#groups-rings-fields
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ik it's pretty stupid, but how do i prove:
For every $k \in \mathbb{Z}: o(g^k) = \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(k,n)$ and $<g^k> = <g^{\text{gcd}(k,n)}$
Nico
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Damn
For every $k \in \mathbb{Z}: o(g^k) = \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(k,n)$ and $<g^k> = <g^{\text{gcd}(k,n)}$
Nico
For every $k \in \mathbb{Z}: o(g^k) = \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(k,n)$ and $<g^k> = <g^{\text{gcd}(k,n)}$
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For every $k \in \mathbb{Z}: o(g^k) = \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(k,n)}$ and $<g^k> = <g^{\text{gcd}(k,n)}$
Nico
For every $k \in \mathbb{Z}: o(g^k) = \frac{n}{\text{gcd}(k,n)}$ and $<g^k> = <g^{\text{gcd}(k,n)}>$
Nico
Oh yeah, and also we're talking about the group <g> of finite order n
okay sanity check, the number of irreducible monic polynomials in polynomial ring $\mathbb{F}_5[X]$ is 10 right?
it might be easier to prove that o(g^k) = LCM(k, n) / k
that's more of an intuitive argument imo
then you can use the fact that GCD(k, n) LCM(k, n) = kn for any two integers k, n
anonloki
i'm wondering - if G and H are groups for which there exists an injection and a surjection G->H, must G and H be isomorphic?
A polynomial ring always has infinitely many irreducible monic polynomials.
There are 10 quadratic ones though
Take G = Z/2 x (Z/4)^N and H = (Z/4)^N
They're not isomorphic, but you have injections and surjections between them in all directions
consider the case when G and H are finite. from the surjection G —> H and the first iso theorem, G/ker = H. but since there is an injection G —> H, then |G| = |H|, so the kernel of the surjection must be trivial, therefore the groups are isomorphic
if K is a field extension of F and if a \in K, such that [F(a) : F ] is odd then F(a^2) = F(a). So i am trying to write a = p(a^2) for some polynomial p over F, but no i don't get anything useful, any hint?
What is [F(a^2): F]?
that's what i have to find
[F(a): F] = [F(a): F(a^2)][F(a^2): F]
yes i know
but [F(a) : F ] is odd so how it helps me?
i have to show [F(a) : F(a^2) ] = 1
There are two possible things [F(a): F(a^2)] can be. What are they?
Hint: ||it’s a quadratic extension||
k is odd, not prime
k = [F(a) ; F]
i don't what is quadratic extension
I know
What is the degree of [Q(sqrt(2)): Q(2) = Q]?
2
Why?
because minimal polynomial over Q which has root \sqrt 2 is x^2 - 2
oops yea that's what I was asking, thanks
Do the same for the example we want
ah, thanks i got it, i am dumb
This may be a bit of a weird question, but I have my algebra exam tomorrow. Is there an 'easy' way to prove Sylow's theorems?
i'm also interested in an answer to this Q
I’m pretty sure Jagr has a pretty slick, short proof he’s posted before but I’d be lying if I said I remembered it at all
You mean this?
I'm mainly struggling with remembering proofs for:
For every prime divisor p of |G|, G has a Sylow p-subgroup
n_p(G) = 1 (mod p)
Every two Sylow p-subgroups are added
Idk if added is the right word, but I mean that if P and Q are two Sylow p-subgroups, then P = g^-1Qg for some g in G
normally that's called "conjugate"
You can say conjugation
Yeah, idk much English terminology
Have you seen Artin's proof on the Sylow's theorem?
No
You can look at it, I don't know if it is easy or not but i found it interesting ( no induction needed )
I can't find much about it, but I understand that it's using group actions of some sort
That's the one that is on Wikipedia right?
So I proved that if F1 and F2 are isomorphic fields then every vector space V over F_i have same cardinality so Q(√2) over Q(√2) has dimension 1 but Q(√3) over Q(√2) has not dimension 1 otherwise √3 will be in Q(√2).
Is it correct?
I think when I am saying V is vector space over F, do I have to mention their operation too, does if operation change implies dimension different?
I mean, you're sort of assuming Q(sqrt(2)) is contained in Q(sqrt(3)) for this to make sense.
But it is true that any field isomorphism would take sqrt(3) to a square root of 3.
So if you can show Q(sqrt(2)) doesn't have a square root of 3 you'd be good
Here under proof
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sylow_theorems
I don't really like this proof though, to much thinking about what powers of p divide stuff
In mathematics, specifically in the field of finite group theory, the Sylow theorems are a collection of theorems named after the Norwegian mathematician Peter Ludwig Sylow that give detailed information about the number of subgroups of fixed order that a given finite group contains. The Sylow theorems form a fundamental part of finite group the...
Like Q(sq3) is not a vector space over Q(sq2), and showing that it can't be made into a vector space just reduces to showing your original problem, that they're not isomorphic
no, but i am assuming Q(\sqrt 3) and Q(\sqrt 2) are isomorphic as field, so then i can made Q(\sqrt 3) as vector space over Q(\sqrt 2)
Well, then there's no contradiction. If they're isomorphic then they would both be 1d vector spaces over the same field
and then Q(\sqrt 3) has dimension 1 as vector space over Q(\sqrt 2), can't we deduce some contradiction from here?
I don't think so.
It's perfectly possible to put a Q(sq2) vector space structure on Q(sq3) (it's just Q^2 after all). You have to actually compare their field structures
okay
Yea, it's basically saying the tail of the polynomial os "Eisenstein like". So what does that mean about the whole polybomial?
how do i show if A is algebraic closure of Q in C then [A, Q] is infinite?
okay A is countable
hint
by [A,Q] you mean the degree of the field extension?
yes
A contains every cyclotomic field
well you just need to argue there is an irreducible polynomial of infinitly many degrees
why it is enough?
If f \in Q[x] is irreducible and alpha is a root then A contains Q(alpha)
yes
and hence assuming by contradiction that A is finite over Q we get [A:Q] >= [Q(alpha):Q]=deg(f)
yes got it
and we can make x^2n + 1 irreducible polynomial over Q for any n
thank you
I have no idea, its getting complicated too
Can anyone explain this to me:
Let R be a PID and M a nonzero finitely generated R-module. Then there exist unique positive integers s and t and unique ideals I_1 >= I_2 >= ... >= I_s, such that M = R/I_1 + ... + R/I_s + R^t
With I_1 >= I_2 mean inclusion and the sum R/I_1 + ... + R/I_s + R^t is the direct sum
Like you want a proof or you don't understand the statement?
A proof
Because the proof in my syllabus, I don't completely understand
If you want, I can try to write down the proof and tell you the steps I don't understand
That would probably be better yeah
Let (v_1, ..., v_n) be a finite set of generators for M. We know that M = F/N, where F is a free module of rank n and N a submodule of F. We know that N is free of rank m <= n.
consider the inclusionmap a: N -> F. We know that there exist bases C = (w_1, ... ,w_m) for N and (z_1, ..., z_n) for F, such that a(w_i) = d_iz_i for all i <= m, where d_1 | d_2 | ... | d_m, and all d_i's are unique, spare a unit.
