#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 378 of 1
All the ideals containing I
Yeah
Again, my bad for not knowing all these English words tho
Isn't this Zorn's lemma, then?
No
So if you have a chain of ideals
J1 < J2 < ... in R/I
what does the correspondence theorem give you?
I have never heard of upper chunk personally and study maths in UK lol don't worry
Not official terminology but i always have this picture in mind
Eh?
I mean it's just normal English.
chunk = piece of something
upper = near the top
Con A is the ideal lattice of the ring A (in this case)
Anyhow, better to focus at the task at hand
Yee
Just how it was said at the time made me think it was some mathematical terminology lol
For every J in R/I there exists a unique K < R that contains I such that J = K/I?
I mean i couldve said like "principal up-set" or smt but thats even less helpful
But we know that the chain of all those respective K's will stabilise, given the noetherian nature of R?
Cool
Now is the proof for artenian the same?
Sadge
Yes
There's other questions too tho, if you guys still wanna help me out ;-;
Sure!
The next exercise wants me to show that every artinian domain is a field
How do I even begin?
I suppose that I need to show that every element has a multiplicative inverse?
This is all commutative yes?
No
Oh man
Left artinian then?
How do you guys define domain?
I believe just ring with no zero divisors
It's only true in the commutative case
Nvm
Unless field means skewfield I guess
No that would be called delingsring in dutch at least
"A commutative ring R != 0 without zero divisors is a domain"
Dunno abt flemish
Ah okay
Yeah it's the same
Altho it's explicitly stated in my syllabus that delingsring is more a Ditch word than a Flemish one
Indeed, no one does that
Ok but any tips?
I guess a hint could be to think about the ideals
||(x) > (x^2) > (x^3) > ...||
Is there a mistake in the problem statement here? If psi is just an injection, then S1 can have two elements, S2 can have three elements and then A(S1) will have two elements and A(S2) six elements, so obviously no isomorphism…
Huh yeah
Presumably the author uses 1-1 to mean bijection
I'm assuming one to one means bijective
Not a fan that they dont use injective surjective or bijective
Some authors do this
I checked his definitions and no
But in the latter sentence they say "one to one onto"
Rather than one to one into
well then the problem is obviously nonsense
try proving the true statement instead
Maybe they forgot what definition they used midway
Sym(1) = Sym(1000000)
Execution
I'll map my car one to one into your living room window in a minute
And bijection he calls “one-to-one correspondence between X and Y”
Its just a stupid typo then
Then I'll put my money on this problem being a consequence of this terrible convention
Into and onto are very close on the keyboard
Yeah, seems so
Does this not just show that x is nilpotent, so the only case in which this is true is if x=0?
Cant have a nilpotent element in a domain
the humble 0
Well yes, only 0
0 DOESNT EXIST
Well you have this chain no matter what x is
THE FEDS LIED TO YOU
But the artinian condition tells you it stabilizes
Yes okay, but this means that x^{n+1} \in (x^n) for some n
Thats always true
No... Right?
The other way around, you get that x^n in (x^n+1) for some n
Yeah x^n in (x^n+1)
Wait what
x^n+1 = x^n * x in (x^n)
Because who tf uses x as an element in R??? It's mad confusing
Technically it shouldn't matter
But still
Cuz x looks pretty
Acquired taste
$\mathcal{X}$
DM Modmail For A New Nickname
Ew
Goated
Ok so I know then that x^n is in (x^{n+1})
Something something character variety
And what does that give you? What are the elements of (x^n+1)
,, \mathfrak{X}
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
Isn't (x^n+1) just x^{n+1}R?
Yes
(a)=(b) gives you b=ua for some unit u
Right
(in a domain at least)
Yes, domain, forgot
oh my science
And now what?
a=x^n+1, b=x^n, plug in
Damn
Right
And since x was chosen random, x must be invertible
Cool
Now there's another exercise 😅
It says: given an artenian ring R such that the intersection of all prime ideals is trivial. Show that there exists a finite amount of prime ideals P_1, ..., P_n such that their intersection is trivial
Now im trying to think of a non domain where two principal ideals are generated by non associate elements
I'm sure the Z/nZ will give you plenty of examples
all ideals are principal
Yeah
can't be fucked to do it though so go wild
(2) and (4) in Z6 i think
4 = -2
Ah shit
Genius ooc quote
What on earth
Its 7 am and I didnt sleep at all so maybe this isnt the best time for me to be pondering this
Uhhh
Jk
(3) and (6) in Z/Z9... no wait! (4) and (8) in Z/12Z... no wait! (5) and (10) in Z/15Z... no wai
Fuck my chudslop equivalent up to renaming life
Do i even know any non domains that arent Z/nZ
... any matrix ring?
Oh probably
Polynomial rings?
Or definitely
0
eeughh noncommutativeee
Ok ig n = 1
that mf has only a single element
oh wait we're asking for non domains
Empty ring
Honestly the 0 ring is based asf
(Ragebait)
that mf can't even map into any other ring
useless ahh
"How did you know I secretly work for the IRA and am trying to get you to pay federal taxes?"
It can, just only to the 0 subring in that other ring
requiring the multiplicative identity to be preserved is hold over from the dark ages of model theory
k[e]/(e^2)
What the hell is k or e
0 subring 🥀
NONUNITAL CHUD ALERT
If you work with rings with identity aka are sane then what wew said is correct
(hence the quotient by e^2)
Wait a damn minute
I don't like 0 being a subobject because the initial object should not have any subobjects
the biggest UA texts use nonunital rings I hate my people 💔
Is k[e]/(e^2) not just k[e]
With nonunital rings 0 is initial rather than Z
Wym bro 😭 any object is a subobject of itself??
Or did I assume ur talking about dual numbers
I'm actually gonna slime u out lil bro
yeah?
0 is not the object itself?
but all rings are unital
By definition yes
but ring homomorphisms need not preserve the multiplicative identity
Why must you hurt me like this
it's called a full subcategory chud you might want to google it
?? Lol
great job on angering both algebraists and model theorists
look in the mirror boss man
Ok anyways imma do my homework because my algebra exam is literally monday
Have fun you guys
exams in the glamorous 26 💔
good luck
Could've just stopped at "exams 🥀 "
Foidchasing receipt paper touching Wikipedia ignoring chud vs based agarthan positive canthal tilt having Google gemini observing alpha male
my gonal angle isn't even crystallographic lil bro I mog you six ways to sunday
no
Why is it bumpin in here
Reference to the hit six seven meme
This message lowkey cleared ts out
"Google gemini observing alpha male"
intersection of one prime >= intersection of two primes >= intersection of three primes>=… I think. I know nothing about fundamental staffs, any issue in set theory occurs this way?
