#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 374 of 1
My position is that category theory isn’t helpful for people studying linear algebra for the first time. It adds extra complexity and abstraction for no reason. I’ve been pretty clear about this lol
One can get far and get a lot out of using diagrams without actually defining categories imo
but i don't know what you mean by "category theory"
yes i agree with this
And I don’t view just drawing a diagram as doing category theory, that’s just a way to represent maps. That can be category theory, but it isn’t inherently
i think my definition of category theory is significantly broader than yours
perhaps you misunderstand what i mean when i talk about "using cat theory at undergrad level"
e.g. i would say that venn diagrams are set theory
so to me this is the equivalent of saying "venn diagrams are not set theory"
I would agree with that
Venn diagrams are a helpful tool to visualise sets, they are not set theory
ok then i think our disagreement is just a semantic one
I don’t think it is, because as far as I’m aware you support more than just drawing diagrams in intro to linear algebra, which I agree is a perfectly sensible thing to do.
i feel like the idea you've constructed in your mind of what i want is far beyond what i actually want
Or perhaps an informal discussion of universal products
(to echo an argument you made earlier, i believe the "majority opinion" would be that venn diagrams fall under set theory, for math educators)
abstract algebra final tmr
good luck tabby!!
Good luck!
ty yall i'm terrified LOL
considering you can draw and understand diagrams without even knowing the definition of a category I think its safe to say that diagrams aren't category theory
any hints for part d?
conjugate tau by sigma and use the fact that n is prime
Hint: consider the group generated by t and s^k for some suitable k
conjugating τ by σ gives [r+1 s+1], but i didnt see how that would really help me when i tried this earlier
Do diagrammatic proofs become more or less common as you study more math in algebra/topology
more common
alright i will try this
its useful to think of some simple example, like say S_7 and let tau be idk, (36)
and just see what happens when you conjugate by sigma repeatedly
Every time I see a diagrammatic proof I have an immediate reaction that “this is not rigorous enough” and I get caught up in technical details
alright
categorical diagrams are just a shortcut for a lot of equations so they're perfectly rigorous
Again this is “venn diagrams aren’t set theory” for me
algebraic topology diagrams are a shortcut for "this is obvious to anyone with a brain and writing out the explicit homotopy would be annoying as hell"
but its good to write it out a few times
even that I don't think is a very good comparison because people using venn diagrams know what sets are
at least on an intuitive level
Yeah I’m starting to see once I do enough examples I don’t need to write some stuff out
Well it’s not like they’d know the formal def
saying diagrams are category theory is like saying if you write down the cartesian product of two sets you are doing category theory
And you can also have an “intuitive” idea for categories
well σ^kτσ^{-k}=[r+k s+k]
or if you compose functions its category theory
Just in terms of arrow composition
Nitpick: everything there should be taken modulo n
I just feel like if you gatekeep what counts as category theory to only the hard stuff, then it’s a little silly to say “category theory can’t be taught early because it’s hard”
not really a nitpick its essential to the proof
right i was thinking about that, because we are dealing with the set {1,2,.., p}
It’s more a nitpick because I assume you’re implicitly doing it
I mean if you count drawing a diagram to keep track of function composition as category theory then sure people should do category theory early in their career
because how wouldn't you
that feels kinda reductive to me though
If you use the universal property then sure
"learning category theory" to me is "learning category theory"
as in, learning what a category is
and what its structure is
Again it’s a semantic thing
It’s not like people learn the ZFC axioms when doing elementary set theory
But its still a useful language for describing what you do in maths
yeah but they learn what sets are and what you can do with them
Learning category theory is (the process of) getting to the point you can understand the first 5 chapters of Riehl (or equivalent)
At an intuitive level sure
whereas you don't learn what categories are and what you can do wiith them until you... learn category theory
You can learn categories at an intuitive level too
I mean certainly you probably have an idea of what some of the concepts are, but you aren't actually using categorical concepts really at all in most cases
Again this
the closest I could see is universal properties, but im fairly sure universal properties predated category theory so they aren't really category theory
in that sense
I’m not really that interested in gatekeeping what counts and doesn’t count as category theory
I just use concepts that help my students
well sure but its not really learning category theory, maybe its learning concepts that appear in category theory but yeah I guess semantics
if someone doesn't even know the definition of a category I don't see how they can have learned category theory
in any reasonable sense of the definition
It’s strange to me that you’re so insistent on this
alright i see where this is going, choose k so that σ^kτσ^{-k}=[1 s+k] and then the result follows from part b. Tho i havent used the fact that n is prime yet.
I feel saying “you’re not learning category theory until you’re making a genuine effort to learn about the full generality of natural transformations, limits, adjoints, monads etc” is similar to saying “you’re not learning set theory until you’re making a genuine effort to learn ZFC, ordinals, cardinals and proper first order logic”, and both statements are ones I’d probably stand by
Like if you say you’re learning set theory without further qualification, I’m not going to assume you’re learning naive set theory
Both statements are ones I’d disagree with
But then I’m not a mathematician so I guess I’m not as concerned about gatekeeping
I don't think those two are similar though really
because if you don't know what limits, natural transformations, adjoints are its really hard to actually use them outside of specific examples
its learning category theory that actually tells you how all those things are used
whereas you can do almost everything you need to do in set theory without knowing zfc
now of course this is mostly because we don't really teach "naive category theory", if we did then it would be more or less the same
but honestly I don't think there's really a purpose to naive category theory
well, that's a bit of a lie maybe I do think some of the concepts are good to know
but more towards mid to higher level undergrad
like im not against using the language of "this is a functor" and " these are adjoint functors" before actually doing category theory
without fully knowing the precise definition
From my perspective it feels like people have too many prior assumptions about “category theory”
It’s almost like there’s this axiomatic belief that category theory must be hard and abstract and useless
And when evidence to the contrary is presented people label it as not being category theory
It’s confusing to me as an outsider
idk I feel like almost nobody except you considers things like drawing a diagram to be category theory
of course in that definition then sure category theory is not hard and abstract because you've just defined something very simple to be category theory
Based on what I’ve seen category theory educators do, I’m not in the minority here
I also don't think cat theory is hard (at least, the basic stuff that most people will learn) if you have mathematically maturity
The people who actually teach this stuff don’t tend to have such rigid definitions for what does and doesn’t constitute cat theory
well if you are actually teaching category theory then its category theory of course
but like someone in a linear algebra class drawing V W and U on the board and three arrows between them and saying "oh its the composition" is not doing category theory
I’ve grown tired of this semantic argument
You can define useful cat theory out of existence if you wish
I’ll focus on what actually works pedagogically
lol "define it out of existence" is not even close to what I'm saying what 
.
I think if you're using a diagram in some type of argument. Like a universal property or a diagram chase or other cases(?) then you can safely say you're doing category theory.
But just everytime there are arrows between things seems a bit to broad.
Like saying "consider f: U -> V" or "the composition U -> V -> W" is category theory seems like a stretch
I feel like this is a tiny bit missleading. Pedagogically, one great easy use of categories is just definying products, without categories, every product definition feels the same but you can't tell exactly why without it.
sure and that's one of the great things about category theory, but also if someone has just come ito a first class on linear algebra then they have seen what, two examples of products?