Now we write down F and N (or rather a(N)) by means of their coordinates with respect to the basis D. We get
CO(F) = {(r_1, ..., r_m, r_m+1, ..., r_n)
CO(N) = {(d_1r_1, ..., d_mr_m, 0, ...)
where all r_i are elements of R.
We conclude that M = F/N = CO(F)/CO(N) = R(d_1) + ... +R(d_m) + R^t
This is the proof given in my syllabus
Is it a correct enough proof, first of all?
(Probs yeah, otherwise it wouldn't be in an algebra course)
The main thing that I don't get here is why CO(F)/CO(N) = R(d_1) + ... +R(d_m) + R^t
I want example such that [L1L2 : F ] < [L1 : F] [L2 : F ], i think 4 = [ Q( 2^1/2, 2^1/4 ) : Q ] < [ Q(2^1/2) : Q ] [ Q(2^1/4) : Q ] = 8, is it correct?
because [Q(2^1/2, 2^1/4) : Q(2^1/2) ] = 2
Yes
can i get any hint?
Given F-bases a_1, …, a_n of L_1 and b_1, …, b_m of L_2, find an F-spanning set of L_1L_2
i tried in that way, but somehow i got so notations and in next exercsie i have to show if their gcd is 1 and equality hold, so i am trying in that sense
Don’t think about the second part at all until you’ve done the first part (the way I can think of to do the second part won’t help with the first)
okay
So F is just the direct sum of the
Rz_i and a(N) is the direct sum of Rd_iz_i, so F/a(N) is the direct sum of
Rz_i/Rd_iz_i = R/(d_i)
The tricky part is really in choosing this basis
For an easy example, consider L1=L2

Why is F/a(N) the direct sum of Rz_i/Rd_iz_i = R/(d_i)?
My friend says that F is isomorphic to R^n
In this particular construction
In general if C is a submodule of A and D is a submodule of B, then
A(+)B / C(+)D = A/C (+) B/D
Well, you can write down a map A(+)B -> A/C (+) B/D and use the first isomorphism theorem for example
The kernel of exactly pairs with a in C and b in D, so C(+)D
And so a(N) = d_1R + d_2R + ... + d_mR?
Thanks so much
So in particular, a(F) = R^n and so we can divide every R by (d1), so a(F)/a(N) = R/(d_1) + ... + R/(d_m) + R^{n-m}
?
I'm guessing K is Q adjoin the mth roots of unity (?)
It's clear that the Galois group is a subgroup of (Z/m)^x, but should "todlers" really know why they're equal? / is there an easy proof?
Thanks so much!
I mean you can explicitly write down the maps and show they're automorphisms no?
Maybe you can, I'm not sure I can
Liker writing down the maps is fine, but how do you show they're well defined?
because you've got a Q-algebra homomorphism Q[x] -> K sending x to \zeta^k, and then you show that it factors through K \cong Q[x] / (x^m - 1) if k is coprime to m
K is not Q[x]/(x^m - 1) though
Like whatever you do it has to be very specific to Q, since it's not true over other fields
what fails in other fields?
I don't fail in other fields(maybe I do), but I think he is talking about the galois group of K(zeta_n)/K not being (Z/nZ)^*
Example would be K=Q(zeta_n) itself
you’re right here K = Q(ζ_m)
every Q-automorphism must send ζ_m to another root of X^m−1 so σ(ζ_m)=ζ_m^a for some a mod m
σ must preserve the order so ζ_m^a is primitive iff gcd(a,m)=1 giving an injective map Gal(Q(ζ_m)/Q) → (Z/mZ)× for surjectivity for any a with gcd(a,m)=1 ζ_m ↦ ζ_m^a extends (uniquely, since ζ_m generates K) to a Q-automorphism of Q(ζ_m) hence the map is onto and Gal(Q(ζ_m)/Q) ≅ (Z/mZ)×
I'm stuck. I've found that D^3/K has the form in the second screenshot, but I don't know how to find its size.
and the e_i bar are the cosets of the standard basis vectors
Well I guess I also know that it suffices to take the product of the sizes of the two direct summands, so the question is how to find those
M does not look like that?
Did you mean it’s generated by those
Like, as written that second screenshot doesn’t make sense
Actually looking at that I agree that it’s plausible but I’m also not sure that’s the part of the working you want to extract
yeah I also have the Smith normal form
I have heard you can just take the determinant of the SNF but have no idea why that should work instead of finding this form for M
This assumes zeta_m and zeta_m^a have the same minimal polynomial, which is pretty hard to prove
[But I agree this is the only part that isn't essentially oblivious]
One possibility is that the field already has mth roots. Another could be the the cyclotomic polynomial isn't irreducible (finite fields for example)
Oh sorry I'm just realising that you were pointing out that I should indicate that these are cyclic modules generated by these factors
the minimal polynomial of a primitive m-th root of unity is the cyclotomic polynomial Phi_m whose roots are exactly the primitive m-th roots so if gcd(a,m)=1 then zeta^a is also primitive hence it is another root of Phi_m so it has the same minimal polynomial as zeta
Yes, if you can prove that the cyclotomic polynomial is irreducible you're done
(But that is hard as far as I'm aware)
hello, i need to find a citable source for the following statement, if sb knows where i find it it would be cool. maybe it is in [1] Hilgert, J., Neeb, K.-H.: Structure and Geometry of Lie Groups. Springer, New York, (2013).
thank you in advance
Proposition. Let G be a connected non-compact Lie group that is a semisimple Lie group and
U:G∋g↦Ug∈B(H)
(B(H) being the set of bounded operators A:H→H) a continuous unitary representation over the finite-dimensional Hilbert space H
. The following facts hold.
(a) U
cannot be faithful.
(b) If G
is a simple group or, more generally, if G does not contain non-trivial proper normal closed subgroups, then U is the trivial representation U:G∋g↦I.
not hard but not obvious either
I think it's pretty hard, but maybe you know a trick
I think no, because if there exists such automorphism then since -i√3 also a root and it maps to -1 - i√3, but under such automorphism roots of f should maps to roots of f, but -1-√3 is root of f.