Oh set of finite intersection of prime ideals
Having a minimal
Consider the set S of all finite intersections of primes.
Then use Zorn
(First prove it satisfies the conditions of Zorn's lemma)
Wouldn't this work?
I guess more precisely you can consider the set of finite intersections of primes which then has a minimal element by being Artinian and then this is kinda obviously 0 by the hypothesis
Yes
Yeah. It’s just that I forgot why chains being stable <-> any subset having a minimal/maximal are equivalent in the first place. Former is always indexed by N, latter indexed by any set
Well that is exactly what Zorn's lemma is for
It's clear that if every nonempty collection of ideals has a minimal element, then every descending sequence stabilises. Conversely, if a nonempty collection does not have a minimal element, then you can pick any element, pick one smaller than that, etc etc to create a non-stabilising descending sequence
Oh
DCC <=> every subset has minimal element doesnt use zorn?
Yeah, memory back
Ye by the above
Still uses like dependent choice ig
Ye my point was not rly about set theory but more just that the style of argument isn't rly Zorny
I suppose its because every chain stabilizes rather than just has its bound in the set
I guess the obvious thing is just to freely construct an example, e.g.
k[x, y, z, w]/(y = xz, x = yw)
Of course k[X \cup Y] where X and Y are algebraic sets such that X is not contained in Y and vice versa
how do i show rank of free abelian group is well define?
and free product of Z/2Z and Z/2Z is not free group?
why would it be? it has two non-trivial relators
el classico PSL(2, Z) is the free product of Z/2Z and Z/3Z
what do you mean by it has two non-trivial relators?
the free product is <a,b |a^2 = b^2 = 1> = <a,b | a^2 = 1, b^2 = 1>
yes
so how is that free when it has relators lol
One way is to go from Z to Q. Like if you have two isomorhisc free abelian groups then this gives you a linear map between Q-vector spaces of the same ranks, and now you use that dimension is well-defined
i know for vector space rank is well define
ah, I just know free object in terms of category language but i don't know much about free group just universal property
a group is free if and only if it has no relators and it's a good exercise to show that this is equivalent to the categorical definition
and if basis exists then its cardinality is unique, i think we don't need aoc here( existence preassumed)
okay, relators mean, there is some relations between generators?
have you not seen presentations before?
i seen but i am not sure about terminology
like, writing a group as <X|Y> where X is some set of generators and Y the set of relations
yeah
I swap between relations and relators because I'm silly so my apologies in advance - they mean the same thing
np
yeah so like, if you want to prove that, say G = <x | x^5 = 1> isn't a free group, you can map {x} into any group H whose order is coprime to 5, but because x^5 = 1 in G, by Lagrange there cannot be a homomorphism extending your map {x} -> H
you can do this same game with any relation in your G, so free groups cannot have any relations at all
there are only silly examples where a group with relations is still free
like <a, b, c| c = 1>
yeah ok when I say "any relations" I mean any set of relations which can't be turned into the empty set by applying Tietze transformations
but that's a lot of words
oh i haven't heard of tietze transformations before
they're exactly what you think they are LOL
i mean i've only heard of, like, tietze extension theorem
"u can add a generator along with the relation that generator = some relation, and any relation that is logicially deductible from other relations can be removed"
you have to phrase the latter by uhhh
the relation to be removed has to be writable as some word in the free group generated by the other relations? it's a tad complicated
Just today I read this:
Somewhat unusual definition/approach, at least not the same that I’ve seen in Wikipedia
i am following this definition, it is from Hungerford, so initially we have function a: GROUP -> SET between categories( not functor) with some property, here they denote g(G) as G, so i think you assumed a as forgetful map but what about if there exists other such map g, and how do i choose X, here you choosed X as {x}
this is pretty much how I learnt it icl
X is the generating set for your group
why the hell are they doing it with a CONCRETE CATEGORY and not just saying "it's the adjoint to the forgetful functor, so there's a bijection of hom sets"??? they're going to this generality and then not taking advantage of it? That's terrible
okay, can you tell me your definition of free group?
I think this definition is fine but like. Not for first learning about free groups
the free group on a set X is the set of all words in X, together with formal inverses, with the group operation being concatenation and cancellation of words
and with some universal property?
well no, you prove that this group has that universal property
oh
hence the two definitions are equivalent up to unique iso
so universal property is if there is a f: X -> G then there exists unique homo g: F -> G which extends f. where F is a free group on X
yur
i think i can see why it is true
I thought this was the standard approach
Hom_Set(X, U(G)) is isomorphic to Hom_Grp(F(X), G) where U is the functor sending a group to its underlying set and F(X) is the free group on X
Free groups should def be taught using universal properties
I think you should introduce both the universal property and the concrete object
yeah of course
same goes for tensor products imo
yeah it's important to know that there actually exists an object satisfying the universal property
The universal property is also a lot less confusing when you compare it to the universal property from linear algebra that students have been using for their entire math career without knowing its a universal property
but then there assumed forgetful mapping
This is how any free object is defined
But i suppose introductory textbooks tend to aim for a construction first approach
using the grothendieck completion of the free monoid is brave
Tbh it's a lot easier to prove things about the free monoid
so I kinda like that approach
But honestly trying to do things with the free group completely formally is imo more confusing than it's worth
where you guys learnt this?
fourth year of uni personally
Youre gonna end up with using the universal property under the hood anyways lmao
When I first did free groups my prof did everything super formally using equivalence classes of sequences that are trivial almost everywhere and it's just kinda painful
better to treat the construction somewhat informally imo
and focus on the universal property
A Course in Universal Algebra was my personal first proper experience with free objects (as explicitly mentioned)
free groups in first year, but their universal property only really in 4th year
oh universal algebra is a course
No thats a book, by Sankappanavar and Burris
okay thank you
The classical way to do this is to count the number of homomorphisms from the group to Z/2Z
using the universal property
btw what i need if i want to learn universal algebra?
why?
By the way the universal property you should think about is as being very similar to bases for a vector space
If you have a basis for V, then to define a linear map from V to W it's enough to specify what happens to the basis
yes
And conversely, every linear map is determined by what it does to the basis
for free groups it's exactly the same
i see
so to count the homomorphisms from F(S) to a group G, it's the same as counting the number of functions from S to G
yes
Some interest in more logic stuff, and I'd recommend some group and ring theory
but here we have to basis set so how does counting of functions from S to G helps?
wait
if there two basis with cardinaility x and y then 2^x = 2^y but how do i say x = y
Consider logarithms 😅
no, because x and y are not numbers
Consider categorical logarithms!
