#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 380 of 1
andre
what is that?
your head
thinking is hard and poo
I don't have that in my kinder
I am talking about notation
we are not seeing the same thing
I don't know what Z_n is
finite stuff is so nice we can understand all finite algebraic structures reasonably well
$\mathbb{Z}_n={0,1,...,n}$, technically its just a set, but we normally think of it as a ring. It could be a group under addition, a ring under addition and multiplication, or a field if $n$ is prime.
Makon W
of course complete classification is impossible (hell, for algebraic structures on a set of three elements it's nearly impossible) but you can derive a lot of super deep and strong theorems
Okay
thank you
hello there
Given what? Being a ring is usually structure rather than a property
:trollface:
it also could have been n-adic integers and not integers modulo n
Yes that's what the notation means
hoii
I read this as holi and wondered what the festival had to do with this
god forbid i be joyous lol
let n be a prime
n is peak
let 𝔭 be any ideal
too far...
let 𝔭 be an I-primary ideal of a nonunital commutative ring G
commutative P-algebra G
oh ew
pee algebra
Let V : T → E be a linear transformation of vector spaces over the field W
🙏
For all n>0 there exists an m>0 such that |x-y|<m implies |f(x)-f(y)|<n
If a polynomial is reducible mod p, then does the degree of the factorization mod p tell us how the polynomial would have to factor degree wise over Q?
Not really, consider x^2-1 for p=1 mod(4)
If somehow that factorization stays consistant over every prime then you might have a case.
that factors linearly over Z/5 and it also does over Q though?
I guess i should be more careful. I am not claiming that reducible mod p implies reducible over Q, but that if it was reducible over Q, it would have to factor the same degree wise as it would mod some prime p for which it was reducible
shit, it was x^2+1.
I push - instead of +
see my second message
not even then. Just take x^4-1.
This splits into linear factors for p=5 and for Q it only splits into 2 linear polynomials and one quadratic polynomial
Using mathfrak is the worst thing about this by far
But like, if you take a certain polynomial f irreducible over Q that splits into linear factos for every prime p. Chebotarev density theorem implies that f necessary is linear.
i take pride in this
hey y'all, anyone got some ideas on how to show that aut(D_8) is isomorphic to D_8, using the fact that D_8 is isomorphic to a normal subgroup of D16?
i have so far that aut(D_8) is at most 8, but im having a bit of trouble showing the distinct permutations
actually, let me refine my confusion. i can actually show the isomorphism, but im having a bit of trouble what the actual elements are?
Ah.
This embedding gives an action of D16 on D8 by automorphisms (namely by conjugation). If you show the kernel of this action has order 2, then the image has order 8, so you have 8 distinct automorphisms of D8.
i got confused about ambient field, so if i have set X of some polynomials over F, then what does it mean by splitting field of X? it is given that K is extension field of F and if every polynomial f in X if it splits over K and if K = F(Y), where Y is the set of all roots of all f in X, then K is splitting field
It is the* extension field of F such that every polynomial of X splits in it, and the field is generated over F by the roots of elements of X
*the extension field, as every such field can be proven to be isomorphic
so if K is algebraic closure of F, then how do i show K is splitting field of set of all non-constant polynomial over F?
i think K is algebraic closure of F, so every polynomial over K splits in K[x], so every polynomial over F also splits in K[x]. and every element in K is algebraic over F so F(K) = K
so when we are saying its generated by the roots of elements of X, so we already know the roots of X?
It’s “the elements of the Extension field which are roots of X”
okay
is this argument correct? F(K) = K, and every k in K has minimal polynomial in F[x] so F(Y) = K, where Y is the set of all non constant polynomial over F
yo whats up with the third diagram
why are all the Fs identically oriented
and how exactly does the coloring correspond to generators
Looks to be a mistake. The red and green lines are supposed to be mirror symmetries
For the diagrams with a red and a green dot, the group is generated by a neighbooring red and green reflection
hm wait but in the fourth diagram if you start from horizontal red and a diagonal green how do you know to color vertical red
oh because when you reflect the red line about green it becomes vertical?
hm
Basic question but like, for a map f: M->N and we replace M and N with isomorphic copies M’ and N’, so we now have a map f’: M’->N’, the kernels and images should be isomorphic, but how do i argue that formally
Ok nvm
Theyre just submodules so its preserved under the isomorphism
You can use that kernel and image are functorial
Can u pls elaborate what that means here?
Consider any commutative square
M -f-> N
v v
M' -g-> N'
Then you get a unique map between the kernel of f and g defining a functor from the arrow category to the original category
And functors send isomorphisms to isomorphisms
Whats the arrow category? Objects are squares like that?
I actually have to get to studying cat thoery. I have an assignment due monday
Objects are arrows, morphisms are commutative squares
You can also view it as the functor category [2, C] where
So this is the arrow category of RMod
Yeah
very lost on how one would do this :')
like im guessing its true
maybe not tho?
since homomorphisms always map identity to identity
but maybe it is true 😭
some definitions don't require sending multiplicative identity to multiplicative identity for a ring homomorphism
hm
if your definition doesn't require that, try thinking about letting R = Z and R' = Z x Z
if your definition does require phi(1) = 1, then yeah you're right
hmmmmmmmmm
maybe finding a homomorphism such that phi(1) = 1' x 0'
no thats dumb
well i can prove it does for multiplication
what should i look for in the definition to see if its that
bc my definition is that
f(a + b) = f(a) + f(b)
f(ab) = f(a)f(b)
bc we get that like 0 is mapped to 0 from additive identity, and i can show that 1 gets mapped to 1
oh
the most you can say is that f(1) is an idempotent
Maybe not as dumb as you think
ring homs not preserving the multiplicative identity lead to some funny things to consider --- i also wouldn't say you're dumb
i just assume every idea i have is wrong at this point so i'll try the 1' x 0' idea
Probably better to assume your ideas are correct until proven otherwise. Or at least be neutral about it's correctness
I assume all my (algebra) ideas are wrong unless jagr says otherwise
okay
oh
Idempotents map to idempotents
sick
(This gives that there are at most 8, then you check that 4 of them don’t work)
we unfortunately have not proved that idempotents map to idempotents
It’s trivial
a^2 = a implies f(a^2) = f(a) so f(a)^2 = f(a)
There are 8 idempotents
But their images are determined by the images of some subset of 3 of them
oh wait i see
slightly confused about this, why are we only proving the multiplication version of this?
shouldnt we do both addition and multiplication for ring homomorphisms?
or is it that its just trivial
I’m only doing the bare minimum needed to get the number of candidates down to a workable amount
fair
Why use addition if multiplication do trick
okay now im stuck again with showing that there are only 4 homomorphisms
like i showed the idempotents map to idempotents
this is only true for integral domains!