Correct?
helloo ^^ was wondering if anyone could explain to me what a lie group is? my professor kinda brushed past it, he ended the lecture with “oh yh u can think of SO(3) as a sphere” and smth smth manifold, i have genuinely no idea what any of that means ;-;
Do you know anything about topology?
no not really, like surfaces and weird objects?
i’m taking that next year methinks
the bottom line is that a lie group is just a special kind of topological object with a group structure on it
how can an object have a group structure
SO(3) is group of rotational symmetries of an object, so it is like a sphere
well first you define an operation on it
in the case of SO(3) the operation is multiplication
A group operation on a set X is a map X x X -> X satisfying certain properties
you can read the wikipedia article for lie groups. the intro section is nice
Instead you could have a manifold M, and a map M x M -> M satisfying certain properties
This is the strategy you take to generalise groups to other kinds of objects
Category theory gives a nice treatment of this with the notion of “group object”
okay so i’m putting everything i’m doing with group elements and mapping it to an object
with SO(3) it happens to become a sphere
i’ve never even heard of that wowie
It allows you to generalise the notion of “group”’ to any category
i like the sound of that i’ll look into it
For example, a Lie group is a group object in the category of smooth manifolds
A topological group is a group object in the category of topological spaces
An ordinary group is a group object in the category of sets
to me why i think im so confused is that i cant bridge the connection in my mind
i was tryna youtube an animation but they have just made me so confused
it would probably be useful to learn some topology first
Yeah category theory is in large part designed to help with bridging connections between different fields of math
why is it specifically a sphere and not any third dimensional object
i would love to but this module is weirdly constructed to bring up manifolds without us needing any topological knowledge, tryna not go on a big side quest before my exam
in my mind i think of SO(3) as being defined as the group of rotations of a sphere but maybe that isn't accurate
your class has a topic on lie groups without a topology prerequisite?
they kinda drop it loosely to make u understand matrix groups better but it actually just made me more confused, i think my only option is to go down this rabbit hole sadly
that seems kind of ridiculous
Roughly speaking a manifold is a space you can do calculus on
it’s not so much a topic, a learning objective is “understand that matrix groups/lie groups have an underlying geometric structure”
i wonder how far one can get before having to use topology
i just finished a vid that explained 2-dim manifolds which is cool stuff i liked it
i shall
i didn’t realise this learning point on the spec was actually huge
i thought it was a fun fact 💔
The theory of Lie groups is quite deep
maybe useful for intuition
thank u sm i will read this
you can make up a lot of theory if you’re lying about groups /silly
SO(3) is not actually a sphere. It's homeomorphic to real projective space.
SU(2) is the sphere
had to google what homeomorphic meant
thank u for the clarification guys 🫶
also any book recs on the matter? preferably accessible as i’m just an undergrad, i wanna go down this rabbit hole but maybe not for my exams
Isn’t it S^3 not S^2
(If you say the sphere, I’d assume it’s 2d)
It’s S^3
the first few chapters of these notes should be okay for now
i think later on in the notes etingof starts skimping out on details which is kind of annoying
but the first few chapters are fine for your needs imo
thank you sm!! 🫶🫶
Just use sheaves on sites smh
If it's your goal to avoid it you can probably go your whole life
Just don’t do maths
though doesn't sound like a very fulfilling life
circle = SO(2) = U(1) because circles/rotations = multiplications of e^iθ 🤯 guys this is so cool why did they not teach me groups like this to start with
never knew it was so geometric
groups are very geometric!
they originated as symmetries after all
:D
yes
Permutation group has to do with the arrangement of elements
Since they are generic elements, I will call them a_1, a_2, ...
ok
in this order
and we can shuffle the elements however we want
In the image, there is one possible shape, but there are many more ways to shuffle the elements.
what do the arrows mean?
To which 'place' in the order will the elements go after being shuffled
ok
There is a proof that guarantees us there are n! ways to shuffle n elements
ok
We can take all these ways of shuffling and call them: shuffle 1, ...
And then, store everything in a set
how do you store the ways of shuffling? like as lists
like functions
note that each shuffle can behave like a function. See in the example, a2 was moved to a1 ...
like f(a2) = a1
so is each change its own function?
like if i swap a4 and a1 then swap a2 and a3 would i have a set of f(a1) and f(a3)
but
With this, you have only one permutation, and that permutation is just a function
is just one element of that set
we can work with just 3 elements to simplify
its ok i get what you mean now
here 2 permutations of 3 elementos
each of that permutation is a function
with 3 elements, we have 6 permutations
so, if we want a set with all permutations of 3 elements, we have a set with 6 elements
ok?
Since each permutation is a function, we can operate on these permutations using function composition. And thus, we have the permutation group.
how would that work function composition on the permutations?
look at that permutation 1 and permutation 2. Note that permutation 1 loads the second element to the third position and permutation 2 moves the second element to the first position.
so, this is the result of the composition of the two permutations
ok thank you
A good question you can ask yourself is whether these permutations are commutative.
You already understand the group of permutations, so we can ask ourselves about its subgroups (the alternating subgroup)
Look at the red arrows. When they cross, we will count one inversion. Okay?
If a permutation has an even number of inversions, we will call it an altered permutation.
The alternating group, then, is the group formed by permutations with even inversions.
ok i get it now
🙂
so in our example the composition would be in the alternating subgroup?
yes
Here you got a good grasp of the group's intuition, and you can dive deeper into books in cycle notation, where you will understand all of this better.
ok thx
b, I done when char K ≠2, how do I show if K(√a) = K( √b ) then √(ab) in K when char K = 2?
is that even true for char 2. Seems like K=F_2(x) provides a counterexample with K(sqrt{x+1}) and K(\sqrt{x})
Are those extensions equal? I don't see it
\sqrt{x}+1 squares to x+1
Oh, strange
But can you actually write one of those as a K-linear combo of 1 and the other?
Suppose the fields are just isomorphic, and there's no larger field L that can contain both
Yeah just semantics of field theory. You can think of field extensions which are isomorphic as equal. If we took any L to include both square roots and the extensions K(sqrt{x}) K(\sqrt{x+1}) to live inside L then they are equal. Basically we’re just saying a square root of x+1 exists within K(\sqrt{x}) and vice versa.
Agreed if there exists such an L
yep
sorry i don't get it
If K has characteristic 2, then K(sqrt(x+1)) = K(sqrt(x)+1) = K(sqrt(x))
even though sqrt((x+1)x) is not in K
i see
How | L | < |S | helps me here?
I think it helps me make a injective function L -> S such that restricted to M is identity
Yeah
I really dont get this
Is \mathcal{A} the set of all subsets of S containing F with a distinguished field structure such that F is a subfield of it??
Yes
This is slightly messy because you’re trying to avoid issues where A is not a set
I agree it's not worded very well
Yeah but i see now
The minimum size thing is just making sure you get a representing element of every algebraic extension
The cardinalities of those are bounded by |(F x N)^n| so you take it to be strictly bigger than either |N| (in the case F is finite) or |F|
I'm a little confused by this exercise. My solution is: consider the embeddings of K over F as characters from K into the algebraic closure of F. Then, since Tr(alpha) = sum of embeddings, which are necessarily distinct, we cannot have this sum equal to 0 because of the linear independence of characters (all coefficients of the linear combination are 1). Thus there exists some input alpha for which the trace is nonzero.
but where did i use the fact that K is galois over F?
as far as i can tell, this argument works for any finite extension K over F
which apparently is not true because if K is inseparable then the trace is 0...
which are necessarily distinct
Try looking at this for the “standard” example of an inseparable extension adjoining a pth root of t to F_p(t)
hold on im really confused, this is how dummit and foote introduces the norm (and the trace is introduced as just the sum instead of product)
dummit and foote says "set" of coset representatives so why would we ever be taking two of the same embedding in the first place?
You’ve only defined what the norm (and presumably, the trace) actually mean for extensions contained in a galois extension
Hence, you haven’t defined it for an inseperable extension
Yes, so I need A to be a set? For applying Zorn's lemma I need A to be a set or can I apply on collections ?