I think using the universal property of products in an intro linear algebra class is like incredibly overly confusing
most linear algebra classes are already fundamentally built on a universal property (the fact that vector spaces are free) but you don't need to explicitly mention that
I think the latter might be a stretch, but things like the commutative diagrams I’ve seen for illustrating how to represent a linear map by a matrix feel very categorical
I disagree that you can’t tell exactly why
Like, before category theory reason why is “the exact same proofs work the exact same way”
Category theory just allows you to prove them all at once*
* actually this isn’t as easy as it sounds, because you still have to construct the product
There is a systematic way to do this for sufficiently nice categories, but in general existence of (co)limits kinda needs to be proven more manually
Yeah, I think that would qualify. Though that's kinda the edge I would pivot at I guess
the first situations where universal properties are more enlightening than they are confusing I would say are tensor products and free groups
but even then I think you don't need to actually use the language of category theory you can just call them universal properties
Tensor products, that fun thing that every undergraduate course refuses to teach, and every postgrad course assumes you’ve seen /hj
if you count that as category theory then sure I guess teaching category theory is good but
I did use the universal property of direct sums/products in one of the classes I TA-ed this term
when most people hear "learning category theory" they don't think "doing some universal properties" they think "opening a textbook on category theory"
It’s funny to me how you went “sure learning category theory is good” and then instantly had to qualify the statement
Observing the knee-jerk reaction is fascinating
idk why you think im some category theory hater lol
I just don't think doing some universal properties and drawing diagrams is what people mean when they hear learning category theory, and I also think (and have seen first hand) that making things categorical is often a lot more confusing for people starting out
overly categorical I should say
I’ve also had a lot of first-hand experience with making things categorical in my explanations, and had a significant amount of positive feedback
Sure but doing anything “overly” is bad
hell I've seen third and fourth year students who cannot follow a proof of why a universal property characterizes an object up to isomorphism
I mean I guess it's a context thing.
Is using a commutative diagram in a linalg class category theory? sure, whatever.
Is the statement "we're gonna use some category theory in this linalg class" particularly useful? Probably not
Sure, but that really is just a naming thing
I’ve had the strange experience where people seem to believe that “category theory” is some sort of magic spell
its certainly possible to inject enough category theory in explanations to make it more clarifying for early undergrads
Isn't everything here a naming thing?
Where if I use some categorical concepts and mention on the side it comes from category theory, it suddenly makes the explanation significantly less understandable
Well I’ve said a few times that I’m more concerned with what works pedagogically, it’s just confusing to me how far some people are invested in ensuring “category theory” and “good pedagogy” have empty intersection
If it's true as you say that students shiver at the mention of it, then I guess defining it away is a good solution.
But I don't know who these people are striving for this empty intersection
Based and good take
Oh to be clear, in my experience students don’t shiver at the mention of it
Because as it turns out the words are not a magic spell
in my undergrad, there was a well-respected professor who advocated that one shouldn't begin to learn category theory until grad school.
i remember being influenced by this, in the sense that whenever there was mention of category theory, i tuned it out as something that i would understand later.
i also remember, a little later on, being somewhat confused by this, since my classmates and i were taking courses like lin alg, alg top, alg geo, group theory, comm alg, etc, where we found that category theory is useful, and not some scary thing that we had to learn at grad school.
tbh the philosophy behind delaying category theory is not because its hard or useless, but actually because its easy once you've already seen the examples of it being used
and you don't really need to have the full firepower of category theory to know what a universal property is or to talk about commutative diagrams
Also some undergrads are too afraid of computation
Well it wasn’t easy for me when I actually took the course so idk what you mean
i also found there to be a pretty steep learning curve
i get this philosphy, but it seems like you were arguing that any type of categorical thinking is just too much, no?
no? not at all
That was my impression as well
computation is scary tbf
but sadly necessary
Any time I presented something in the intersection of “cat theory” and “good pedagogy”, you seemed to argue that it didn’t belong to “cat theory”
As if, axiomatically, that intersection must be empty
that's also not my opinion at all
do you mind clarifying?
maybe boring too
Do you mean theory of computation or actual computations? lol
computations
I feel like this has a lot more to do with your opinions on algebra than you like to say it does
Actual computations
My opinions on algebra are what made the course I took difficult?
I don’t understand what you’re saying
that's why it's scary
two things (1) I think giving category theory explanations to people struggling with like, basic linear algebra or group theory or whatever is just really not good almost always, and in general I think it has very limited use for first/second year students and (2) I think self-studying category theory as a first/second year student is not really the most efficient (though of course, if people want to I guess they can)
Hard agree
however, once someone has a good amount of mathematical maturity under their belt category theory flips and becomes a super powerful tool for explaining why things are true
at least in a lot of fields I should say
If they’re struggling with matrices I don’t think universal properties are the ideal explanation
row operations are really just the yoneda lemma 
I’ve had mixed experiences regarding (1) but I know the phenomenon you’re referring to
Explode
I did this literally today
That you sometimes seem to treat algebra as this axiomatically difficult and scary thing, and not as one of the two primary inspirations of category theory
I don’t treat it as axiomatically difficult, I find it very difficult
That’s not an “opinion” of mine so much as my experience with it
universal properties in general are very confusing for people until they click, and its certainly amazing once they click but really I think you have to be very gentle when introducing them
Terminal algebra brain 🥀
Which I am, and have had success doing so
please don't banish me there have mercy 🙏
once universal properties click they're like, actually the best way of explaining things lol
I have seen you explain and have talked with multiple students who did not understand you
?
you have an opinion (algebra is very difficult) informed by your experience (finding algebra hard)
Like I feel like this is an argument of semantics
And you’ll ignore the huge number that did understand me, because you seem to be interested in harassing me specifically
if you clicked on the linked message then you shouldve been redirected to this channel because this is #chill
“I find algebra difficult” is different from “algebra has to be difficult”
“Harassing” like cmon I just don’t think you can just say your pedagogy is flawless
im not saying that category theory is the cure-all here tho.
if a student is struggling with row operations, lets address that issue first. but if you see students are somewhat comfortable with the material, why is it not a good strategy to mention a categorical result (perhaps even without naming it), for the sake of improving intuition, mental organization, etc. examples i have in mind are quotients, products, direct sums, images, and kernels.
groups-rings-fields-and-chill
if they're a strong student and are curious sure, and I also don't think there's necessarily a huge harm but I also think there are other approaches that are better
such as?
I never did say it’s flawless, but you seem to be interested in continually harassing me and harping on about how bad it is
I'm always positively surprised how active these algebra channels are compared to like #advanced-probability
well products and direct sums I don't think really anyone has issues with, quotients I suppose using universal properties is a decent approach but I think there are better ways of building intuition
idk I could be convinced for quotients that using the universal property is good
Analysts aren’t so often talkative online
what did you have in mind?
It doesn’t really help compute Z^3/<(1,1,1)> though
Yeah
Why
i looked at the solution to the practice final and oh my lord this is insane
else they'll face discrimination
I wonder why. If anything, I would've guessed it to be the opposite, considering how many people are only learning maths to apply it in a job
too busy crashing out about some bound they can't get
well quotients are fundamentally about equivalence relations, they partition up an object into blocks that "look the same" and preserve algebraic structure
Empirically verified, but also a lot of analysis research is based on the right estimate trickery and they don’t wanna get scooped
I actually think the universal algebra approach to quotients is the most intuitive
too busy analysising
though that has some crossover with category theory
If you’re referring to the example that happened recently, you’ll notice that I didn’t push the issue further once other people were helping
Or maybe analysis and other branches are simply not that philosophically deep to induce random conversations lol
Ah thank you so much!
too busy compiling stuffs to do an experiment on numerical analys
sure, but have you ever tried to build a map out of a quotient space? checking every time that it is well-defined detracts from what you are trying to get done
im not the most familiar with UA
"look the same" 💔
you wish
it has become my "scary" category theory
you wish your quotients were regular
No they’re philosophically deep, don’t fall down that “only abstraction is good” nonsense path, but a lot of analysts work to keep up publications are based on those tricks
from that perspective its actually quite easy to map out of a quotient since its just a map on the object that respects the equivalence relation
which is basically the universal property I guess
Yes exactly
lol
but its not really categorical
how so?