It is an interesting question if G is a free group on an infinite set
what?
Sorry, I’m just kidding
But in the case that G is free on a finite set X, then Hom(G, Z/2Z) is finite so it cannot be free on an infinite set
And from there the cardinality of a basis is unique by taking log_2
This is essentially representations of functors
im trying to understand the free group construction thing and i am a bit confused
so dummit and foote uses the analogy from linear algebra "Any set map from the basis S to another vector space V extends uniquely to a linear transformation from F(S) to V"
I'm a bit confused how this actually works tho, in linear algebra
dont you have to specify a basis in both the domain and codomain vector spaces?
how?
i mean the linear transformation is determined by where you send the basis of the domain
but if you have a given vector space codomain, what is the unique way of doing that
If you have a basis for V, b1, .., bn, then any element of V is a linear combination
a1b1 + ... + anbn
So a linear function T has
T(a1b1 + ...) = a1T(b1) + ... + anT(bn)
I.e. it is determined by T(b1), T(b2), ...
oh ok i think i was thinking that for any set S and vector space V, there should only be one map phi
but no, the map phi, S, and V together determine a unique F(S) upto iso
no
I think you might still be confused.
The point is that if S is a basis for V, then V ~= F(S). Because a linear map out of V is uniquely determined by a function out of S
i think its supposed tob e into V
"Theorem 17. Let G be a group, S a set and q; : S � G a set map. Then there is a unique
group homomorphism cJ> : F(S) � G such that the following diagram commutes:"
try some concrete examples.
say V is the vector space of polynomials of a single variable with real coefficients. R^3 is freely generated by S = {e1,e2,e3}.
any function f : S —> V can be extended to a linear function R^3 —> V. test this out with a few functions f.
Yes, the point is that any function from S to a vector space extends to a linear map from F(S). And it does so in a unique way
I guess correcting what you said here:
F(S) only depends on S, but the function S -> V uniquely determines a linear map F(S) -> V
You can think of $F(S)$ as consisting of functions $S \to \mathbb{K}$ with finite support
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
If you have a map $f : S \to V$, then given such a function $g : S \to \mathbb{K}$, you can form the weighted sum $\sum_{s \in S} g(s) \times f(s)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
This is “extending by linearity”
Each element $s \in S$ corresponds to the “indicator function” $\delta_s : S \to \mathbb{K}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Defined by $\delta_s(t) = \begin{cases} 1 \text{ if } s = t \ 0 \text{ otherwise } \end{cases}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Then you have a formula $g = \sum_{s \in S} g(s) \times \delta_s$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
And so any linear map $L$ applied to $g$ must satisfy $L(g) = \sum_{s \in S} g(s) \times L(\delta_s)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
A function $f : S \to V$ can then be thought of as just specifying the values of the linear map on these indicator functions, by $L(\delta_s) := f(s)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Then you extend by linearity!
If you’ve done distribution theory then this is the analog of $f(x) = \int dy f(y) \delta(x - y)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Does that make sense @amber burrow ?
Its probably obvious and i am just dumb, but i am not sure why g is the unique homomorphism that satisfies this property, I mean the projection maps are surjective but not injective so there arent left inverses for these maps in order to compose this left inverse with both sides of g_i=p_i o g
p_i • g=p_i • g’ for all i implies that for any x in G’, i th component of g(x) equals i th component of g’(x) for any i. Which by definition of Cartesian product implies g(x)=g’(x)
ah lol, i was so fixated on composing with an inverse of one these maps that i forgot about everything else 
tysm
have a great day/night
Does every graded ring have a unique homogenous maximal ideal?
For the rings that do have a unique homogeneous maximal ideal, is every prime ideal contained in it? Or is it more like every graded prime ideal is contained in it
Bruns herzog defines something called *local
I dont think the ring itself needs to be local
are you discounting the irrelevant ideal?
I dont think so
Oh ok so i thinj what i said is true then
The definitions arent straight in my head tbh
i think u would usually be more concerned with the prime homogenous ideals than the prime ideals
Reason I asked is to verify if dim R = dim R_m where m is the unique homogeneous maximal ideal (also called irrelevant ideal …?)
I have a question. If G is a finite abelian group with at least 2 elements and Spec(G) = Spec(Aut(G)), then who is G up to isomorphism? Any ideas?
G must have an even order (if not x^-1 has order 2 in Aut(G))
Btw Spec is the spectrum of the group, the set of all element orders
I am trying somehow to show G is a 2-group but i dont really know how
Spec(G) is just the set of all divisors of exp(G)
no. e.g., by projective nullstellensatz, points in P^n (over an alg closed field) correspond to homogeneous maximal ideals of k[x0, ..., xn]
So for every such divisor there must be an automorphism with that order
And such groups exist. For example Z/4Z x Z/2Z
Which graded rings do then?
oh i see you're including the irrelevant ideal
there's a notion of graded local rings
iirc if you have a graded ring A with A_0 local, then A itself is graded local
Irrelevant ideal is the ideal generated by elements of degree “greater than 0” , so like, that only makes sense if its like Z or Z^n graded right
For the “greater than 0” part
i don't really think about gradings other than Z^n so i'm not sure
I mean, if you just give the ring the trivial grading all ideals become homogeneous, and it's of course not true that every ring has a unique maximal ideal.
If you require the degree 0 part to be a field and you're non-negatively graded, then the irrelevant ideal will be the unique maximal homogeneous ideal
I wont care either then. Lol
if G is your additive abelian group giving a grading on R, you can probably define an "irrelevant ideal" analogously by assuming that everything below R_g (for some g in G) is 0
well i guess "below R_g" is ambiguous
probably need some ordering on G
maybe someone else can answer better
Consider for example k[x] with the usual grading. Then (x) is this maximal ideal, and (1+x) is prime (not homogeneous)
Is dim R = dim R_m?
Yea this is nice cuz i always see these hypotheses and i never knew what is used where
I had been studying combinatorial algebra and when checking cohen macaulay property they do so by considering R_m, yet the dimension they use is dim R
The ring in question is nonegative graded
dim R should equal sup dim R_m over all maximal ideals m though
yeah
Ok well basically ive only been considering polynomial rings k[x1, … xn] and the irrelevant ideal is (x1, … xn) , any proper ideal is contained in that so dim R = dim Rm
Maybe i said something wrong idk i wasnt confident w it lol
(x-2) is not in (x) lol nevermind then
It is true that the localization of the polynomial ring at (x1, ..., xn) has the same dimension though
And I guess more generally that any maximal ideal of the polynomial ring has height n
Why is that? I should probably study more dimension theory
Some krull height theorem or something?
