#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 371 of 1
If we let G ={a1,..,an} be an abelian finite group and let x = a1·...·an then show that x^2 = e.
Could I show this by using Cayley's theorem and using that every permutation can be decomposed into transpositions and because of commutativity x^2 is basically just a product of squared transpositions which are basically a bunch of fix point permutations and therefore they are the identity, and therefore x^2 = e?
That’s way more complicated than it needs to be lol
What does x^2 mean, and what does it mean for a group to be abelian
Abelian means commutative and x^2 is just x*x
Are you looking for a proof, or are you looking to see if your suggested proof is correct
If it’s the former there is a significantly more straightforward approach
If the idea for my proof could be correct
I know it needs to be written down better
And I imagine there is an easier way (and I am interested)
I could see that idea working out
But I'm also interested to know if the way I did it is also valid
This doesn't work because transpositions don't commute with each other in general, and you can't guarantee that the transpositions are in G, so it doesn't help that G is commutative
ah
Ok that makes sense
Is the easier way just seeing that x=x^-1 or something like that?
Pretty much yeah
Yeah, you know that every element has an inverse, x is the product of all elements, they commute so you can pair them
Yeah I've been doing rings and fields most of the year and just entered into groups so I'm not very used to the mechanics of working with them
There’s something to be said for idempotents but the fact that you’re considering x^2 deals with that
(Im being intentionally vague so you can fill out these details)
Thanks
rings and fields before groups is an interesting choice for sure
Not that uncommon is it?
Other than finite fields we didn't need groups for much of anything
It’s not unheard and I’ve mentioned here recently that I’m increasingly interested in the idea of it
Most of the objects you already know are naturally rings and fields (ok sure by extension groups but you think about them as rings)
If you're example focused / top down kind of teaching, it seems the natural thing to do
right, that is true
Rings (at this level) also tend to have the nicest presentations etc, and this is kinda what’s making me think this could be a nice approach
I would understand there's like a monomorphism of the type a |-> a^-1 then?
And maybe it’s just me but I’ve never really been super happy with the whole groups are symmetries thing beyond like S_n and D_n
I would say rings and fields had absolutely no complication being explained before without group theory
commutative rings*
Nothing needed any sort of group theory introduction
Again still too complicated, genuinely just unfold the definition of x^2 and use the fact that you can compute things
Sure yes, but even noncom ones can have pretty nice presentations, like ones that are deformations of commutative rings (Weyl algebras, quantum plane etc etc)
Like to me it’s easier to understand what quotients do there than saying like S_4/A_4
right but im sure those satisfy a multitude of other nice equations that make them nice lol
group presentations are in general horrible to work with
I’m not convinced this is the way to go, but it’s part of why I’m open to considering a rings first approach these days
Even if the monoid, group, ring, field build up is nice
i am enjoying the speed at which our rings and fields course is going, as it can assume some level of mathematical maturity in abstract algebra
Ah yeah I'm dumb I was trying to see why two elements couldn't have the same inverse but that's obvious
yeah, not dumb, important thing to check
Don’t share your channels please, someone will help you when they can
put it in every advanced channel damn
make a promotional poster and maybe well accept it
were they poofed?
such linear algebra
Well returning to the rings thing, I'm pretty grateful for having started with rings as it probably was one of the most beautiful topics I've done in the degree and one of the reasons I'll probably be trying to do more of this
Rings -> Modules -> homological algebra
Follow the rainbow and you find gold
I don't think we'll get to modules (as a topic) but it is "scheduled" as one of the topics if we have time
Like our course is rings -> fields -> groups -> modules
rings -> modules -> algebraic geometry
follow the rainbow and you find diamonds
But modules is probably not gonna happen
Always a next course
rings -> modules -> ??? -> UA
turn in an orthogonal direction and you'll find netherite
wtf i want netherite :(
I know I'll take abstract algebra, galois and algebraic topology but idk if I should take algebraic geometry, I enjoyed projective geometry a lot but idk if there is really any relation
rings -> module theory -> dyslexia -> model theory -> UA
ahhh that does make sense maybe thats what happened
I mean there's a connection, but probably not in a "if you like this you'll like this" kinda way
Understandable
And where do you find homological algebra? There's not any courses called like that in the undergrad or the masters
better start heading in an orthogonal direction then
Usually one picks up homological algebra in a course on modules in my experience
You'll also get a taste of it in algebraic topology hopefully
It's a central tool in algtop, alggeo and rep theory at least
On it
That's cool
So could be baked into such courses
Mainly I want to do algtop without knowing much about it because of how much I enjoyed topology and algebra courses in general
So far all the, admittedly limited, homalg I’ve learned has just been as I’ve went
You can always skim a book
You just kinda need some here and there and you learn it as you go
Or there's those AMS bulletins (or whatever it is) that's the "What is..." series
Algtop is good fun, it answers the question, “why do so many people study topology, when general topology sucks so much?”
General topology is my favorite course in my degree
By far I'd say
Algtop and difftop are just different answers to "what if topological spaces where actually nice?"
Nope is just traumatized
I’m only half joking, I really do enjoy algtop and I personally found general topology a slog, but if you enjoy it that’s great, I’m sure you’ll like algtop even more
Every topological space is locally metric 🙃
Metric spaces means doing analysis, I don’t get down with that
The only ordering I get down with is inclusion
Honestly I've always hated calculus classes, but real analysis and rn probability theory have been insanely cool
Still, algebra on top
> probability theory
> insanely cool
Every poset is isomorphic to some poset of sets under inclusion im pretty sure
waiter waiter one billion more nested integrals please
so we're all good here
Nah it sounds like you’re having fun and enjoying it though, that’s good to hear
We’re all just bitter jaded and usually joking
take the set of all principal filters
Not about analysis though, I genuinely considered doing some stochastic stuff this semester until I looked at the notes and remembered why I don’t do that stuff
What I'm doing isn't really about that, sometimes there appear like "n-variable nested integrals" but that's not the main point
Cute probability exercise:
Take a finite non-abelian group G. Pick two elements uniformly at random. Show that the probability that they commute is <= 5/8
And I started with discrete probability theory
Lol
im salty because im not good at probability
because im not good at integrals
and my probability class was just a bunch of integrals with some convergence theorems thrown in
Everyday im thankful my probability course was during Covid and I got to sit it online
Idk why but I've also enjoyed measure theory
The little I know of measure theory was pretty fun, it’s not something I know well though
i dont remember exactly the grading scale after the first midterm for my probability class but it was like 70%+ is an A and some below it is A- and some below it is B+
This is just the standard grading scale in the UK lol
And it's just seeing the IMOs get perfect scores
standard in the US is like 93+ = A, 90-93 = A-, 87-89 = B+, and so on and so forth
But yeah, that extra like hour due to it being online was absolutely clutch, I had so many thoughts in that last hour and I ended up doing crazy well, like significantly better than I really think I should have
That and analytic number theory were by far my biggest swindles of UG
Analytic number theory in undergrad?
