#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 377 of 1
And showing that they are not homotopic
Anyways this is not very helpful if you don't know algebraic topology so I'll just stop
i am doing alg top and that question is in my notes
Oh cool. Look at the wedge of two circles then
I'll give you a headaway
You can show pi_1(S^1 wedge S^1) is non abelian without computing the fundamental group
i have to read about what is exactly wedge, is it co-product of pointed spaces S^1?
i don't get how this is related to my question?
What is the fundamental group of the "8"
sorry no idea
So you haven't seen seifert van kampen theorem yet
That's okay
You'll see it later on
i saw this version
Z
.
but in S1 wedge S1, what are my X0, X1, X2?
okay
Yeah the entire point is to use less Algebra now, but it's too much hassle sometimes, but also it's a fun thinking geometrically excercise
but how do i find its fundamental group?
It's okay if you can't, don't waste much time one it
What
Seifert van kampen
Seifert and van Kampen gives that fundamental group is pushout, does it gives full construction of fundamental group?
I'm saying you had to prove that it's non abelian right
You can do that geometrically too
how?
How about you ping me or dm me later i gtg, basically this
Sorry this
It does, because we know what pushouts of groups are
So I'm back now and another hint is you can easily draw the universal cover of "8"
Why are you guys crazy overcomplicating this lmao
You shouldn't have to think about algebraic topology to answer this question
(though of course you can if you want)
Yeah, its basically just, there exists a group with two elements that don't commute, so by universal property it's not abelian
I feel like this is way more complicated than “figure out why finding a group with two elements that don’t commute solves your problem”
Yeah I think I said it's a fun geometric excercise
Uh i have no intent in saying it's easier or better
In any aspect
If I have non-trivial groups G and H is there an easy argument that G x H cannot be isomorphic to a free product of possibly infinitely many other non-trivial groups? If either G or H has nontrivial center, then also G x H has non trivial center and then its clear to me, but I dont see or found an easy argument for the general case.
In a free product distinct factors do not commute, whereas in G x H every element in G commutes with every element of H
I believe this forces G and H to be entirely contained in one factor
but you'd have to work out the details
Ill need some time to think about this (im not a group theorist) thank you
I dont quite see how the commutativity quite gives you that G and H have to be in the same factor, for example you have that (g,1) and (1,h) commute, but that could also be because they are both a power of some word w in the free product (ill think about it a bit more though)
Hi, I'm looking at a question that is about proving that for a field F with q elements if d | q-1 then x^d - 1 has d distinct roots in F.
I went to consider F^x which of course has q-1 elements but came to the point where I want to find a subgroup of order d but cannot really prove its existence. I just wanted to know if it is possible? the ideas I had in my head were cauchy's theorem or the classification of finitely generated abelian groups. I haven't really learnt about sylow's theorems so don't know much about that
F^x is cyclic
And any finite subgroup of F^x for any field F is cyclic
Which you can prove by noting that F^x has at most one subgroup of every order, and showing that there must be a subgroup of order n = |F^x| by counting the the amount of elements of each ordet in F^x.
what if i wasn't to use that fact?
Could i perhaps use the classification of finitely generated abelian groups to say that we can have a subgroup of order d?
Ah
I mean say if theres a finite abelian group G you can write it as an isomorphism of cyclic groups of prime power order, these prime power orders must divide the order of the group. if you have d | n where n is the size of the group, writing d as a product of prime factors can you not extract subgroups from their individual p torsions subgroups?
Sure, but at this current state you don’t know anything about what that prime decomposition looks like, nor what the prime factorisation of d looks like
ah so the primes dont have to be primes that are part of the decomposition of the size of the group?
It’s possible that d has “too high” of a prime power that makes it impossible, for instance you just can’t find an element of order 8 in Z/2Z x Z/4Z
Of course that’s impossible in actuality but a priori you don’t know that
oh yeah i accidentally said this 😭
In that case, I think you could actually brute force it with this proof idea then
ok yeah
just wanted to ask one more thing just to confirm
a cyclic group with prime factor higher than what appesrs in the torsion group of finitely generated abelian group wouldn't be possible because of lagranges theorem right
like if A x B is isomorphic to C then |A| must divide |C|
Sure yeah
ok 😭
Also I will say that the proof of the fundamental theorem is basically using the sylow theorems
stress makes me rethink the simple stuff
Ah really?
in lectures we used smith normal forms
is that to do with sylow theorems?
Ah, that’s interesting, so you did the PID module method
Lmao that’s fun
Yeah that’s an alternate way of doing it
ahhh
yeah we covered no sylow theorems
we did do some stuff which builds up to that
should sylow theorems usually be covered in a second module of group theory?
I can’t speak on what your school does but it should be
damn 😭
Is there anyone here expert in Lorentz group representations?
Ok so formally, is this a good way to say that for a finite field F and d dividing the order of the multiplicative group, F^x contains a subgroup of order d?
By the classification of finitely generated abelian groups:
F is isomorphic to F{p_1} x F{p_2} x F{p_k}
where p_i are the distinct primes in the prime factorisation of |F^x| and F{p_i} is the respective p primary torsion subgroup
We then have each p-primary torsion subgroup isomorphic to a product of cyclic groups of order powers of p
From d's prime factorisation, it contains a power of the each of primes above. By taking a subgroup of order of this prime power from each of the individual groups and taking their products, we have a subgroup of order d.
Well, by induction we can reduce to the case where $m = 1$, $n = 2$, i.e.
[
\begin{tikzcd}
{f(A)} && B \
\
{\mathfrak{p}_2} && {?} \
\
{\mathfrak{p}_1} && {\mathfrak{q}_1}
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=3-1, to=1-1]
\arrow[from=3-1, to=3-3]
\arrow[from=3-3, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=5-1, to=3-1]
\arrow[from=5-1, to=5-3]
\arrow[from=5-3, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}
]
where all arrows are inclusions. It makes sense to consider $V(\mathfrak{q}_1)$, which contains $\mathfrak{q}_1$. Since $f^$ is closed, $f^\bigl(V(\mathfrak{q})\bigl) = V(E)$ for some $E \subseteq A$. I would like this $E$ to be $\mathfrak{p}_2$ but the problem is I don't have a choice of $E$.
okeyokay
Well, does V(E) contain p1?
Yeah right? Since p_1 = f^{-1}(q_1) and q_1 certainly contains q_1
Ah
so E is a subset of p_1 which is a subset of p_2, so that p_2 is in V(E)
aka p_2 = f^{-1}(q) for some q which contains q_1
and this is q is the desired prime ideal
Thanks!
If f: A -> B is a ring homomorphism and p is a prime ideal of A, is it always true that f(p) is a prime ideal of f(A)?
no
No. For instance take f: Z -> Q to be the inclusion. The image of a non-zero prime ideal (p) generates all of Q
Hm okay
The reason I'm asking is that I am trying to show b $\implies$ c. So far, the proof has seemed natural to me:
b $\implies$ c. Let any $\overline{\mathfrak{a}} \in \text{Spec}(A/\mathfrak{p})$. Then $\mathfrak{a} \coloneqq \pi^{-1}(\overline{\mathfrak{a}})$ is a prime ideal of $A$ which contains $\mathfrak{p}$. Since $f$ has the going up property, there is $\mathfrak{b} \in \text{Spec } B$ such that
[
\begin{tikzcd}
{f(A)} && B \
\
{\mathfrak{a}} && {\mathfrak{b}} \
\
{\mathfrak{p}} && {\mathfrak{q}}
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=3-1, to=1-1]
\arrow[from=3-1, to=3-3]
\arrow[from=3-3, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=5-1, to=3-1]
\arrow[from=5-1, to=5-3]
\arrow[from=5-3, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}
]
commutes, where all arrows are inclusions. Let $\overline{\mathfrak{b}}$ be $\mathfrak{b}$ mod $\mathfrak{q}$. We claim that $f^*(\overline{\mathfrak{b}}) = \overline{\mathfrak{a}}$.