You need it to be a set
so then how do i show \math{A} a set?
It’s a subset of the power set of S
(Actually technically not but like
Usually if something is smaller than a set which you can give explicitly, it’s a set)
Hi, I am reading the following proof of the Cauchy Scwarz inequality. I understand the technical details of the proof, but don't understand the motivaiton of it. Namely, I don't see why it is natural to consider the function <x-tz, x-tz>. I have seen a similar technique being used within this text (Folland) to prove an orthogonal decomposition result for Hilbert Spaces. Any insight would be greatly appreciated.
(Not groups/ring/fields - maybe #linear-algebra or #real-complex-analysis idk)
I'm working on this problem. By a theorem I have that $\mathcal O_K\cdot\mathcal O_L\subset \mathcal O_{KL}\subset \frac{1}{gcd(D_K,D_L)}\mathcal O_K\cdot\mathcal O_L$. I have shown that we have $\mathbb Z[\sqrt 3,\sqrt{23}]\subset \mathcal O_{KL}\subset \frac{1}{4}\mathbb Z[\sqrt 3,\sqrt{23}]$. By following the hint I see that we cannot have $\frac{1}{4}\mathbb Z[\sqrt{3},\sqrt{23}]$. However, I am struggling to further determine it from here...
looks like multivar analysis
Sleepybear
I think I got it actually
Can I please have a hint for the first part of 12? I’m not sure whether I should try to show the coefficients of the polynomial they gave me are G-invariants
Show that the entire polynomial is a g-invariant
This entails that each coefficient is
I guess a hint is that you can extend the action of G to act on A[x]
One of those fuckin things I can’t extend as much as I try

Can anyone help me with problem 12 please please pleaseeee?
,rotate
anyone up to help now?
hint: ||is there anything that can be said about the set of all elements that is sent to their inverse?||
what do you have?
T^2 =I for the restriction
If it is a subgroup, then it is Abelian
I tried taking all product combinations with powers 1, using the set of elements. The count will exceed the order of the group
Some product must be in the subset
That much I can say
Nothing more
It is a subset which is a group
I’m unable to prove that subset is closed under the operation of the group
that the set of all elements which get sent to their inverses is the whole group
That’s the end goal
T(G) = G
we want to show that if T(x) = x^-1, and T(y) = y^-1, then T(xy) = (xy)^-1
i don't think so
,rotate
Sorry I don’t know how to rotate before sending 😅
What next?
I want to investigate the maximum size of the subset of elements which get sent to their inverses.
To arrive at 3/4
Why only three quarters?
But I gotta solve the problem first
you are showing that the set K = {x in G : Tx = x^-1} is a subgroup
so if x and y are in K, we want to show that xy is in K, that is, T(xy) = (xy)^-1
And I’m here
I’m sorry if I’m stuck at something silly
Happens to me sometimes
And I’m really clumsy today
Thank you for your patience
no, ur good. i don't remember the trick. im thinking too
I forgot to put detergent in washing machine, after I put I forgot to close the lid for a good while. That’s how clumsy I am today 😭
That bound is where the answer lies, the three quarters
Because if you see the next problem, you’ll realise it
My prof told me this problem is due to miller
A bit tricky with a laugh emoji
And left the chat
😭
Bruh, the subset can’t be a subgroup by lagrange’s theorem
Yes
At least
I has to be the entire group
That’s what we wanna prove
Lmfao. Hot water bath
Cold
Please tell me if there is anything wrong
Never mind
This seems right
Thanks
@patent harbor , you were typing?
Yea, I didn't follow your proof...I see the implication that the intersection of H with aH is nonempty...I agree with this but for a reason I don't see written down. Since H and aH have the same number of elements (greater than 3/4 of G) their intersection must have more than 1/2 of G (just a short counting argument which is easy to visualize--- picture the places of aH that do not intersect H).
So in particular the intersection is nonempty.
This argument works for any a in G (and not just elements in G without H).
I didn't understand the next implication? If b is in the intersection why does that force a to be in H?
b is in H and aH
ba^-1 is in H
Since b is in H
a is also in H
Hope that makes it clear
Or gives rise to some counter example
To improve my proof
You are only talking about cardinalities
But you also need to see the closure
Under multiplication
I'm struggling to see why ba^-1 is in H...When I apply T to ba^-1, I want to show that this is ab^-1.
Sorry, it doesn't follow readily for me!
Since b is in H, I know T(b) = b^-1
Since b is in aH, I know there is some x in H such that b=ax and hence T(b) = T(a) x^-1.
But I cannot reconcile the two to what you said.
But H is a set, not necessarily a subgroup at this stage.
Even if I write a as b x^-1, I get stuck!
Perhaps, from this discussion above, we know b^-1 = T(a) x^-1 and since b =ax, we have the following result:
For each a in G, there exists an x in H such that T(a) = x^-1 (a^-1) x.
If we had commutativity, then we would be done (interchanging the orders to cancel x^-1 and x).
So the challenge is now showing G abelian.
It is a tough problem, but I think this might be a step in a good direction.
Yes yes
What book is this? Looks like all exercises are of high quality
Showing G abelian given x |-> x^-1 is an automorphism looks like the easy part
Yeah
This reminds me of uhhh
Let G be finite, S,T be subsets of G such that |S|+|T| > |G|
Go on, I think I’m interested
Show ST := {st | s in S, t in T} = G
Yeah the proof is elementary but tricky to find
This is from the Apostol analytic number theory book 
I'd be curious under what circumstances a group automorphism could send exactly 3/4 of its elements to their inverses
I'm trying to build my intuition for why this might be true by looking at the limiting cases 

Any time we have a set a,b,ab that all gets sent to their inverses, a and b commute
We can certainly start by finding such a pair: choose a and b randomly from G-{e}, and use a probabilistic argument to show the expected value of the number of elements from {a,b,ab} which c get sent to their inverse is >2. Thus, there is some example where all 3 get sent to their inverses
Now we know <a,b> is Abelian, and every element in it gets sent to its inverse
And regarding this, I have a doubt
Then, every element in <a> gets sent to its inverse. Also, trivially, <a> is Abelian
If K is G\H, then |K| + |H| is not greater than |G|
no worries
And yes we are here
Ok, I want to find a new element b not in <a> such that b and ab get sent to their inverses
actually
I want to find an element a' from <a> and an element b not in <a> such that b and a'b get sent to their inverses
eh
my goal is kinda to build G by adding elements like this
Oh wait
T^2 is an identity only restricted to the set H
How big is its kernel?
Kernel is the set of elements that gets sent to the identity
oh lol
right
idk what I was thinking
but
can you show the set of elements fixed by T is a subgroup?
The whole group is a subgroup of itself
You can show it?
Please help
T doesn't fix elements in H; it sends those elements to their inverses.
for each element h of your group, you have the homomorphism sending g -> gh. suppose g is one of those elements that is sent to its inverse by T. then there are two possibilities, gh is another one of those elements, or it isn't
show that over half of your groups elements are in that first category
how do you check something is an automorphism
What
It’s an isomorphism from a group to itself
Multiplication by a fixed element is never an automorphism, unless that fixed element is e
A mere permutation of group elements is not an automorphism
i think you mean inner automorphisms?