I got like an 80 something in both courses, neither of which were remotely deserved. Couldn’t even tell you what an L function is
Huge L on that
The basics are very accessible to final year UGs tbh
get em started young
W
Understandable ig
Not sure if number theory has a W function yet
Apostol
We didn’t follow this book, but like, it’s in the UG series!
i think that's been taken by analysis
I think we actually followed basically the opposite approach to apostle
My only like advanced mathematics book I possess is uh hatcher's algtop
lambert has one i think you should ask him
Looks like Lambert takes the W on this one
But I would really like to have a physical copy of gouvea's p-adic numbers book
Idk if there's better reads to p-adic introduction but it was beautiful to read that
I refuse to learn about p-adics because then I’ll have to stop writing Z_n
lazy ahh
still would be annoying because R_f is standard notation for localisation by { 1, f, f^2, ... } right lol
R_(f) usually no?
if f is a single element R_f can be accepted
Simply don’t work with commutative rings
that would be localisation at a prime ideal if (f) happened to be prime
local rings and all that
but in the specific case of localizing by primes in Z then you would have to do Z_(p) yeah
Tbh I haven't seen anything about non com rings, is it accessible to undergrads through some book?
Who’s out here localising away from primes
Z_p would be Z[1/p]
localizing by the monoid generated by non nilpotent elements is pretty much the only other useful thing to localize by other than prime complements
Lam is a common book, there’s also (roughly what I learned from) Noncommutative Noetherian Rings by Goodearl and Warfield
the humble structure sheaf and associated modules
I say roughly because I took a course that was inspired by but didn’t 100% follow said book
And do ideals in non com rings work like lateral classes in groups or is it just not defined? Just curious to know what makes them so special other than seeming ass to operate with
no the definition splits into left and right ideals separately
they are still well defined, just no longer nice
I’m not sure what lateral classes are, but for ideals in noncom rings you have to pick a side to multiply on, left and right ideals generally don’t agree
Lateral classes as in left and right yeah
Sorry I'm just like directly translating from spanisj
*spanish
But also modules tend to be the more interesting things to look at (which are submodules of the ring viewed as a module over itself)
I won’t lie to you and tell you it’s more useful or that most people care. There’s a reason we’re saying noncom rings rather than simply rings…. But it is fun
I don't really care if something is useful or not tbh
I just like when things work beautifully and have cool properties
I think it comes down to what you’re looking for. A lot of people think ring theory is a necessary evil, they need to know it to do the maths they like but they think it’s a bit dry on its own, so they usually just slog through comalg. For me, I really just enjoy the actual algebra, so noncom rings feel natural, it’s just a wider class of rings where things are generally just harder but that means you get more interesting questions to ask
That seems pretty cool tbh
I mean if I get the chance to go for a non com algebra class I was gonna for sure take it
there is very good reason to care about noncomm rings and generalisations (small preadditive categories) imo
I mean, they are sort of crucial in defining modules, since End(M) is non-commutative
i'll do you one better i took a course on automorphic representations and got an A. i retained at most 15% of the content
the class was entirely graded on the professor farming the class collectively for a solution packet to their textbook, so i did some low hanging fruit
Do you get a cut of their textbook royalties
That’s so lucky hahah, for me it was just the prof gave, let’s say, very leading practice problems and homework’s so I just kinda knew how to answer those and I was fine. I wouldn’t even say that I don’t understand it because like there wasn’t anything in the class I didn’t understand but I certainly didn’t retain any of it
I’m sure if you put some words in front of me id remember them, or maybe not
we did reductive groups and root data in the first two weeks and the class only sped up from there lol
is the statement possible? or that's a wrong question?
It’s normal in H not in G
Otherwise we could take N to be G itself and prove that every H is normal.
I think this is true and possible. Cuz - N is normal in G and H is subgroup of G then (N inters. H) = need to be present N elements then it's must be normal.
The statement is wrong. Take N to be G, as mentioned above.
Hey guys do you know like, any sort of really cool groups? Like with cool properties, but not on the type of like the symmetric group or the dihedric group, maybe some others with other relations to algtop or other cool stuff?
Ouu thnx
"briefly describe the ring structure" feels so vague, do yall have an idea on how i should describe it without being too blunt?
i mean for the first one theres just an obvious isomorphism with Z2[x]
I have no clue what they expect for c
That’s basically the simplest it’ll get
Otherwise, stuff like this yeah
and its weird cuz you need a pretty explicit description of the ring structure to do the next part of the exercise
isn't (c) isomorphic to polynomials of degree at most 1?
Yes but I wouldn’t really consider that a more explicit description
Because it doesn’t account for the multiplication
As an abelian group it’s Z^2, but the ring structure is different
mm, fair enough
you could say something like (ax + b)(cx + d) = (ad+bc)x + bd
in that ring
at least do it for a general element then
that seems like overkill since you don't have higher powers in the quotient to begin with, really.. unless you choose wacky representatives
(a + bx + cy + dxy)(e + fx + gy + hxy) = ...
oh but that's for more variables
not (c)
hah, me too
i mean as a set its the constant and linear polynomials
operationally its the same as Z[x] but x^2 = 0
See the above discussion
can someone help me how to explain that f=x^n+y^n +z^n is irreducible in C[x,y,z] using eisentsein? My idea was to look at f as an element of C[y,z], then in this case we needed to find a prime element p in C[y,z] such that p does not divide 1 and p^2 does not divide (y^n+z^n)
I guess y + wz where w is an nth root of -1
What do you mean? I just wrote it
p = y + wz
I meant to write y - wz, but I'm sure you'll figure it out
"Z adjoin a square root of 0" lol
Aka Z
Thick affine line over F1 must be what they were looking for
no no no no n o NO NO the jacobson no no no
or like. Z adjoin an infinitesimal
that's the funniest one
trivial square-zero extension of Z
Sorry, about this?
Free groups, surface groups, lamplighter group, cactus groups
(I can give definitions of any you want)
Thompson’s groups
This is a bit vauge so hard to answer. So I guess, not a specific group, but a way to make groups, the amalgamated free product is quite cool. Its a kinda weird way of combining two groups and this is a thing that shows up in algtop quite a lot through something called the Seifert-Van Kampen theorem, which tells you about the fundamental group (the group of loops in that space, and in fact every group is the group of loops on some space) of a space which is built out of smaller known spaces.
Elliptic curves are another cool example, it turns out that cubic projective curves* (you can be a bit more general and precise here, this isnt strictly speaking what an elliptic curve is) have a sensible notion of addition that makes them into groups which is quite interesting, like its not at all obvious that these things are groups
the problem is that elliptic curves are boring as abstract groups
Like the interesting part is the way they relate to the AG/NT underneath
I agree, but I still think theyre interesting groups in so far as they are not at all obviously a group
They’re finitely generated abelian with relatively small torsion component (iirc it’s always at most size 12, and there’s a full list of which torsion subgroups can occur)
It depends on how you define it
As the divisor class group, it’s fairly clear it’s a group
Yeah it's just that I have this little assignment about like "research a cool group" (xd) and last time it was about rings and I did p-adic rings so that's basically the idea
But there's been some pretty cool mentions here
This is a very weird and cool result though
The interesting part is more that that can be described in terms of the geometric construction you usually get (but even that equivalence is doable in a first course on AG)
I forget whose, Weil and someone?