I'm not sure if I understand the last part
since when you work with equivalence relations you aren't really working in category theory
Calling it a universal property makes it sound more special than it is 🥀
I mean you can make it categorical but its kinda jank
.
lol wot
Like you don’t want others to figure out the “trick” you use to build your results before you can use it, not a very healthy ecosystem they run through
Maybe analysists actually have friends in real life 😉
Also this, they can afford to do things
They actually get money
idk, im on pseudo's side here. your alternatives were, 1. UA, 2. the "janky" category theory is not worth mentioning
II mean I just don't think every universal property is category theory lol
I don’t think calling it a universal property “helps”
in fact I think quotients are not really best understood through category theory unless your category is abelian really
Before you use it = before you publish your paper? Sorry for keeping asking, but I'm genuinely confused 🥲
or "nice"
topological spaces??
sure, especially given the "stigma" that cat theory has around it
topological quotients using category theory imo is really not helpful
Yeah, or the secret machinery you use to figure out what’s true quickly before making a “cleaner” proof to publish
like how do you set that up in the category of topological spaces
i…
I see. That definitely souns a bit toxic
you need to I geuss build your relation as a topological space, then have the left and right projections mapping to X
universal property of the quotient is literally what saved me trying to do algebraic topology
yes but how is that category theory
Which this happens sometimes, so you like generate results by a different means than how you prove them
it’s hard for me to engage with you when you keep playing this redefinition game
Though on the other hand, I guess there must be a reason behind it... But shouldn't it be the same for other branches as well? Like are all algebra folks chill just because they do algebra? lol
do you think that universal properties are not category theory?
not necessarily no
This is more in specific sub-fields, but they’re active ones and they have to keep up the pace to get tenure/funds, so…
considering they predated category theory I'm fairly sure
also like, explain to me how you would set up a topological quotient in the language of category theory
by an equivalence relation
Well, there’s less “tiny improvements in regularity” grinding, or “inequality tricks” that can go on in, say, PI rings
If R is a relation on a space X (not necessarily an equivalence), the universal property of X/R is that continuous maps X/R -> Z naturally correspond to continuous maps X -> Z which respect R
Fair enough. Are you a scholar/PhD student, Sharp?
the issue is you have to realize your equiivalence relation as an object in some category, and that is really not that intuitive (how do you make your relation into a topological space?)
Now, there’s algebraists who do that thing too, but there’s a lot broader question types too
No, you don’t?
like you can do it, but I don't think its best understood using category theory
At least not for stating the universal property
sure but how is it category theory if the universal property doesn't even use any categories
I guess in a sense it is but I really don't consider it
Whereas for PDEs there’s, like, not as broad of “question types,” and there’s instead a lot of tiny fine structure e.g.
do you see what i mean here c squared
idk why you want to claim like all of mathematics as being in the domain of category theory lol
Obviously there’s a lot of PDEs but there’s only a few classes of big interest
I’ve never once said that
Things like that
Nothing even close to that
to me category theory approach would be setting it up as a relation R mapping onto X via the left and right projection, then taking some sort of limit
and you can do this, but its also very much not intuitive imo
You do kinda shoehorn it in every time
yes lol
Stop harassing me
Yes
That's great! what do you work in?
yes but to phrase "respecting R" in the language of category theory you need to make the relation and object and phrase respecting R in terms of maps
Analysis, groups, and logic
which is not intuitive in my opinion
Wrong reply but wtv
No, you don’t
You can phrase it as representing a copresheaf
I think I get the point, but it's still surprising. It's not like people ask research-level questions on discord. Even here I can usually understand what a discussion is about
Which does not require R to be an object in your category
oh yes that's way more intuitive 
It’s a universal thing in a category of maps that already respect R
But maybe algebra is just interesting even when dealing with basic stuff, whereas analysis less so
Again, you can phrase it without explicitly using the word “copresheaf”
I mean you can I just don't think you are actually using any of the machinery of category theory so I don't get it
Like, the category of maps X -> B respecting R for some B \equiv category of maps X/R -> B
This is way cleaner than saying copresheaf
This is more a problem with your understanding, then
Right, but in analysis, research level doesn’t necessarily mean a lot of fancy adjectives
Can just be a lot of technical bounding
Can ask this to be an isomorphism even
yeah I'm not saying it can't be explained using category theory I should say
but I would not say "maps out of X/R are maps out of X that respect R" is category theory because you have to explain what "respect R" means
and the most obvious way to explain it is to go inside the objects and talk about elements of sets
Which is fine
which is in my opinion very intuitive (and this is basically the universal algebra approach)
That’s the approach i use too
Now, if you actually wanted to explain this instead of just throwing out terminology, you could specify how this X/R object that makes this work is exactly the kind of thing that represents the appropriate copresheaf by that functor
Because that gives a functor to specify maps respecting R
and I don't think that just because you are talking about maps it means you are doing category theory
That’s not what i said, but you’ve already shown you’re willing to misrepresent my position multiple times
I mean, you were talking as if the universal property of the quotient for topological spaces was some big example of category theory no?
More the other way around imo
, compare how you need to introduce a lot of machinery to define some problems, whereas major problems in analysis can be as explicit as “There is a smooth solution to this pde”
I’m done with this conversation
No abstraction there at all, somehow Navier Stokes is still a big deal because the details are horrendous
Which you also can’t say “so much abstraction, garbage” to things either ofc
Does this just follow from the fact that (a/p) = \pm 1 and the set {m_1, m_2, \dots} coincides with {1, 2, \dots}?
Or do we need to show that the +-1 agrees with (a/p)
I'm confused
What is f?
I think it may feel like this because the "simple stuff" is still far away from what you're used to so it feels more new
f(z) = exp(2 \pi i z) - exp(- 2 \pi i z)
sotrue
Then I guess it's just
f(la/p) = f((a/p)(l/p)) and because (a/p)=±1 this is (a/p)f(l/p)
So the products are just equal factorwise
Hmm, no up to a (a/p)^(p-1)/2 thing I guess...
proof: Omitted
That's a good point. Honestly, it must be quite sad that research boils down to very small iterations
Well, it usually doesn’t
But some research directions do
Which, to some extent, that’s just the Ph.D. student/early career researcher paper mill for you
And those minor improvements can be significant at times
Since there’s also a lot of proofs/papers of the form “We know something \leq A, but if something \leq B (and A-B is small), then [big result]”
There’s a few equivalences of RH stuff in that direction
I wouldn't count that as a "small iteration" then
Or see bootstrapping for elliptic pde regularity stuff

Well, on its own the result is a small iteration
And those “this gap improvement is critical” papers are not always well known
So sometimes things aren’t known to be sufficient, or that minor improvement was known to be sufficient by some old researcher but he never wrote it down because he couldn’t get that jump, so it appears minor
Etc
So there’s some small “pass/fail gaps” these minor improvements in estimates (minor as in being only a small improvement) can overcome
But yeah it’s kinda stinky lmao
right, I see, that makes sense
ts is what happens when you don't operate as a hivemind 😔
“This proof failed because I was this small bit off” “Oh hey see this minor improvement”
this minor improve your what? 🤨
😭
I shall now use this for slendering purposes
literature research is important people
The comparable algebra slop results are like proving some specific (class of) objects you never come across has a property you never use
ts results kind of annoy me cuz I'm always like "cmon there's so much more you can do these objects are so cool"
maybe they just don't do it for the love of the game
Sorry they just needed another paper
the sad reality
“We peeled off this minor assumption from this other paper”
Mohamed Elhamdadi moment
What did they do
On the other hand, I guess a good portion of research has some uses even if boils down to small improvements since grants aren't just money thrown in random directions... right?