isn't this part of the def of ring homomorphism
hint: think about Z/6Z :3
they're using nonunital rings qwq
ah ok
It is true unless you’re the sort of insane person to use non-unital rings :3
(or worse, use unital rings and not require that homomorphisms preserve the identity)
Not even true for integral domains if you don't require it, as 0 exists
Well ig say nontrivial
i figured it out :3 unfortunately i am still pondering another question :')
My adv linear (which was also intro to rings) course had unital rings which didnt require the identity, much to the dismay of litterally everyone involved in the course lol
It was taught by someone new every year for a good while, none of which had written the notes, and everyone hated it. I think every algebra class I took had a line pointing out the difference in definition from honours algebra
i still havent figured out this stupid problem about finding the number of homomorphisms from Z x Z x Z to Z 😭😭😭😭
like i know theres 4, but i can't prove that theres 4 from the 8 idempotent elements of Z x Z x Z
i might just not solve it and submit the hw
bc i literally understand 0 parts of the solution i've been helped to create
do you know about generators
yep, these are ring homomorphisms
oh rings lol
i just cant describe the 4 ring homomorphisms
well, mapping each (1, 0, 0) , ..., (0, 0, 1) to an idempotent in Z gives you maps of abelian groups (sending (a, b, c) to af(1, 0, 0) + bf(0, 1, 0) + cf(0, 0, 1) ), and you gotta find out which of them are ring maps
(i.e. preserve multiplication)
right and i dont know how to do that
i dont see how they dont preserve multiplication
especially like (1,0,1)
notice that any nonequal two of those basis elements multiplied yields zero, so at most one of them can be sent to 1
because else you'd get e.g. if both (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 0) are sent to 1:
0 = f(0) = f((1, 0, 0) * (0, 1, 0)) = f(1, 0, 0) * f(0, 1, 0) = 1 * 1 = 1
i don't understand this
suppose you have a ring homomorphism f : Z x Z x Z -> Z. Ring homomorphisms map idempotent elements to idempotent elements, so the elements (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), and (0, 0, 1) must be mapped to either 0 or 1
consider e.g. the case that both (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 0) are mapped to 1. Then, it would follow:
0 = f((0, 0, 0)) = f((1, 0, 0) * (0, 1, 0)) = f((1, 0, 0)) * f((0, 1, 0)) = 1 * 1 = 1
which is a contradiction
hence (repeating this argument), at most one of these elements can be mapped to 1, and the rest must be mapped to 0. Of course, mapping everything to 0 is also an option.
How do I like "get good" at abstract algebra? I just finished a first course in group theory and i wanna learn in my free time
you do a heckin lot of it
I'm reading dummit and foote but its getting a lil boring so im wondering what all this is for
I started reading about rings a lil more
Dummit and Foote i've heard is very terse lol
for beginners
do you know what you want to do with algebra more? I think if you want cool applications Galois theory might be something to work towards
or representation theory of finite groups
(that is less an application but it is super beautiful)
this is in general a very good idea
rings and algebras will pop up all over the place
nah im still a baby
given the phrase "Let A be a B-algebra" is there a usual name for the implied map f : A -> B
something like "structure map"
structure map is what I've seen and use myself
W
(this makes B an A-algebra by the way)
the based option is to define an A-algebra as a ring B with a map f : A -> B
that's the definition i always use but some literature will just say "Let B be an A-algebra"
hmm, I think you should read about rings then, yes
which is fine when the underlying map doesn't really matter
try aluffi if thats your complaint with d&f, his writing is very conversational. he has an undergrad book and grad book, both are good
i heard gathmann has nice commutative algebra notes
well it usually doesn't!
at least for rings/modules
the idea is to have a ring that has an A-module structure, and whether that's given by a structure map, or wtv doesn't really matter
yea
man I love abuse of notation
sometimes i do need to reference the map tho and i've just been saying "Let f : A -> B be the map which gives B an A-algebra structure"
but i was just thinking that was too wordy
yeah you can just say "let f : A -> B be the structure map of the algebra B"
or "corresponding structure map" idk if people know of it then it should be clear
yea i mean for now ive just been using it in my solutions document lol
hasn't really seen the light of day
chat i did it
i finished the homework and kinda understand it
i get a ton of more exercises tmr tho 💔 and DRP exercises 
if K is splitting field of f in F[x], and we know that K = F[x1,..,x_n] where these x_1,.., x_n are all roots of f in K.
if extension is different say E and say f is split over E with roots y_1,.., y_n, then F = [y1,..,y_n] so these F[x1,..,x_n], F[y1,..,y_n] are different right?
its all depends on ambient field
let R be a ring containing the field K as a subring. Suppose that R is a finite dimensional vector space over K under the ring multiplication. why should R be a field? (i js need a hint)
It does not seem true…. Consider R[x] / (x^2)
Are you missing some assumptions?
lemme check
i felt like it seemed too strong
o wait yeah
R is an integral domain
if its any help
its the third exercise of the chapter on modules in lang
Multiplication by any element in the ring is a K-vector space homomorphism
The integral domain condition guarantees that the kernel is trivial, and as it is finite dimensions it is an isomorphism
ah
Based way is to say let A -> B be an A-algebra
why is there an arrow from 1 to 0 (in simplicial category)?
Hm I think it should be the other way around
yes because its initial/terminal
Yeah
The 0-simplex is [0], so you have exactly one map from 1 = [0 < 1] to 0 = [0]
It's not
The textbook and Jagr are correct
so are you correct or the textbook?
Which category is this now
1 being terminal means you definitely are not talking about the simplicial category anyway
Category of finite ordinals and order-preserving maps presumably
i assumed it was called that from the title
Where 1 is terminal and 0 is initial
yes
Yes
so i dont see how theres any map to 0
There isn’t
Apart from identity
ofc
(This is sometimes called a “strict” initial object)
But also this may be the notation here being annoying, as usually the objects of the simplicial category are called [n], which has n+1 elements
I’m more used to [n] having n elements
The description of the sigma-maps only makes sense if n = [0<1<...<n] so that n is an n-simplex.
Could be that they are inconsistent with notation, I havent5 read this book
That’s convenient for the process of taking nerves for example
Sure but that the convention in homotopy theory is n+1
I would say like delta^1 for maps and delta^0 for objects ye
Presumably to line up with the labelling of the topological simplices
Yeah
Like I would rather say the arrow category is [2, C]
Which has [2] being the one with 2 elements
Yee 2 is fine, just [2] feels more reserved aha
Oh ok
yeah i was just unsure if outside of the defined maps there was something i was missing from its description. i just imagined it being the empty set which looks to be a sane assumption
Sometimes the empty set is the (-1)-simplex or smth
I think this is cause the dimensionality of the simplex + 1 = number of vertices of the simplex
Yeah to me it seems they're just being inconsistent and would be clearer if they write [n] or smth. What they said above definitely is inconsistent with this
So you get a bunch of potential OBOEs
Wdym by this
“Off By One Error”
I mean a surprise gang of oboes would also be scary
If you want F to literally be a subset, just replace whatever the image of F in K is with F and there you go
Like if i: F -> K is the embedding just replace K by
K \ i(F) union F
with the obvious multiplication and addition
Yes the professor did the same thing, but i don't get why I am doing it so? If I already have one extension in which f has root so what's the problem?
It is from Lang's algebra
If your definition of extension has F being a literal subset, then F needs to be a literal subset.
If your definition is different you can do it differently
Okay
So the author defined that a field extension K \subset L is separable when the extension is algebraic and the roots of the minimal polynomial of every l in L are all simple, what is meant by simple?
Does it mean that multiplicity should be one ?
I think no
Got it
Yes
can anyone tell me what does it mean of 2 in simple language?
if choose l in L, and f is minimal polynomial of l over F, so all roots of f is simple, so all roots or the roots which are in L?
because how do i know other roots of f if it is not in L?