That's very cool
Mordell-Weil for finite generation
Abelian is trivial, the fact about torsion subgroups is very non-trivial iirc
It is indeed very non-trivial
It wasnt proven in my AG course and I rember looking up a proof just to realise quite quickly why lol
And what about the dual group of some specific group? Or is it more interesting about the duals in general
Dual groups in general aren’t really interesting outside of specific circumstances (that usually require the hypotheses of “abelian” and some kind of finiteness condition)
Hm ok
I mean theres the obvious options of the 26 sporadics
26 sporadics?
In mathematics, the classification of finite simple groups (popularly called the enormous theorem) is a result of group theory stating that every finite simple group is either cyclic, or alternating, or belongs to a broad infinite class called the groups of Lie type, or else it is one of twenty-six exceptions, called sporadic (the Tits group is ...
I think there's already a group doing the monster group tho
Yeah it is the obvious option
Seemed interesting but ig monster was already the most interesting?
The Mattieu groups are nice if you wanna do something fairly combinatorial
Not too enthusiastic about combinatorics tbh
oh i also had a project where i had to research a cool group
But I can check them
i did mathieu groups
If youre interested in algtop looking at fundamental groups could be interesting
theres some cool results about groups that are the fundamental groups of some spaces
i mean every group is a fundamental group of some space but theres specific occurrences
I did an introduction of that in general topology and I found it interesting, maybe it is a good idea
Surface groups!
Like the fact that theyre a group at all is not difficult but its not clear. Similarly with the fact that every group is the fundamental group of some space
fundamental groups of manifolds and fundamental groups of lie groups are two pretty cool results
i mean once you do some theory with loops on top spaces then its pretty clear
$\langle a_1, \dots, a_n, b_1, \dots, b_n \mid \prod_i [a_i, b_i] = e\rangle$
micoi the group things (0/1/0/5)
Yeah I just mean that like, you do need to do some work for like associativity
ive actually never seen the proof that every group is a fundamental group of some space
you probably just construct a space or smth i imagine
Its in the end of chapter 1 of hatcher, he basically tells you how to construct the space
using relations on free groups
Yeah, you make a tree based on generators and relations
Every group has a presentation (the trivial one)
Given a presentation <S | R>, the space is the S-fold wedge of S^1, and then attach 2-cells along the words corresponding to R
ah i see
One group that is pretty cool is Q/Z.
Every element has finite order, but the group is infinite. Every finitely generated subgroup is cyclic.
It breaks into a direct sum of Z[1/p]/Z for all primes p. Which are called the p-Prüfer groups. Fun thing about them is that each of its nontrivial quotient groups is isomorphic to it. And all its proper subgroups are finite.
Another fun thing about all these groups is that they're divisible. Meaning for every element x and natural number n there is a y with ny = x (so y "=" x/n)
Very fun
ok i have to prove that the additive and multiplicative groups of a field are never isomorphic using 3 different observations
the finite case is obvious
but then i have to do something with whether or not -1 equals 1
i guess to just think out loud
if -1 equals 1 then phi(-1) = phi(1) = 0
so then we have that phi(-c) = phi(c) for all c in F
well i mean in general couldnt we just say that phi(-1)^2 = 0
so that phi(-1) always has to map to 0 as F is a domain
so if -1 isnt the multiplicative identity we get that phi is never injective so it cant be an isomorphism
That covers the case where -1 does not equal 1 yes
yeah
hmm the -1 = 1 case seems to be the hardest
im sure its just going over my head tho lol
well that means 1 is characteristic 2
So the problem before was that the multiplicative group had elements of order 2 while the additive group did not.
Now in this case, does the additive group have elements of order 2? Does the multiplicative group?
yes the additive group has elements of order 2
if the multiplicative group has elements of order 2, then x^2 = 1
1 satisfies this so 1 would have to map to 0 or 1
-1 also does so itd have to map to 0 or 1
but theyre the same so eh
yeah i see
ok maybe i should define specifically what my function is
phi goes from the mult group to the add group and so phi(1) = 0
So in the multiplicative group 1 has order 1, so that is not something of order 2.
And -1 = 1, so that's no good either
Any other elements around that could have order 2?
but those are the only elements that can possibly satisfy x^2 = 1
since F is a domain
Boom boom
yeah i was overcomplicating that
i appreciate it
okay this problem is just super confusing
why would i have to show that all elements of the last ring square to 0 or 1? is that not just by virtue of 0 and 1 being the only elements in that ring???
But they're not, eg x
oh wow im actually losing my mind
i really read that as Z[x,y]/(x,y,2)
Mood mood
ok well now the question is interesting when i read it right
who knew
now i dont know how to describe its ring structure then
i mean its all elements of the form ax + by + cxy + d
2d?
wait yeah no what am i saying
uhh
d with d just being in Z2 pretty sure
a,b,c,d all in Z2
a,b,c,d being in Z2 yeah
idrk what else to say about the ring
Well then it's finite
i mean it just boils down to what it is as a set and then operationally how it behaves
true
Well you know that all elements in the set have additive order 2 (save 0)
sorry i should clarify in that i know how to go about solving the problem
Quotients of Q are scary, always weird and whacky
Gotcha
but the briefly describe the ring structure part is just kinda stupid to me
Yeah I agree with that
I guess it’s to make sure you understand what it actually means?
the squaring to 0 or 1 thing is just checking cases
actually possibly not even casework
Like I saw the example earlier with like Z[x]/(x^2), I guess you just have to say degree one polynomials with integral coefficients
But I do agree it’s stupid, but I’m guessing “the point” is to make sure you know what the notation means
fair enough
but still the main issue i have is that the algebra course im in is full of people who already have some experience in it (though my ring theory is lacking), so it feels unnecessary
alas
So it goes lol
They’re also sorta the divisible groups, once you toss in Q too
Yeah, every divisible group is a direct sum of copies of Q and Prufer groups
And so, C* = S^1
Yes they are both isomorphic to Q/Z (+) Q^N
In cursed axiom of choice ways of course
If they're isomorphic then in particular they have the same cardinality.
The kernel is equal to (m) for some m, and Z/(m) has cardinality m, so n=m
Why is the kernel equal to (m) for some m?
Because the kernel is an ideal of Z
Ah
Yeah that's sound, thanks!
Oh yeah yesterday I did an exercise myself on that, it is indeed interesting (about Q/Z) but other than the finite order and that in R/Z, Q/Z is the subgroup of the elements with finite order and they don't have a bound to how big the order can be are there that many other properties? Sorry for the late response I have been busy for like 6 hours almost
I mean there are interesting properties. The thing about divisibility was mentioned.
Another cool fact is that Q/Z is a cogenerator in the category of abelian groups. So without fancy words: for every abelian group A and non-zero element a in A, there is a homomorphism A -> Q/Z that maps a to something non-zero.
Further Q/Z is the unique minimal cogenerator, in that it is a direct summand of any other cogenerator.
The endomorphism ring End(Q/Z) is the profinite integers. It's sort of fun to describe all the endomorphisms
And the every finitely generated subgroup is cyclic I mentioned, that's pretty cool
Coxeter groups are a class of groups with very interesting structure. But they include the dihedral groups and finite symmetric groups as special cases, so maybe they're not what you want.