I mean there's an automorphism taking any maximal ideal to any other I guess (for k alg closed that is). And more broadly just the like explicitly describing the prime ideals.
Otherwise I guess there's the alggeo picture, k^n does not consist of components of different dimension
You can use that to establish that (x1, ..., xn) has height n sure
Any idea?
I misread the definition of spec, nvm
With multiplicity?
Otherwise I don't see why Z2×Z2 doesn't work
Aut(Z/2 x Z/2) = S3
Which has element of order 3
oh
I think Z/2 x Z/4 might be an example though
Yes that is one example i found too
okay I Have been staring at this for way too long, probably because I have pretty little experience with tensor products of modules. I am finding them hard to work with. Currently I am looking at the claim that (A ⊗ l) ∩ K(A) = A.
This makes intuitive sense to me, but I don't get how to work with the tensor product in a nice way to show it. I assume I want to look at the elements like a/s ⊗ 1 and show that if that is equal to some linear combination inA ⊗ l then s is actually a unit in A. But I do not have a clue how to do that. I do think it is clear that all the elments in the linear combation have the second component in k instead l though.
Z/2Z times Z/2Z times Z/3Z also works
Did you obtain anything? Like a range of p or the range of power for each p, I haven’t though. I tried to deduce power of odd p<=1 and there is no p>=5 both haven’t succeeded yet…
I also thought about trying to create a bilinear map to something to try to learn about the tensor product. Alternatively, I guess I want to try to find some combination of terms that equals 0 so I can assert that the left hand side is 0? I guess if I have a value of k on the right side I can just move it to the left?
I guess the trick is that if I can rule out that the right hand side has any element of b_2, ... then I can move over the k factor from rhs to left and have 1 on the rhs of the tensor, then equate the two lhs and be done
x in the intersection, meaning x otimes 1=x otimes b1=Σ ai otimes bi for some ai in A. But you already have K(A) otimes l is a field extension over K(A) with basis 1 otimes bi, it forces x=a_1 in A, and a_i=0 for i>=2
oh wait I guess once I have that the tensor product with k is just A right?
What tensor with what
that that part shows that A tensor l intersect K(A) is A tensor k
and A tensor k is A
I think I have all the steps I just cant convince myself I actually showed the statement
If you can show this, sure. Though I don’t know how you did. I simply used the fact that K(A) is a field over k, thus flat, tensor_{k} with injection k->l is still injective, thus K(A) otimes l has 1 otimes bi as a basis, thus compare coefficients x=a_1 in A
ok so when you write x otimes 1=x otimes b1=Σ ai otimes bi for some ai in A
you have something slightly different, i had
f/g otimes 1=x otimes b1=Σ ai otimes bi for some ai in A
so I still was wanting to show that the representation on the left was actually f/g in A. But I think I see how to finish that now
can you explain what you meant by flat?
i think "thus flat, tensor_{k} with injection k->l is still injective" is the part that I am not understanding
nvm I think I found something to read about that
exactly the same thing can be said to A: k is a field, any k-module is free (thus flat), so A otimes_{k} applied to the injection k->l is still injective
How do we calculate order of elements of Aut(A_p) in general? Where A_p is a p-finite abelian group. A_p is direct sum of Z/p^ei Z where 1<=e1<=…<=en. I know Aut(A_p) is the group of {n by n integer matrices M such that p^(ei-ej) | M_ij, and M mod p is in GL(n, F_p)} quotient {matrices N such that p^ei | N_ij} But how to calculate their order? In fact a special case, how to calculate order of elements of GL(n, F_p)?
Seems like it’s not an elementary problem. I thought there were existing results
In fact a special case, how to calculate order of elements of GL(n, F_p)?
You could always do something like
k = |G|
for each prime factor d of |G|:
while d|k and M^(k/d) == I:
k = k/d
This assumes you can factor |G|, but then at least should be faster than the naive "compute successive powers of M until you hit I".
I see
Now I wonder if we can start with a smaller upper bound for the element order than |G|, though. |G| itself is surely too large since GL(n,F_p) is not abelian.
I heard someone mentioned a paper titled polynomial time theory of matrix groups might be relevant
Hmm, |GL(n,p)| is (p^n-1)(p^(n-1)-1)···(p^2-1)(p-1)·p^(n(n-1)/2), and most of the final factors of p cannot appear in the order of M.
Namely, move temporarily to an appropriate algebraic extension of F_p where the charpoly of M splits. We can then write M in Jordan normal form. Each Jordan block λI+N becomes I when we raise it to k=(p^n-1)(p^(n-1)-1)···(p^2-1)(p-1)·p -- the binomial expansion of (λI+N)^k becomes λ^k·I+N^k because p|k; the multiplicative order of λ divides one of the (p^i-1) factors; and N^k disappears because even p^n-1 alone is >= n.
In fact, we can also omit the p^i-1 factors where i<n/2 because p^i-1 always divides p^2i-1.
Or better yet: instead of the product of p^n-1 down to p-1 we can take their lcm, since only one of them is relevant for each Jordan block.
I see. Thanks a lot. Should have thought using Jordan. I think it can be done over a finite extension of F_p right
Yeah.
Thanks
Most of the p become p^m, except the final factor of p itself which was just there to be the characteristic rather than the size of the field.
I see
I have a question, is there an 'easy' method to find all normal groups, the center and the commutator group of a given group G?
And with easy method I mean something simpler than looking at all elements and checking the definition for center, or looking at all subgroups and checking the definition for normal subgroup
No
Sadge
Omg
Ok so it is not a p-group like I thought
The first isomorphism theorem can be helpful sometimes. For example the commutator subgroup is the intersection of kernels of all maps from G to an abelian group.
Identifying such homomorphisms is sometimes less work than checking all elements.
Similarly normal subgroups are exactly kernels of homomorphisms, so you could for example find all normal subgroups of index n by finding all surjective homomorphisms from G onto group of order n (this is not too hard if you know all groups of order n)
Nico
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Nop
$\usepackage{dsfont}
\mathds{C} / \mathds{R}
$
$\usepackage{dsfont} \mathds{C} / \mathds{R}$
Nico
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Nico
Yay
What is this? Is this just (isomorphic to) R?
And what is $(\mathbb{C},+) / (\mathbb{R},+)$?