90% of his papers are just introducing some new cohomology theory for some new variant of quandles
Whatever helps you sleep at night
the other 10% are great though
Now this is peak slop
Maybe they’re useful but these kinds of “turn the dial and print” papers are what I was talking about
the first couple are cool but then it's just kind of annoying
whatever gets you money though
you go girl
I read a blog post on knot theory once where the author was complaining that not enough people doing knot theory were looking for invariants for things they actually cared about in knots
i.e. people were just inventing invariants with whatever they could find rather than proving relationships with fundamental properties of knots lol
Lol
Right
Not that that’s easy though
it's not! but they were frustrated that no one was even making an effort
knot that that's easy
which is kinda how I feel when looking at all the algeslop
Could just be effort that never made it far enough for papers too
argh I suppose
Is this how you denote an action of a group on a set?
I mean, “hey there’s this logical connection between these PDEs and this algebra” doesn’t always pan out enough for a publication
left action yes
its pretty common yes
Great, thank you
The only kind fr
ts
I would say that but I also assume like
If they’re making that comment, they know the relevant people well enough personally to know that their statement is correct, even in terms of failed efforts
I mean it doesn't have to be a publication
angry group theorist noises
Right probably true, at least to some degree
Yeah but I meant enough to write down, tell people about, etc
(probably because there isn't much reason to care about many of these objects in the first place)
People have found all manner of things in unpublished notes once they get ahold of them
Sometimes only once the author dies
NOOOO
I can imagine
sometimes that random thing you wrote down ages ago becomes useful
Or there were very useful lemmas you just never followed up on
But nobody ever knew (or thought) about
right
Can’t say I’m the biggest fan of the state of some literatures
Folklore, errors, citation issues, and problems between mixing of conventions
1 cites 2 cites 3 cites 1
None have the proof they claim is in the next
Also I’ve seen misspelled names
Like vro copy and paste atp
this has to be coordinated 
Anyway, citation loops, the cited thing being irrelevant/wrong, citing unavailable private notes/communications etc
doesn't arXiv literally have a citation button
Yes
Though not all are recent, not all are arXiv, etc
Also things to be said about the quality of the claimed peer reviewing as well
Some old ones have name typos because of transliteration things for non-Latin characters, or publishers who don’t get the name conventions
Like differences in using i, j, and y for Й
Let the order of G be equal to pq where p and q are prime numbers (not necessarily distinct). Prove that either G is abelian, or the centre of G is trivial.
If G is abelian, then Z(G) = G != 1, and we're done. If G is not abelian, then Z(G) is a proper subgroup of G, so its order must be an element of {1, p, q}.
If |Z(G)| = p, then Z(G) is cyclic and so is generated by a non-trivial element of G. However, that would mean that G is abelian. From symmetry, |Z(G)| != q. Hence Z(G) is trivial.
Does this work?
If |Z(G)| = p, then Z(G) is cyclic and so is generated by a non-trivial element of G. However, that would mean that G is abelian
needs more justification
also I'm not quite sure it follows from that
hint: look at G/Z(G) too
I guess everything works if you just change it to "... G/Z(G) is cyclic..."
Should this say p^n?
Yes
Yes
Let H = Z(G). Let H = <x> and |H| = p. Then |G / H| = q, so G / H is cyclic and G / H = <yH>. In other words, G = <x, y>. However, if x in Z(G), then xy = yx, so y in Z(G) as well. Contradiction
Like that?
exactly
this can be extended and you get the neat theorem that G/Z(G) can never be nontrivial and cyclic
because everything in Z(G) commutes with a representing element of the generator of G/Z(G), but that of course commutes with itself, and G is generated by Z(G) plus that generator, hence G is abelian
of course!
And also for elaborating on that. It sounds pretty handy
are there any uses for it besides this theorem?
Oh, I meant the theorem haha
I was kinda asking all the people here lol are there any uses for the fact that G/Z(G) can't be cyclic besides this particular case?
maybe as like one of the cases of the order of Z(G)
Was it used in the “finite p-group has nontrivial center”?
No, that’s just “consider the class equation”
that seems backwards
lmao
You can show that |Aut(G)| is never prime
Right right, just meant if it could be
oh, yeah I see
I am a p-group.
prismatic p-group
I don’t think so
Like, you can’t use it to rule out Z(G) = e very easily
Oh yeah that would work, there’s some tomfoolery around this for infinite G tho
Unfortunate, can’t think of any other use of this then
As in, there’s choice bs involved
Since if you lose choice you can make infinite F_2 vector spaces with like order 7 automorphism groups or some such stupid bs
I think
yes Im an infinite F_2 vector space
yes I have an ORDER SEVEN AUTOMORPHISM GROUP?????
WHAT THE FUCK
consequences of having basis
Well, not having one
I wonder what happens if G/Z_2(G) is cyclic. I think G would have to be solvable but can we say more
Does that imply nilpotent?
eeoooe higher centres
scary
If you have a basis, you always have an order 2 element (swap two basis vectors)
yeah I meant the negation lol
That’s what I’m thinking
If G is a p group this is a very restrictive condition
It’s a quotient but can yoy, like, get Z3(G) = G?
Obviously G would be nilootent but still
Infinite groups are a hoax
Maybe. That’s what I’m thinking. Z_3(G) = {g in G | [g,h] in Z_2(G) for all h in G}
U figure it out from there im going to sleep
have fun or sum
I don’t touch higher centers ever it’s just what I was thinking (something something are you chill and get this for Zn generally too?)
Good night freaky lad
no
but like
p=2
n=6, d = 3
C3 = <phi^2_2> right
and everything fixed by that is the alpha thta tsatisfy alpha^2^2=alpha
not alpha^2^3=alpha
What's the fixed field of C_6?
F_2 right
Since C_6 is the whole galois grouup
Are you sure?
F_p^n/F_p has galois group C_n
Gamma is the generator of the Galois Group right?
oh yeah phi(a)= a^p here
I see what you mean. I think he should have written C_d=gamma^d
Or equivalently what you wrote
but if C_d = gamma^d
like then C_3 = gamma^3, but this isnt true
gamma^3 only has order 2?
so how could it be C_3
Wait.
But Gamma^3(x)=x^p^3 so the fixed field is F_p^3
I'm really sleepy so somebody else should help you
yeah this is correcct
but the subgroup generated by <gamma^3> is C_ 2 right
not C_3
Let H <= K <= G. I want to show that [G : H] = [G : K] * [K : H]. Is there a way to prove this by constructing an isomorphism between G/H and (G/H) x (K/H)?
You could use third iso theorem? But that only works if the subgroups are normal
I’d recommend a more elementary combinatorial argument
You can prove it very quickly using group actions and orbit stabilizer if you have done those
If I recall
Yes there is, but even that argument requires you to prove its well-defined
Choose coset reps for G/K, label them g_1, …, g_n
Then define G/H -> G/K x K/H by gH -> gK x gg_i^{-1} H where g_i K = gK
But that needs a lot of checking to show that it actually works
hmm actually I might've been thinking of a different proof, though I do think there's probably an action for which this will work
ok I guess if you allow the group to be finite you can do this p easily by considering the action of G x K on G/K x K/H
I see. So all of these seem to follow a similar path to the proof I found
actually I think the action of G on G/H x G/K will also work and doesn't require the group to be finite
Where we first get rid of the infinite order cases, and then try to manipulate the cosets
that's the cleanest one, and its always what I was remembering since I needed to prove [G:H\cap K] = [G:H][H:H\cap K] for finite index subgroups of infiinite groups on an assignment recently
Oh. What's the idea?
the orbit should be everything and the stabilizer is H\cap K = H
and orbit stabilizer says that the index of the stabilizer is equal to the size of the orbit
actually wait the orbit isn't everything, but it should be G/H x H/K
let me think ab this for a second
Sure, take your time
Yes, I don't think I see why the function is well-defined 😵💫
Wait. Shouldn't gg_i^{-1} H be g_i^{-1}g H?