Automorphisms are isomorphisms
Yes an inner automorphism is an automorphism
Automorphisms form a subgroup of bijections from a set into itself
this is a very very easy thing to prove, which you should do
Automorphism is not just any bijection
(not the statement you made, the one im making)
it's fucking false blud
correct
It must be an isomorphism
It's literally almost never true
wait lol
Are you thinking of a bijection?
Yeah
lol ignore me its late
in any case the argument i was making for the problem doesn't rely on the fact that map isan automorphism
epic fail
@waxen plover I think i have a proof. It is not beautiful. Nor does it show any intuition. It is simply what was needed to push the proof tentatively built, as we had discussed previously, through.
We have already proven from an earlier post that it is enough to show G is abelian.
Let a be in G.
Consider the subgroup Ca consistsing of all those g in G which commute with a (the centralizer of a).
It suffices to show that Ca has more than 1/2 the elements of G.
To do this, the natural thing to do for me at least is construct an injection between a set with more than 1/2 the elements of G with Ca.
Now one such set we have established already with more than 1/2 the elements of G is the intersection H with aH.
Can you construct an injection from H cap aH to Ca?
As a hint, fix an element from the nonemptiness of H cap aH, call it b.
Using this element define an injection.
- Show that the set of elements fixed by T^2 is a subgroup of G
- Show that this subgroup has cardinality > |G|/2
- Profit
the intuition is that you have some fixed 3/4ths of your group, and any bijection (in particular right multilpication) will keep at least 1/2 still in that 3/4, since there is only 1/4 of the group that can escape
Np
Yeah
The set of elements on which f and g agree (in this case, T^2 and id) is called... either the equalizer or coequalizer
I forget which one
but it's always a subgroup
i think the equalizer. (limit of the double arrow diagram)
I am stuck to. I agree wiht 1 and 2 with you Dreyuk. I cannot profit!
So T^2 is identity. But how can i even use that to prove T(x) = x^-1 for all x?
Yeah
you'd have the result if G was abelian, right?
Yes
the proof outline i was hinting at doesn't use the fact that every element gets sent to its inverse
you just need to show that for over half of g in G, g and gh get sent to their inverse for every fixed h
and show that if g and gh get sent to their inverse, then g commutes with h
The wonderful takeaway from the discussion here for me is that we are investigating the automorphisms of a group, of order 2.
That’s enough for me to start digging
Yeah I can't profit either
I must have forgot the difference between T = T^-1 and T(x) = x^-1 
I can tell you more than 5/16 of the element pairs commute, because
> (3/4)² = 9/16 of pairs (a,b) will have T(a) = a^-1 and T(b) = b^-1
> 3/4 of pairs will have T(ab) = (ab)^-1
and when both of those are satisfied, ab=ba
If we can prove more than 5/8 of the pairs commute, we are done (a is in Z(G) at most 1/4 of the time, and when it's not, b is in C(a) at most half the time)
Interestingly, in the provided example Q_8, exactly 5/8 of the element pairs commute. This would seem to suggest there really is a strong relationship here.
This also shows that if T takes more than 7/8 of the elements to their inverses, then G is abelian. (A little less than 7/8 actually, around 86.9%)
I couldn't sleep. Here's the proof sketch I have for it with holes left for you to fill in.
The summary of the sketch is:
- Prove for each a in G that the cardinality of H intersect aH is greater than 1/2 the elements of G.
- Prove for each a in G and b in H intersect aH, that T(a) = b^-1 a^-1 b.
- Constrcut, for each a in G, an injection from H intersect aH to the centralizer of a in G. As a hint, you can construct an injection for each choice of element in H intersect aH. Since the set is nonempty you can pick an element from the get-go. You should use (2) here.
- Use this to argue G is abelian. And use abelian to clean up the result in (2).
real
Does an integral domain need to have a multiplicative identity?
Yes, people also typically require 0 and 1 to be distinct
ok
I mean, I got it
nice
Thank you so much, @patent harbor
😁
it might be obvious but why should any element in A not in p be a unit in A
An element is contained in some maximal ideal iff it is not a unit
And A is local
An element is a left/right unit if it lies outside of all (left/right) proper ideals
Maximal ideal is easier to interpret :3
because A is a local ring.
To expand on the answers above:
Let x be an element in A not in p.
Then look at (x), the ideal generated by x.
Supposing it is not a unit, then (x) must be contained in a maximal ideal (by Zorn's lemma).
But there is only one maximal ideal. So x is in p, a contradiction. Hence x is a unit.
This same sort of jazz is used to define the equivalence of Jacobson radical as intersection of all maximal ideals or x such that rx + 1 is a unit
Ohh I didn't know this
Or maybe I knew and forgot about it
(Since adding a unit to an element kicks it out of an ideal so if it’s in every maximal ideal then it is kicked out of all the ideals so it becomes a unit)
Ah yea right
Tysm everyone
have a great day/night
why in category of fields, products doesn't exists? any hint?
They sometimes do but not in general
Try some examples
think of the characteristic of fields
A product should satisfy Hom(A, BxC) = Hom(A, B)xHom(A, C).
Try to plug in a few examples of A B and C into the right side and see what happens
what i am thinking, if there is product of Z/3Z and Z/5Z, then that field will be 1 = 0 , {0}, but we excluded this ring in our field's definition
I think the product of fields is the largest field that is a subfield of both (is this true?)
that's in posets I'm not sure this holds in general though
is it correct?
products are intersections anyways
if F1 and F2 are subfields of F then the fiber product of F1 and F2 over F is F1 \cap F2
Why does the field have to be 0?
hmm I see, yeah I guess field is not a full subcat of poset
that's not what I mean
in a poset regarded as a category, the product of two elements would be the meet if it exists
yes exactly
I couldn't give you an exact example though of it failing over a common characteristic
because it has field homorphism to Z/3Z and Z/5Z which shows that additive order of 1 should be 1
Many algebraic structures have products. Can we connect them somehow? And what if we add the prefix 'co-'? In other news, I have been transformed into a plesiosaur.
My social media: https://bsky.app/profile/josephnewton.bsky.social
My website: https://www.joenewton.au
Drawings and background music were made by me
00:00 Introduction and motivat...
Not really no.
Consider for example K = Q(sqrt(2)), then KxK is not equal to K.
this video has some nice examples for products in the category of fields
jagr, my counter example makes sense?
explicitly, ||the product of two copies of C does not exist in the category of fields||
I'm not entirely sure I follow your reasoning about 1 being 0, but it is true that Z/3 x Z/5 can't be a field
interesting, ||would the algebraic closure of Q work too?||
idk maybe? it seems like the issue is ||C having nontrivial automorphisms||
Any field with a nontrivial automorphism should probably work
I see
yeah that's kinda what I was thinking but struggling to properly formalize lol
if product exists, it will have field homomorphism to Z/3Z and Z/5Z, homomorphism are injective here because of field, so it shows additive order of 1 should divide 3 and 5 which gives 1, so 1 = 0
Alright, then I buy the reasoning

I'm gonna further conjecture that the prime fields are the only examples where K^2 exists
Z/p and Q
ah nvm
Field with no subfield
i see
I conjecture \infty to be a prime
sounds like there'd be a galois argument you could use
Hmm
is it provable that every nonprime field has a nontrivial automorphism?