(ii) means that the minimal polynomial of l in L has no repeated roots in any field extension of K
so in particular, in the algebraic closure of K
so there may be roots not in K, that's fine
So for example, take L = complex numbers and K = reals
then the minimal polynomial over the reals of i in the complex numbers is x^2 + 1
yes
both of its roots are in the complex numbers, not the reals
that's fine
the point is that all the roots of x^2 + 1 are distinct
i see, thanks
why it is suffice to prove for l? I think minimal polynomial p, is minimal polynomial for all each roots so it is same argument
are they two equivalent? I can say splitting field is algebraic extension
I think minimal polynomial p, is minimal polynomial for all each roots so it is same argument
yes this is correct
what is the definition of a splitting field, that would probably answer your question
yea so the question is what is your set S in definition 1.3.1
let me think
i think take the set of all min(l, K) for all l in K, i.e, set of all minimal polynomial of all l in L
Yea, so S just has to contain min(l, K)
I think
S could be bigger and I think that's fine
yes
but if K is normal by definition 3.23 how do i show it will satisfy the ii) condition of 1.3.1?
It won't necessarily. Being normal and being seperable are two different things
What are you asking?
I am asking if it is normal by definition 3.23 then is it satisfy the condition of 1.3.1 ?
A splitting field will be algebraic yes
And have polynomials split
L/K is normal iff for every l the minimal polynomial splits iff L is the splitting field for some family of polynomials.
Does anyone have links to good examples of how abstract algebra is used in physics? Especially group theory
How do I show it, if L is the splitting field for some family of polynomials then for every l the minimal polynomial splits ?
these wikipedia articles
Thanks
I think the easiest way is to go through the equivalence that any embedding of L/K into an algebraic closure of K has the same image
Let k be a field and G a finite group.
Does the k-dimension of the center of the group algebra k[G] have any straightforward relationship with the order of the center of G, i.e. |Z(G)|?
I know that the center of G is the union of all the trivial conjugacy classes and I think the k dimension of the center of k[G] is the number of conjugacy classes of G, but I don't immediately see whether this implies anything about |Z(G)| vs dim(Z(k[G])
I don't think there's any immediate relationship other than
dim Z(kG) >= |ZG|
do the dotted lines in this structure mean "element of"?
also are the nonarrowed lines meaning subset?
oh my god it literally says its element of
i cant read
ig it should be the right channel even though the level is pretty low
ζnozzi
we're asked to find the "iterates" values of
ζnozzi
but i don't know what that is and i can't find it😿
though the next question says prove that for all n in N
ζnozzi
could anyone help?
$5^{*n} = 5 * 5 * \dots * 5$ where there are $n$ 5s
micoi the group things
thanks!
Hi, I've been pointed to here, and I have a question. How do I prove this:
1)let H,H',K,K' Be subgroups of G where H' is mormal in H and so is K' in K.
Show that (H \cap K)•K', (H'\cap K)•K' and (K'\cap K)•K' are subgroup of G.
- Also show that (H \cap K)•K'/(H'\cap K)•K' is isomorphic to (H \cap K)•H'/(H\cap K')•H' and show those quotients make sense
I've done 1) easily but I'm having problems with 2 because I can't show normality
Note that you want them to be normal in (H \cap K) \cdot K’ (for the first one, for example) and not G
Yes
That I know, but how, when I do like gHg^-1 with g being in (H'\capK)•K'
I don't get anything that looks like is in H
Should I try to do the gH=Hg thingy, show that the equivalence classes are equal?
One thing that can be useful is that if both N and Q are normal subgroups then so is N*Q
Well I mean arbitrary subgroups, but the things you want to show are normal are products of two things
Yes
In particular
(H\cap K') * H'
is the product of
H\cap K' and H'
Yeah H' is normal but H\capK' is too?
Well normal in H\cap K at least
I mean yeah all the elements in H\cap K' are in K'
Anyway, I guess the easiest way is just comparing gN and Ng
Like just write down an element of the top group and the bottom group and try to "commute" them
Hm let me see
man all the primes lol
Yeah I hate it too but that's how they write it
Yeah it's the {hk s.t h is in H and k is in K}
ie $(H \cap K) \cdot K’ = {xy \mid x \in H \cap K, y\in K’}?
o
man i type slow asf otp
Yeah
anyways yeah gN = Ng i guess?, g in (H cap K) * K’ and N = (H’ cap K) * K’
I'm trying that rn
any progress?
I've taken an arbitrary element of the left coset and inverted it and basically gotten an element of the right coset
I think that's right
Correct me if I'm wrong
show the process? im not sure that taking the inverse out of nowhere is correct
or do you mean like swapping the places of the elements
Well like the intersection is a subgroup so the inverse must also exist in the subgroup
right, but did you just say let xy be in the left coset, then consider (xy)^-1?
Yeah, is that like wrong?
yes, namely because cosets arent generally subgroups
so you dont know that if xy is in the coset gN, then (xy)^-1 is also in there
Then Idk
okay
lemme see if i can help
for notation’s sake im gonna let (H cap K)K’ be A and (H’ cap K)K’ be B
since we’re tryna show A/B is well defined, then B must be normal in a, ie, for every a in A, we must have aBa^-1 = B
and it is sufficient to show aBa^-1 is a subset of B
so proceed w that
take a in A, then a = xy for x in H cap K and y in K’
similarly, let b in B, so b = st for s in H’ cap K and t in K’
and consider aba^-1
can you show that that’s contained in A? try writing out all the elements and use normality to move elements around
yes
Wouldn't y^-1x^-1 be outside of K'
I don't think there's a way to write things in a 1 to 1 way
it is at the moment
you need to use normality of K’ and H’ in K and H respectively to move the elements around
How could I move elements around?
I vaguely remember that but I don't think you can do that here
okay so we got xysty^-1x^-1
so lets try to shuffle all the K’ elements to the right
can you tell me where ty^-1 is?
H \cap K
in particular its in K, correct?
Yeah it has to
now recall that K’ is normal in K right?
Yes
so take (ty^-1) x^-1 is in K’ x^-1
by normality of K’ in K, then ty^-1 is also in x^-1K
hence ty^-1 x^-1 = x_0ty^-1 for some x_0 in K
thats the way to move elements around
try to see if you can finish up
no worries
so rn we have xysx_0 ty^-1
ys is a good instinct
what can you tell me about that one?
s is in H'\cap K and I'm trying to get (H'\cap K) to be on the right
But if I do that then I get s_0 y with s_0 being in K so maybe it's dumb
Oh never mind
😋
Nvm again because now x is in H \cap K
So I dont have anything of H'
Like I get
xs_0x_1yty^-1
No worries xd
ah shoot sorry dude i just realized i got a meeting for work lmao
ill be back later to help if still needed
whateverowo | 64598
What do you think?
Can I have a hint for 19 please?
Can you use that (ab/D) = (a/D)(b/D)?
if the order of group is n
and there is exactly one subgroup of order d where d is any arbitrary divisor of n
does it imply G is cyclic?
for each divisor d, right?
yes
No, consider S3
we have <(1)>, <(12)>, <(123)> and S3 itself
No for an arbitrary d
Yes for every d
i just gave an example where even every d doesnt work
1,2,3,6 are all the divisors of 6
and a subgroup of each order exists in S3
but its not cyclic
you can make this work by taking a nontrivial semidirect product of two cyclic subgroups of coprime order im pretty sure
given such a semidirect product exists
I know, but it works if the subgroups are uniques
ah i see what you mean
since (23) is another subgroup of order 2
S3 has 3 2-Sylow yes
Notice that n is a divisor of n
Oops thought you said element, not subgroup.