Since we want the representative be an element of K
I think either should work
ok at the least this one is quite simple, sinice the orbit of any point is the entirety of G/K x K/H which has size [G:K][K:H] and the stabilizer (of say, the pair (K,H)) is equal to K\times H
So we need to ensure that the representative is an element of K. How do we know that gg_i^{-1} is in K?
so then you just need to compute the index of K x H in G x K, which is just |G|/|H| = [G:H]
you might be able to show this abstractly it doesn't seem too hard
actually yeah flip it
How would it act on the product?
Sorry for not following. Group actions are one of the topics I don't understand well yet, but I thought this could be a good way to see how it works
Actually, maybe I'm trying to go too fast. I'll first go through some more problems on group actions and then come back to this
you would have (g,k)(xK,yH) = (gxK,kyH), but yeah probably goood to cover more on actions
pretty much any combinatorial problem involving group theory is going to involve the orbit stabilizer theorem or some group action stuff
its really overpowered
lol what is the group
(I assume you mean subgroup?)
well there arent many groups of order 7
@tall igloo
sure but I meant how is it generated 💀
but cool I'll take a look
In a choiceless set theory
Actually there isn't even a set that can contain all of these
of course theyre all isomorphic 💀
set theory ruh roh
axiom of choiceless
The fuck
Wait genuinely how do you do that
Does it have something to do with the existence of a basis-less vector space
Yes
I feel this makes sense ye like
To me a better question is how do you even prove the existence of any nontrivial auto of an infinite F2 vector space without having a basis lol
Like I wonder if it is consistent with ZF that there is an infinite F2 vector space with trivial automorphism group and would not be surprised if it is
Maybe I am being silly though
Should this box circled in red be |H|? or |G/H|? It seems like we have |G/H| distinct roots, and |H| copies of each root
probably is?
I think it is but I hate these set theory things
the set theory things hate you too i think
nothing personal of course
very personal, actually
...nothing personnell kid
Ye this was my guess just idk
And I was paranoid I had missed something obvious LOL
Just to make sure, if I want to create a quotient group, the subgroup I divide by must be normal, right?
Oh, I think I know where my confusion comes from. I can consider the index of any subgroup, but if I wanted to consider the quotient, it wouldn't be "properly structured" if the subgroup isn't normal
Yes
You still get a quotient set, it just doesn’t have a natural group structure
That makes a lot of sense now. I finally get why normal subgroups are "special"
Yeah there’s lots of reasons for this but this is a good one
It seems I somehow solved this right by accident then. It only works because the centre of a group is always normal
The more you know... :')
mhm
Thanks! I feel like my eyes have just been opened lol
yayy
im a little surprised because "normal subgroups are what make quotient groups possible" is how i was introduced to them
If I'm being honest, I sometimes come late to class. I'm sure it was covered, but I probably just happened to miss it...
💔
Not really. I recall the term appeared at some point in my linear algebra class, but that's pretty much it
the idea is that congruences are the natural generalisation of equivalence relations to algebraic structures
an equivalence relation on a set $X$ is a subset $R \subseteq X \times X$ which satisfies reflexivity, symmetry, and transitivity
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so, a congruence on a group $G$ is a subgroup $R \leq G \times G$ which satisfies reflexivity, symmetry and transitivity
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
you take the equivalence relation definition, and just replace "subset" by "subgroup"
you can also think of this as an equivalence relation which "respects the group operation" - if $g_1 \sim h_1$ and $g_2 \sim h_2$ then $g_1 g_2 \sim h_1 h_2$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
in linear algebra, a congruence on a vector space $V$ is a subspace $W \leq V \times V$ which satisfies reflexivity, symmetry and transitivity
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
in ring theory, a congruence on a ring $R$ is a subring $S \leq R \times R$ which satisfies reflexivity, symmetry and transitivity
I see. So that's the background behind constructing e.g. exterior algebras
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
mhm - in general, the way you construct quotients of algebraic things is with congruences
in the case of group theory, any congruence determines a normal subgroup and vice-versa
if $N$ is a normal subgroup, you can define a congruence on $G$ by $a \sim b \iff a^{-1} b \in N$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
conversely, if $R$ is a congruence on $G$, then the equivalence class of the identity element is a normal subgroup
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and these operations are inverses of each other
so every normal subgroup corresponds to a unique congruence, and vice-versa
does that make sense?
I'm still processing why the equivalence class of the neutral element is a normal subgroup
But the rest does, yes
ah so we derive it as follows
you can think of it as the set of $x \in G$ such that $(e, x) \in R$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
since R is reflexive, $(e, e) \in R$, so you get $e \in N$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
also if $(e, x)$ and $(e, y) \in R$, then since $R$ is a subgroup we have $(e, x)(e, y) = (e, xy) \in R$, so $xy \in N$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so it's closed under multiplication
also if $(e, x) \in R$ then since $R$ is a subgroup we have $(e, x)^{-1} = (e, x^{-1}) \in R$, so $x^{-1} \in N$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
that means N is at least a subgroup, right?
Yes
to get normality, you use reflexivity
if $g \in G$ and $(e, x) \in R$ then $(g, g) (e, x) (g^{-1}, g^{-1}) \in R$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
meaning that $(g e g^{-1}, g x g^{-1}) \in R$, so $(e, g x g^{-1}) \in R$, so $g x g^{-1} \in N$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
thus the equivalence class of the identity is a normal subgroup
And we know that it's in R because R is reflexive, so for every g, (g, g) is an element of R, right?
yep!
in fact the congruence is determined by the equivalence class of the identity
$(a, b) \in R \iff (a^{-1}, a^{-1})(a, b) \in R \iff (e, a^{-1} b) \in R \iff a^{-1} b \in N$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
that's why normal subgroups produce a unique congruence
What about other equivalence classes in the quotient set of R? Do they have some relevant properties?
they're the cosets of N!
note that $a^{-1} b \in N \iff b \in aN$, i.e. $b$ and $a$ are in the same coset of $N$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
:)
if you do this for rings, then you get that congruences correspond to ideals (as the equivalence class of 0)
I see. So that's why we divide by ideals
mhm mhm
Because there's no other choice
I also understand why normal subgroups pop up in so many exercises
right - in a sense, the "congruence" is the fundamental concept for quotients, and then it turns out that, for algebraic structures, they're always determined by the equivalence class of the neutral element
(well at least most of the time - for monoids you don't have a similar result and actually need to work with congruences)
I'll try to think how this relates to abelianisation
Or more like what abelianisation looks like in these terms
ah that's when you quotient the group by the commutator subgroup, right?
Yep
you can think of that as defining a relation on a group $G$ by saying $a \sim b$ iff $a^{-1} b$ is a commutator $g h g^{-1} h^{-1}$ for some $g, h$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and then taking the congruence generated by that relation
Ok, maybe that's too much for now. I understand the equivalence relation, but I wanted to see how it works in the terms of congruence. But let's ignore it for now
I'll try to do some more exercises
that's alright
i guess abelianisation also satisfies a convenient universal property
For example this one: Let G be a finite group, H its subgroup and N its normal subgroup. If gcd(|H|, |G/N|) = 1, then H is a subgroup of N.
Now that I know that I can only consider quotients when dividing by normal subgroups, I see this way: consider G/N. Let A = {hN : h in H}. A is a subgroup of G/N:
- Since e in H, then eN in A.