However this won't work unless $\mathfrak{a}$ is a prime ideal of $f(A)$, and similarly $\mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal of $f(A)$
okeyokay
do u think u can add a condition so that this statement becomes true ?
what do u think if ker(f) is contained in p ??
The correspondence theorem is your friend
In k[x1,…xn] with standard Z^n-grading, hilberts basis theorem says every ideal is finitely generated, but is every homogeneous/graded ideal finitely generated by homogeneous elements?
yes
Ok hm i mean i guess thats not trivial right but also doesnt seem hard to show
Yeah i guess its just cause the homogeneous components of any element in a graded ideal are also in the ideal
exactly
f(p) is a prime ideal of f(Z) no? But not of Q
Oh good point, I misread the original question
guys i need help, can't show that the action is free(aka) intersection of stab(Hi)={1}
- and 3) are easy but 2) seems quite complex
i have showed that card(stab(Hi)) is 6 by lagrange
and so 6=3*2 so a 3 sylow group and 1 our 3 (2 sylow groups)
but then wtf am i supposed to do
So I don't know french, so there might be some details I'm missing, but it's not true that a group of order 24 with 4 3-sylow subgroups acts faithfully on them. For example A4xC2. So I guess there must be some more info given
Okay, I'm guessing the second sentence is that the Sylow subgroups are not unique, while A4xC2 has a unique 2-sylow subgroup
yeah the second sentence is that none of it's sylow groups are normal
So I guess one thing to notice is that the intersection of the stabilizers either has order 1 or 2, so you just need to deal with the order 2 case
why?
because the stabiliser of Hi is Hi with other elements
and the intersection of all Hi is the neutral
Notice that Hi is normal in Stab(Hi) and has order 3
yeah that's the 3 sylow group
and then there can be 1 2-sylow or 3-2sylow
for each stab(hi)
what i supposed is that if i take g in the intersection of the stab(Hi) g has to necessarily belong to 1 of thses 2 sylow
It might also be useful to use that the intersection of the stabilizers is a normal subgroup
well yeah but you wanna show that if it is different from {1} than it has to be a sylow group
so it can't normal and then absurd
Well, that's a bit more than you need. The Sylow subgroup will never have size 2 after all
why?
Because it has size 8
ah in this case yes
Anyway, if you mod out a group of size 2 you'll get one of size 12. How many sylow subgroups can a group of size 12 have?
what do you mean mod out?
G/H
Can you have 4 3-sylow and 3 2-sylow simultaneously?
3 elements don't get you very many 2-sylow subgroups though
wdym?
wait no you can't
because the 2 sylow groups are of card 4 not 2
so 4x2+3x3>12
but does this have to do with my exercise??
Your exercise required that there be more than one of each sylow subgroup
I remember seeing somewhere that subgroups of P\GammaL(V) containing PGL(V) are semidirect products of PGL(V) with a cyclic group. Is it true? If so, anyone has a reference?
P\GammaL(V) is the semidirect product of PGL(V) being acted on by Aut(k) where k is your field.
So this would be true if Aut(k) is cyclic (for example if k is a finite field)
Yeah I'm working over a finite field. Something doesn't click for me though. Does it just follow from intersecting the short exact sequence with the subgroup H?
Yes, so certainly H/PGLV is cyclic, then you can consider the image of H/PGLV in PGammaLV under the splitting to form a semidirect product.
Great, thank you!
So apparently we first form $H={(m,\theta(m)^{-1}:m\in M}$ where $\theta:M\to N$ is the isomorphism and construct $G=(U\times V)/H$. I'm wondering why they constructed it like this? Like what's the motivation behind this construction just by looking at the problem.
bluepianist
I am trying to prove something simple, but it looks like something is going wrong... maybe I am missing some simple trick
when I just try to derive xax-1 = yay-1 from xy-1a = axy-1 -- I get them in the wrong order
i.e. I get x-1 a x = y-1 a y
and for the life of me, I can't swap the order of those 🙂 I tried to do the usual tricks with inverting both sides, etc.
(sorry for bad handwriting, that was not originally intended to be shared 🙂
So, any suggestions please? Or is it just a mistake in the book? Now I am getting a feeling that the author just made a mistake and confused two notations (left and right) in one set of exercises: he is using right cosets of centralizer subgroup later, but seems to use this xax-1 form of conjugates (which corresponds to left actions/cosets) instead of x-1 a x form...
full context:
Ah, I think it's just because if p is a prime ideal then A/p is isomorphic to f(A)/f(p), and since the former is an integral domain so is f(A)/f(p), hence f(p) is prime
wait never mind the kernel is not always equal to p
i think that there is a mistake in the question, tho i might be wrong lol
Consider the free group on x, y and let a=y^- x
Then
xax^- = xy^- = y a y^-
but
xy- a = x y^-2 x =/= a xy^- = y- x^2 y^-
So this is probably a typo
Mm, I’m not yet very familiar with free groups…
A typo? It looks more like he needs to restate this whole set of exercises with x-1 a x definition of conjugates…
To make it work and be consistent with each other, no?
The free group on x, y is just the set of all sequences of symbols from {x, y, x^-, y^-} such that a symbol never appears directly before it's inverse, and the operation is concatenation (cancelling inverses)
I mean, that's what a typo is. Something that needs to be rewritten
Swapping x for x^- isn't exactly a major rewriting effort
Well typing x instead of x^-
And also typo happens just once 🙂
well here he wrote x and y instead of x^{-1} and y^{-1}
But here he did it several times in a row
In all those exercises
So this is more like a mistake
not to jump on the pedant train but i do think typo implies a manual mistake which this isn't so i agree with sphynx lol
But anyway, doesn’t matter how I call it
Thanks for confirming that it’s a mistake/typo in the book
Wait but this might not be the case here?
Is it an implicit condition? otherwise I don't think it's true
this statement is false and if you add my condition it's true
Ah so they should have stated it in the problem statement?
I m talking in general I m not talking about your exercice
Yeah well for my exercise it looks like it's necessary
b $\implies$ c. We first show that if $f: A \to B$ is a surjective ring homomorphism and $\mathfrak{p}$ is a prime ideal with $\ker f \subseteq \mathfrak{p}$, then $f(\mathfrak{p})$ is a prime ideal of $B$. Indeed, let $b_1 b_2 \in f(\mathfrak{p})$ so that $f(p) = b_1 b_2$ for some $p \in \mathfrak{p}$. Since $f$ is surjective, $f(a_1) = b_1$ and $f(a_2) = b_2$ for some $a_1$, $a_2 \in A$. Thus $p - a_1 a_2 \in \ker f \subseteq \mathfrak{p}$, so that $p - a_1 a_2 = p'$ for some $p' \in \mathfrak{p}$. Therefore, $a_1a_2 = p - p' \in \mathfrak{p}$, so that $a_1$ or $a_2 \in \mathfrak{p}$, which is to say that $b_1$ or $b_2 \in f(\mathfrak{p})$. Thus, $f(\mathfrak{p})$ is prime.