Still true, but less obvious
It can be done by counting the number of elements of a given order
I am trying to find the number of quadratic subfields of the cyclotomic field $K = \bQ(\zeta_n)$, first assuming $n$ is odd.
Now, by Galois, quadratic subfields of $K$ correspond to index $2$ subgroups of $(\bZ/n\bZ)^\times$ so I just need to count those.
If $n=p^r$ is a prime power, then $(\bZ/p^r\bZ)^\times$ is cyclic and hence has a unique subgroup of index.
For $n=p_{1}^{r_1} \cdot ... \cdot p_{k}^{r_k}$, by CRT $$(\bZ/n\bZ)^\times \cong (\bZ/p_{1}^{r_1}\bZ)^\times \times ... \times (\bZ/p_{k}^{r_k}\bZ)^\times$$
which means that every index $2$ subgroup of $(\bZ/n\bZ)^\times$ must come from an index $2$ subgroup of $(\bZ/p_{i}^{r_i}\bZ)^\times$. \
This means that the number of quadratic subfield of $K$ is exactly the number of prime divisors of $n$. But I think I am missing some quadratic fields as for example $\bQ(\zeta_{15})$ has $\bQ(\sqrt{-3}), \bQ(\sqrt{5}), \bQ(\sqrt{-15})$ as subfields.
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
You have index 2 subgroups that look like diagonal subgroups
Ie, for the Z/15Z case, we have Z/4Z x Z/2Z and the index 2 subgroup generated by (1, 1)
No, that’s the one generated by (2, 0) and (0, 1)
it comes from the index 2 subgroup of (Z/3Z)^\times
This is the last one that hasn’t been mentioned and is the one generated by (1, 0)
oh I see
One way to think about it is that an index 2 subgroup is the same as a homomorphism onto C2, so in a product of cyclic groups you just have to choose which generator maps to 1 and -1.
So there will be 2^(number of prime factors) homomorphisms and then subtract 1 for the one that is not surjective
thanks
Well guys thanks for the help during this semester, I got a 93 on my algebraic structures final
93/100 ?
congrats 🎉
Yup
Well in my country it's 9.3/10 but tried to adapt to the usual US grading system
whats the natural isomorphism here? I was thinking about $\sum a_{(v)}X_1^{v_1}\dots X_n^{v_n}\mapsto\sum a_{(v)}$ where $(v)=(v_1,\dots,v_n)$ but this map isnt injective right?
ali yassine
The natural map is “evaluation at (0, …, 0)”
This is evaluation at (1, …, 1) and isn’t even well defined (what if that sum has infinitely many terms?)
but how is this injective or even surjective? I mean in this case any element of k[[X_1,...,X_n]] will be mapped to 0
ohhh right i see
Constant term
And it’s injective, from R/m
ah wait yes for some reason I unintentionally/implicitly thought that there is no constant term
tysm
have a great day/night
Any nice proof of part (vi) ? I have a proof, but it is long and I think there should be a nicer proof.
The proof given in the book is approximately "we will show something later that makes this trivial, but it's too strong, and it's a good exercise to think of a simpler proof"
My proof involved considering maximal cyclic subgroups of order being a prime power.
If G is not cyclic, then there is a divisor d of its order such that there are (at least) two different subgroups of order d (the contrapositive of this isn’t too hard to prove)
If one of these is not cyclic, we are done by induction, as trivially d is less than the order of G
If both of these are cyclic, then take generators x, y
If x^k = y^l for some minimal k, l, then (by changing generator if needed), k = l =/= 1, and so xy^{-1} has order k, and we never have x^i = (xy^{-1})^j unless both sides are the identity
So then <x, xy^{-1}> is of type C_{ord x} x C_{ord xy^{-1}}
Which has a subgroup of the desired type, as ord(xy^{-1}) divides k which divides ord(x), and is not 1
How did you get k = l =/= 1?
Also what do you mean minimal when you have two powers?
Why can't I have something like
{a,b|a^4=b^8=e,a^2=b^4,ab=ba}
x^k = y^l so they have the same order
Then mess around with cyclic groups for a while
The size of the group generated by a and b need to be the same
By assumption
(Because that number is d)
Oh, right
Minimise k, and then fixing that k, minimise l
(I’m being slightly sloppy because I then immediately proved they’re equal, and that doesn’t need minimality)
Ok, makes sense.
Question: why are class groups useful. The most "useful" (i.e. what it's been used for so far in my courses) case which I know is when we have trivial class group and then we have a PID. However, I've read that we don't really care about the group structure of the class group, i.e. If a number field has class number 4, we don't really care whether the class group is the Klein four group or cyclic. However, I have recently read that given a number field, we have $Cl_K\cong Gal(H/K)$ where $H$ is the Hilbert class field. Admittedly, I don't know much about the Hilbert class field, but I'm wondering what else class groups are useful for, and if their particular group structures give us any insight (which would make sense if we care at all about $Gal(H/K)$). Another thing that I read is that the class group is just more of an indicator object, in the same way that say homology groups are nice indicator objects we can attach to spaces: i.e. when we have trivial homology groups for $n>0$, it is much easier to get info about a space than when we have stranger homology groups (not saying that nontrivial higher homology is uninteresting, just that trivial homology is low-hanging fruit, though perhaps I'm completely off base here).
Sleepybear
first, this fits more #advanced-number-theory
About what you mentioned about the class group being isomorphic to the Galois group of the Hilbert class field. The isomorphism is given by the Artin symbol, which sands a prime ideal to the corresponding Frobenius element, which contains a lot of information about how the prime decomposes in the extension K.
This is a specific case of one of the main theorems of Class Field Theory
what is galois group
Given an extension of fields L/K (which means that K is a subset of L and both are fields), you can consider automorphisms of L that are identity on K. These automorphisms form a group with composition. When the field extension is seperable and normal, it is called Galois and this automorphism group is called the galois group of L/K.
Wait so Z/Z2 means integers mod 2 because its subset of Z which is divided by 2 or is just by convention
True but you mentioned fields L/K but does that also apply to this
If you care about geometry, the ideal class group can be though of as an example of the Picard group
More specifically the picard group of the spectrum of some Dedekind domain
This touches the last part of what you said. You can view it in terms of sheaf cohomology
Z is not a field and this is just similar notation. what you describe is quotients
What does seperable and normal mean in this context
One other place where the ideal class group comes up is the class number formula which is super useful
wdym class number formula? I forgot what it is
I’ve read that we don’t really care about the group structure of the class group, i.e. if a number field has class number 4, we don’t really care if the class group is the Klein four group or cyclic.