Those are some pretty cool properties, albeit do you think there are like any sort of books on this topic or a generalization of this? (That isn't just quocient groups) mainly because the project is quite expositive so there's not place for proofs even if I'll still look at them
Albeit it does look very interesting
Qp/Zp is also very important in some arithmetic geometry
I'll check
Qp as in p-adic?
Namely lol the constant sheaf Qp/Zp is the prototypical p-divisible group
That would pair up really well with my last project on p-adic numbers lol
Oh, another thing you could learn is BN pairs and almost simplicity, which shows that certain matrix groups G(k) are (almost) simple for any field k. You should be able to prove the steps explicitly for GL_n and black box them for a general reductive group (you can also black box what "reductive" means). The punch line is that this construction gives (I believe) most of the infinite families of finite simple groups when you take finite fields for k.
Qp/Zp = Z[1/p]/Z right?
BN pairs
I'll need to check up some terms
Because we just started with groups
Like, the definition of a group?
Sorry, my suggestion was probably way too advanced then.
Nono
I don't have a problem with advanced
It's just that I don't understand some key words you're saying so I have to check them to see if it is interesting
I don't mean "advanced" as in difficult. I mean as in "needs you to know a lot first".
I mean after searching what simple means I can get it directly because I have seen normal subgroups
If you're starting from what is a group now it will be very difficult and/or stressful to learn enough background to do this justice within like 2-3 months.
I know what is a group we've been doing a bunch of group theory already but we're like 2/5 of the topics on groups still
They know rings and fields so I guess GLn(k) is within reach
Yeah
matrix groups :)

I am interested in those sort of things tbh
Like I don't mind researching from a good book
Nvm
Like I did for the construction of the I-adic numbers before just centering into p-adic
I'll take notes from all of your suggestions
And try researching a bit of my own on each
the lie group E8 is a classic
If you have any other suggestions I'll gladly take them, specially if there are some books that center on them or that there's a big section about them
Mainly because I like researching from those
hi
Z_mn is isomorphic to Z_n x Z_m as rings if gcd(m,n) is 1 right ?
Is ring of integers isomorphic to 2Z ?
yes seems to be
Not sure what you mean.
As groups Z and 2Z are isomorphic, but 2Z is not a unital ring
ah hah so it doesn't have unity so it can't be isomorphic right
Because identity needs to map to identity of course
is 2Z isomorphic to 4Z
Hmm
p(a) + p(b) seems to hold
so does p(a)p(b)
or no
nvm
As groups yes, as (nonunital) rings no
what are some good examples of isomorphic rings ?
I guess you should be able to prove that mZ is never nZ unless m = ±n
yea it's just multiplication property of ring isomorphisms right
Pretty much
I guess R[x]/(x^2 + 1) and C
right the former is a way to define the latter right
$\mathbb C \otimes_{\mathbb R} \mathbb C \cong \mathbb C^2$
jagr2808
I mean sure I guess. The module structure is the same whether you consider it on the right or left
i thought it was defined like that ?
Like A tensor B
A must be the right module of whatever ring we're talking about
Yeah, it's just C is a symmetric bimodule
bimodule ?
So it's like a right and left module at the same time
Whether I write
pi*i or i*pi it's the same thing
That makes sense
Amazing, but checks out.
can someone help me understand this notation a bit? What is the set group G is being defined on?
All elements of Fp that have multiplicative inverses.
That is, all nonzero elements, since Fp is a field.
What is F_p though? Just any finite field of p elements?
The neat thing here is that G is just isomorphic to the cyclic group Z/(p-1), but computationally it's much harder to compute discrete logarithms in G than in Z/(p-1)
sorry it's been a year since I studied this I have to do a presentation on elliptical curve cryptography for a different class
All finite fields with p elements are isomorphic, so canonically F_p stands for Z/pZ.
Yes, there is a unique field with p elements whenever p is a power of a prime.
okay thx
Finite field is always unique up to isomorphism
can somebody help me with this?
What have you tried?
i tried applying first isomorphism theorem by assuming a homomorphism from Z20 onto Z8
i think i got it, thankyou
Say F[[x]] is a formal series, F is field, i don't know but I am thinking about that is it ED? PID? Ufd?
It’s Noetherian (basically the same proof as HBT)
It’s local (the maximal ideal is (x), anything with a non-zero constant term is invertible)
I think it’s a ED, with N(f) = degree in which the first non-zero coefficient of f occurs
also has a nice topology making it a topological ring
But in my book version, there is a problem given that this idea does not hold for the formal power series F[[x]], i don't see why? Because if it is ED then I think it holds the idea
1 + p_1…p_k is invertible in F[[x]] if p_i are all primes
That’s where it fails
Because to apply the argument, you need to say “1 + p1…pk is not a unit, so has a unique factorisation”
M is fg over noetherian R , x is M-regular. Is Ann(M/xM) = (x)?
I mean i dont think so but
I am trying to show that a certain prime ideal is in Supp(M/xM)
So was trying to see if it contains the annihilator and stuff
Ann(M/xM) should be something close to Ann(M) + (x), since you made x act as 0 and anything that acts as 0 on M still acts as 0.
In fact, I think Eisenbud proves that Ann(M) + (x) ⊆ Ann(M/xM) ⊆ sqrt(Ann(M) + (x)).
Thanks, this might be helpful
It was either chapter 10-12 or 17 I think
I guess first inclusion is obvious and for the other inclusion if M is finitely generated you can use Cayley-Hamilton
I'm assuming M fg might be necessary...(?)
Is there a constructive way to find minimal polynomial over Q of z1 +z6 (roots of unity of 7)?
Yes, for M = Z[1/p]/Z, M/pM = 0 has annihilator Z as opposed to (p)
Yes, from the Galois group you can determine the conjugates, then the minimal polynomial is just the product of (x-r) with r ranging over the conjugates
thanks I will give that a try
And I guess the fact that z1 and z6 are algebraic integers helps even more. In that the coefficients will be integers, so you can compute then numerically and round if they're hard to compute analytically
Something whose minimal polynomial has integer coefficients
oh I see
Hi. Can someone help me run through 1.13(ii)?
I know at least that alpha^k is a product of disjoint cycles each with the same length (or is the identity), but I do not know how to prove that the length l of each disjoint cycle is l = n/gcd(n, k).
Maybe you're able to show what the order of alpha^k is?
Wdym, isn't the order n?
that’s the order of alpha
I'm sure you can see that for example alpha^n can't have order n, as alpha^n is the identity
Is order the value of m such that if a is a cycle, then m is the smallest value such that a^m = 1?
Well according to google, I suppose it is. So alpha^k has some number of disjoint cycles, but all of them have length l. So the order of alpha^k is l.
So alpha^(kl) is the identity, and hence kl = n?
Or at least kl = lcm(n, k) because we don't know if k divides n
And as you might know
lcm(n, k) = nk/gcd(n, k)
Ahhh I see
That makes sense, thank you!
Guys help.
So from what I've searched I need to find a group with order 2, that is by using Cauchy's theorem. But this book contemporary abstract algebra restricted Cauchy's theorem to abelian groups only (I'm trying to prove this by using theorems given by the book on the chapter and previous chapters). So I'm kinda struggling on this one. I have shown already that the subgroup with order 5 is a normal subgroup.