\
\newline
Let any $\overline{\mathfrak{a}} \in \text{Spec}(A/\mathfrak{p})$. Then $\mathfrak{a} \coloneqq \pi^{-1}(\overline{\mathfrak{a}})$ is a prime ideal of $A$ which contains $\mathfrak{p}$. Since $f:A \to f(A)$ is surjective, the above result implies that $f(\mathfrak{a})$ and $f(\mathfrak{p})$ are prime ideals of $f(A)$, so that by hypothesis there exists $\mathfrak{b} \in \text{Spec } B$ with
[
\begin{tikzcd}
{f(A)} && B \
\
{f(\mathfrak{a})} && {\mathfrak{b}} \
\
{f(\mathfrak{p})} && {\mathfrak{q}}
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=3-1, to=1-1]
\arrow[from=3-1, to=3-3]
\arrow[from=3-3, to=1-3]
\arrow[from=5-1, to=3-1]
\arrow[from=5-1, to=5-3]
\arrow[from=5-3, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}
]
commutative, where all arrows are inclusions. Let $\overline{\mathfrak{b}}$ be $\mathfrak{b}$ mod $\mathfrak{q}$. We claim that $f^*(\overline{\mathfrak{b}}) = \overline{\mathfrak{a}}$. Indeed, if $a + \mathfrak{p} \in \overline{\mathfrak{a}}$, then $f(a + \mathfrak{p}) = f(a) + \mathfrak{q} \in \mathfrak{b} + \mathfrak{q} = \overline{\mathfrak{b}}$, for $f(\mathfrak{a}) \subseteq \mathfrak{b}$. Conversely, suppose that $f(a) + \mathfrak{q} = b + \mathfrak{q}$ for some $b \in \mathfrak{b}$. Then $f(a) - b \in \mathfrak{q} \subseteq \mathfrak{b}$, so that $f(a) \in f(\mathfrak{a})$. Thus $f(a) = f(a')$ for some $a' \in \mathfrak{a}$, so that $a - a' \in \ker f \subseteq \mathfrak{a}$. Therefore $a \in \mathfrak{a}$, so that $a + \mathfrak{p} \in \overline{\mathfrak{a}}$, as desired.
okeyokay
okeyokay
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I don't think there's anything missing from the problem statement of your exercise. Just from the lemma you've formulated
For the purposes of the exercise you may as well assume A=f(A) because A/p = f(A)/f(p) since p contains the kernel of f
The “irrelevant” ideal is the ideal generated by homogeneous elements of nonzero degree?
Yes
It’s irrelevant because it doesn’t correspond to a (non-empty) closed set in projective space
Oh hm
It “should” correspond to the origin, but that’s not in projective space
Does any subring inherit the same grading? I know not all submodules do , like (x+y) in k[x,y] with Z^2 grade
If the subring isn't generated by homogeneous elements you'll get some trouble.
Like the subring generated by x+x^2 in k[x, y] can't really inherit a grading
You know what i need to do. Review direct sum vs direct product and countable vs uncountable stuff for that etc
I still dont have all the differences in my head
Same as the ideal generated by (x+x^2)? Whats the difference between that and the subring
I learned recently defn of finite generation for algebras and how a finitely generated ring means finitely generated as a Z-algebra so how does that definition work into that
I mean, an ideal is closed under multiplication from the ring, while a subring is just closed under multiplying things in the subring
So generally the subring is smaller except it contains 1
What are the ways to prove that a group of order 9 is abelian?
I remember a theorem that says that if |G| = p^2 for prime p, then G is either cyclic or isomorphic to Z_p x Z_p -- both abelian. So that works. But that theorem is not introduced yet in the book (Herstein) where this exercise comes from.
I followed steps in the proof of that theorem, and now know how to prove it more directly: we need to show that the size of the center is 9. Center is a subgroup, so its order must be 1, 3 or 9 (by Lagrange thm). We need to show that 1 and 3 are impossible and when order(C) is 9, we have G abelian, which is what we want to prove.
order(C) = 1 is impossible due to consequence of the class equation (and the fact that only center has order 1 in there, the rest of conjugacy classes must divide 9 and be greather than 1), and if order(C) is 3, then G/C is cyclic and using another exercise we have G abelian.
But all this machinery is still not relevant to this chapter, which is a chapter about homomorphisms, isomorphism theorems (FHT and so on), and some applications (Cauchy theorem for abelian groups proven by induction on group order, and Sylow theorem for abelian groups).
This is the usual proof I have seen to show that groups of p^2 are abelian
This isn't really any machinery though right? It seems a bit simpler than the things you mention in the chapter, but just needs a bit of ingenuity
yeah, agreed that it's possible to come up with this independently, but not easy 🙂 I only proved the individual steps (that were laid out by exercise sets in another book - in Pinter)
there was one simple problem set that culminated in proving that if G/C is cyclic then G is abelian. And another set used that to prove the whole thing about p^2 via class equation
but I thought maybe there is some easier way that I am missing...
based on some clever homomorphism, or isomorphism, or something
p-groups have nontrivial centers
then Z(G) = G as G/Z(G) cannot be nontrivially cyclic
ah you mentioned that yes
well G/Z(G) is cyclic if Z(G)=G 
I guess if you want a really elementary way, 9 isn’t too big of a number and you can just work out the possibilities
But yeah I think the things mentioned are the sensible approaches
Suppose G is not cyclic. Then every nonidentity element is of order 3. I.e. the number of order 3 subgroups is (|G| - 1)/2 = 4. Let G act on the set of subgroups of order 3 by conjugation. Then one has that 4 is some sum of divisors of 9, i.e. some sum of 1, 3 or 9. Since 9 isn't possible, 1 must appear somewhere and there is a normal subgroup N of order 3. Take any other subgroup H. This defines a homomorphism f : H -> Aut(N) = C2 by conjugation. This is trivial, so the join of N and H is abelian. But the join of N and H is all of G so we are done.
not complicated at all

write out all possible 9x9 cayley tables and observe they are symmetric along the diagonal
Write out at all reduced 9x9 latin squares and observe that every square whose transformation group has order 9 is symmetric along the diagonal
write down all 9^81 functions G^2 --> G for G a set with 9 elements, cross out the ones that don't satisfy the group axioms, and observe the remaining ones are all symmetric along the diagonal
yes yes im checking everywhere
tyty
wwhat happened lol
some scamming thing
yum
Maths
how do you get that 4 is some sum of divisors of 9
it's 1+3 boss
G acts on the order 3 subgroups, of which there are 4. This partitions the 4 elements into orbits, and each orbit has cardinality dividing that of G
Any other method is woke nonsense. Work from the axioms like god intended.
I think I can probably give another proof of this result, lemme try
do you not mean 9 elements?
No, I mean that like G acts on a set of cardinality 4
cheeky H^2(Z/3Z, Z/3Z)
ah okay
so his method was to prove theres a normal subgroup by considering G acting on the groups of order 3
and then define a homomorphism onto Aut(N) by conjugation?
this is the confusing bit
Sps G has order 9. If any element have order 9 then gg. Otherwise every nontrivial element has order 3. Pick any nontrivial elements a and b which aren't the same or inverse, so we get distinct subgroups H,K of cardinality 3. Observe that both are normal and they have trivial intersection (for cardinality reasons), so G = H x K and we are done
Yes
If N is a normal subgroup of G then any subgroup of G acts on N by conjugation
a normal subgroup is fixed setwise under conjugation so any map in the larger group descends to an automorphism of the normal subgroup
so basically right
i had an exam where instead of 9 it was 49
But my proof is by design kind of needlessly complicated lol
My proof works for any p instead of 3
and i did this exact same proof but didnt show they were normal
so then ended up getting 2/7 💔
Oof sorry
they wanted us to notice non trivial centre of a p group
yeahhh
Rough, my group theory exam was graded similarly lol, I got tripped up on like 3 small sub parts and still dropped 25 marks guy was brutal about the marking. Not unfair, but like, basically no one got any partial marks for working
still did better than average tbh
What would be funnier is getting 6/7
Still, 75 was pretty good
Average was 7 
Grown ass person
cant believe i messed up one question 😭
That is crazy
yeah its a pretty top university as well 💀
How
ngl the exam was quite easy
Wonder if I know where you are from mutual friends lol
stuff like construct an abelian group of size 1000
Was it imperial
mm as in like Z/1000Z?
the cyclic group of order 1000 lol
yessirr
non abelian*
There was some question about show G is abelian iff “sub object” and “quotient” are and despite seeing a million proofs of that form I couldn’t work it out, I remember trying some absolutely schizo looking exactly sequence nonsense
that makes way more sense LOL
Turns out it basically followed by a random ass lemma I forgot
Z/125Z x D_8
there was also one about orbits of a symmetric group acted on by conjugations
S_6 x C_(500/3)
Imperial does tests and shit? You don’t just have a big fuck off exam at the end of the year? Is there a UK uni that’s actually sensible?
why all that hassle when theres D_500
Well these are two different questions
No way imperial is sensible
we have midterms 😭
its so annoying
Bro is american
because it ruins the flow of work through term
Mid terms are better than just one big exam icl
Couldnt be just any subobject and quotient (c.f. Dihedral groups)
Icl = imperial college London?