Where’d you read this? because I very strongly disagree
Fancy residue formula for dedekind zeta function
this?
yes
it doesn't really use the strucuture of the class group
Yeah but it's still there
I can see why would someone say this if they haven't seen class field theory yet
CFT is a big quest xD
Why is taking \bar{L_s} necessary here we know Lbar/Kbar is normal and finite extension and by the same process in the red part we can show every element lands in one of its conjugated coming from D's image
Oh shoot
This is not number theory
Hmmm but anyways approximation lemma is crt in a sense
I just don't get why serre takes the maximal sepravoe subextension
Ig that makes sense
From what I understood everything that is done with the generator of this separable extension can be shown for any element in \bar{L} in general, then as Lbar/Kbar is finite and normal you can just show it on the generators
I think this is just done to make L/K seperable
yeah just writing bar is hard
Okay so then why is showing the the automorphim of barL_s lifts to one in the decomposition
Group enough
That's actually the part bothering me
if s(a)bar is nonzero, then s(a) is in the prime ideal defining Lbar
Huh wdym by prime ideal defining Lbar. The prime ideal is already fixed no?
if s wasn't in the decomposition group, then s(a) being both in s(P) and in P gives S(P) = P
Uhh but why does any automorphim of Lbar lift to L/K first of all in that regard
every such automorphism comes from sending a to some root of P(X)
since p(X) is a polynomial over Kbar with a being a root
but you can restrict to Lbar
Hmmmmmm why is Lbar_s normal over Kbar
You can restrict as long as those automorphims fix Lbar_s no?
Ohkay maybe because P(X)bar for abar completely splits into linear factors in L_sbar?
So it's the splitting field of the minpoly of abar?
I guess
Hmm i don't see it still. Why is it that
Why are the bars(a) in barL_s
Oh cause of maximality right
abar is separable so it's minpoly is separable if it didn't have any such bars(a) just adjoin it
A larger subseparable extension
yes
Yeah I'll say it's the same he just supplied the details to why picking that sigmabar of the theta bar works for everything
Serre didn't
what book is that
Serre's local fields
Right, I have been told that it's the fastest way to get along with local cft
And other stuff
Which makes sense as the proofs are really terse, but so far I have been trying to make sense of them only to spend hours on a single line
good luck
Thanks gng ❤️🩹
I’m having a hard time understanding how they prove that sigma=pi
I don’t think I get how the contradiction supports the idea that there isn’t a P outside of sigma and in pi
For a P outside of sigma, it should be in its own orbit, and so we can re apply all the previous arguments to it to get that the second orbit has size congruent to 1 mod p
the argument that's being made there is that if there was a P-orbit {P'} of cardinality 1 in Sigma, then P is a subset of N(P') and so P = P'. so P is in Sigma which is a contradiction
Couldn’t P be any sylow p subgroup?
So what’s stopping the fact that there could be a second sigma with another P as its representative
Wait hold on
Wait nvm I get it now
Thank you 🙏
If F is a field and F(x) is a rational field of F[x], what does the basis of F(x) as vector space over F look like?
Do you have any reason to think there’s a nice one?
Hi
No
So my guess is [F(x) : F(x^2) ] is 2

But the problem is I am not sure about it, I think the basis is {1, x} in this case, but I have to show it
Something you can show in general is that if a has minimal polynomial of degree n then
K(a)/K has basis
1, a, a^2, ..., a^n-1
yes, i think then Y^2 - x^2 is a minimal polynomial of x over F(x^2)
thank you
Question about homomorphisms: the book I’m using defined homomorphisms as functions that preserve the product, but can a function also be a homomorphism if it preserves the sum?
I'm going to presume you mean a homomorphism of groups, which is just any map f between two groups G, H with operations # and * respectively such that f(x#y) = f(x)*f(y)
I don't know why you'd think the symbol used for the operation would matter
Yes, I did mean group homomorphisms; it’s not so much about the symbol, but rather the fact that addition and multiplication are two different things and it didn’t feel right to just force this operation into the definition
Thx for the answer though
? only if you work in a ring
groups dont have a notion of addition. only in abelian groups the multiplication is conventionally called addition
can someone pls give me a slight hint with this? I know basically that I just want to show that the ideals lying over $p\mathbb Z$ are principal, generated by some $a+b\sqrt{-1}$. With this I have $N(p\mathbb Z[\sqrt{-1}])=|N_{\mathbb Q(\sqrt{-1})/\mathbb Q}(a+b\sqrt{-1})|=p=a^2+b^2$. I have found that we have $p\mathbb Z[\sqrt{-1}]=(p,1+\sqrt{-1})(p,1-\sqrt{-1})$, but not quite sure where to go from here
Sleepybear
and especially unsure of how to use the fact that the unit group of the field is cyclic. I know that when we find the primes lying over $(p)$ we have $\mathbb F_p[x]/(x^2-1)$, so I'm thinking the cyclic unit group may arise here, but not sure. Also potentially has to do with Frobenius map $x\mapsto x^p$ but even more unsure of how to apply that here
Sleepybear
So one thing to notice is that (Z/p)^* is a cyclic group of order divisible by 4. What does this mean (try to come up with something related to -1).
If p is prime in Z[i] then Z[i]/p = (Z/p)[i] would need to be an integral domain. Is it?
You can do this via considering the quadratic character of (Z/4Z)^x
Hello, I'm just startingto learn abstract algebra. Is there anyone could why is associativity required for group? Why not commutative?
groups are generally motivated by their actions on things, i.e. groups list symmetries of things (i.e. funtions that preserve something). think dihedral group acting on n-gon, symmetric group acting on a set of n elements, etc. then the group operation is just composition of these symmetries. and composition of any functions is going to be associative
in that if you do a sequence of things to an object, all that matters is the order you do the sequence, and not some notion of grouping
commutativity is not required because many symmetries of things do not commute with each other (such as reflection and rotation), so its a stronger condition than wht we want for the things we're trying to formalize
Can I say, when we list all of the symmetries, then we naturally get the properties of group? Which commutative is not one of them?
i think thats a fair statement
Okay, thank you @vapid vale
to paint a picture of why we want associativity: there is a nonassociative analogue of groups that is symmetric, called a commutative loop. Even for noncommutative groups we have a pretty good idea of their structure (and they pop up everywhere), and we have numerous classification theorems about them. However, almost nothing of the like is known about these commutative loops! Dropping associativity simply makes basically everything fall apart
it would suck if the order in which you wrote down the characters in this sentence changed the meaning of this sentence.
e.g., (ab)c != a(bc)
Yes we lose a lot of the nice things we can do with groups and they turn into much less nice objects of study 🙁
okay, I think it makes sense for me. thanks a lot
between dropping associativity and dropping inverses ALWAYS drop inverses
monoids still have Green's relations
all good points but i should add that before the notion of an abstract group was invented, the main ways people considered groups were symmetries of algebraic equations (galois groups) and differential equations (lie groups), so function composition is the answer to "why" as a question of causation
yes i was just giving additional information
its nice to know what happens if you do decide to ignore common sense
ya
not trying to do an "actually my answer is better" lol
erm ackshyually my answer is 1000000x better
Ah yes
And on the topic of function
axler emphasizes an analogy between the space of linear operators in V (End(V)) and the complex numbers. would an intro abstract alg book, say artin, explain this analogy further
i assume not..?