Nico
I meant $[(\mathbb{C},+) / (\mathbb{R},+)]$
Nico
That's what I thought you were asking
Oh no
what did you mean by C/R if not the additive groups
Real vector spaces, perhaps.
Yes I did
But now I mean the index of R in C
What is the index of R in C?
Is it like
ah, it'd be uncountably infinite
Omega
as a group
omega isn't a cardinality but it's larger
What is omega, then?
I thought it was also some infinite size
Or is omega the first ordinal number after aleph null?
Idk how to explain
it's an ordinal, aleph null is a cardinal not an ordinal
Yeah but I mean
After aleph null amount of numbers, the number 'after that' would be the omega-th number
Or something
but really referring to specific cardinals besides "countable" and "uncountable" is not really something you do outside of set theory
Ah
no, aleph 1 would be the first cardinal after
So I should just answer this as 'the amount of all real numbers'?
Yeah it would just be the cardinality of the real numbers
As a group though, if you mean index as a field extension then its 2
idk which kind of a course this is for
Excuse me?
Introductory abstract algebra
or as vector spaces it's index 2
alright then yeah uncountable, because the index is just the cardinality of the quotient
https://arxiv.org/pdf/math/0605185 I havent read the whole paper but this paper aims to find Aut(G) for any finite abelian group G
Thank you. Someone recommended exactly it to me before. This is from where I know Aut(G) is group of matrices of the said form.
ohhh i see, actually i was searching for some results about Aut(G) in general because of a question asked in this channel a few days ago that i found interesting, and i stumbled on this paper in the process
It seems all the ways lead to it.
sotrue
ngl we are taking vector spaces soon
and i see a lot of questions that ask
prove that (an equation) is a vector subspace of R
lie
like
A = (x,y,z <= R^3 : 2x+3y-z=0 ) , B=R^3 , we need to prove A is a vector subspace of B (B is a vector space over R)
we are taking it in a week but im kinda into finishing it rn
Boy do i have the perfect channel for you
Yeah, vector space exercises go in #linear-algebra.
(But you seem to have neglected to ask a question about that exercise).
You can do it Gibbons! Solve that exercise
show that the kernel of every linear transformation is a subspace, and then prove that A is the kernel of some linear transformation and you're done!
I think it's more instructive to do it directly the first few times, and then notice that the argument generalizes.
(For one thing, recognizing that expression as a linear transformation is about the same amount of work as showing the subspace properties directly).
I mean atp just go all the way into the generality of 0-regular varieties where 0 generates a trivial subalgebra
yeah lol I was jesting
too many of these kinds of exercises and it becomes a slog though
probably not how you spell it
I feel like for the problem I asked this suggests to look on Zsigmondy primes in the order of Aut(G)? The formula for the order is quite hard
I wonder if Z/2Z x Z/4Z and Z/2Z x Z/6Z are the only solutions
hey just wondering what does Z/nZ mean
It reminds me something
Given a finite group H, there are only finitely many isomorphism classes of finite groups G whose automorphism group is isomorphic to H.
Pretty cool
Residue classes modulo n additive group
Is a set of 2 sets: the set of integers that have remainder 0 when we divide them by 2 + the set of integers that have remainder 1 when we divide them by 2
You may saw this written like Z_2, but this notation Z/2Z tells us this is a factor group. 2Z is a normal subgroup of Z, and the group Z/2Z is just a group of cosets of 2Z in Z. This sets called residue classes are equivlance classes and the form a partition of Z
In my problem I think as the order of G has more distinct primes then somehow Aut(G) creates new primes in his order but I don’t have any idea how to prove that. Even that if we assume G is a p-group (2-group cuz it’s even), it’s still very hard to manage the orders of the automorphisms
Does anyone have a source which lists subgroup lattices for some small groups?
Brilliant, thank you
ok i think this gave me a better idea about them
thank you
What is a generalised quaternion group?
How do u get n <= ht(x1, ... xn)?
oh thats obvious part
(0) < (x1) < (x1,x2) ...
ok i finally understand why dim Rm = dim R for R a face ring and m = (x1, ... xn)
i find bruns herzog a challenging text there are always so many details that i dont understand without really going into it
A generalisation of the quaternion group
😇
IIRC it's the group that has presentation <i,x | i^4=1, x^n=1, i^2x=xi^2>.
Cool
Also completely other, unrelated question, if R is a ring, when is R[x] a domain?
Maybe you can try this yourself. How can two things in R[x] multiply to 0?
If the coefficients of every power of x is 0
here's a nice exercise for it
(assuming A is a comm ring w/ 1)
Lol
no?
In case you don't want to do the whole exercise:
If R is not a domain, could R[x] be?
I have "if R is a domain, then the units in R[x] are the units in R"
And stronger: $(R[x])^{\times} = (R)^{\times} \Leftrightarrow R$ has no nonzero nilpotents
Nico
There are a and b in R, both nonzero, such that ab = 0
So if there are such a and b, could R[x] be a domain?
And what do elements look like in R[x]
Polynomials
So you can write
f = ...
$f = \sum a_ix^i; g = \sum b_ix^i$
Nico
And then their product will be what?
$fg = \sum (\sum a_ib_jx^{i+j}$
Nico
And what does it mean for this to be 0?
But fg = 0 so a_ib_j=0 for all x^{i+j}
But a_i and b_j are in R
So R is not a domain
Yeah.
So it's a little more complicated since i + j can be equal for different i and j, but you can look at the leading coefficient for example
Yeah, but writing down the product of 2 sums with sigma notation kinda sucks
Yeah, in this case it's much easier without using sigmanotation
$fg = \sum_{i=0}^{max(n,m} \left( \sum_{j=0}^i c_jx^j\right)$
Nico
So anyways
I have another question
When is the criterion of Eisenstein actually useful?
When you want to prove a polynomial is irreducible
It generalises to any sufficiently nice ring in place of Q (where I can’t remember the correct “sufficiently nice” adjectives)
What is p² in this notation?
It generalizes from Z[x] to any integral domain. Then going from Z to Q should work for UFDs / integrally closed rings
Square of the ideal
As in a subspace of R x R?
I'm confused, I've not heard about the square of an ideal before
It's just the product of the ideal with itself.
I * J = < ij : i in I, j in J >
Ah
Angle brackets means generated
And what can you do with the universal property of free modules?
