#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 369 of 1
Tiessie
Are they all isomorphic to Z/pZ ?
No, there are ones isomorphic to (Z/pZ)^k for all 0 <= k <= n
(It’s an exercise to prove that that list of isomorphism classes is exhaustive)
That’s equivalent to every non-identity element having order p, which isn’t hard to prove
Yeah every non zero component has order p so the whole ordererd tuplet has order p
Makes sense
This follows from the fact that every subgroup of a cylic group is cyclic right
That is, that it is of order (p - 1)/d
yur, but you still gotta show the set of dth powers is a subgroup
which is a one liner
yes that's trivial
this entire problem is trivial
I mean, the fact that U(Z/p) is cyclic is somewhat nontrivial
Hmm... how easy is it to do this exercise without this fact?
The d=1 case is just saying that U(Z/p) has p-1 elements
The fact that x^d - 1 has exactly d solutions mod p is enough to prove this exercise.
Which is not terribly far from proving that U(Z/p) is cyclic, but still missing the key step.
oh right lol. My brain inserted the word "cyclic" in front of "subgroup"
otherwise why on earth would okey be asking about it being cyclic?
okeyokay
Is there a nice group-theoretic interpretation of bezout’s identity
In a sense you can use a pair of coprime integers to obtain a partition of unity
Since $1 = a x + by$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Sounds like something you should be able to interpret in terms of Spec, maybe?
suppose there was a non-trivial normal subgroup of A_n
why would it be transitive
I know A_n is transitive ofc
Are you following a proof that An is simple or something?
yeah
Alright, take s a nontrivial element.
Then there is some x and y such that s(x) = y.
Now conjugate by something that fixes x, but swaps y with some z (this uses that n>=5), then the conjugate takes x to z.
Hence the group can move x to anything and so is transitive
I guess you can get it down to n>=4 by using a 3-cycle.
But you're only gonna prove simplicity for n>=5 anyway
Does anyone know why this cup notation, with the dot, is used?
It means disjoint union
in Aluffi, one of the exercises is to obtain Bezout’s identity from the result that the order of [m] in Z/nZ is n/gcd(m,n); in particular if gcd(m,n) = 1, then [m] generates Z/nZ
I guess it goes, if [m] generates Z/nZ, there is some a so that am cong 1 mod n, i.e. am - 1 = bn, and then am - bn = 1
erm, I got a little sloppy and dropped the bracket from the class of m
i guess you can do this with polynomials
but thats more because they can be uniquely factorised
Hello. I'm new to abstract algebra and need help with making a proof more rigorous.
Let G be a cyclic group of order 6. We need to determine how many of its elements generate G.
I've worked out that if, say, we want x^2 to generate G := {1, x, x^2, ... x^5},then x^3 would not possible to be obtained from composing x^2 to itself integer many times. This is because, using something I don't know how to justify, it is equivalent to saying that there exist integers i and j s.t. 2i = 6j + 3; this is not possible, because 6j + 3 = 3(2j + 1) is odd while the LHS is even.
So, presumably I need to show this using the language of abstract algebra, like by defining a new set
S := {k∊ Z | x^k = 1} and doing something with it. But I can't really make that translation. Help
There’s no need to over complicate it. You’ve already defined the elements, and the operation such that x^n * x^m = x^(nm) mod 6
So all there is to do is look at (x^2)^n for different n. You have x^2, x^4, x^6=1, x^2. So there’s no possible way to get the elements x^3 and x^5. A good exercise is to work out what subgroup x^2 does generate.
Since G is cyclic, you need to understand the order of the elements of G
The generators will have order 6
Hmmm, why are they supposed to have order 6? Sorry if this question is too stupid...
The order of an element is the number of elements in its generated subgroup
So for g to generate G it must have 6 elements in the subgroup it generates
ahh, that clears out the fog in my mind. Thank you a lot sir 🙏
If R/P is isomorphic to a submodule of M how do I know P is an associated prime of M? So, P = ann(m) for some m. I mean, yes if the isomorphism is given by R->M r -> rm then ok but how would i know the isomorphism has to be that
Do you know of an element of R/P with annihilator P?