R does not (but RxR doesn't exist)
wait R doesn't have nontrivial automorphisms
guh
?
It does not.
It does have endomorphisms though, which I guess leads to the same problem
huhhh i thought some choice bullshit would get you automorphisms
It's a fun exercise
The key is that whether a number of positive or not can be determined just from the field structure
||let f: R -> R be an endomorphism. Then f(x^2) = f(x)^2 >= 0. Hence f(x) >= 0 for all positive x. Thus:
a > b => a - b > 0 => f(a - b) > 0 => f(a) - f(b) > 0 => f(a) > f(b)||
yes
your argument seems to suggest any endomorphism of R is the identity
yeah i'm not sure what jagr was referring to
Right, I guess it doesn't have any endomorphisms either, but it has subfield that can embed in different ways (hence RxR can't exist)
So there are exceptions to the conjecture, like Q(cuberoot(2)). But
Say K is a field that is not a prime field, and let F be its prime field.
If K^2 exists it must map onto K hence K^2 = K.
If K/F is not algebraic, then K contains F(x). Then F(x) and F(x+1) are different embeddings contraindication!
If K/F is algebraic, and F is finite K/F is galois, so has automorphisms.
So the only possible examples are algebraic extensions of Q
are there groups of the same order, each of their elements are of the same order, yet they aren't isomorphic? i'm trying to prove something and my proof works if that when a group is of order 8, and it's elements are order 1,2,4,4,4,4,4,4, then it's isomorphic to Q_8.
in general that is a difficult question, but in your specific case it is not hard to show that it is true
hint to start with - ||since there is a unique order 2 element, any order 4 element must square to it||
but in general yes, it is possible for that to happen
i'm gonna check that hint later, try it completely myself first
The dihedral group has more elements of order 2 though. So might depend how the question is supposed to be interpreted.
The mod 3 Heisenberg group and (Z/3)^3 works though
yeah you're right my example doesn't work
Well it works if you just think of the set of orders of elements (and n is even)
yes, I think I could specify by saying I'm interested in the same sequence of orders of elements not just the set
I guess the appropriate term would be multiset
An update. Is it clear how I conclude this?
Well actually I want the RHS to read $\frac{(\mathbb{Z}/(k))[t]}{(t^2+1)}$
person2709505
So that this quotient consists of cosets of linear polynomials (in t) with coefficients in Z/k, meaning there are k^2 choices for the coefficients
Yeah, I would write this instead
My reasoning isn't flawed?
Coincidentally, I'm also not sure if this is the best way to write that, since the parentheses mean both "ideal generated by" and "take the quotient before adjoining the indeterminate t"
it's clear that we're talking about ideals. you can use i think 3nd isom. thm to see that $R/I \cong (R/J)/(I/J)$ where we take $J=(k)$
joel
What's the smallest example?
Mod 3 Heisenberg group and (Z/3)^3 have order 27.
I doubt you can go smaller than that
Imo this sort of obscures the point. The point is that Z[i]/(k) = (Z/k)[i] and after your argument you would still have to argue mostly the same thing with i replaced by t.
Like the reason this equality holds is just that there is a canonical isomorphism that is essentially just the identity
Although i should probably not say words like "equality" so let's pretend I said iso everywhere
Let f(x) in Z[x] be a monic polynomial, and let g(x) and h(x) in Q[x] both be monic polynomials such that f(x) = g(x)h(x). Then g(x) and h(x) both have integer coefficients.
In this statement, why is g(x) and h(x) assumed to be monic. Does it not work without?
Consider for example f(x) = x^2
g(x) = 2x, h(x) = x/2
@limber tapir would you say that the reasoning I give in this comment is clear? The point of these isomorphisms is I'm trying to justify why the ring has this structure: linear polynomials with coefficients in Z/(k) having no relations between them, i.e. two choices of coefficient
I couldn't justify this counting to myself just looking at the LHS
Isn't that what I'm doing in the second isomorphism? Do you mean something different?
We see (with $ I = (k,t^2+1) $ and $J=(k)$) that $I/J \cong (t^2+1)$ and $R/J \cong \mathbb{Z}/(k)$
joel
Yes that's fine
Sorry I can't really see why this implies that each coefficient is G invariant
What does it mean for two polynomials to be equal?
Very readable
mishu like

you forgot to capitalize the N
damn
😢
Discord b like :kianno:
Im going in date with irish german girl rn
She on exchange in halifax lol
I think she walked by to washroom i was like :0
European fashion sense man
nah def not, where I used to live before uni everyone has the plainest fashion sense ever
except like a couple people
Makes big difference for me
Agreed
Me too bruddah
I feel like a lot of ppl on mathcord are lol
Two p-sylows which aren't of order p, can have non neutral intersection right?
Yes
My understanding of this is very basic but from what I understand $\CC = \RR[x]/(x^2 + 1)$ (by convention) is a field extension of $\RR$, which we make by coming up with an irreducible polynomial in said field and then including its solution (along with the necessary multiplied and added values for closure)
My question is: is there a such thing as a polynomial irreducible in $\CC$? and if not, does it mean that it cannot be extended (in this manner?)?
Coolempire93
C is algebraically closed, so there is no nontrivial algebraic extension over C (i.e., you cannot have bigger fields by adjoining elements of a root of a polynomial with coefficients in C)
however there can be transcendental extensions of it, for example consider the field C(x) of rational functions over C
transcendental here means: it cannot be a zero of a polynomial function with coefficients in C: can the element "x" be a zero for a polynomial f(y)=a_ny^n+...+a_1y+a_0 where a_i\in C? (while x\notin C, what happens if x\in C?)
Right, transcendental numbers by definition are the non-algebraic ones
But I couldn't see the connection to the rational functions over C 🤔
well if you just adjoin elements x,x^2,.... then you have the ring C[x] which is not a field
what happens if you consider the fraction field of C[x]?