That also looks kinda niche and unhandy to me
Its the defining property of a free module, first of all
They help a lot for defining maps out of free modules
kan extension
It looks unhandy at first but the more you work with modules the less you start to work with the elements explicitly, and the more you begin thinking in morphisms and diagrams
The basis definition of a free module then becomes annoying and clunky to work with as opposed to the universal property
The universal property is, in fact, a restatement of the existence of a basis, but in terms of morphisms
At least, it's definitely not niche lol because it is one of the most important things in algebra
Having an object with the "free" property
Sure
One thing that follows from the universal property: for every module M there exists some free module F such that there is a surjection F -> M. M is finitely generated iff there exists such F where F is free on a finite set
This is nice because you can sometimes reduce problems down to proving it for (finitely generated) free modules, and prove that it holds for quotients
How does that first statement follow from uni property
Take the underlying set of M
I didnt know uni property can construct free modules for you?
The there is a set function f : M -> M which must extend to a homomorphism f* : F(M) -> M which is surjective as f is surjective too
the universal property tells you what a free module "does"
Let me pedantically write U and F for the forgetful and free functors between sets and modules. Then the identity map U(M) -> U(M) gives you a map FU(M) -> M, and moreover this is surjective, e.g. as we have a factorisation U(M) -> UFU(M) -> U(M)
or just by looking by hand
No because you already know that a free module exists on every set
Because theyre precisely the direct sums of R
Yeah
You can prove this a multitude of different ways, the cleanest are using either Yoneda or the Hom-set isomorphism
I think dummit and foote used some indicator function thing
I.e. notice that Hom_R(R^(X), M) ≈ \prod_x in X Hom_R(R, M) ≈ \prod_x in X M ≈ Hom_Set(X, M)
These are all natural isomorphisms of set-valued functors
I dont think i understand what happened in the second and third =
The first is the definition of a coproduct
triangular identities
The third is just some set theory
for this you do need that the forgetful functor is faithful though
The set of functions from X to Y is naturally (in Y) isomorphic to the product of Y "X times"
you have surjectivity of the map UFU(M) -> U(M), and you use faithfulness to argue that the original map FU(M) -> M must have been epi
power/cotensor
mm this is a little different to that
well kiand said surjective which i assumed meant set-theoretically
but this is also true ye
yeah that's fair
actually i think right adjoint being faithful is equivalent to the counit being epi
and right adjoint being full is equivalent to the counit being split mono
trivial ring
else, the top ideal R is finitely generated, so the ideal lattice has maximal elements
and maximal elements in the ideal lattice are maximal ideals, which are prime
Lattice ok
replace lattice with poset and same thing
you can try to prove it yourself using Zorn
but this is a standard result about compact elements of posets, and it so happens that finitely generated ideals are exactly the compact elements in the ideal poset
well, not like anyone knows order theory nowadays -_- lol
Depends how strongly you believe the axiom of choice 😉
If Big Math gives me the OK then im OK 👌
AoC is equivalent to every nonzero ring having a maximal ideal. The existence of prime ideals is strictly weaker, but still independent of ZF
im trying to do a problem where i show φ(mn)=φ(m)φ(n) iff (m,n)=1. The solution uses the isomorphism between cyclic groups to imply that their multiplicative groups are the size, how is this possible if the isomorphism is a group isomorphism and not a ring one
It is an isomorphism of rings though
its also a ring homomorphism by CRT
ah havent learnt about that yet
😭
i think its soon
I guess you could argue using the automorphism group instead, but then you need to argue that
Aut(Cn x Cm) = Aut(Cn) x Aut(Cm)
the key map comes from the Chinese Remainder Theorem which is a ring isomorphism it respects multiplication and 1 any ring isomorphism sends units to units so it induces an isomorphism between the unit groups and therefore their sizes multiply
notice (n) \cap (m) = (nm) in general, and (n) + (m) = Z iff n and m are coprime. Then as the variety of rings is congruence-permutable just use A Course in Universal Algebra Chapter II Theorem 7.5 to conclude that Z/(nm) = Z/(n) x Z/(m)
😭😭😭
you can always cheat and use φ(n)=n\prod (1-1/p) sotrue
thats what i gotta prove after
which i havr now done
lmaooo
ngl these are how my exams are sometimes
Y is bro giggling
prove it before that and in the next part say "see the solution of the previous part"
why tf did I press enter
because you pressed enter
Wat
To give a serious answer:
Consider the map from Z/(nm) -> Z/(n) x Z/(m):
a + (nm) -> <a + (n), a + (m)>
Show that this map is well-defined, and in show that it is injective whenever n and m are coprime. Then by comparing sizes conclude that it must be surjective
yes, this is slightly different from CRT, as it uses finiteness rather than 1 in (n) + (m)
yeahh
thats what i was trying to do but it jhst got long and i couldnt be bothered
shouldn't take more than like 2/3s a page
I also have an approach. φ(m)φ(n)=φ(d)φ(l), and mn=dl, where d=gcd(m,n), l=lcm(m,n). So you can just show φ(d)φ(l)=φ(dl) for some d|l iff d=1, pretty straightforward
(Smith form tells us Z/mZ times Z/nZ is isomorphic to Z/dZ times Z/lZ)
Pinter strikes again with his left/right inconsistencies:
He uses right cosets, and f . g = f(g(x)), so this exercise just doesn’t work and h is not a homomorphism. The fix is either switch to f . g = g(f(x)), or to left cosets and xH |-> (ax)H. @rocky cloak - another typo? 🙂
why is this called "a sharper cayley theorem"
Not sure, it looks like he ends up proving something weaker actually, but I haven’t got to the end yet 🙂
If you prove something like “the kernel is the core of H”, then it’s stronger
Otherwise, it’s neither weaker nor stronger, it’s just closely related
Yeah 3 proves what I was saying
4 then makes it explicit that this is a sharper Cayley
(That set in 3 is called the core of H)
So it is stronger because for a normal Cayley we can just take H = 1, but this also proves more isomorphisms?
I was somewhat confused initially, and superficially thought that it’s weaker because it shows some isomorphism only when there are conditions on H, (and normal Cayley shows unconditional isomorphism), but now I read it more carefully and see why it’s “sharper”
Yes
Plainly, its sharper because there always is a case that implies cayley
(H = 1)
i have a (probably silly) question, why are all the coefficients of f_1 in A?