I guess if the analogy is in that they both form a ring and a have a nice way to express conjugation then that's the whole focus of abstract algebra is developing that abstraction
I wonder what the analogy is
conjugation <=> adjoint, self-adjoint operator <=> real number, positive operator <=> nonnegative real, unitary operator <=> element of unit circle
you explore this analogy more when you learn about operator algebras basically
specifically C*-algebras
but it's a lot more of an advanced topic
where would that be then? in like operator theory or smth/
usually you see this stuff near the end of a functional analysis book, which in turn requires topology/measure theory
b/c it involves a lot of analysis
essentially the reason why is that operators behave a lot more like complex valued functions rather than just the complex numbers
and spaces of functions are typically infinite dimensional and require analysis
hmm Okay thanks
but for example, the spectrum of an operator (for finite dimensions this is just the set of eigenvalues) is analogous to the image of a function
the trace of a matrix is analogous to the integral of a function
after I finish reading my linalg book, i plan on going on roughly this sequence: abstract alg -> real analysis -> pointset topology -> complex analysis -> measure theory -> functional analysis -> differential geometry?? -> ????
Yeah that sounds like a good path
oh that's nice
idek what comes after this Lol
along with this, projection matrices correspond to characteristic functions of sets (the characteristic function of a set A is just the function that's equal to 1 on A and 0 otherwise)
characteristic function as in the indicator function?
the similarity comes from the fact that in both cases, if you square or conjugate them you get themselves
yeah
idempotence?
ya
cool
oh I should say orthogonal projections rather than projections
yeah ladr has a few exercises with projection operators or operators in general that satisfy P^2 = P
but yeah there are a lot of cool similarities
great hopefully i make those connections in the future loll
there's a whole theory of "noncommutative integration"
what do people do after they go throught hese fields btw
like Idrk what's after 😭 math seems too diverse
usually by then they have a specific field that's caught their eye
lots of things really, functional analysis and differential geometry lead to a lot of places
and by the time you get there you might be interested in a whole other field
from the things ive heard in functional analysis it seems extremely interesting
I guess I'll see when I get there thx
yeah I find it quite fun, basically puts together linear algebra and analysis
this looks like a good path but if you're still taking linalg i would not be hard set on any one sequence
the next classes i took after algebra and analysis were completely decided by what i enjoyed and found interesting in abstract algebra
of course, i've changed the order of this list multiple times
i have a lot of flexibility cuz im just reading books so i can read a certain book whenever i want lel
yeah for sure
Let M be a f.g. module over a noetherian ring A. Is it right that any A-submodule N of M is also f.g.? Is there a restriction on the minimal number of generators of N?
being Noetherian is closed under extensions iirc
It is yeah
so as A is noetherian, every A^n is a Noetherian A-module, hence every fg module is Noetherian
No there isn't
thought so
Even C[x,y] has ideals with arbitrarily large number of generators
Hmm, if there is a bound on the number of generators for ideals of A, does it then follow that the bound for A^n is n times this bound?
if we have a chain x1 < x2 < ... and some element y such that both [0, y] and [y, 1] are Noetherian, then { xi } stabilizes at the maximum of the indices where {xi \cap y} and {xi + y} stabilize
so yes
probably??
wait no doesn't follow
Consider a submodule N < M, such that N and M/N are Noetherian. Let A < M be another submodule, such that A \cap N has generators { a1, ..., an } and (A + N)/N has generators represented by e.g. { b1, ..., bm } which we may choose to all lay in A. By the correspondence theorem, we have then that <b1, ..., bm> + N = A + N.
Now, let A' be the submodule generated by < a1, ..., an, b1, ..., bm >. Then clearly A' < A, and so A' \cap N < A \cap N. But all the generators of A \cap N lay in A' and in N, hence A \cap N < A' \cap N. Indeed, A' \cap N = A \cap N. Furthermore, we have:
A' + N = < a1, ..., an, b1, ..., bm > + N = < a1, ..., an > + <b1, ..., bm > + N = <b1, ..., nm > + N = A + N
as <a1, ..., an> already lays in N. Finally, we conclude that A' = A as the lattice of submodules is modular
@rocky cloak
in particular, if the minimal generating sets of N and M/N are bound by n and m, then the minimal generating sets of M are bound by n + m
if i take r in R, then r is alg over C, so it has minimal polynomial but since irreducible polynomial in C are linear so r in C, right?
Essentially yeah
essentially yeah
essentially yeahjective on objects
“If you were giving that proof to me in a course I’d consider that a fair outline, but I’d want more detail”
In particular I want you to be specific with where finite dimensionality comes in
to show r is alg over C
Luka.s
If you know what monomial orders are, then you can do this via Grobner bases
so my "better way" is that you can ask a computer to compute this
yeah I've heard of this. I feel this is way worse though
we started our course with Gröbner bases and it's like 10 million lines long to find one
and even longer to prove that something is a Gröbner basis
yes but if you know how to use computer algebra systems
Explicitly turning something into a Gröbner basis was actually the worst homework assignment in the course lol
yeah fair
Yeah makes sense. Unfortunately im studying for an exam
and so for small examples like this it's not much better to do via computer
so no matlab there
If I get further into AG I'll prob learn one of these eventually. For now just good to sanity check there's not really an easier "by hand" way than just polynomial long division
which is super skull but it is what it is
but like I think there are ways to come up with polynomial maps f such that for a polynomial p(x), f is injective if and only if p(x) is irreducible
and checking irreducibility of polynomials is hard
so finding these kernels would be hard also
so like you'll only ever get examples like this
which are checkable by hand
cool that you're learning computational AG stuff
not enough people know it and IMO it's the best way for people to get their hands on alot of examples in algebraic geometry
which is useful
Yeah the Gröbner basis stuff was cool in theory although I had a somewhat negative experience because I think he didn't check the "find the Gröbner basis" problem he gave us because I was running the algorithm (by hand, on paper) for like 10 pages (different than this problem).
and it wasn't terminating
so I crashed out and gave up
lol
For the latter proof, i realized i forgot to show that all elements of Hom(Z/nZ, A) are of the form phi_a
but i honestly am not fully sure how i would do so
well i guess if f(x) = a for some a in A is a Z-module homomorphism, then of course na = 0 has to be true since 0 = f(0) = f(nx) = nf(x) = na
ok so we have that f(kx) = ka
well wait nvm
since f has to be a group homomorphism i can just consider where f(1) goes
but then if f(1) = a for some a in A then we just have that f = phi_a
Well 1 generates Z/nZ
since f(k) = ka
alright cool i just had to say it out loud ig
or via text
either way it worked
The first part of this exercise can be viewed as a special case of:
An R module M is naturally an R/I module iff I is contained in Ann(M).
R= Z and the R module would be the submodule generated by a, nZ the ideal I, and phi_{a} would be ring action which we are trying to check is well defined.
any hint?
Consider the extension K(x)/F where x is a root of f, and compute its degree in two different ways
yes i thought in this direction but i don't know how to find the degree of K(x)/F?
Im reading through the wikipedia article on relation of SU(2) and SO(3) using mobius transform. I'd like to understand this particular approach, not the one using quaterions.
Now i get the stereographic projection part and how both $g_{\theta}$, $g_{\phi}$ rotate the complex plane, but im absolutely unable to understand what are these variables in the article supposed to mean.
the author first uses $\zeta$ with $e^{i \phi}$ rotation. Then describes analogous rotation with $\omega$, and then reuses $\zeta, \zeta'$ variables in the sentence with $\omega$, which doesn't really make any sense to me.
Any ideas what the author meant?
article link:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/3D_rotation_group#Using_Möbius_transformations
The confusing part comes after: "which, after a little algebra, becomes".