oh lol if you mean extended in sense of algebraic extension then of course C(x)/C is not algebraic (which you have asked) but here im talking about transcendental extensions other than what i've answered above
Ah right the polynomial ring is a ring 😂 it helps when I actually think about the names
I guess what trips me up thinking there is that aren't fractions of complex numbers still just complex numbers
Is there actually any new element there
Unlike integers to rationals
Is there a better analogy for me to consider
a rational function over C isn't a fraction of complex numbers
it's a fraction of polynomials (in variable x, say) that have C coefficients
if x is replaced with some complex number throughout the expression of a rational function, then you'll have a fraction of complex numbers
ahh
I was thinking a function with rational coefficients
🤦♂️
ah, no worries
suggestions for an abstract algebra book? the ones i know of are fraleigh, artin, aluffi's notes from the underground, and d&f
i have experience with linalg (notably from a comp linalg class and ladr)
just pick one of these and start studying lol
I used gallian at first
anything here seems okay
Its not bad but its weak with group actions
Its a good start if the others feel overwhelming
In my opinion though, d&f is just really good since it has so much content
a lot of them vary wildly based on the table of contents
well my point still does stands
whats wrong with varying toc with various books
you can just pick one that fits you and learn other stuffs (that is not included) later if you need them
true ig
May I ask, if a polynomial p(x) is irreducible in a ring K[X] where K is a field, then p(x+alpha) where alpha is from K is also irreducible? Mainly I ask this because I've been kind of stuck in a problem and this would solve it (I'm trying to see that Q(cube_root(p),fourth_root(p))=Q(cube_root(p)+fourth_root(p)) and therefore because I've already seen x^3 - p is irreducible in Q(fourth_root(p)) then (x-fourth_root(p))^3 - p would be irreducible there too, and it has root cube_root(p)+fourth_root(p), and because it is contained in the other field extension we have that they're equal)
If p(x + a) = g(x)f(x) then p(x) = g(x - a)f(x-a) and the degree of f(x - a) is equal to the degree of f (and same for g)
So yes
This is so goated
I was stuck on this problem for a long time
Which is basically to show that Q(sqrt(p) + cube_root(p)+fourth_root(p)) = Q(cube_root(p),fourth_root(p)
Do I need to learn abs alg on it's own to progress farther into mathematics? If so, what book should I use for that purpose?
Where are you in maths, and what are your goals?
I've done linear algebra from LADR, into analysis from baby rudin and just recently finished ch 2 of folland.
I don't have any specific goals yet, I just self study based on whatever seems interesting
Though I eventually want to go into pure math research (if that's relevant)
Algebra (especially at the level of a first course) is useful pretty much regardless
Dummit and Foote is a standard recommendation for example
The entirety of d&f?
Like parts 1-4 excluding chapter 6
Common for that to be split into 2 courses
But like, they’re a series
Alright, I'll take a look. Thank you!!
Nah Brotha d/f for rings and modules and Galois theory is good
For group theory it does look a bit hard to me
Here to hate on fraleigh
Reading that book felt like I learned nothing
Well not nothing just leaving out a not insignificant portion
I'm a big fan of Aluffi's Algebra Chapter 0, and recently took a look at Notes from the Underground. No idea why he named it after a Dostoevsky novel, but it seems great
I also like D&F a lot. Never checked out Fraleigh or Artin
g-g-g-g--g-grroup??????????????
yeah chap 0 seems like soemthing i'd read if i wanteed a second look at abstrac talg in the future xd
im planning on reading artin and consulting notes from the underground as a second text
notes from the underground is also quite good i think
Is unitary the same as unary?
I don't think so, else the exercise would be kind of pointless lol
"show that the inverse of an automorphism is a unary function"
unitary operators are those satisfying T* = T^-1 
they're pretty trivial yeah
they are
by definition, they're invertible isometries. their matrices wrt some orthonormal eigenbasis is diag{e^{i\theta_1}, \dots, e^{i\theta_n}}. their adjoint is their own inverse. etc etc
notes from the underground is great (imo) i use it lots as a reference for more basic material
it has a weird order (rings -> modules -> abelian groups -> groups -> fields) but otherwise it covers all the usual things
the only issue I think it has is that he does not do the structure theorem for modules over a pid, instead does it for modules over a euclidean domain which makes the proof easier
hi all! i'm doing problems 12 and 18, i had 2 questions:
-
Question 12: When it refers to "usual multiplication" does that mean component wise? or are we foiling? i would think its component wise since we havent defined it to be a ring and therefore don't know if the distributive property holds.
-
Question 18: Would all the units be of the form 1 x Q x 1 and -1 x Q x -1?
The operations inherited from C
Nah brotha im right u wrong
sick
For 2, use (AxB)*=A*xB*
Yes I loved contemporary for a handbook
When I needed to reference while researching it was easy to open and find stuff
Them promoting gaining an intuition for the theorems was also nice from a pedagogy standpoint
No idea who the author was either
this?
Yea
alr guess I'll use this as well (Found this being resold for a very cheap price last week so I bought it)
Ah yeah gallian
-
Usual multiplication just meaning the usual way to multiply real numbers
-
There are a few more units.
ty!
Terrible cover though, most editions I've seen have a nice pretty picture on the front.
aw 😔
well it costed like 2 usd 
lol nice.
True Dat
It usually has some swish swooshing woah design
Math textbooks love the swish swoosh
the best representation of how math looks
Yas
aside from just straight up diagrams
we actually have not proved this unfortunately so idk if i'm allowed to use it
prove it yourself
great
nvm ur right i have to prove it myself LOL
Just checking, if R is a ring and I is an ideal, there is at most one complement to I in R that is also an ideal of R, right?
Namely {j in R : Ij = 0} (and symmetrically, {j in R : jI = 0}).
if you mean an ideal J with I+J = R and I∩J = 0 then there’s at most one such J
if it exists, it must be the annihilator Ann(I) = { r : I r = 0 }
also note Ann(I) doesn’t always give a complement it only does when I actually splits
It is an isomorphism
okay
The easiest way to see that is that both are isomorphic to Q[x]/(x^3 - 2)
Yeah
does this proof - particularly the last part where I bring in a Dedekind cut - look acceptable?
I mildly feel like I'm being handwavy at the end
I think it works, and I don’t think there’s another nice way to do it directly
But I think a contradiction proof might be nicer here
I see what you mean, contradiction does seem to make it more convincing than how I said it
thankee
there should be an alternative method of showing this via real numbers = equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences
what is this question even asking
like i feel like i know but still im somewhat confused by it
it seems the answer is no for the intuitive reason that M would be some sort of 1-dimensional submodule of the Q module
but idrk
What do you even mean 1-dim
Anyway, suppose you had a Q module structure on M, what does that tell you
What is a Q module
What are properties of finite groups
just to clarify the task:
an R-module is an abelian group together with an R-action R x M -> M that satisfies some distributive and unital constraints.
this is asking if, given a finite Z-module M, can we extend the multiplication by integer scalars (the Z-action Z x M -> M) to multiplication by rational scalars (a Q-action Q x M -> M) in a way that preserves the original Z-action
Just analogizing submodules with subspaces in my head
I see
my strategy with these types of problems is to look at really small examples
Ok so if I have like Z4 then
And I let Z act on it in the expected way
Oh then theres just nothing 1/2 can map to
I see it now
yea, here is a minimal counter-example:
take M = Z/2Z. this has a natural Z-action Z x M -> M, (n,k + 2Z) |-> nk + 2Z.
if we could extend to a Q-action, put a = 1/2 (1 + 2Z). then a + a = 1 + 2Z, but no choice of a in Z/2Z satisfies this
there is a cool adjunction between restriction and extension of scalars tho
Yep
Generally, if x has order n, then nx = 0, but (1/n)(nx) = (n/n)x = x
uh oh!
Also the only finite Q-VS is 0 right?