By definition, each of the coefficients of f(X) is divisible by cont(f)
So you can factor out cont(f) and still have a polynomial f_1 with coefficients in A
sure, but i mean the coefficients of f are in Frac(A). So why would the coefficients necessarily become elements of A after factoring out cont(f)
Oh I see. If the coefficients belong to Frac(A) and are not in A, then ord_p(f) will be (negative) the largest power of p dividing one of the coefficients. So once you factor that out, none of the coefficients have denominator divisible by p. Once you repeat for all irreducibles, all of the denominators are in fact units of A hence the coefficients lie in A itself
Yes, I figured that two messages above 😉
ohhhh right i see, tysm for the insight. have a great day/night!
so this means any polynomial f(X) which has a factorization in K[X] also has a factorization in A[X] right? K is the quotient field of A
because c_gc_h in A and g_1,h_1 in A[X] so one can rewrite f(X) as g_2(X)h_1(X) where g_2(X)=c_gc_hg_1(X)
so this means any polynomial f(X) which has a factorization in K[X] also has a factorization in A[X] right? K is the quotient field of A
your statement here is too general
is it wrong tho
I mean too general implicitly means that its wrong ig
but where does it go wrong
ah right well its implicitly assumed
i think im getting my terms mixed up
like its one of the hypothesese of gauss's lemma, and this is a corollary of gauss's lemma
integrally closed is the name
yea its a factorial ring, or a unique factorization domain
does this mean that every element has a factorization into irreducible elements which is unique up to a unit?
ohh i see 
yeah i was getting it mixed up with the zeros bering part of the domain instead of just the factorization being valid on the base ring
so it does hold for factorial rings
btw whats the difference between algebraic and integral closure
i am not a good person to ask clearly since i just misread what you originally posted 😆
it looks like integral closures only care about monic polynomials?
at least you knew the term
i would search up what it actually means cuz im confused
here comes Mr. Peace
yes, given a ring homomorphism f : A -> B (or in particular a subring A < B), an element b is integral over A if it is the root of a monic polynomial with coefficients in A
uhh I think it's iff A[b] is a finite A-module
One direction of that is fairly easy to see (as it will be generated by a finite subset of { 1, b, b^2, b^3, ... }
for the other uhhh I'm pretty sure you can use lattice theory for that? If you've got an algebraic closure operator and X = C(S) for some finite S, then for any T such that C(T) = X, there is a finite subset T0 of T with C(T0) = X
yeah because X will be a compact element and you can just take the cover X = \bigvee_{t in T} C(t)
of course you will know what the details mean @thorn jay
i didnt read the details and i will probably have to look up some terms in order to have a chance to understand the argument
but i sent the proof of lang anyways
oh integral closure is relative to a field i think that is why i was getting vonfused by the terms
so you can say like Z is integrally closed in Q
for INT 1 => INT 2 is super weird
If X^n + a_n-1 X^n-1 + ... + a_0 = 0, then X^n (and thus all higher powers) are an element of the A-module generated by { X^n-1, X^n-2, ..., 1 }
so you're done
uhhh
it outsources the technical details of the argument

it could at least tell you where the forward reference is to
instead of yeah we will prove that later
istg 😭
Bosch's Algebraic geometry and Commutative algebra has this proof but like actually told properly
its just that i jumped to chapter 10 in order to check this
nothing related to this mentioned in chapter 4 (the chapter i am reading rn)
I still don't really think I "get" what integral extensions are
I guess they're generalisations of algebraic numbers and algebraic extensions of fields
well i think your original question is answered by the fact that you do have a ufd assumption since youre using gauss' lemma and ufds are integrally closed in their fraction field
ohh so integral closure is related to whats going on i see
tho the proofs doesnt use integral closure as far as i can see, at least not explicitly
bad ring!
bad ring!
so in general given a ring A which is integrally closed in its quotient field K, if f(X) in A[X] has a factorization in K[X] then it also has a factorization in A[X]?
x^2 + x - 1 = 0 seems to be a ring that factors in K(Z(sqrt(5)) but not in Z(sqrt(5))
i dont know if that requires UFD or if integrally closed alone is enough
cause integrally closed only tells us about the roots of monic polynomials
hell yeah determinant trick
but clearly your text is only providing it for ufd rn
🔥 trick
well the answer to my question is yes and it follows from the corollary in the image (since A is a UFD), but the example of Z[sqrt(5)] and K(Z[sqrt(5)]) shows that it need not hold for integrally closed rings over their quotient fields
Z(sqrt(5)) is not integrally closed, it just shows that it does not hold for rings that are not even integrally closed
we would need an example ring that is integrally closed but is not a ufd
i think i have some if you want to play around
k[w,x,y,z]/(wz - xy)
Z(sqrt(-5)) should be integrally closed...
wait how, i mean x^2-x+1 has coefficients in Z[sqrt(5)] and its roots are in K(Z[sqrt(5)]) no?
integrally closed should mean that if the root is in the fraction field, its in itself
ah wait right, i was looking at the definition of an integral element over a ring lol
mb
Z(sqrt(-5)) is apparently integrally closed though
oh i misread something else
i was wondering why it would be different than Z(sqrt(5))
x^2+sqrt(-5)x-3 doesnt have roots in Z[sqrt(-5)]
ohh i see
yea thats a nice trick
(idk the trick bc i didnt even read the page)
now i am confused
the cool thing about the determinant trick is that it works as long as your ring of scalars is unital and commutative
because that's all you need for the adjugate matrix to exist
its always exercises labelled easy the wrong exercises
your example doesnt work because the root is not in the fraction field
i think this text takes integrally closed to mean integrally closed over K()
ohhh i see, I think I might check the proof soon. Tho its still a few chapters away lol, but I might jump to it and see it idk
2x^2 + 2x + 3 should factor over the fraction field but not over the ring
if i did a bit of mathing correct
so integrally closed over the fraction field is not strong enough, need ufd
after i fix my typos at least
this one doesnt
i corrected the sign
i made the same mistake when typing into wolfram alpha before typing into discord
the first one you gave also works, ie 2x^2+x-3 because its roots are 1 and -3/2
that one better factor over Z then lol
the adjugate matrix is so scary
like why do you exist
That one humble paragraph in atiyah macdonald
if I close my eyes it won't hurt me
wait so this is wrong?
its true for ufd
I mean Z is a ufd 
(x-1)(2x-3)
ah yea nvm i am stupid rn
forget what i said
alright so the conclusion is that it has to do with ufd but not with integral closure
yeah
i see, tysm and sorry if i confused you midway
i think i confused myself
by thinking that integral closure could generalize it
i guess that it probably would, for monic polynomials only...
which is that integral elements should be roots of monic polynomials, so this doesnt count?
i guess it may still not work
because the factor might not be degree 1
not sure if you could say anything about it if it factors an irreducible quadratic in the fraction field
Okay so far i didn't use the fact E is finite Galois extension of F, so maybe I need this for define a functor Field_E -> O_G^op such that it will be inverse for given functor
So here can I extend any field morphism K -> L ( Field_E ^ F ) to automorphism E -> E ?