- If xN, yN in A, then we can assume that x and y belong to H, so xy does too. So xyN is in A.
- If xN in A, then again, we can assume x in H, so x^-1 in H, so x^{-1}N in A.
Since |H| and |G/N| are relatively prime, then by Lagrange's theorem, A must be a singleton. Since eN in A, then all of elements of H must be in N, so H <= N.
Does that make sense?
Yes
yeah that tracks
Awesome! And we don't really need the finiteness of G, right? We only need |H| and |G : N| being finite
Yeah
Yay. That was the thing I was concerned I somehow skipped
can you spell out the lagrange's theorem argument again
i didn't quite understand it
Oh, wait. That is a problem
like A is a subgroup of G/N, so the size of A divides G/N
i don't quite get why the size of A should divide |H| though
Yes, that's wrong. I somehow used the size of H in a place where the size of A mattered
Let me think how to fix that
A is definitely smaller or equal to H (size-wise)
But also |A| must divide |G/N|
Hint: ||first isomorphism theorem||
And A is the image of a projection of H onto G/N
So it's isomorphic to G/Ker projection
what if you take $G = A_4$, $H = \langle (123) \rangle$, and $N = \langle (12)(34), (13)(24), (14)(23) \rangle$?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
hm no that doesn't work
gcd(|H|, |G/N|) = 3
The theorem is correct
it is??
So if pi = the projection, then |H| / |Ker pi| = |H/Ker pi| = |Im pi| = |A| => |A| divides |H|
Why do you think it isn’t?
But if |A| divides |G/N| and |A| > 1, then gcd(|H|, |G/N|) > 1. Contradiction
i don't understand the argument for why |A| divides |H|
A = H/ker(H -> G/N)
hm
It’s pretty much exactly the second isomorphism theorem
A = HN/N \cong H/(H \cap N)
i see..
That part was tricky... I completely disregarded it
But I'm glad we figured it out!
Good catch, Pseudo
ah i think mishu was more helpful 🙃
Uh why am I uncomfortable that M/(N1 cap N2) injects into M/N1 (+) M/N2
Idk, but this is basically Chinese remainder theorem
Maybe thats why. I never learned that theorem properly.
Never took the time to understand it
Well the injectivity part is just if m+N1 = N1 and m+N2=N2, then m is in both N1 and N2.
I guess the tricky part of CRT is that you get surjectivity when M = N1+N2
Which is just one of the isomorphism theorems really:
(N1+N2)/N1 = N2/(N1capN2)
Let A be an abelian and normal subgroup of G, and B a subgroup of G. I want to prove that A \cap B is a normal subgroup of AB.
I understand that x(A \cap B)x^{-1} \in A for all x in AB (because A is normal), but I don't know how to prove that it's also an element of B
Now you need to use that x = ab for some a \in A, b \in B
Hm, all I see is that I end up with aya^{-1} where y is in A \cap B. Oh, so since A is abelian, then it's equal to y
That makes sense
Thank you!
Let M and N be normal subgroups of G such that G = MN. Prove that G/(M \cap N) iso with (G/M) x (G/N).
I define a phi : G -> (G/M) x (G/N), phi(g) = (gM, gN). Then Ker(phi) = M \cap N, so by the first isomorphism theorem, I get what I wanted. But I don't really use the fact that G = MN, which is quite concerning. Where did I make a mistake?
phi is an isomorphism onto the image of phi in (G/M) x (G/N), but you haven’t proved yet that phi is surjective
Right
well
phi isn’t an iso
i had a brain fart, my b
phi descends to an injective map out of the quotient
So you're saying it's not an isomorphism because it's not surjective?
You have to prove surjectivity and that uses G = MN
i misspoke. let me restate.
phi : G —> (G/M) x (G/N) has kernel M \cap N. phi descends through the quotient to a homomorphism f : G/(M \cap N) —> (G/M) x (G/N). the map f is an isomorphism onto the image of phi, by the first isomorphism theorem.
in order to show that to show that f is an isomorphism G/(M \cap N) —> (G/M) x (G/N), it suffices to prove that phi is surjective
Since G = NM = MN, then I can factorise each element of G as g = nm = m'n'. Since N is normal, I can assume that m' = m. Then
phi(g) = (gM, gN) = (nmM, mn'N) = (nM, mN)
The elements n and m were arbitrary, which proves that phi is surjective
Thank you!
I like how different algebra books motivate introduction/interplay between normal groups, quotient groups and homomorphism differently. For example in Hertstein's "Topics in Algebra" normal groups naturally followed from his desire to make cosets into groups, this required the operation (Nx)(Ny)=N(xy) to be well-defined, so it necessitated putting some additional constraints on subgroup N (that it must be normal), and it all worked amazingly and looked elegant and motivating, I was happy 🙂 Then I looked at Dummit and Foote, and they motivate all quite differently and also in an eye-opening fashion: they didn't even bother much with that coset business and started from homomorphisms and show quotient groups as groups of "fibers" of the homomorphism.
this image stays with me now 🙂 On the top the vertical strands are those "fibers" that are subsets of elements of G taken to the same element of H
and also multiplication of fibers using the "representatives" and that it is independent of the choice of representatives:
And the third insight - that Pinter's book gave me - is that quotient groups (or "factor groups") can "factor out" certain properties to form groups without them, which is quite cool. I.e. if you want to factor out "non-abeliannness" in your group G, you can form a quotient G/H where H is the subgroup containing all "non-abelianness", i.e. all commutators (elements of form xyx^{-1}y^{-1} for x, y from G, if they are distinct from identity elements this means that xy != yx). And if you do that, then G/H is abelian. The same about factoring out elements with finite order (subgroup H of elements with finite order) and forming group G/H where all elements are of infinite order
Yeah, that's probably a better way than to pull normal subgroups and cosets out of a hat.
I mean, this is probably not all that different and are just several sides of the same coin (can a "coin" have more than two sides in larger dimensions?) - but still, accents are different, point of views are somewhat different, I like contrasting different approaches
lang starts with normal subgroups by wishing to characterize kernels of homomorphisms
to characterize in which sense? I.e. to find some properties of kernels?
and then shows that they must have normality? and hence are normal groups by definition?
yea
thats for sure the best way to do it
immediately give your audience the reason why we care
And this generalizes better to other algebraic structures:
"Which subsets of a group can be the kernel of a homomorphism?" gives you normal subgroups.
"Which subsets of a (commutative) ring can be the kernel of a homomorphism?" gives you ideals.
... even though at first sight the conditions for being a normal subgroup vs an ideal don't look like they have much in common.
so it turns out that there more than 2 sides of a coin
yea lang doesnt yap
i mean im a fan of yapping
thats why i decided to go through his book even tho its hard/time consuming
usually when im reading a textbook the overall goal is to think like a person who studies the content in the book
and yapping exposes you to that more in my opinion
ohhh right thats a nice remark
i mean one should think about the content regardless if there is much yapping or no
well its more than just knowing the content
i want to know how a topologist or an analyst or an algebraist actually approaches these things
thats much different than just being able to state theorems
and even different than applying the theorems to homework problems (though both of these things are super important steps to knowing the approach)
well i dont consider this as thinking about the content, this is more like memorizing the content imo
thats why i added that last bit
i realized that same thing as i was writing it out lol
thats my bad
by thinking about the content i mean to actually think about how to prove these stated theorems, and this is independent of whether the author yaps or no
dw all good
to UA too; we wish to characterise the equivalence relations that come out as kernels of homomorphisms
UA?
even better: normal subgroups correspond to congruence relations
oh yeah enpeace just said that oops
universal algebra
:>
So perhaps a possible conclusion is that the generic concept of "quotient" should first be taught for abelian groups (which seem to be the most general setting where we can just look at the preimage of {0} rather than an entire equivalence relation) and only later extended to rings, general groups, vector spaces.