Do you have Lagrange’s theorem?
yes I can use lagrange theorem
If so then let N be the subgroup of order 5
This must be normal, as gNg^-1 is also a subgroup of order 5
So by correspondence theorem (also known as 3rd isomorphism theorem) we need to find a subgroup of order 2 in G/N
Can you manually prove cauchy’s theorem for elements of order 2 in groups of order 20?
Okay I'll try
I've prove that there exist bN which is an element og G/N with order 2
since G/N is cyclic so I can also form that subgroup
G/N is not necessarily cyclic
N,bN
Those don’t generate G/N
they generate a subgroup of G/N, as long as b^2 \in N (ie b has order 2 in G/N)
i prove that a factor group of a cyclic group is cyclic and since 5=|N| has order 5 which is prime then it is cyclic
N is cyclic, but for the theorem you’re quoting, you’d need G to be cyclic
oh yeah you're right i got confuse on that
wait let me try again
The argument I have for why a group of order 20 should have an element of order 2 is mostly combinatorics
Ive found a theorem in the book which uses totient function. So I kinda use that and found that there must exist one element with order 2 if the group is order 20
Yeah
The way I’d do it is errr
Every element has order either 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20
If an element has order that isn’t 1 or 5, some power of it has order 2
But there are 1 + 4n elements of order 1 or 5, where n is the number of subgroups of order 5 in G/N
But 20 =/= 1+4n contradiction
Another way you can do it is
You consider pairing each element g up with its inverse g^-1
The only times this fails are when g = g^-1, i.e. g^2 = e
Meaning either g is the identity (which happens once), or g is an element of order 2
Yeah that's the cleanest way to do it
oh i see
Thus you obtain the formula $|G| = \underbrace{1}_\text{identity} + # \text{elements of order 2} + 2k$ for some integer $k$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
since theres an odd amount of nontrivial elements in a group of order 20
In particular, taking residues modulo 2, the number of elements of order 2 in any finite group is congruent to $|G| - 1 \pmod 2$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
So if G has even order, then there’s an odd number of elements of order 2, so in particular there must be at least one
More generally, the proof of Cauchy’s theorem demonstrates that, for $p$ prime, the number of elements of order $p$ in a finite group $G$ with $p \mid |G|$ is congruent to $p - 1$ modulo $p^2 - p$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I am a little confused about this Theorem in Atiyah Macdonald. Here, $K$ is a given field, and $\Sigma$ is defined as the set of all pairs $(A, f)$ where $A$ is a subring of $K$ and $f$ a homomorphism of $A$ into $\Omega$, where $\Omega$ is an algebraically closed field. $(B, g)$ is a maximal element of $\Sigma$. In the proof, they show that $B$ is a valuation ring of $K$, but they don't show that $K = \text{Frac}(B)$. Why is this?
okeyokay
by this definition of sigma, isn't the maximal element just K?
Is K = Frac(B) not part of the definition of being a valuation ring?
Or what is it they're showing?
Presumably there is a fixed subring and map everything is supposed to extend
I mean I'm just confused because they have to show that it's a valuation ring, which includes showing that K = Frac(B). Also on the previous page there wasn't anything mentioned about all these subrings having a field of fractions equal to K (unless I'm confused):
I mean if for every x in K either x or 1/x is in B, then obviously Frac(B) = K.
Since everything in K is either x/1 or 1/x
If g is not injective it cannot extend to a map from K. So you can have other maximal elements
So in defining a valuation ring, we could've just said a subring B of a field K is a valuation ring of K if for each x in K, either x or x^{-1} in B
Why is $\mathfrak{m}' \cap B$ a proper ideal of $B$? If not, then $\mathfrak{m}' = B$ so that $\mathfrak{m}[x] \subset \mathfrak{m}' = B$, but I don't see the problem here?
okeyokay
And that doesn't imply that x is in B, since 1 is not in m
Oh lmfao
Ofc thanks
Also why does k' = k[\overline{x}] imply that \overline{x} is algebraic over k
Ah I guess this follows from a result in field theory which I forgot: if E/F is an extension field and a in E is such that F[a] = F(a), then a is algebraic over E
Maybe I should probably try to reprove this
I want to show that a permutation has order 2 iff its cycle decomposition is a product of commuting 2-cycles.
However, I don't know what it means that 2-cycles commute. Should I treat a cycle as the permutation where each element outside the cycle is mapped to itself?
Yes
Thanks!
When you say cycle decomposition, presumably the cycles should commute like by definition essentially
but yeah also 2-cycles are like by definition permutations of this form - they are not confined to being a permutaiton of 2 elements
The idea is to consider the action of the subgroup generated by the permutation on your set
This gives the cycle decomposition
Yeah. It's an introductory exercise haha I started going through a textbook today
Does anybody know what they mean by this highlighted line?
a complete system of residues mod n means all the distinct equivalence classes from 0 through n-1
mod n
residue is another name for a remainder
Oh sorry I meant what do they mean "as k runs over"
I guess I should have also highlighted "so does -2k" because I'm confused as to what that means as well
Oh is it just that -k is congruent to -2k mod n
Wait nvm what
Oh it's just that k |-> -2k is surjective mod n
Right?
So k goes from 0 to n-1, and {0,...,n-1} form a complete system of residues which means that it forms a set of representatives of all distinct equivalence classes of Z/nZ
Now n is odd, so (2,n)=1
Hence {0,2,...,2(n-1)} forms a complete system of residues and so does {0,-2,...,-2(n-1)}
Correct, tho you should also add that k runs over all of Z/nZ
i'm a bit confused on how we even start proving anything in H n N, i don't think there are any theorems about proving anything with H n N besides knowing that if H and N are subgroups then H n N are a subgroup as well
I don’t think this needs any theorems, just the definitions of every term in the question
ah
still a bit confusing unfortunately, like i understand that we have the equivalences of normal subgroups
i just don't understand like. how to conceptualize H n N besides the obvious definition of it
Like, take x in H n N, for any h in H, is hxh^-1 still in H and N ?
Let R ⊆ S be commutative rings with unity, such that 1_R = 1_S and J ⊂ S[X] is an ideal. Then I = J∩R[X] ⊂ R[X] is also an ideal (you do not need to prove this).
Show that if J is prime, then so is I. Give a counterexample to illustrate that the converse statement does not hold.
can someone give me a counterexample
cause idk
ive done the first bit already
"commutative rings with unity" carries beams to Norway
what do u mean by this
blame deepl
💔
S = R[y] maybe?
J = (xy) and I = (0)? maybe i did smth wrong but
One think to notice is that if J = (x), then I = (x) and R[x]/I = R and S[x]/J = S
And an ideal is prime if the quotient is a domain
oh lol
(0) might be prime in R[x] though
Yeah I wanted I prime but J not prime. unless i misunderstand what converse means
Oh, derp yeah
yeah this is what u have to get
i think my example is ok then right?
ill work it out later if im stuck ill ping uif thats ok
Wait (0) might not be prime if R not a domain
oh nevermind we can choose the counterexample
lol
You can generalize your example in a way to see that this phenomenon is very common.