Of course it suffices to have a counterexample, but this is to say that the counterexamples are everywhere
That’s exactly what this tells you
Just you can only see this because a Q-VS with dim > 0 would need to contain the infinite set Q
(Kind of exactly the proof of it)
We can generalize this to all finite abelian groups as well right
As all of them have cyclic subgroups
Yep that what my comment said
Oh oopsies
So obstruction 1 is torsion
if $f : S \to R$ is a ring homomorphism, there is a functor $f^{\ast} : R\text{-Mod} \to S\text{-Mod}$ (i think of this as the pullback) specified on objects by taking an $R$-module $M$ to the $S$-module $f^{\ast}(M)$ with scalar multiplication defined by $s \cdot m := f(s) \cdot m$. this is called restriction of scalars functor. $\newline$
the extension of scalars functor is $f_{\ast} : S-\text{Mod} \to R-\text{Mod}$ given by $f_{\ast}(M) := R \otimes_S M$, since we can think of $R$ as an $S$-module. $\newline$
The extension of scalars functor is left adjoint to restriction of scalars functor, so there is a nice relationship between extending and restricting scalars.
c squared
maybe you will find this interesting
Oh nice
i guess in the infinite case, Z can't be made into a Q-module for the same reason, if a = (1/2)1, then 2a = 1, contradiction. but obviously Q as a Z-module can be made into a Q-module
In this case, being a divisible group is a key word
oh cool
Divisible = for every x in G, n>0 in N, there is y with y^n = x
Which you can see as basically “there is something in there that is like (1/n)x”
yea, writing the group operation additively makes it more clear why its called a divisible group
Now here’s the fun part, assume G is divisible, abelian, and torsion free
Then (1/n)x is unique
Since if a, b satisfies that, then a^n = b^n = x, so a^n b^-n = 0
So ab^-1 torsion
right
It’s a fun example in model theory of adding conditions that don’t seem enough on their own to get a complete theory
(Infinite) Abelian isn’t complete, abelian torsion free isn’t, but divisibility finishes it off

Anyway it’s not a hard example but it’s the completion of that exercise right?
Since it’s purely group theoretic descriptions of when you can extend
These kinds of things can appear elsewhere too in unexpected ways, like things “really just being these simpler objects”
how do i show SL_2(C) / { I, -I} is simple group, any hint?
that's rather involved for an exercise I cannot lie
can you use Iwasawa's theorem? that's the only hint I can give
i don't know what is that
actually i have to show mobius transformation group is simple group
a theorem telling you that when you have a faithful and primitive action satisfying some extra conditions then your group is simple
oh
you prove it by assuming there's a normal non-trivial subgroup N, then using some Frattini argument nonsense show that G = N
i see
maybe there's a simplier proof for C, cause the one I have in my head doesn't care about what field you're over as long as it's not F_2 or F_3
sorry I should also add that you need to know that your group is perfect for this to work - which is obvious as perfection is preserved under quotients
Just checking if this proof looks valid
I never invoked that F had to be a field in particular but i think that may not be necessary anyways
Ye field shouldn't be needed at all
But for the converse, you should show that it is never a submodule (i.e. for any n > 1) rather than just n = 2
Though there is a trick that immediately moves you from n=2 to any higher n lol
There's also a bit of a more conceptual way to look at all this, if you want, but maybe I can describe that after you're done aha, feel free to ping me!
a counterexample doesnt prove that M is not a submodule of R as a right R-module?
It's a counterexample for n = 2
ah i see what u mean now
Okay nicee
The thing I had in mind here was like
If you write a matrix B = [v1 ... vn] as a bunch of column vectors then you can write AB = [Av1, ...., Av_n] lol so here it's clear
i see
Literally the same lol
But now when you swap it, it gets messed up --- just transpose this and it now fails
i cant think of a cleaner way to do the reverse
i mean considering that we are working over a field we could consider R as the affine space F^(n^2) i think
maybe theres something to that
and then here we have a vector space so linalg can be done
like now it acts on the rows on the right, but you can do something arbitrary to those rows e.g. swap them
ig yeah this is just like multiplication on the left is a bunch of row operations or whatever and on the right is a bunch of column operations?
yeah
By B/J \subset A/I, does he mean pi^sharp(B/J) \subset A/I? Because B -> A is just an integral ring map and not an integral extension
ye must be
Yea thought so thanks
you can also always factor ur integral map as a surjection followed by an injective integral map, and the first bit clearly corresponds to a closed immersion
yea
how would one show that two rings and two fields arent isomorphic if they both have the same cardinality :')
i'm trying to show that 2Z not iso to 3Z and R not iso to C
like i think for 2Z i can say that the only map that turns 2Z into 3Z is a transformarion but transformations are not ring homomorphisms
Use the fact that C has many more roots of unity than R to arrive at a contradiction. 2Z and 3Z aren't rings under standard addition and multiplication and are isomorphic under the obvious modification so I don't know what's going on there
Ig can view them as nonunital rings and then they are non isomorphic ||e.g. 2 has to be sent to +-3 but then consider where 4 goes||
sure
thatt makes sense
Suppose G is a compact connected lie group. I need to prove that any normal abelian subgroup N must be contained in the center of the group. Now I know that the center of the group is precisely the intersection of all the maximal tori in the group. So it suffices to show that for any arbitrary normal abelian subgroup N and any arbitrary maximal torus T, N is contained in T.
Now I took n from N. Then by conjugacy theorem there must be some g in G and t in T such that n=gtg^-1. By normality of n, I get t to be in N. But after this I'm stuck. I tried to show that I can get each element n as some t in T but I fail to do the same.
Firstly, am I going in the right direction? If I am, then any hints?
I guess you want to first look at the connected component of N around the identity
Okay, so I look athe the connected component N' of N around identity. Now I take its closure (let's call it N''). Then N" is closed in compact G so it is compact. Thus N" is a compact connected lie group in itself, hence will admit maximal torus. Conjugacy theorem proves that any two maximal tori would be conjugate to each other in N", but N" is abelian. This means that there will always be a unique maximal torus for N", let's call it T". Now this might not be maximal in G, so there will be a maximal torus of G containing it. Thats all I can think of with this right now though.
So N'' is a torus, so contained in a maximal torus.
And one thing that is true is that all tori in G are conjugate
how would one go about finding the number of homomorphisms from Z x Z x Z into Z?
You can try to describe them by picking a set of generators for Z^3 and seeing where a homomorphism could send them
Okay so this shows that N" is contained in T. How do I go from here to show that whole of N is in T?
hm
Taking quotient?
Yeah, so now you have N'' in all the tori, so in the center. Next you should think about N/N'' inside G/N''
For finite fields, are all automorphism classified? I think i saw somewhere that for F_p, all automorphism are all in the form x^(p^k), is that correct? I dont have much experience with Rings and Fields yet, using field results often as im doing a summer research thing in Finite Projective Geometry, which uses Finite Fields very often.
Yes
This is a standard thing in Galois theory if you want. Like if you look at the Galois group of finite fields
The map x -> x^p is called the Frobenius and you get all automorphisms of finite fields by iterating this
Amazing, thanks! Im taking a Galois Theory course next semester, so im excited to learn about it in a formal setting haha.
Wow that’s really unexpected
It's like F_p^n/F_p is a degree n extension, so the Galois group has order <= n, and the Frobenius has order n, so gg