(Modular arithmetic can still be a main example, even though it's a bit awkward that respecting the ring structure is only in the "later" part).
before vector spaces even?
This is just thinking aloud, mind you. :-)
considering how ubiquitous the concept is id imagine it being taught in an introductory LA course
ah alright
But yeah, you make a good point there.
I somehow missed the quotient set construction in any set theory I was using/doing, so for me this whole business of "quotient something" was new when seen in group theory. Only later I realised that there was a quotient set construction based on equivalence relations
there is a survey article on GroupProps about this: constrasting quotient set vs quotient group
the big thing here is two things really:
- congruences of groups are 1-regular, i.e. if they agree on their 1-coset they are the same
- 1 is an idempotent; the 1-coset always forms a subgroup
On the other hand, a radical answer to that might also be that the introductory (proof-based) LA course really ought to treat some basics of abelian groups on the way to abstract vector spaces, instead of dumping the entire abstract definition of vector space on the students in a single package.
im pretty sure i could cough up a proof using Malcev conditions that if these two are satisfied in an algebra then the "normal substructures" can be defined equationally lol
hmm, i see some points here
but that could also be turned around to use vector spaces are examples of abelian groups
mm, so this is probably a terser way of saying this?
Perhaps first treat R^n, then "let's look at the facets of R^n and R itself and Z and Q that all work the same way, namely addition and subtraction of elements".
well it does say more but the reason kernels can be defined equationally as "special subgroups" is because of the two i mentioned
which to me can be summarised as "groups have more structure, so congruences on them have additional properties" 🙂
congruence uniformity doesnt have to do with that but it is the reason we can make certain counting arguments
lmao that is true in a way, but the better way of phrasing this, is that it has the right additional structure for these properties to appear
this can be phrased very specifically but that requires a background in UA so i will not bother you with it lol
That seems to break down a bit for rings, since ideals are not substructures.
yeah i phrased it wrong, better would be that the 1 generates a trivial substructure
or you could take idempotent to mean additionally that c^A = 1 for any constant operation c, as that still fits into the pattern of f(1, ..., 1) = 1
:P
wait i have my terminology wrong
such an element is called a unit or identity
but it doesnt if you remove your 1!
rngs are congruence representable
So there are some useful algebraic structures where kernels are substructures and others where they aren't.
yes
like lattices for example super useful but not congruence regular
quandles/racks too, if you want to argue them to be useful
rings are super super special
because their congruences arent substructures, but they are exactly the sub-bimodules
I’ve been saying this
Especially wedding rings
If a polynomial is solvable by radicals, does its splitting field necessarily sit atop a tower of simple radical extensions?
I'M FREE I TOOK MY FINAL

How’d it go, if you wanna talk about it?
i feel okay about 9 out of 10 questions, the 10th one i really couldnt figure out, the sun was BEAMING down upon me and i was sweating so bad so i ended up just saying smth about generators being mapped to generators
i also realized that denoting a subgroup of order 2 as N = {n_1,n_2} is a bad idea bc one of them needs to be the identity
i was stuck on a question for at least 20 minutes until i realized i needed the identity and i got it within the next 3 minutes 😭
overall very fun exam but knowing how i feel good i probably did not do great :')
hopefully i get above a 46 though
Fingers crossed for the results!!
if i get above a 46 then i pass the class, if i get above a 77 i can get a B- in the class
i think for an A i have to get a 95
lord knows that aint happening
hopefully (if i pass) i'll do better next semester bc i wont be taking a notoriously difficult topology class
AND my midterms wont be on the same days like they were this term
I've proven that if G is a permutation group acting on a set A, then if I take a σ in G and a in A, then σG_aσ^{-1} = G_{σ(a)}. Also, if G acts transitively on A, then \bigcap_{σ in G} σG_aσ^{-1} = 1.
Now I want to prove that if G is an abelian and transitive subgroup of S_A, then σ(a) != a for all a in A and all non-trivial σ's
Actually, let me rewrite it in tex because it's a mess...
What I've proven: Let $G \leq S_A$ act on $A$. If $\sigma in G$ and $a \in A$, then $\sigma G_a \sigma^{-1} = G_{\sigma(a)}$. Furthermore, if $G$ acts transitively on $A$, then
[
\bigcap_{\sigma \in G} \sigma G_a \sigma^{-1} = 1.
]
What I want to prove: If $G$ is an abelian and transitive subgroup of $S_A$, then
[
\forall a \in A , \forall \sigma \in G \setminus { 1 }. ; \sigma(a) \neq a.
]
thingoln
I think I've got to a contradiction. Fix $a \in A$ and $\sigma \in G_a \setminus { 1 }$. Let $\psi \in G_a$. Since $\sigma G_a \sigma^{-1} = G_{\sigma(a)}$, then $\sigma \psi \sigma^{-1} \in G_{\sigma(a)}$. However, since $G$ is abelian, then $\sigma \psi \sigma^{-1} = \psi \in G_a$. Hence, $G_{\sigma(a)} \subseteq G_a$, so in particular $\sigma(a) = a$. Since $a$ was an arbitrary point, then $\sigma = 1$
I don’t think that intersection is always trivial without further assumptions
thingoln
Namely I think you need to assume the action is faithful
What I've proven is the statement of an exercise
It comes right before the one I'm tackling now
The hint said to use it, but it seems I'm doing something wrong :')
Wait yeah what you texed and what you originally wrote aren’t the same
Namely, what you texed is for a subgroup of the permutation group on A, not any old permutation group
I agree with everything you wrote then
Ah, I see
In that case, why did I arrive at a contradiction?
Like, I take a non-trivial sigma and prove that it's actually trivial. That would mean that G is a singleton
Oh, wait
You prove that something that stabilises a, stabilises a?
I’d hope so
Sigma depends on a, so you can’t let a vary and keep sigma fixed in the last line
i think its great that you enjoy algebra and are taking more of it, and improvement within a semester is a great indicator for future algebra since starting out the notions are so foreign
Yes. Sigma should be coming from G. Sorry, I have at least that part right in my notebook, but I miswrote it here 
This is something I did mess up, though
Since we're in an Abelian group, I can simply say that sigma G_a sigma^{-1} = G_sigma(a) implies that G_a = G_sigma(a). I don't know where it leads yet, but let's write it down
Yes
Just because a and sigma(a) have the same stabilizer doesn't mean they're the same element of A.
That's true
But because G acts transitively on A, sigma(a) can be anything, so you have proved that all the stabilizers are the same subgroup.
Okay, I think I see it. We've just proven that a permutation from $G$ stabilises a iff the same permutation stabilises $\sigma(a)$. And that works for all non-trivial $\sigma$'s. So let $a \in A$ and $\psi \in G_a$. Then, for all $\sigma \in G \setminus { 1 }$ we have $\psi(\sigma(a)) = \sigma(a)$. Let $b \in A \setminus { a }$ and choose a $\sigma$ such that $\sigma(a) = b$. Then $\psi(b) = b$, so $\psi = 1$
thingoln
In other words, $G_a = G_b$ for all $a, b \in A$
thingoln
So there is no non-trivial stabiliser in G, which concludes the proof!
Yay! That was a tough one lol
I really messed up at first, but thanks to your help, guys, we've done it
In fancier words:
- We know that the stabilizers of elements in the same orbit are conjugates.
- Since G is assumed to act transitively, there's only one orbit.
- So all stabilizers are conjugates.
- Since G is abelian, conjugate subgroups are equal.