In mechanics and geometry, the 3D rotation group, often denoted SO(3), is the group of all rotations about the origin of three-dimensional Euclidean space
R
3
{\displaystyle \mathbb {R} ^{3}}
under the operation of compositio...
MINECRAFT_LOVERBOY
I guess its supposed to mean, another transformation of complex plane.
take complex plane, invert stereographic projection S, project onto x=-1/2 plane, rotate with g_theta, and then invert the prior operations except for g_theta.
If there exists an intermediate extension
F < E < K(x)
do you know a relationship between
[E:F] and [K(x):F]?
I just know [K(x) : F ] = [ E: F] [K(x) : E]
yeah, so in particular [E : F] is a divisor of [K(x) : F]
Using Zorn’s lemma to prove that every vector space has a basis, i did not notice where the field structure is needed
I guess point is that in a vector space V, if you have a maximal linearly independent subset S then anything not in the span of S can just be chucked into S as a contradiction
Maybe if the vector not in the span its linearly independent from them is using it or smth?
But over a general ring it will not be linearly independent from the others in general
exchange lemma or smt
or as I like to call them, fields
Probably good to think about things like Z (+) Z/2 as a Z-module
Or even Z/2 lol
Milne's algebraic number theory book
:lloran2:
Think about Z/2 in what sense? 1 is not in the span of 0 but {1,0} is not independent over Z?
I guess Z/2 has no nonempty linearly independent subset
Lol
Z (+) Z/2 is a little more satisfying but works similarly
what you planning on doing the cheeky (1,1)+(0,1)+(-1,0) or something like idk how it would be more satisfying
oh ok sure lol
Your essentially proving that any semisimple module is a direct sum of simple modules. And thats true for any ring its just that vector spaces are semisimple
ah, i don't see how it helps me here
Now find ||a spanning set of size mn||
i think from that, if f is reducible over K, then for root x of f, [k(x) : K ] < n, it implies [K:F] <mn, but it contradicts that mn divides [K:F]
and [k(x) : K] < n, because f is reducible over K

thank you
btw anyone has idea how Lang introduced separability? I don't get it
i don't get it
So if E/F is an algebraic extension, then the number of embeddings of E into the algebraic closure of F is called its seperable degree.
A finite extension is seperable iff the seperable degree equals the degree.
The motivation is that embeddings of
F(a) into the algebraic closure are exactly given by sending a to a root of its minimal polynomial, so this is detecting if the minimal polynomial of a has repeated roots
I like intuitively am kinda seeing whats going on here but im struggling to formalize it
which fixed F ?
its just that image of the most obvious map into Z/mZ that this has is expressed kinda weirdly
so you have to consider the image of 1 only, right?
yeah
i mean i know 1 maps to m/(n,m) but the way i justify why this map is indeed a function is not super clear to me
i guess i just show that all the elements of the given Hom module have to map elements of Z/nZ to multiples of m/(n,m) in Z/mZ because somehow those are the only elements x in Z/mZ that satisfy nx = 0
What do you mean?
F should be fixed yes. So embeddings of extensions
my idea is 1 maps to x, where order of x should divide the order of n. And show that this Hom(Z/mZ, Z/nZ) is a abelian group and show that its order exactly gcd(m,n) and it has an element of order gcd(m,n)
the abelianity of the Hom(Z/mZ, Z/nZ) is clear as the morphisms can just be given as left multiplications
from elements from a commutative ring
showing its order exactly gcd(m,n) is whats tripping me up
First step should just be describing what the elements are
I.e. what is the set Hom(Z/m, Z/n)
well its Z-module homomorphisms phi_a(k) = ka for all a in Z/mZ such that na = 0
i guess itd be helpful to show that there are gcd(m,n) elements in Z/mZ that satisfy nx = 0
So for example m maps to km mod n
Yeah, whichever was which
so this gives us that Hom(Zm, Zn) is abelian
i guess i should approach this from element orders
No, I mean it is, but not relevant to what I was saying
oh
What is m in Z/m ?
0
So then km mod n must be...
So k can't be just anything
Well what would it mean for km to be 0 modulo n
k dividing n is maybe a bit strong
Maybe consider m=2, n=4
What k has km a multiple of 4?
0 and 2
thats alright
Anyway, we can say more. What do we need to multiply m be to get a multiple of n?
i mean n is obvious
im trying to think of examples tho
i guess n/gcd(m,n) is correct here
That's right k would need to be a multiple of n/gcd(m, n).
Then we might ask how many such there are modulo n
You have the identity gcd(m, n) lcm(m, n) = mn
well clearly gcd(m,n)
Boom boom
So at least if we verify that all of those work, then we have exactly that many
btw is there a clean way to prove that n/gcd(m,n) is minimal here
so i dont risk that theres a proper subgroup that is the image of the isomorphism im building
Well km is a multiple of n and m, so a multiple of lcm(m, n).
The smallest choice would then just be
km = lcm(m, n)
which means
k = lcm(m, n)/m
Then use that lcm(m, n) = mn/gcd
alright, here is the proof i ended up making
pretty sure it works but might as well check
In a commutative ring, does "a+u is a unit for all units u" imply a is nilpotent?
where u is a unit?
I think you need to restrict on u some more, otherwise what about u = -a or u = -a + [any nonunit]
oh, yeah I realized I missed a word there. whoops.
The converse is true, unit + nilpotent is a unit
Consider for example a=x in k[[x]].
More generally this will be true for any a in the Jacobson radical
I see
well jacobson radical and nilradical get confused sometimes anyways, I wasn't far off
I don't think it's equivalent to being in the Jacobson radical though, gonna need a think on that
I know if 1-xy is a unit for all x then y is in jacobson radical
this is weaker since it only lets x be a unit
Alright it's not equivalent.
Take R = k[[x]][y]
the units are power series in x with non-zero constant coefficient, but the Jacobson radical is just 0.
So x satisfies unit + x = unit
This is an iff, it’s proven in Atiyah Macdonald ch1
So either Atiyah Macdonald is wrong which I suppose is entirely possible or there’s something wrong with jagr example
But I think the characterization is right. It’s used for example in proof of Nakayama from Cayley Hamilton
no this is true. The thing I was looking at is weaker
what sort of questions motivated the inception of invariant theory? afaik it starts with boole and cayley in the 1840s, but most of the fundamental ideas seem to come from klein and hilbert and whoever in the late 1800s.
but what form did it take in the first 20-30 odd years
i've seen people point to things like the discriminant being, up to scaling by a square, an invariant of linear transformations
early invariant theory was basically: I changed coordinates and my polynomial got uglier so instead of admitting I chose a terrible basis I’m going to invent numbers that don’t notice
Right, is that like the hyperdeterminant or whatever
Did it really take 30 years for it to become interesting lol
there's an 1864 quote by Sylvester
As all roads lead to Rome, so I find, in my own case at least, that all algebraical inquiries sooner or later end at the Capitol of Modern Algebra over whose shining portal is inscribed "Theory of Invariants"
according to wikipedia, cayley established invariant theory in an 1845 paper, based off an 1841 paper of boole
okay according to this paper sylvester and cayley were close lifelong friends so maybe the quote above is biased
I’ve skimmed the paper by Cayley
oh sorry yeah i meant this is a survey paper on it
idk why it didnt embed
"The rise of Cayley's invariant theory (1841–1862)"
oh this is precisely the time period i was interested in, thank you!
to show if K is alg over F and there is a ring R such that F \subset R \subset K, then R is subfield.
let a be non-zero in R, and since K is alg over F, R is alg over F, hence R[a] \subset R is a finite dimensional vector space over F.