You mainly need that for the being a bijection on objects part
I am trying to show they are both isomorphic
I am trying to define a functor Field_E -> O_G^op
So any K will go to { \phi \in G | \phi(k) = k for all k in K }
But to map a morphism f: K -> L i need some more things
Any hint?
If E is normal you can extend maps K -> E to automorphisms of E
Sorry I don't know much field theory, what does it mean here E is normal?
That polynomials with a root has all roots in E.
Something is Galois iff it is normal and seperable
I see
I guess a more direct approach could be to notice that if you compose the embedding
K -> E with an automorphism of E, then it is fixed iff the automorphism fixes K. So the set of embeddings K -> E is your G-set
From here there is a fairly natural way to turn embeddings L -> E into embeddings K -> E given a map K -> L
embedding means injective mapping, right?
Yeah. All homomorphisms here are injective, so I guess you can just say homomorphism
yes
yes, composition but i don't see the use of G set here
What do you mean? G is the automorphisms of E
i mean yes we can turn L -> E into K -> E given a map K -> L, by composition
but i don't know its importance here
I'm not sure I understand.
You wanted a functor from intermediate fields to this category of G-sets, and this is it
I guess you still have to prove these G-sets are transitive. But this is at least a nice description of the functor
but that category O_G^op how isomorphic to this category of G-sets?
Hm this might be related to what’s called a grothendieck construction

You’re essentially taking the category of elements of a functor G -> Set
To get the orbit category
elements of functor?
ok no no no no no we're not doing this
This is analogous to how you can take a function X -> {0, 1} and get a subset out of it
Any set-valued functor has an associated category of elements
actually it flat out spells it out in the image you posted lol
the correspondence H -> G/H yields a functor from O_G^op -> G-set
then, as jagr said, once you have that all of the G-sets arising from the functor he constructed are transitive, you can take the preimage under the functor O_G^op -> G-Set and you get back into O_G^op
man, it is interesting i don't know what's going on but still interested
i.e., brainrot
Welcome to category theory
how k(x) is isomorphic to subfield of k((x)), formal power series?
i mean how do i map 1/ g(x) ?
does for each such function there exists power series which converges to g?
Let L be a field and K a subfield of L. Prove that char(K)=char(L)
Obviously we know that $char(K) \leq char(L)$ but now I have to prove that $char(L) \leq char(K)$ to prove the equality but im stuck on that part
you_are_me
i could use a little push in the right direction
Prove something stronger
Char(K) divides Char(L)
Then ||what do you know about characteristics of fields?||
I mean the objects are G-sets G/H, and the morphisms are G-equivariant maps....
oh ok i found the theorem abt char(F) having to be prime or 0
thanks
I think K((x)) are formal laurent series, which is the fraction field of the ring of formal power series k[[x]]
how does opne go about proving an element is transcendent?
That will depend essentially on what you already know about the element.
lets say pi
The proof there is a corollary of the Lindemann-Weierstrass theorem (which I don't know how to prove).
soo the proof is beyond the average algebra student capabilities?
Yes.
I think even proving pi is irrational is tricky
what abt e then?
It’s actually fairly easy to prove e is irrational
the proof abt irrationality of e is in our textboook
but prove that it is transcendent?
Fairly difficult but doable compared to pi I believe
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lindemann–Weierstrass_theorem contains a proof (or at least something that claims to be a proof, I haven't read it in detail).
yeah if its beyond the scope of an algerba course then i wont rlly bother with it
i already have enough stuff im confused abt lol
It's at least as much analysis as it's algebra.
im not much better at analysis lmao maybe i will take a look at it after the exams
yes
So... Polynomials live naturally inside the ring of formal power series, so it should make sense that fractions of polynomials live in the fraction field of the ring of formal power series
[ Q( 2^1/4, √3 ) : Q ] = 8 because we can write [ Q( 2^1/4, √3 ) : Q ] = [Q(2^1/4, √3) : Q(2^1/4) ] [ Q(2^1/4) : Q ].
So it is enough to show x^2 - 3√2 is irreducible over Q(√2) = Q[√2], which i showed explicitly, because if a+b√2 is a root then we have a^2 + 2b^2 = 0 and 2ab = 3, so it gives already a = b = 0
I mean no solution can exist simultaneously
That’s enough yeah
This isn’t quite enough
subobjects are monomorphisms and exact functors preserve monomorphisms trollface
Yeah but when you localize at the complement of 0 from the polynomial ring you don’t know this adds enough denominators to actually give the fraction field of the overring
You have to localize the target even further and use that since the target is an ID it embeds into any localization of itself
I'm claiming that a localisation of a subring is a subring of the localisation. Nothing more
Yeah yeah but you need to do a trivial amount more to get it to extend to fraction fields
It’s not worth even saying whatever
I just didn’t want someone to walk away thinking that if S = A\{0} then S^-1B = Frac(B)
Whateverrrrrrrr
sure I can concede that. Perhaps I need a stronger tone indicator than ":trollface:"
I don’t even care dude just leave it alone bro I never even cared that much to begin with bro like seriously I’m done, I’m done with this I got over it ages ago bro
Yeah well I literally never even cared chat chat I don't care chat no chat that's fine I don't care I literally don't care chat I don't I don't care chat
insert wojack sticker
chmonkey more like dont even caremonkey
nonchmonkeyalant
More like amanono
Corollary 1.26, let denote L be the set of all such elements which are algebraic over F, then proposition 1.23, F(L) is algebraic over F, i.e., F(L) \subset L, so L = F(L), hence L is a field, right?
For an alternative proof, if alpha and beta are algebraic over F then F(alpha, beta) contains all their sums and products but is contained in L. So L is closed under field operations
yes
x^4 -24x^2 + 4 is irreducible over Q, right?
and \sqrt5 + \sqrt 7 is a root
therefore Q(\sqrt 5 + \sqrt 7) = Q(\sqrt 5, \sqrt7)
I could use a little help figuring out part 1.
Here's what I know: if we take the coefficients $mod p,$ $(Z/pZ)[x]$, we see that $f=x^k (x^{n-k}+\cdot+a_k)$ (modulo p).
However, my issue is whether or not this can actually tell us there exists a factorization in Z[x]
dackid
It also says a factor of degree at least k, but this'll pull out a factor of degree exactly k