- Thus all stabilizers are equal, and an element of G that fixes anything fixes everything.
nvm, I misread your message. I understand it now
Does anybody know why x^{-1} mapsto zero? Why is it contained in B? I'm assuming they are saying that it is in the kernel of the extension B -> \Omega
I understand that the extension factors through the projection, and since x^{-1} is contained in m', it is killed, but I don't understand why it's in the domain
I also understand that x^{-1} is contained in A', but I don't see why A' should be contained in B
Because B only extends A, not necessarily A'
dont crosspost, man
Let's say that G acts on a set X. What is meant by X^G?
The elements of X fixed by every element G
Thank you!
Equivalently, the set of objects of the action groupoid whose connected components are singletons
Let A = (a_ij) the generic m⨯n matrix over the polynomial ring R = ℤ[a_ij] in mn variables. What is a minimal spanning set for the kernel of A as an R-linear map from R^n to R^m?
TBH maybe this is an algebraic geometry question. I will shift it.
So can I say additive group of group ring G over R is isomorphic to direct sum of |G| copies of additive group R ?
Yes
And if r^2g = r^2h for all r, is it true that g = h ?
Yes, you only need r = 1
Here they are not assuming R has to be a unitial ring
Then it fails if we have the 0 multiplication
I don't get it
Consider the ring R with underlying additive group Z, and multiplication given by ab = 0
Then r^2 = 0 for all r, so r^2 g = 0 = r^2 h for any g, h \in G
I see
It holds if and only if there is some r with r^2 =/= 0
By definition of a direct sum
How do I show if R(G) is commutative then R and G are commutative.
For R, I did in the following way,
(r e) (s e) = (s e ) (r e) => rs e = sr e => rs = sr
It’s false
If R has 0 multiplication, then we don’t need G to be commutative
So I need some r and s in R such that rs ≠ 0.
But it is given in this paragraph
R(G) is commutative iff the multiplication on R is 0, or both G and R are commutative
Yes
Okay thank you
I showed that in the finite ring, if there exists either a left zero divisor or a right zero divisor it will imply there is non-zero, zero divisor.
So, any hint for an infinite ring, where it will not hold
Also I want a ring such that ab = 0 but ba ≠ 0 but ca = 0 for some c≠0.
you should be able to find an example by looking at matrix rings I think
for the last thing you mentioned
For the infinite ring here, consider left shift and right shift operations on the natural numbers
No, I want a ring where there exists left zero divisor but no non-zero zero divisor
Yes you are right, I got it
doesnt this follow immediately from the fact that a ring homomorphism is a monoid homomorphism (by viewing the ring as a monoid under multiplication) along with the fact that the units of a ring form a group under multiplication?
Yes
Well you also want to check that the units of a product are the product of the units
but that's straightforward
ah true
tysm
have a great day/night
Use the fact that R is a domain.
this basically tells you that you can cancel stuff. So you have to make an equation that tells you when ba is the identity and find a way to tell is zero.
No u
🫵
in a ring without zero divisors a nonzero idempotent is a unit
How do you prove (a) there?
let y be such that xy = 0 and x≠0, and b such that xbx = x
=> x(b + y)x = (xb + xy)x = xbx = x
but b is unique so b + y = b, and so y has to be 0
hi
ih
HELLO MY MATHLETES
ih
ih
Does anybody know how this implies that v^{-1} is algebraic over A?
I know that v is algebraic over A since the algebraic closure is a ring
Does it have to do with the result that if A \subset B are integral domains, and B is integral over A, then A is a field <=> B is a field?
Is it just that x is in the integral closure of Frac(A)
So that v is in the integral closure of Frac(A) since it's a polynomial in x with coefficients in Frac(A)
and since Frac(A) is a field, v^{-1} is in the integral closure of Frac(A)?
Nvm I got it thanks!
Wait what nvm
Well I guess if an element is integral over Frac(A) then it's integral over A
Since we can just multiply the polynomial by the product of the denominators I think
Since $x \in \overline{\text{Frac}(A)}$, $v \in \overline{\text{Frac}(A)}$ (it is a polynomial in $x$ with coefficeints in $A \subseteq \overline{\text{Frac}(A)}$). Now, $\overline{\text{Frac}(A)}$ is integral over $\text{Frac}(A)$; thus Proposition 5.7 implies that $\overline{\text{Frac}(A)}$ is a field, so that $v^{-1} \in \overline{\text{Frac}(A)}$. We have an equation of the form
[\frac{a_n}{a_n'} v^{-n} + \frac{a_{n - 1}}{a_{n - 1}'} v^{1 - n} + \dots + \frac{a_0}{a_0'} = 0] Let $a = a_n' a_{n - 1}' \dots a_0'$. Then
[(a_n a_{n - 1}' \dots a_0') (v^{-1})^n + a_{n - 1} a_n' a_{n - 2}' \dots a_0' (v^{-1})^{n - 1} + \dots + a_0 a_{n - 1}' \dots a_1' = 0] so that $v^{-1} \in \overline{A}$.
okeyokay
How to show that $\bQ(\sqrt{2}) \ncong \bQ(i)$ as rings
qiu
no, i see
(Manually compute it, if you’re not willing to take “||it embeds into the reals||” for an answer)
Okay thanks
yeah of course the intuition with embedding into reals vs only being able to represent Gaussian rationals(?) makes sense
If $u$ is a unit in $O_K$ for some imaginary quadratic field $K$ such that $$u = \pm 1 \bmod fO_k$$ where $0 \neq f \in \bZ$. How can I show that $u = \pm 1$.
Oh nice they are actually called gaussian rationals
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
Manually compute it for the two imaginary quadratic fields with non-trivial units?
right
This is may be pretty silly but there's an exercise that says to classify G = <x,y|y^3, (x^2)yxy>, and I've gotten to x=y^3 and therefore order of x is 9 but not further (due to x^-3 = x^-2 * x^-1 = yxyxyxy=y(x^-1)xy=yy=y^2, and obviously y^-2 = y) (mainly because I don't think I have to do such large combinations and see which ones are the same as others now to check up which order should it be)
As for classify ig they just mean "isomorphic to a known group"
How do you get x = y^3?
Because that’s not right
Namely we have a surjection G -> C_3 by y -> 0, x -> 1
And in that group, 1 =/= 3*0
Wait sorry
x^3 = y
It's 2 am I'm becoming dyslexic
I also have absolutely no idea how you define those surjections but whatever
So then we can rewrite the presentation as <x | x^9> so we’re done
Is it just the cyclic group of order 9?
But I'm not getting how that holds true, like, couldn't it be of order a multiple of 9?
Oh wait right
Because any construction via x and y will be with x and x^3
Damn 2 am really fucking me up
Is there a more standard way than doing this btw
Not really no
You can prove there’s no general algorithm that works
in general figuring out what a group looks like from a presentation is not possible
this is known as the word problem, and is equivalent to decidability in CS
I would imagine that, but I rather meant for this specific case or "similar" to this
Has sense
Specific cases don’t tend to be any easier than the general case, unless you have really nice relations
I guess that's true
yes got it, thank you
but when i am saying ring has no zero divisors, does it imply it has neither left divisor nor right?
Basically i have to show if R has no zero divisor then right and left cancellation holds
I got it
What does faithful representation mean in this context?
and what is the degree of a representation?
faithful means that the group action is only trivial at the identity element, so the homomorphism G --> Aut(V) is injective. i think by degree they mean the dimension of the underlying vector space
I can show f(n)f(1/n) = f(n)g(1/n) for all n, how can I show f(1/n) = g(1/n) for all n?
Prove that f(n) is a unit
Actually are your rings unital or not?
Not