Bro said c.f.
tbh itd have been better if they were end of term exams or smth
Yeah I was vague because I don’t remember the exact details lol, hence the quotation marks
The book im writing called dihedral groups that is just a list of all dihedral groups
Its uh, not finished yet
ngl imperials 2nd year probability course is quite nice though
It was something with derived series or something iirc
ive also heard good stuff about measure theory
Rahhh
Woah derived
Actually this terminology is lowkey getting annoying
Different derived 😔
can't wait for the second edition containing all generalised dihedral groups
You look up derived lie algebra or derived algebraic group and it comes up with ts 🥀
it's actually slightly concerning I can't immediately do this. One direction is trivial at least
Deluxe edition labelling all coxeter groups
can i have an example?
I’ve actually not done any maths in ages and it’s stressing me out
No because it's trivial to prove in complete generality
Its not true in general
I don’t think it’s generically true if that helps
Abelian groups arent closed under extensions
It was a more specific question but I don’t remember the details
Idk if this immediately implies it
its more like the words arent getting to my head 😭
Again, c.f. My upcoming book Dihedral groups
If H and G/H being abelian would imply G is abelian then abelian groups are closed under extensions, and vice versa
Okay then I agree lol
N normal in G, all g in G, n in N gng^-1 in N, gnhg^-1 = gng^-1ghg^-1 so conjugation is a group homomorphism mapping N to N, it's invertible thus an automorphism
I don't see how this would be implied in general
Well I do see for specific example of dihedral though
are we doing contrapositive
ok what hypothesis because it is not true that any subobject of D_2^n is a quotient
Y'all what i meant was that abelian groups not being closed under extensions is a consequence of the backwards direction not holding
ah this is just an inner automorphism right
no because you're conjugating by an element of G, if it was an element of N it would be
But ye dihedral is good example
S3 is the only nonabelian group I ever think of for counterexamples and ig works here lol
holy shit I completely misread the question
Any solvable group, i believe
I think I should go to bed I genuinely hallucinated like, 4 words that just are not in nope's post LMFAO
Cuz those are precisely the groups which are made out of abelian groups
By Jordann Holder ig
Oh my science
Or by definition
I think the actual question was something about derived series if that conjures the correct result up in your brain
Idk im tired
Depending on how they r defined
Derived
ahhh
Chat dont go to sleep at 5 for a week straight its not good for you
Ok I'll do it for a month straight
Yes the more the better
I also wouldn’t recommend sleeping all day every day for about a month
This is society
IVT says there’s a sweet spot in the middle
Ok I'll do it for two months
I haven’t yet found it but it must be there
Ts aint continuous broklahoma
There was a point when I didnt know the IVT, and now I know the IVT, so
Use newton method or wtv the fuck numerical mfs are dreaming up
Bro said time isn’t continuous, get a load of Zeno
Woah I am teaching around the IVT this term
If youre teaching before it and after it then you must teach it somewhere along the way
It warms my heart to see that you’re not completely jaded. Oh to be a 2nd year again
how did you think of this before D_1000 btw 😭
It’s got D_8 in it
What is the best proof
I think I need to do supervisions for like Reimann integration next term, I’m sure as shit hoping I remember that nonsense when I see it again
The smallest non-abelian group that both works and isn’t Q_8
It’s just kinda nebulously called analysis 2, no clue what it really covers beyond integration
Boy howdy am i excited for probability and statistics next quarter
Ig just like what
Is this guy trolling? Mods??
0th step is knowing how to spell his name
Sorry
See it may be hard to notice but i used an advanced social technique called sarcasm
If f(a) < 0 < f(b) and a < b then consider sup {x : f(x) < 0} n do a lil conditioning lol
I just want to undersrand this, can you rxplain the last bit more detailed if you dont mind?
I can try lol
I’m on my phone leave me be, and nothings getting spelled correctly at this hour
“Join” you aint a carpenter brotato chip ✌️
Probably cutest way to phrase it is composing f with its sgn if it never hits 0 and then u say f is locally constant n argument a lil cleaner
Eh
Might introduce connectedness tbh briefly
Actually I should not discuss pedagogy on this server
also like what was the motivation behind considering the action on the subgroups of order 3
Sabrina?
Ts aint tuff bromula one 🖖
Wynaut
If it’s more natural you can also prove this by considering the conjugation action on elements rather than subgroups
You can point them to the nlab page for it, and too simple to be simple. First years appreciate category theory
Pointing anyone to the nlab is a mistake
Well im a first year and i appreciate category theory so..
Must be true
I just checked and it’s actually readable until it brings out the classic “0-truncated cohesive oo-groupoid” with no warning
IIRC it’s just like extremely passive aggressive around the “is the empty set connected” part lol
But yeah everything gets a bit nlaby eventually
Tbh the page now seems to have nothing like this
and people learn from mistakes no
Mods ban this guy his chudjak is too relatable
That’s a direct quote from the page on connected topological spaces
So first assume G is noncyclic (of course if it is cyclic its abelian be default). Then we want a normal subgroup of order 3. We can do this by considering all subgroups of order 3, and trying to deduce that one of them must be fixed under the action of conjugation (i.e. be normal).
So, there are 8 nonidentity elements, none of which have order 9, so they must be order 3. But each order 3 subgroup has two nonidentity elements, so we get 8/2 is 4 order 3 subgroups.
So we have a group of order 9 acting on a set of order 4. Then by the orbit stabilizer theorem, the size of each orbit divides 9. It of course cant be 9, so it must be either 1 or 3. There are no ways of writing 4 using only 3, so there must be an orbit of size 1: normal subgroup, say, N, of order 3.
Now take any other subgroup H of order 3. Its fairly clear that N \cap H = 1, and NH = G. Both are cyclic, and so to prove that G is abelian it is therefore enough to show that elements in N commute with those in H.
To do this consider the action of conjugation of H on N. This produces a homomorphism f : H -> Aut(N) given by h |-> c_h. But Aut(N) ≈ Aut(C3) ≈ C2. There is however no nontrivial homomorphism from C3 to C2 (by langrange), so H has a trivial conjugation action on N. This is equivalent to saying that elements of N and H commute, so G must be abelian as desired.
@balmy python
As i said its silly
9 = 1+1+1+3+3 or 1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1+1 so G/Z(G) cyclic so G abelian. Smoking gun 🚬 🔫
Not silly enough
how do you get Aut(N) = Aut(C3)?
N is of order 3 hence isomorphic to C3
Because 3 is prime
this lattice is wrong, right? H_5 is the center of D_8 which is also the frattini subgroup
Yeah H5 is contained in H7 and H8 aswell.
sweet thanks
Given a group G which acts on a non empty set X, is it possible that the set of orbits is not countable ?
Nevermind
Consider a trivial action on a noncountable set
I've also found this proof, which is similar to yours:
(from https://lovekrand.github.io -- which has an ad-hoc solution manual to Herstein's "Topics in algebra")
Mathematics & Statistics
I suspect though that Herstein's intended solution used non-trivial center idea, because the previous problem (no. 9) asked to prove that the center is a normal subgroup
I didn't sleep well last night, so decided to sample a new algebra book -- Isaacs "Algebra: A Graduate Course". Just glimpsed over all I've already learnt up to isomorphism theorems and simple groups. An interesting thing he is suggesting is to work on a project that finds orders of all simple groups up to 1,000 (or maybe just taking the list of orders and proving that any group of order not in the list can't be a simple group), this is somewhat similar to finding prime numbers, but there are surprisingly few. He says that proving that there are no simple subgroups of order 720 is an order of magnitude more difficult than sifting out the rest.
anyone done something like that? (that probably is not the best project for me personally, but sounds remotely interesting)
I’d need to do some sieve stuff to see how much you can eliminate easily
Like I know every simple group has order divisible by 12, and 3 different primes (unless it’s prime-order cyclic)
But I also know those aren’t easy things to prove
You can sieve out ||prime powers||, ||4k+2||, ||pq|| quite easily
There’s probably also some other small two-primes stuff you can sieve out easily (as well as ||pqr||)
How much is left?