Let k be a field and R a ring such that k < R. Let I be any non-prime ideal of R then I\cap k = (0) which is prime (even maximal)
How do you know (0) maximal?
Bro it’s a field
The only ideals are (0) and (1)
And the intersection definitely ain’t (1)
I wrote I\cap k lol
My point was just that if you make it so there’s no choice but for the intersection to be prime then you can make a bunch of examples super easily
Ok I see
Did you need to say I proper?
its the left adjoint of the hom functor
im sure thats so helpful
Tensor product of what?
or right adjoint i forgor
i actually do need to review this
i never learned the proof tbh
yes left adjoint
Do you know why this equality holds?
a left module and a right module and a ring R
its basically the idea of currying: a map f : X → Hom(Y, Z) is the same as a map f* : X x Y → Z
similarly, a homomorphism f : Z → Hom(M, N) is the same as a map f* : Z ⊗ M → N
this for modules over a commutative ring cuz then youve got an internal hom (Hom(M, N) can be given a module structure)
i have thought about tensor products a lot cause they were really confusing to me for a while. Practically speaking, the tensor product of M and N over R is the "minimal" R-module that has the property that bilinear maps out of M x N (to an R-mod L) always can uniquely factor through an R-mod map out of M tensor N
... assuming we're talking about tensor products of modules, which the OP has not clarified yet.
yeah modules
they did clarify
Oops, sorry, missed that.
what other stuff have tensor products
balanced tensor product over noncomm ring
ya unfortunately with modules over noncommutative rings tensor products are kinda scuffed because u get an abelian group
In practice however, tensor products can do all sorts of interesting things
its also a general category thing
Algebras, vector spaces, abelian groups.
unless you have two bimodules
two of those are modules
basically most linear objects have a kind of tensor product
All of these are modules
abelian groups r Z modules
R-algebras have term reducts which are modules, so you lose information :>
But since they can be taught without calling them "modules", sometimes bringing modules into it is not the best way to explain tensor products.
true
Maybe, but I first learned tensor products through the most general module theory approach
like ur prob right tho cause i only NOW feel like i barely understand them
its best to learn them through vector spaces first
i will always say dummit and footes exposition is so all over the place
There's a reason why vector spaces are generally taught before general modules, rather than the other way around.
like they motivate it nicely in the start with extension of scalars idea, but i think that made me personally lose sight of what is really going on
its best to learn the universal property, show it exists with quotients, then iimmediately forget about the quotient definition and do a bunch of examples
imo
yea dummit and foote also do not emphasize universal properties too much
universal property is the only thing that should be necessary for proofs anyways
its also good to know what elements of a tensor product look like and how to manipulate them, but really that's also just the universal property
Hm that’s unfortunate
Especially since the quotient construction is well nigh unusable for showing that such-and-such tensors are not equal.
yeah. I do like dummit and foote but as i learn more algebra i can see how they do things kinda weird sometimes
I do think universal properties in general are pretty confusing for people early in their math career, but tensor products are the one place where its really hard to have them click without it
its a funny thing in math where when you start learning, universal properties are really confusing, but then when you have more experience universal properteis are actually very clarifying 😆
Why do you think universal properties are confusing
note that k=0 in the product formula of f(nz) gives the term f(z), so f(nz)/f(z) has the same form as that of f(nz) except that the index starts from k=1 instead of k=0, also note that (n-1)/2 and (n+1)/2 are consecutive integers, the author decided to split the product like this because of the next steps
I don't, but people just learning math certainly do
its abstract
I don't think its good to introduce them until they are needed
more abstraction than ppl are used to at that point
which I would say is either tensor products in a second course on linear algebra, or free groups
Is that all
i think so
yes as someone who has tried to teach universal properties to ppl before its something that just takes a while to get
this is for the first equality that you highlighted
There's a difference between introducing the universal property of tensor products, and introducing a general concept of "universal properties". The latter should ideally only come after many examples of particular universal properties have been digested.
Actually, for me its one of those things where ive found it hard to tell if i really "get it" yet
Like, I think I understand them pretty alright now, but i cant totally tell for some reason
what should i look at to get universal properties
the nlab labe of course, that stuff is very beginner friendly
I would probably start by looking at the universal property for the direct product as its a pretty gentle introduction
if you've done groups its also worth maybe looking at the universal property for free groups
then look at the one for tensor products
I still dont think I fully appriciate universal properties tbh
the really nice thing about universal properties is that they tell you what a construction "ought" to be
Universal property for associated sheaf 
and also once you really internalize them, you don't worry as much about which particular construction is correct
I understand them well enough, like I could tell you what they are and what they mean but, I dont know exactly what it is, I just always feel like im missing something around there
is-does duality
it also tells you what structure is important in a particular object
I think for tensor products a lot of people think the actual tensor product object itself is the structure, but really its the tensor product together with the bilinear map from the two spaces you started with
and once you internalize that, it makes it a lot easier to parse why all the constructions are the same
I think people are often just introduced to them pretty poorly as well tbh, I feel like tensor product is particularly bad for that
I don’t especially like the “unique morphism that makes this diagram commute” approach
I had far too many people just draw a trinagle and say, its that and then move on. Which like is fine when youre comfortable with it, but utterly unhelpful at first
I didnt understand the tensor product until I finally saw someone just define it by generators and relations for bimodules
Like I knew what it was, but I didnt understand it
Tensor product is probably not a good first introduction to the words "universal property".
On the other hand I think the universal property that tensor products have is essential for understanding what tensor products are good for -- but one doesn't need to emphasize the particular words "universal property" about it for that purpose.
As the quotient of a free vector space you mean?
free vector space, lol
That’s more to do with the construction than the universal property, I suppose
well, showing existence is formally important, and the construction may give an idea of how to think of the object
Yes
I think they have to come together to be really appriciated tbh
At least as an introductory level
this has been my understanding so far
Like I get that the whole point is "it doesnt really matter how you construct it" but if you never construct it ever then ???
idk I've never seen someone just state the universal property and not prove existence
at some point the universal property gives an idea for how to construct stuff which i think is a good goal to measure comfortability with universal properties
I don't think anyone is arguing that an existence proof (via quotients) should not be presented.
Im not saying they are, im saying I had this happen multiple times in my UG
Oof.