Now mapping x -> ax (R[a] -> R[a]) is injective because R[a] is integral domain, and since it has finite dimension so this linear mapping is sujrective hence ax = 1 for some x in R[a] \subset R, hence R is subfield
is it correct?
if a is an element of R then R[a] is just R
how?
what do you mean by R[a]?
oh it is not R[a], it is F[a]
looks fine to me then
okay thank you
Does the existence of an nontrivial idenpotent (a^2=a) in a ring R always imply that R has a nontrivial decomposition S(+)T, or does R need another property?
Maybe should be central but otherwise should be good, as then multiplication by a is a projection
An idempotent always breaks R into
Ra (+) R(1-a)
as a module.
If a is in the center then these ideals are also subrings, making R a product of rings
my professor taught separable polynomial such that each its irreducible polynomial is separable, and for irreducible polynomial separability defined as it has no multiple roots in its splitting field. But in dummit they defined any arbitrary polynomial is separable if it has no multiple roots in its splitting field, so which one is good ?
I’m not sure I follow what you mean, how did your class define separable polynomials?
he first defined separability for irreducible polynomial such that it has no multiple roots in its splitting field, then for then for arbitrary polynomial if its all irreducible polynomial is separable, (x-1)^2(x-3) is separable here
I mean both are good.
For the first definition you get that a polynomial is seperable iff it's splitting field is. Which is nice.
For the other you get that a polynomial being seperable doesn't depend on what the ground field is. So I guess if you're using the first you should probably say "f is seperable over K".
The latter is also good in that
K[x]/(f) is a seperable K-algebra iff f is seperable
how in first, ground field matter?
I'm trying to compute colon ideals (I : v) where v is a monomial and I is a monomial ideal plus extra generators that are linear forms (eg. x1+x2+x3)
I know if I is a monomial ideal there are formulas for this
anyone have an idea of where I could look?
because a polynomial being irreducible depends on what field its over
ah nice point
(sorry for interrupting, feel free to ignore!)
So i plugged my values in for part a and got y = 999^{239} mod 1457
then saw that 128 + 64 + 43 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 239
but computing 999^2 mod 1457 = 1413 mod 1457 was difficult, and then i have to compute 1413^2 mod 1457, etc. is there any easier way to do this or is it just going to be computational slop?
i didnt see this channel was active while i was typing, sorry about that
its fine you can post questions whenever
it will probably help if ppl have context to this question
youre so right, this is basically just encryption and decryption. it's called "RSA Encryption"
we know y=m^s mod n
just doing part a rn, idk how to even do part b
Binary exponentiation is generally the fastest way yeah, seems like they might be expecting you to use a CAS.
I guess in this case you might be able to do it faster by using that 1457 = 31x47 and use CRT
"standard RSA" would be sth like
N = p*q
e = 0x10001 (can be picked somewhat arbitrarily, usually 0x10001 or 3)
d = e^-1 (mod ord(K))
c = m^e
what is r?
Presumably the decryption key
luckily you don't need part b for part c 
so
r = 239^-1 (mod (30 * 46))
ig?
As a module of the ring generated by a?
No, just R-module
You mean 239^(-1)?
yes
if you don't have CAS (which I mean, they tell you to use it kinda?) do stuff mod p and mod q and then CRT
i figured it out!
yah i ended up using eulers theorem to get 239^{\phi(1380)} = 1 mod 1380, then just need to compute that and then we'll find r!
sage oneliner
r = pow(239, -1, Zmod(1457).unit_group().order())
I will prove (a) $\implies$ (b) $\implies$ (c) $\implies$ (a)\\I am not sure how to prove (a) $\implies$ (b). So if $(f(x))$ is prime then $k[x]/(f(x))$ is an integral domain and i have to find a multiplicative inverse for any non-zero element of $k[x]/(f(x))$. let $g(x)\notin (f(x))$, then i was thinking about the inverse $\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}(1-g(x))^k$ but the problem is that this sum doesnt seem to have finitely many terms (i didnt actually check, i guess it will turn out that it has finitely many terms and i have to prove this but i am not sure).\\Now assume $(f(x))$ is maximal, then $(f(x))$ is prime and it follows that $f(x)$ is irreducible since $k[x]$ is a UFD ($k$ is a field).\\Finally, assume $f(x)$ is irreducible. Then $f(x)$ is prime since $k[x]$ is a UFD and hence $(f(x))$ is prime.
ali yassine
Is everything correct apart from the (a)\implies (b) part?
I also thought about using the equivalent definition of a maximal ideal which states that an ideal m of a ring R is maximal if there doesnt exist any ideal I in R with I neq R such that m\subsetneq I.
I tried contradiction by assuming that there exists such an ideal and then i would probably have to use the fact that f(x) is irreducible. But i dont see how (f(x))\subsetneq I would imply f(x)=g(x)h(x) for non-constant polynomials g(x) and h(x) of k[x].
because i dont really know anything about say the generators of such an I
Btw this holds in general in a ufd
yea because so far nothing really relies on the properties of polynomials
just the properties of a ufd in general
Sorry this is wrong, this holds in a PID (and K[x] is a pid)
I guess the canonical way to construct the inverse would be to use euclidean division / Euclids algorithm.
I guess there's also a trick to do it without constructing the inverse: ||notice that k[x]/(f(x)) is a finite dimensional||
It might be easier to do (b) => (a) =>(c)=>(b)
And use that K[x] is a pid, if you have proven that
You should not expect this sum to be finite
i believe i made a mistake doing the phi function bc now i have to compute 239^{351} mod 1380
which does not sound fun
it says we can use a computer but i'll ask my professor if he actually wants us to use a computer
U can use Chinese remainder theorem here right
whats that
The theorem that gives how to solve systems of modular congruences
The idea is that I can solve the left mod each of the prime power factors of 1380
Which is 4 * 3 * 5 * 23
So do 239^351 mod each of those factors
ohhhhhh
Hopefully this made the process quicker lol
Kinda heinous to calculate that congruence without FlT and CRT
i havent done it yet but when i do do it i'll report back 🫡
Sounds good
You're supposed to compute 239^-1 mod 1380
Which you would do with Euclids algorithm, not binary exponentiation
Don't even need to compute phi(1380), that's something that would be infesible if you were working with actually big numbers
hm, im not even sure how i would do that
You're not familiar with Euclids algorithm?
i am but like we havent ever calculated the inverse of a value with it
especially not in mod n
So it produces x and y such that
239x + 1380y = 1 (or more generally the gcd)
So then x will be the inverse of 239 modulo 1380
ohhhhh
im trying to think about how someone would set that up for the division algorithm, bc like i know we want x,y in 239x + 1380y = 1, but i dont know which thing is which in the algorithm
Maybe hard to explain in a comment, but here's someone computing an example
https://youtu.be/fz1vxq5ts5I?si=VqjTQ9y_KO0AyJqH
Using EA and EEA to solve inverse mod.
i'll take a look and report back!
ty!