searched for "isaacs" but didn't find anything, searched for "1000", searched for "simple group", found this one 🙂
a recipe to produce an infinite number of exercises of this kind 😄
ah, it also has to be non-abelian, now I am re-reading that
Non-abelian is a trivial restriction tbh
he claims that there are only 5 orders below 1,000 that are simple non-abelian groups
so one needs to sieve 994 numbers out to complete the project 🙂
||pq^2|| is also easy
"How much is left?" -- ah, this is too advanced for me now, I'm just starting to study this for the first time, so no way I can prove all of that myself, I am just curious
By the time you finish an average first group theory course, everything I’ve spoilered should be within reach
cool. Yeah, I am planning to get to the Sylow theorems and group actions in the next section, so that should unlock a lot 🙂
just need to wrap up those isomorphism theorems
but I don't quite see the point (or use) of the Diamond theorem yet
I've proved it as an exercise, but it felt somewhat artificial
219 left, including this
The problem is that I don’t see anything nice that isn’t diminishing returns
pq^3 (which is messy but doable with elementary tools) only takes out 40ish
probably some require non-elementary tools.
do you know what tools are needed @quiet pelican?
I can probably do it if you give me Feit-Thompson /hj
lemme see what I get with just Burnside’s theorem + pqr + prime powers
how does burnside help?
Burnside’s theorem, not lemma
The p^a q^b order is never simple one
isn't it that its solveable?
Which implies not simple
Look at the first term in the derived series
It’s either trivial (in which case the group is abelian), or it’s a non-trivial proper normal subgroup (by solubility)
And the answer is that gets you down to 113
No point with Feit-Thompson if you have Burnside
That only does another 12 (which is probably not bad by hand)
(Also the actual proof of Burnside that I know proves it by “not simple” + induction on the order)
Hi, guys, can someone help me with a video on groups fields rings, I am struggling to understand
Next filter: ||largest prime factor is larger than the square root (the sylow of order p is normal)||
Result: 82
Next filter: ||largest prime factor is not [product of rest - 1], and is larger than half that (similar sylow stuff)||
Result: 69
The problem is not only finding filters, but finding ones that aren’t a pain to program, and will eliminate a bunch
i’ve done this up to 500ish
these are basically the results i used to wipe out a lot of them initially
then just case by case and spam lemma 8
Bit the bullet
Did it properly (eliminating the ones that can’t work for trivial Sylow reasons)
41 left
Feit Thompson would eliminate another 5 at this point if I wanted
there’s only 21 by hand up to 500
I’ve got 16 I think
But I used Burnside as a hammer
but if you use hardcore results then just abuse burnsides p^a q^b theorem and it’s easy
18
it takes care of the hardest ones with all the powers of 2 and 3
Burnside doesn’t help as much as you’d think
The worst ones I’ve found are generally 2^a 3^b m, where m is a product of small primes
These are the ones I have left
||[60, 120, 132, 168, 180, 240, 252, 264, 280, 300, 315, 336, 360, 380, 396, 420, 480, 495, 504, 520, 525, 528, 540, 552, 560, 600, 612, 616, 660, 672, 720, 728, 735, 756, 760, 792, 840, 900, 924, 945, 960]||
get rid of 60 168 360 504 and 660
Yeah I know those ones work 🙃
I was just gonna keep them, and aim to get the list down to 5
i’d be surprised if you can without having to tackle them individually
I'm aiming to get it more to like 20 before having to say "yeah I could do these one at a time, but bleh"
The reason I’m happy to use Burnside is like
I could manually prove all the useful cases of burnside for my purposes (there’s not that many)
looking at the ones i did by hand these are all of them
plus the ones on the power of two primes
it’s kinda silly after a little bc you just do the same thing over and over
240 was kinda rough i think
i think i didn’t do it right
but using burnsides transfer theorem it’s easy
Yeah
I’m surprised 4k+2 + “doesn’t obviously fail sylow” + pqr gets you so far
my professor did this exercise as a grad student
one day i asked him ab 1008 since it’s double the order of a simple group. he wrote it up for me but id have to find it somewhere
One of my supervisors did the character table of every group up to like 200 lol
Which is just
Insane
that’s mental
How many groups even are there up to order 200?
Like thats got to be a ridiculous number in and of its self, like a couple thousand or so right? Im guessing someone with GAP installed and check that pretty easily
definitely at least 200
Proof???
Z/n for n<= 200
Consider an element x in G and consider the subgroup generated by x
subgroup generated by x?
What can we say about the left cosets of the subgroup
Hmm close, though I moreso mean general properties of cosets
You don’t need to write them all “explicitly”
Like you can write down the character table for all dihedrals quite easily
Actually let's start with the subgroup <x>
We know x must have finite order since G does
Whats the order of the subgroup <x>?
Ok yeah true but like, still a crazy number no? I also am just curious how many groups there are up to order 200 now
Is there a known approximation of the number of groups of order n up to isomorphism?
group of x is same as group G?
I have no idea
The number of groups of order 2^{floor(log_2(n))}
Can I take the discussion to a help channel?
Sure
Looking at OEIS 1, it’s probably in the ca 5k range for “number of groups up to order 200”
The vast majority of those (> 4k) are of order either 128 or 192 (= 3 * 64)
The spikes are at every multiple of 32 (except 32 itself) and at 144
gap> Sum(List([1..200]), {x} -> Length(AllSmallGroups(x)));
6065
gap> Length(AllSmallGroups(128))+Length(AllSmallGroups(192));
3871
Seems your estimate is off by a hair
Yeah even with like the ones you can group up and knock out quickly, working out the character table for 6000 groups sounds like insanity lol
If only computers didn’t exist and I could be revered for publishing the big book o character tables instead of doing hard things
I was wondering if I could get some help part c of this. I followed the hint but I don't see the isomorphism
a is easy and b follows immediately from the first isomorphism theorem
Intuitively it's clear why c is true, since you are crushing all the p-powers of the elements of G and "setting them to the identity" so you should get something isomorphic to K I just maybe don't see where it comes from
I would probably just construct a morphism to K and look at its kernel
sure
but like what map, K is a kinda tricky subgroup
probably the fact that G is finite abelian is important, so you could try and decompose it as G ~= \oplus Z_{p_i}^{a_i} (or something.. idk)
g -> g^(|G|/p) maybe?
That doesn’t work for G = C_p x C_p
i found some insane solution which essentially says that G/H and K are F_p vector spaces of the same cardinality and so they are isomorphic
but i feel like that is overkill
there is an action of F_p on K for example which is just a * x = x^a and the action is well defined since all of the elements have order p
same with G/H (since all elements have order p)
I don’t think there should be a “natural” way to do it
Because think about what your representatives look like for C_{p^n}
yea they're gross
no they have literally the same cardinality
but finite vector spaces of the same cardinality are isomorphic
"overkill" is a misnomer I guess. It just doesn't seem elementary I guess. I felt like there should be some way to solve this without appealing to that fact
You can also appeal to the classification of finite abelian groups I guess.
can you maybe explain how? I was trying to figure this out but I couldn't see how it worked out
That feels significantly more overkill to me but two proofs never hurts I guess lol
which feels more overkill aha
By the classification any finite abelian group where all elements has order p is isomorphic to (Cp)^n
There's no canonical isomorphism so any proof must boil down to "any two groups with such and such property are isomorphic"
Not if you just write "Clear" 
i'm sure the graders of the qualifying exams will be very content with this
This one small trick solves any problem!
Mathematicians hate him
Should be
(p^n - 1)(p^n - p)(p^n - p^2)...(p^n - p^n-1)
so |K| = p^n
Size of GL(F_p, n), can be calculated using some fucky combinatorial argument and a little number theory iirc
Saw it on some stack exchange once
Or just linear algebra:
The first column is any nonzero vector, the next any vector not in the span of the first, next any vector not in the span of the first two, etc
very very nice
I dont know lol i could be wrong too
Anytime i see finite fields my brain screams number theory and stops working
So you'd need to divide by p-1 right?