Yeah I agree, which is why I said this is fine when you understand it but like, for an intro, just not a good idea
my prof usually just says the proof is trivial and it has to be the case🥀
lmao
i think they just dont feel like writing down three boards of technically unpacking of definitions
This was my experience, draws a triangle "it is what it has to be" sure, but this is my first time seeing it lmao, write something down
ok i reviewed the universal property of free groups
it makes sense and seems kind of cool
Yeah it’s nice
universal property of modules:
Given M an A-module, F free on S, and map $\phi: S\to F$, for any map $f: S \to M$ there is a unique $\tilde{f}$ module homomorphism such that $f = \phi(\tilde{f})
this looks like nonsense lol
Is S a set here?
this is the diagram
S is a basis
oh
i didnt specify that
M is free on S
oh the universal property of free modules
Ah ok now I see what you mean
sudo
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Yep, that’s the one
if M is a module, and f: S → M then there must be a unique homomorphism f* : F → M such that f* ∘ φ = f
yeah
In other words, you can convert between functions $S \to M$ and homomorphisms $F \to M$ in a reversible way
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Given one you can obtain the other
That’s what the free module on S “does”
It lets you upgrade functions to homomorphisms in a reversible way
thats exactly what i was saying too earlier in the conversation
I think you said something some time ago that made things a little clearer for me, something like you need to specify both F and its associated S->F map
yeah, you need specify exactly what subset is your basis
thats what the function φ is doing here
in fact for vector spaces thiis is the universal property that people are most familiar with
that is, if you specify where the basis vectors go you get a unique linear map
thats why linear maps have faithful representations as matrices for some choice of basis :>
Yeah
then if F satisfies that universal property wrt S->F then it must be the free module on S
famously, vector spaces have many bases so this shows that modules can be free wrt many maps φ : S → F
this fact is using what exactly, something about uniqueness but I can't verbalize it properly
so thats why we say something like free module on S is unique up to isomorphism ..?
that mightve been dumb. Idk im actually tryna understand this better ngl
Unique up to unique isomorphism in fact
(But only if you include the map S -> F as part of the data)
yes
there are many different choices (M, φ : X → M) which are free over X
to me that looks like the basis is fixed but ur embedding it differently...?
think of it as the cardinality of the basis being fixed
There’s a difference between knowing that a module is free over S, and knowing how a module is free over S
For the latter you need to supply a specific map S -> F that makes it free
yes
Whereas for the former you just need to know that one such map exists
If you have two modules “that” are free over S, then they’re isomorphic, but potentially in more than one way
(for two choices of basis in a vector space this isomorphism is exactly the change of basis isomorphism)
wait im confused :dead:
why does it have to commute
However, if you also know “how” they’re free over S, then there’s only one isomorphism that works nicely with the way they’re free over S
since F is free on S, each element x in F has a unique expression
$ x = \sum a_i s_i $
Let
[ \tilde{f}(x) = \sum a_i f(s_i)
]
Then we have a module homomorphism from F to M
sudo
Idk I guess in my head rn i was thinking basic example like R^2 over R having different bases, I was trying to reconcile what you guys are talking about with an example like that
Yes so
R^2 is free over the 2-element set
But specifying how it is free is equivalent to choosing a specific basis
but why do we have to have it that $\phi: S \to F$ has $\phi(s) = s$ (which would make it commute)
sudo
or do we not need that
There are many isomorphisms of R^2 with itself
But if you have two bases for R^2, there’s only one way to convert between them
so S here in the R^2 example really is just thought of as some two element set
Ok, I think this makes more sense. I appreciate it
Are vector spaces distinguished because there are always many ways V can be free over S?
Yeah not sure the right word to use there
no, any automorphism will give a new basis
Vector spaces are one of the few algebraic theories where every example is free
Or more precisely, free over some set
many structures with many automorphisms
i cant think of any besides Set and K-Vec
But maybe vector spaces are unique because there always exists automorphisms?
There are some degenerate examples
im pretty sure basically any free structure has nontrivial automorphism group
pointed sets? lol
Yeah
surprised there's no axiom of choice emoji in this server
hah
very nice post
uses some surprisingly deep universal algebra
i suppose its not that surprising this question is hard lol
Ts shit so abstract
wait i understand tensor products better now i think
wait i need to go over the universal property of quotients for this proof to make sense 🥀
Yeah I think one of my friends was studying it for a project in her phd
Classifying all such theories where every algebra is free
Where do you even start on a problem like that
Like sure I guess you can start with properties that force tgere to be non-free algebras, but that still just seems wildly general
People are crazy smart
For reaaaaal
why are noetherian rings studied, what are they used for? i just learnt their definition and want to know why would they be important
Ppl like to ask that question^
Dont you think ideals being finitely generated is nice
if alpha is algebraic over K, and [K(alpha):K]=n, then can we say that [K(alpha,t):K(t)]=n? Why?
t is transcendental element
I think ultimately u study noetherian rings cause its isolating a good property that are common to many examples ppl study
They show up all the time in areas like number theory and algebraic geometry, which Im not qualified to speak about but they show up there lol. From a purely ring theoretic perspective, being Noethetrian is just a pretty powerful property to have when it comes to proofs, but its still pretty general which gives you a lot of examples. I like to think about it as a finiteness property in a sense. In a very handwavey way it means your ring isnt "too big"
The minimal polynomial of alpha in K doesn't split in K(t)
yeah I am trying to prove this
.
wait so broadly the universal property of tensor products is just that given a bilinear map $f: E \times F \to G$, we have a R-homomorphism $\tilde{f}: E \otimes F \to G$ which extends $f$?
sudo
or am i imisinterpreting
Like it doesnt adjoin any new factors right
Yeah also the R-mod hom is unique, and there is a bijection between R-mod homs into G and bilinear maps into G
I guess the specific case I am trying to show is this.. alpha is root of x^2 + 1. I want to show that [f_3(t)(alpha):f_3(t)] = 2, I'm not sure how to prove it
what do you mean by finiteness property
the bijection is because for bilinear maps into G we get a unique R-homomorphism by the above and R-mod homs as defined are bilinear right
if the minmal polynomial of alpha in K doesnt split in K(t), this would get it done, but why is it true that minimal polynomial of alpha in K doesnt split in K(t)? Not sure how to show this formally
I guess the R-mod hom being unique shows the association is injective and then given the R-mod map, precomposing with MxN -> M(x)N inclusion shows its a surjective association
yeah exactly
wait now that i know what a tensor product is and the universal property of it
intuitively I understand why it would be the case but I am struggling to formalize an argument
Nothing specific, I mean that in a handwavey way. Your module isnt finite, but all of its submodules are finitely generated, which tells you that your module is "small" enough that a lot of proofs work out nicely. Small here is of course not precise because these things are generally uncountably large, but still
can someone explain why tf these matter for physics and machine learning and stuff
actually machine learning tensors are not math tensors i guess
they are just multidimensional arrays
In physics you see tensor products in a few different contexts
one is for differential geometry where tensors are used because of the prevalence of multilinear maps
Extension of scalars
then in qm the tensor product of Hilbert spaces describes composite systems
well the case where the signature has no constants is pretty smart. You reason that the initial algebra has to be empty, so as the trivial algebra is free, F(1) must be trivial and so the variety is idempotent (t(x,...,x) = x for all terms t). This is lucky as idempotent varieties are extremely well understood (relatively) because they were of interest in solving some conjecture relating to constraint satisfaction problems
For your last point, its more like based on how tensor product is constructed we have that the inclusion MxN -> M(x)N is bilinear
so then you kinda go by a case by case basis, ruling out unwanted cases
It doesnt really make sense to say R-mod homs are defined to be bilinear
of course a result by McKenzie sneaks in somewhere, that man is a beast of a mathematician
in this diagram
isn't f tilde bilinear
wait ohh
Its an R-mod hom
for every bilinear map into G, there's a corresponding R-mod hom f~ so thats our injection
but then for every R-mod hom
If you're talking about noncommutative rings then in general it'd be just an abelian group hom
but probably best to just start with commutative rings
or fields for that matter
what u said is true yeah
that its the $\varphi$
the motto is that "the tensor product linearizes bilinear maps" meaning every bilinear map into G extends to a unique linear (meaning module homomorphism) map from the tensor product
that makes sense i get it
One of the main motivations behind the tensor product imo is that it lets you basically do multilinear algebra for free if you know linear algebra
sudo
a priori you might assume that you'd have to invent a whole field of multilinear algebra to study multilinear maps
Where is multilinear algebra used? I still havent found a need to learn much of it for anything
I tried learning tensor algebra for something but i ended up didnt needing it
Differential geometry, also a lot of multilinear maps are just very natural
Oh ok yea
Also a lot of nice things are constructed as quotients of the tensor algebra
Whats an example?
