complete ring?
like complete in the topology of (p) when you embed Z into R?
also how hard is it to prove this equivalence?
If you have a ring R and an ideal I, you can give R the I-adic topology.
right
Not that hard
what is a perfect ring?
There's a good introduction in Serre's book "local fields" and there's a really good article by Kedlaya called New methods in phi, gamma modules
i ended up getting G having an order of 6
Is a ring on which frobennius is surjective
sounds correct.
hmmmm where does this come from?
let's gooo
In fact G is isomorphic to S3
The construction can be given in an explicit manner
this is what I am working through
I mean, this is just the usual terminology for perfect fields of positive characteristic
perfect isn't that every extension is seperable?
how is that the same?
So, what does this imply for a field of positive char?
And I guess completely unrelated to perfect ring in the "every module has a projective cover" sense (?)
Ah yep, that's completely unrelated
I guess that's a nice field theory exercise
Remember that separability in the positive char context means that you don't have irreducible polynomials like x^p-u
ok.and then we extend this definition to rings?
But yeah, I'll leave it as a homework
ye
yes
You can defined it in non-perfect rings but then you won't get an equivalencw
if frobenius is surjective then these polynomials have a root
And if you define them in zero char you just get a product of the ring you are studying
Hmm, I wonder if there is some condition such that R is perfect if every such-and-such extension is a seperable extension of rings
mmm
I definetly should read this book sometime
I guess that a bijective frobennius already implies reduced
I meant for the extension to be reduced
But I think there's some relationship between frobennius and the smothness of some ring, so that you can study singularities by using the frobennius map.
This is at the heart of Kunz theorem. But in general like perfect positive char are, in general, very non-finite so this is not useful definition, I guess
(by non-finite I mean non-noetherian)
can you elaborate on this?
What part?
this sorry
the example
Well, an unramified extensions of Q_p is just a finite extension generated enterely by a finite extension of the residue field. So basically given a finite field extension F_q/F_p you have an extension which we can call Q_q/Q_p
I know you have study some algebraic geometry so remember that for a number field and a prime you have three cases, you can have ramification, a residue field extension or you can have that the prime splits
This case is identical but you can't have splitting primes since Qp is henselian and therefore if a polynomial reduces in the residue field it already reduces in Q_p
So, you basically can have only two case, one which ramifies and one which doesn't. Using the fact that basically every unramified extension have to be the splitting field of x^p^n-x then you can show that the ramified part and the unramified part are linealy disjoint
wdym by unramified and ramified parts?
In one sentence you have that each finite extension of F_p correspond uniquely to one unramified extension of Q_p
For a finite extension L/Q_p you have ef=[L:Q_p] with f being the degree of the finite field extension and e the power for which m^e=p with m being the maximal ideal of the ring of intergers of L.
So, you have an intermediary field, let's say K such that L/K is totally ramified, K/Q_p is unramified and therefore you have [K:Q_p]=f. And K is the maximal unramified extension of L