Nvm we are counting the number of elements and they give you different elements
Hi! What is the notation here?
What is $S_X$? It isn't explicitly mentioned in the textbook (Rotman's Introduction to Theory of Groups), but does it just mean the family of subgroups of the set $X$?
Redfern Station
Thank you!
hello, i have maybe a silly question :)
since $\mathrm{End}_A(V)$, the group of A-module endomorphisms $V\to V$, can be given a ring structure by $(T+S)v:=Tv+Sv$ and $(T\times S)v:= (T\circ S)v$, can i give its group of units $\mathrm{End}_A(V)$ the structure of a division ring? when can i upgrade this to a field - if any two endomorphisms commute with each other? isn't this a crazy strong condition, which puts mad limits on our choice of vector space V?
blutac
my hypothesis is that this means V has to be 1-dimensional, and thus already a field.... to prove this i'm trying to construct two maps V->V which don't commute...
but i'm not sure how!
is V a vector space or an A-module?
also, you need another strong condition other than commutativity for it to be made into a field - you need the units (plus the 0 map) to be closed under addition
a-module, sorry :)
this is true! i just proved that not even commutativity holds tho...
$T(x_1,...,x_n):=(x_1,0,...,0)$ and $S(x_1,...,x_n):=(x_2,x_1,0,...,0)$ has $ST(x_1,...,x_n)=(0,x_1,0,...,0), \ TS(x_1,...,x_n)=(x_2,0,...,0)$
would be curious about counterexamples for units not being closed under addition though!
blutac
yk what i think the units are closed under addition only if it's a vector space...
take R^2, the identity plus the swap map because the matrix with only 1s entries
those definitely commute
ohhh but they dont add
my bad hehe
actually with this explicit construction you immediately get that if V is a fd vector space it has to be dimension 1
okay so i guess the only times End_A(V) is a field is when A is a field and V is one-dimensional! which means the only fields are... well, fields :)
yeah thats awesome tysm
I was looking to invoke some higher theorems to prove that but this is sufficient
thanks for ur help! this is a pretty neat result
like a trash version of a structure theorem hehe
all fields that are also endomorphism rings are trivial
you can do a similar proof for infinite dimensional vector spaces using a hamel basis
havent seen any infinite dimensional vector space stuff / functional analysis stuff, this idea came up when i was doing some representation theory... i might send this to a buddy who would know what to do, but for now i shall return to my revision
thanks a lot friend :D
the idea is straightforward - assuming axiom of choice every vector space admits a basis. Then pick two vectors in the basis, and consider the swap map that swaps those two vectors and fixes everything else in the basis
that plus the identity is also noninvertible
if V is just a module over an arbitrary ring A, then this question becomes... quite a bit harder to answer
if A is an integral domain I suspect you can probably make similar arguments by taking the field of fractinos
yeah that makes sense
if V is finitely generated over A, then you might be able to do the usual technique of localizing + nakayama's lemma to get some result
i am looking for a proof of the following statement or source
every real orthononal finite dim rep of the homogeneous lorentzgroup (which is non compact) is trivial
You can have other things like with some simple modules
Modules for which End(M) is a division ring are called bricks. Famously simple modules are bricks, but there are non-simple examples.
For example let A be the ring of 2x2 upper triangular matrices (over R let's say) and let M = R^2 with the usual action. Then End_A(M) = R, but M is not simple
I’m trying to prove that if R[x] is a PID, then R is a field.
I’m assuming r is a nonzero non-unit in R and considering the ideal (r, x) in R[x].
Can I say that (r, x) = (1) because x is irreducible and is of degree 1 and cannot be a factor of r because R is an integral domain. Therefore since R[x] is a PID that means (r, x) = (1) because 1 is a gcd of r and x?
Why does that show R is a field
It doesn’t but I wanted to confirm that part.
But if (r, x) = (1) then 1 = rf(x) + xg(x) and then g(x) must be zero.
Ah because of degrees?
Yes the degree of xg(x) is bigger than or equal 1 if g(x) is not zero
Yeah
x cant be a factor of r also because degree argument no?
Why did u say because R is a domain
bricks :D
Because deg f(x) + deg g(x) = deg f(x)g(x) holds in integral domains?
Ok yeah i guess u still used a degree argument then
Then the factors of r must have degree 0
Hi! Would the product or coproduct of artinian rings be as well artinian?
I’ll try to think about it in about a few minutes but for now I don’t have paper on me xd
I think a finite product could work because of the number of maximal ideals being finite match
Finite product of artinian rings is artinian.
Coproduct need not be, not even coproduct in the category of commutative rings
A finite product of posets satisfying the descending chain condition satisfies the descending chain condition, and it so happens that the poset of ideals of R1 x ... x Rn is the product of the corresponding posets of ideals
Okok thank you
I think I could prove it in my head by induction
But I thought coprod could’ve worked
Ah ok no I think I understand why
Thanks a lot
Oh another thought: even countable coproducts don’t work ?
Ah nvm
The coproduct of just two things doesn't work
Coproducts of algebraic structures are generally unfun
In large because construction of it doesnt exactly give a nice closed form, unlike products
Forgetful functor and coproduct no get along
If only...
The funny thing is some varieties have coproduct naturally isomorphic to the product, some have products distributing over coproducts, and some have coproducts distributing over products
So the intermediate value theorem implies a spectrum of distributivity
I propose this to be the new millenium problem
Just have to wait 974 years
Ah ive got time
I came across the construction of colimits using finite coproducts, coequalisers and filtered colimits recently
It’s pretty cool
Oh i see
You take all finite "subcolimits" and then the filtered colimit induced by inclusion of sets?
Yeah you can make small coproducts by using the filtered category of finite subsets of your indexing set
Thats so peak
It came up from me reading through maclane finally
I can actually say that I’ve read all of “categories for the working mathematician” now
I dont think ive ever read all of a math textbook
In part because i keep buying new ones
I had a plane ride so I had a lot of time to kill
Read all of Cheng’s “the joy of abstraction” and Awodey’s “Category Theory”
Now I’m planning to move onto Borcreaux
Checking off every category theory text lol
I guess I wanted to shore up my existing knowledge
I’ve already read through Leinster’s “basic category theory” and Riehl’s “category theory in context”
Ive bought a book that i now realize needs algebraic number theory lol
Idk what that is!
Oh ok
And then algebraic geometry is there too
I’ve also gotta live up to the title of “cat theory #1 fan”
I.e. every characteristic 0 field
What’s the book?
Knots and primes
Yk the primes in the name shouldve clued me in
However i was too infatuated with the knots part
Meant algebraic extensions
But that doesnt include padics
Become algebraic number theorist 💜
Ye
Can you give me an example?
Say K = Q(sq(2), sq(3), sq(5), ...) adjoining square roots of all primes. Then K is a field so artinian, but the coproduct of K with itself in the category of commutative rings is
K(x)K = K[x2, x3, ...]/(xp^2 - p) which has an infinitely generated ideal (xp - sq(p) : p prime)
I think K(x)K should be the subring of K^N of eventually constant sequences
Oh. Thank you
What do you mean, I thought K coprod K is K[x_2,x_3,…]/(x_p ^2 -p: p)
How does it become subring of K^N… as you said
Well notice that K[x2]/(x2^2 - 2) = K^2 and
K[x2, x3]/(...) = K^4 etc
So the colimit of these is definitely some subring of K^N. But the inclusions are a little complicated, so maybe it's not as simple as eventually constant things
Oh
Oh, sizes are different, Hom_K (K[x_p]/(x_p ^2-p), K) and Hom_K (eventually constant sequences in K^N, K). Former a homomorphism need to select sqrt(p) or -sqrt(p) for each p, cardinality of reals, latter just mapping (a_1,… constantly a,…) to a, cardinality of N
So thinking about it properly you can see K(x)K as the colimit of
K -> K^2 -> (K^2)^2 -> ...
where each map is the diagonal map.