I guess my question is, I can see why this is true, but not splitting in K(t) isnt necessarily being same thing as being irreducbile in K(t) right? So how do we know the minimal polynomial are the same, because thats what would be desired to show the property right
just to recap a module is an abelian group thats p much acted on by a ring
tensor products r smthn u get from defining a free group and forcing stuff to obey bilinear relation on two modules
but not splitting in K(t) isnt necessarily being same thing as being irreducbile in K(t) right
it is the same
Why? consider x^4-1 in Q. It doesnt split in Q, but its reducible in Q
What I meant what reducible
sorry for the confusion
1, alph, alph^2,...,alph^{n-1} spans [K(alpha,t):K(t)] so it suffices to show that this set is independent.
If it is not independent, then you have a polynomial over K(alph) satisfied by t contradicting the fact that t is transcendental over K(alph).
Pretty much
No, Z
it's very kindly and obviously indexed by N even!
yes
how do we show that the number of subgroups of an absolute galois group of an infinite extension is always strictly larger than the number of intermediate fields
thats better
this was in continuation of the 'nevermind...'
lol
I wasn't disagreeing
im not gonna know the answer to this but what is an "absolute" galois group? And infinite extension meaning for F > K F is infinite dimensional over K right
golf clap
yea actually i didnt even end up learning galois theory that much cause my prof completely rushed it at the end
so sad
thank u so much
absolute galois group is the galois group of the extension to the separable closure of a field I think
I am trying to understand some intuition the theory has be bogged down in symbols so much so that even subgroups of Z have started to appear uncountable...
This is very specific to the behaviour of profinite groups.
it doesn't happen otherwise?
then what's the need to specifically look at the closed subgroups in the infinite galois correspondence?
ah wait
Well, if not the there's no Galois correspondance
yep, an inverse limit of finite groups therefore it is profinite
You can't have Z as a Galois Group of something for instance
For any group G you can take its profinite completion which is the inverse limit of all its finite quotients
for any group G?
In Z this is the a product of all the p-adic intergers.
yep
it always has at least one finite quotient which is G/G
and clearly it defines an inverse system
Yes, but it may not reflect much of G if G is badly behaved
I see that makes sense
Like the profinite completion of Q is 0
Indeed
oh wow
Q is a terrible group
And like, not every profinite group is the galois group of some field
Corollary: all divisible groups are bad
what about surjective objects /j
projective objects 🤝 enpeace
you mean to say that not every profinite group corresponds to an inverse system of groups corresponding to finite field extensions associated with an infinite extension?
Ok but what if I want a projective object in C^op
Yep, exactly that.
oh great
C^op isn't real
I mean, there's no easy example. But like if you only care about absolutely galois groups, by that I mean taking K/L where L is the algebraic closure of K, then every finite group is out the table since only the trivial group and the ciclic group of 2 elements are the only possibility.
Profinite groups are really wild objects. For instance we know almost nothing about the absolute galois group of Q.
do you know a place where I can read about some of these difficult examples?
wow insane
There's the book "Galois and fundamental groups" by Tamás Szamuely and well a general tool for studying these groups is the Galois cohomology which is the group cohomology but taking the profinite cohomology into account, these aren't exactly accesible so I wouldn't recommend read it them if you don't know much about abstract algebra but there's the book by Neukirch "cohomology of number fields" and "Galois cohomology" by Serre
I would like, download this books and wait like 2 years of learning homological algebra, number theory, some algebraic topology and so on after starting reading them btw.
Does one of these books specifically have an example of a profinite group that is not the Galois group of any Galois field extension (not necessarily absolute, just algebraic)?
thanks, I'll see what works
I can't remember but there's the book "Field arithmetic" and I'm kind of sure there's an example in there. Let me search for it.
Thanks! That sounds really interesting.
wow
I guess I could download at the very least and check these out yea
what do they mean by 'of the form of Gal(K/L)'? Do they mean that the automorphism group doesn't always fix the base field here?
I got mixed up. I got things wrong lol. It appears every profinite groups appears as a Galois group
https://www.ams.org/journals/proc/1974-042-02/S0002-9939-1974-0325587-3/S0002-9939-1974-0325587-3.pdf
This is no true for absolute Galois groups though.
as in it corresponds to some infinite extension...but doesn't always appear as an absolute galois group necessarily? As in not the galois group of the extension to the separable closure but maybe some other kind of infinite extension?
Take for the algebraic clousure of the finite fields the fixed field of the subgruop generated by the frobennius automorphism.
and if its finite and nontrivial, then K is elementary equivalent to R like wtf
Ah. This closely mirrors the theorem for finite groups: every finite group is a Galois group but you can't fix the base field.
Kind of an open question whether you might be able to fix the base field
Yep, this is what the result is saying.
Yeah that's what I meant
Too lazy to be precise lol
No but you can take C(t)? and every finite group is the Galois group of some finite extension of C(t)
Or what do you mean by fixing the base field?
Oo, is there an easy construction?
It is kind of similar as the one constructed in the article i put down. For C(t) you can take a "ramified" cover of the riemann sphere and its galois group is the profinite completion of the fundamental group of this ramified cover, since all of this are basically the complex plane minus some points then the absolute Galois Groups is the free profinite group in the set C. Then you can recover every finite group by just taking a representation by a free group.
C(t) is the field of rational functions with complex coefficients btw.
by just taking a representation by a free group.
wdym by this?
Hmm, so from what I'm reading you take the Riemann sphere (whose rational functions is C(t)), remove some points (for some reason), then you get a space with fundamental group a free group. So you can create a covering with whatever finitely generated Galois group you want.
Now I just need to understand why removing some points and taking a covering space should correspond to a Galois extension
Writing your group as a quotient of a free group
The book Fundamental groups and Galois groups explain this more clearly, but the idea is that the category of compact riemann surfaces and fields with transcendental degree 1 over C are equivalent.
Of course, for a finite extension ramified at only the prime t in C[t], the correspondance are taking place in the complex plane minus the origin remove. You are taking covers of t->t^n and these corresponde with C(t^1/n). and then you take profinite completion
Maybe I'll try understanding that theorem for my next week project
These are also technically ramified at the infinite point, so basically you are trying to understand covers of the riemann sphere that ramifie at two points.
It is an excelent result. It is basically the only tool we have to completely describe the absolute Galois group in non-trivial case.
what is transcendental degree? like how many transcendantal elements you have to add to generate it?
Just the cardinality of some transcendental base.
C(t)/C has transcendental degree 1 as also the field C(x,y) over C with the relation y^2=x^3+1
by C(t)/C you mean the field extension right?