So the resulting colimit should be periodic sequences with period a power of 2.
Oh. Thank you. That makes sense
Wait why diagonal? a->(a,a). I mean K->K[x_2]/(x_2 ^2-2)->K^2, this must be the diagonal?
Does this hold for arbitrary rings?
No, it's very specific to the constructed K
Alright, i wouldve been surprised lol
I mean, I guess there is a choice of isomorphism K[x2]/... -> K^2, but the most natural choice sends K diagonally and x2 to (sq2, -sq2)
This makes it a homomorphism of K-algebras
I see. K[x]/(x^2-2) \cong K[x]/(x-sqrt(2)) prod K[x]/(x+sqrt(2)) ?
No wonder diagonal
Okay, so I need to prove that there is no finite group G s.t. Aut(G)=Z/11Z.
What I've figured out so far:
If such a G exists, G is abelian.
I also know that |Aut(G)|>= phi(n) (numbers less than n relatively prime to n) for an abelian group
However, there's way too many cases to try to brute force it from here. So, I could use a bit of help figuring out my next steps
since G is finite abelian, the thing you should be thinking about in figuring out what approach to take is the classification theorem
hint - ||if G is the direct product of two subgroups, is there anything that can be said?||
Are you referring to it being a direct product of cyclic groups?
I'm also with you on that front.
My biggest issue is figuring out how to deal with the automorphism group when the order of the cyclic groups is not relatively prime
hmmm, you dont need to worry about that case in this situation
really? Why is that?
so the automorphism group might be bigger, yes, but Aut(AxB) certainly contains a copy of Aut(A) x Aut(B)
Absolutely, and there are quite a few where |Aut(A)||Aut(B)|<11
what else do we know about 11
For instance, if n=16
There is no way that a product of phi(n)'s could ever be 11.
That is fine
The issue I'm having is dealing with the remianing term for the order of the automorphism group
11 is prime
I agree
but the only finite group with a trivial automorphism group is the trivial group and Z/2Z
so if Aut(A) and Aut(B) are both nontrivial, what can be said about Aut(AxB)
Aut(AxB) is also non-trivial
more than that, |Aut(A)| divides |Aut(AxB)|
you got it
Also, doesn't Z/2Z also have a trivial automorphism group?
oh yeah you're right that's the single edge case that needs to be dealt with
Okay, so now we just gotta look at powers of 2
true, but what if we have mixing products? LIke (Z/2Z)^4
Oh, again....
the size of Aut(Z/2Z^n) is easy to bound below (computing its actual size is a little more subtle but thats not needed)
maybe bound isnt the right word but there is an obvious subgroup of Aut(Z/2Z^n) that you can pinpoint
Well, the only thing an automorphism would really do is "swap" the coordinates around (i.e. phi(1,0)=(0,1), that kinda thing)
okay, so what is the size of this subgroup?
there might be more, there is no guarantee that you have to send a "standard basis vector" to another one - this is essentially trying to identify all linear isomorphisms of Z/2Z^n as a Z/2Z vector space
Ah, I see how that could potentially be a problem
but no matter that is not needed
what can be said about nC2
remember that it has to divide |Aut(G)| = 11
Unless n=2, 2 has to divide nC2
...permutations...duh -_-
okay now finish the proof lol
I did just say we are swapping the coordinates around
Well, hold on one sec, there are still some extra edge cases I don't think have been tracked yet: like G= Z/2Z x Z/4Z
Oh wait. disregard!
The only option we had at this point was (Z/2Z)^n since we already established |Aut(Z/4Z)| would have to divide |Aut(G)|
Great, so this is the last case!
Since for n>1, 2 divides n! (which is the order of the 'permutation group' of Aut(Z/2Z)^n), n must be 1
Thus, G=Z/2Z....but this automorphism group is trivial. So the proof is complete 😄
well I would phrase it as G = Z/nZ x (Z/2Z)^k for some n!=2
from the results we have derived
but the reasoning is loosely the same
Wouldn't this fact be true, irrelevant to whether the Automorphism group of B is non-trivial?
yes!
Maybe I jumped a step, but then that means that n has to be exactly 2, since that will give us the only trivial automorphism group
*trivial
since the size of aut Z/nZ can never be 11, yes
precisely, which is very easy to check
This was incredibly helpful. Thank you so much HChan!
actually I just realised that there is a little more straightforward proof than the approach we took - any non-boolean abelian group has to have a nontrivial order 2 automorphism by taking the inverse
Question is to show for $P_i \in Syl_{p_i}(G)$ where $G$ is a finite group that if we have $H < G \implies H < N_G(H)$, we have $P_i \unlhd G$ for for every Sylow subgroup
donut123
They say $P \unlhd N$ and so $P$ is characteristic in $N$ (because sylow), and since $N \unlhd N_G(N)$ we have $P \unlhd N_G(N)$. They say that this means $N_G(N) \leq N$. Why?
donut123
what is N?
oh yeah, $N = N_G(P)$
donut123
ah, yeah in that case this follows from the lemma that N_G(N_G(P)) = N_G(P) if P is a sylow p group
shouldnt $N_G(N_G(P)) = G$?
donut123
well im saying, like if P is anything, shouldnt taking the normalizer of a normalizer be the whole group?
you will get to the whole group eventually yes but that's not what we are looking to prove here
oh for some reason i thought the normalizer of a subgroup is normal in the whole group
but its actually the subgroup that is normal in the normalizer
wait how do we know N_G(N_G(P)) = N_G(P) is P is a sylow p group
P is characteristic in N_G(P)
if something normalizes the normaliser, then it has to induce an automorphism of N_G(P)
so it has to fix P as well
its a simple proof
useful result
A handy bit is all Sylow p-subgroups are conjugate
So if it’s normal there’s only one
this feels like a weird thing for dummit and footeto gloss over
oh im talking about the characteristic lemma thing
they def state the sylow conjugate thing
N_G(N_G(P)) = N_G(P) is P is a sylow p group
Well that’s kinda what this exercise is
oh its not exercise its like the proof they give of some theorem
for some extra info, groups where the normalizer of any subgroup strictly increases are called nilpotent
such groups enjoy some very nice properties
hmmm the definition they give is with upper/lower central series
in particular what you are proving now can be used to show that a group is nilpotent iff it is a direct product of p groups
Interesting characterization tho
it is an equivalent definition, which is what you are showing in part now
what is the relevancy of P being normal in N_G(N)?
N_G(N_G(P)) = N_G(P) but the normalizer of every proper subgroup in G increases
so what do you conclude
It’s a normal Sylow p group
so that tells us its the only sylow p subgroup
Yes
So that must be characteristic fr
If you normalize N_G, then conjugation is an automorphism of N_G
This fixes P by characteristic
So it normalizes P
N_G of what?
N_G(P) with P characteristic in N_G(P)
Normalizing N_G(P) is exactly being in N_G(N_G(P))
So N_G N_G P \leq N_G P
Sometimes you just gotta chase elements
For a nice proof anyway
im still confused 😢 conjugating by something in G \N_G(P) does not necessarily land in N_G(P), so how do we know it is automoprhism?
Well, it’s in the normalizer iff that conjugation is an automorphism of N_G(P), no?
oh ok yes makes sense
ok so what I have figured is:
by definition $P \unlhd N_G(P)$. Since $P$ is sylow, $P$ is also characteristic in $N_G(P)$. Now for any $g \in N_G(N_G(P))$, $g$ gives an automorphism on $N_G(P)$ by conjugation. Since $P$ is characteristic, this automorphism fixes $P$, so in particular $gPG^{-1} = P$ and $gN_G(P)g^{-1} = N_G(P)$. Therefore, $g \in N_G(P)$, so we have $N_G(N_G(P)) \subset N_G(P)$.
donut123
Yeah I think that works
Hello anybody here preparing for cuet pg for mathematics
Guys this is from abstract algebra course for the proof of one step subgroup test
Basically if has a^-1 for all a then its a sub group
He assumes inverse elements exists in the sub group.
And to prove that they exists the previously established fact of existancr of idenitiy elements depedent on the assumption that inverse element exists to prove that inverse elements exist
I mean isnt inverse element the condition we are looking for since its a 'test' to determine if something is a sub group
This bit assumes existance of inverse elements then uses that assumption to "prove" that inverse elements exists
This might have been a mistake while making the course
Probably a mistaken in phrasing
It assumes inverses exist in G (which they do), and uses that (combined with the subgroup test) to deduce that they exist in H
I was watching a youtube course and they didnt mentioned that they did it differently by assuming inverses exists (which is okay since thats the condition if the test) and in next state used the fact that we have identity element ' to show they exist is sub group' which dosent make much sense
I'm not sure I'm following what you're asking, but in the picture they're showing that if H is a nonempty subset of a group such that
ab^-1 is in H whenever a and b are, then H contains the identity and is closed under inverses. And the point would be to give an alternative characterization of subgroups.
But assuming ab^-1 is in H is not the same as assuming inverses are in H. Only once we have the identity in H can we set a equal to the identity to prove that H has inverses
Ya that was the source of confusion my bad
If you are assuming ab^-1 exists then you are assuming b^-1 exists in sub set isnt that like assuming inverse element exists in sub set
You're not assuming b^-1 is in H. You're just assuming ab^-1 is in H and then proving that b^-1 will also be in H
But isnt ab^-1 contain b^-1 under multiplicative operation are we taking ab^-1 as a single element
Dosent it describe operation between a and b^-1 how that is possible if b^-1 in H.
Oh wait i get it okay we are assuming result of a (operation) b^-1 exists in sub group
Okay i get it now
Lol that was silly to overlook
@rocky cloak thanks
Im trying to follow this argument regarding groups of order $30$. Let $|G| = 30$, $P \in Syl_5(G)$, $Q \in Syl_3(G)$. Suppose either is normal, WLOG $P \unlhd G$. Then $Q \leq N_G(P) = G \implies PQ = QP \leq G$. What confuses me is they say "Note also that if eitehr $P$ or $Q$ is normal, then both $P$ and $Q$ are characteristic subgroups of $PQ$". $P$ is a sylow subgroup of $PQ$ so normal is equivalent to characteristic, but why is $Q$ characteristic?
donut123
actually nvm i guess this is fairly obvious, since if $P$ is characteristic then under any automorphism $\phi \colon PH \to PH$ and $p\in P, h\in H$, we have $\phi(ph) = \phi(p)\phi(h) \in PH$. We can't have $\phi(H) \in P$ because $\phi$ has to be bijective.
donut123
I don't know what whoever wrote this argument had in mind, but I can't really think of a way to prove they're characteristic without first showing they are normal.
How I would do it is notice the automorphism group for P has order 4, so the only way for Q to act on P by conjugation is trivially, meaning P and Q commute and the product is direct.
In any event you'll have to use something about 3 and 5, since the same statement isn't true for 2 and 3 for example.
Could it perhaps be that they already have a classification of groups of order 15 that they are (implicitly) referencing?
An element of PH isn't necessarily in P or H, it can be the product of two things
Yeah they already had a classification for groups of order 15
So we already know that if we have a subgroup of order 15 it is cyclic
So we are trying to make one
Okay, well then I think they're just saying, if either P or Q is normal, then PQ is a group of order 15, so badabing badaboom
Yeah, but for some reason they want to show that if either P or Q is normal in G, both must be normal
If either P or Q is normal, then PQ is a subgroup of order 15, so P and Q are characteristic and it has index 2 so PQ is normal.
Then characteristic subgroup of normal subgroup is normal
Yes, but how do u get that P and Q are characteristic in PQ
Because PQ = Z/15
theres a dummit and foote execise which says "Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite abelian group of rank $t$. Prove that the rank of $G$ equals the maximum of the ranks of its Sylow subgroups". But, isn't non-zero rank only for infinite groups?
donut123
Rank = size of minimal generating set (which I believe is equal to the size of any “independent” generating set for finite abelian groups, but I’m not certain)
ah ok they define free rank as the exponent in the invariant factor decomposition
why should you be terrified of a good time
bc im bad at proofs
but oh well
the learning is interesting
the solving is scary
I think rings and modules are easier than groups
Assuming thats what its covering
we are talking about rings yea :D
Nice
Ya cuz then u realize o shit maybe i dont know anything ☺️
😢
exactly
Absolute insane take btw
Just depends on the adjectives you like.
Artinian rings and finite length modules I'd argue are easier than finite groups.
Without any restriction I guess both are just infinitely difficult
Hi, I am trying to get this isomorphism here from the universal property of tensor products, so I need to show every bilinear map
$\varphi: S^{-1}A \times M \rightarrow P$ factors through the map $\frac{a}{s}, m \mapsto \frac{am}{s}$. So I need to show the map $\psi(\frac{am}{s}) = \varphi(\frac{a}{s}, m)$ is well defined. Here I am stuck.
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
that's hard, since you are kind of trying to brute force the isomorphism
use the UP a little differently: obtain a bilinear map from S-1A x M to S-1M, which factors uniquely through the tensor product via the UP
so a/s, m --> am/s is bilinear. and by the universal property it factors through \otimes.
yes
how does this give an isomorphism
well thats what you have to show
but this is the easy part
all we really needed the UP for was to guarantee that this map is well-defined
I think showing this map is bijective is not that hard
but is there a way to show this by giving an inverse map?
so it would be a categorical isomorphism
you can do it but it sounds a lot harder
The category of R-modules is balanced, so it would be right?
You can show that the map
S-A x M -> S-M satisfies the universal property of the tensor product (hence is the tensor product)
that is what I tried to do originally
.
I guess write down the condition for
am/s = bn/t
ramt = rbns for some r in S
And then you want to prove
phi(a/s, m) = phi(b/t, n)
yes
So manipulate to get something using this equation
I don't know if I have good hints, but just step by step:
- ||st is a unit, so phi(a/s, m) = phi(b/t) iff the same is true after multiplying by st||
- ||stphi(a/s, m) = phi(at, m)||
- ||= phi(1, atm)||
- ||= phi(1/r, ratm)||
- ||= phi(1/r, rbns)||
- ||= st phi(b/t, n)||
st is a unit?????
Well they're in P which is an S^-A module
I guess you can avoid it by just introducing
st/st on the inside
ok
phi(a/s, m) = phi(ta/st, m)
thanks @rocky cloak @velvet hull @restive idol
Hi, I hope I'm not interrupting you guys, but I have a question. In my abstract algebra syllabus it is stated that a quotient of a noetherian ring is also noetherian, but with no proof. They instead gave it as an exercise. Any tips on how to handle this?
On the same note, how do I prove that a quotient of an artenian ring is also artenian?
Do you know the correspondence theorem? I.e. what are the ideals of a quotient ring
Looks like it could be, but my dutch is weak
But my English math vocabulary is really bad
Though the analogous one for rings, this seems to be about groups
Let G be a group, N a normal group of G and let H = G/N. If K is a subgroup of H, then there exists a unique A (subgroup of G) that contains N such that K = A/N
I see nothing about this in my chapter about tings
Yes, so for rings if R is a ring, I an ideal and J an ideal of R/I then it is equal to K/I for some ideal K in R
Anyway, I would try to use this to prove your exercise, and then you can maybe think about proving this / figuring out if you were already taught it afterwards
I'm pretty sure I was not taught this theorem for rings
And how exactly would I use this to prove the exercise?
Ok how about this
Oh cool another dutchie
Belgian, ectually
This is third isomorphism theorem right
Fourth
Ah close
Third for me is (A/R)/(S/R) ≈ A/S naturally for R < S
So if R is noetherian, then if there exists a chain of ideals $I_1 \subseteq I_2 \subseteq \dots $, then there exists a $k \in N$ such that $I_l = I_k$ for all $l > k$
Nico
How about I just look at all these ideals, but then in R/I?
That is the idea
Correspondence theorem says that the ideal poset of R/I is nothing more than an "upper chunk" of the ideal poset of R
What
Poset of ideals under inclusion?