Oh, yeah i guess 1. Then sending 1 under the isomorphism you get what you want
Any element of R/P has annihilator P right, but is that only true because P is prime?
could anyone hint me what to do here?
Clearly I must construct some SES from the top and apply the tensor functor but im not sure what I can construct at the top.
Not sure if this is the appropriate channel but is this definition not already inductive? I got a bit confused by exercise 1
Every LES has associated SES to it
Think about what like
An SES looks like
You have a middle term that's general but what do the two terms on the edges look like
So if V_n is you middle term what should the edges be...
Does anybody know why we can write a and x in this way?
So the odd integers modelo 2^e form a group under multiplication. What is the order of this group?
Oh is it because we might as well assume that a is a unit? For otherwise (a, 2^e) = 2^l for some 0 <l <= e. But then a is not odd. Therefore a is a unit, and by an earlier proposition, a \equiv (-1)^s 5^t mod 2^e.
Is this from the book "A classical introduction to number theory"?
I'm using this proposition here - if I'm correct, a reduced residue system is just a set of representatives for all units mod 2^e, therefore a can be expressed in that form
Does that work @rocky cloak
Yes, this is the reason why it works.
I had a lot of fun with that book, I love it.
Neukirch's book is great, I remember just reading any book on algebraic number theory at the time since for me the theory was too confusing. for that, I fully recomend the book "Primes of the form p=x^2+ny^2".
Okay yeah I heard it's a bit hard lol
I want to buy a hardcover of Neukrich but it's so fucking expensive 😭😭
indeed
I've heard nothing but good things about Primes of the form p = x^2+ny^2
I bought mine for like 20€ when there was some huge sale
It is a great book. By all definitions
is it called algebraic number theory by neukrich?
I believe so yeah
I have a copy of that. I got it for $10 from a professor here who sells his math book collection hehe
Damn, math books in where I live cost one liver and a half
For the group BS(1,2)=< a,b | t a b^{-1}=b^2 > is there like a nice formula for the dehn function
Like obviously it's computable via brute force because it's O(2^l) but is there a nice way to write it
Does anybody know what congruences are being referenced here?
I don't know if they mean p \equiv -1 (12) and p \equiv -1 (4) or p \equiv 1 (4) and p equiv -1 (4)
hahahaha
Nvm it's gotta be the latter right, p \equiv 1 (4) and p \equiv -1 (4)
Okay now I'm not even sure if there are primes congruent to 1 mod 4 and -1 mod 4 at the same time
how can an integer be both 1 mod 4 and 3 mod 4
Wait a second...
Wew and his reactions 🥰 🥰 🥰
it's two different cases
If someone responded to one of my questions with this id blow my shit smooth off
Well that's not really inductive, that's just taking the smallest subset of G containing X which is closed under inverse and multiplication.
I think an example of an inductive definition could be more like "Define X_0=X, and define X_(n+1) to be the set {a^x+b^y|a, b in X_n, x, y in {-1, 0, 1}}". Then the union of all X_n is the subgroup generated by it(sorry in advance for using + for group operation but also ^ for repeated group operation...)
lmao a^x b^y doesn't look so bad
Define A_n as the set of products of n elements of X (where each one can be put to the power of 1 or -1), so that A_0 is the empty product, i.e. the identity element. Then your generated subgroup is simply the union of all the A_n
For the vector space, you do essentially the same thing (union over n of linear combinations of n vectors)
You can and should write down the details, but that’s the gist of it
Can someone quickly check my proof? I wanna approve that if we have a P silo group which we call big P then if we have a normal P sub group with recall K then K belongs to pee.
So my proof uses the correspondence theorem
Where are the key idea? Is that the group that is the coset of K must have its own P silo group and then we can look at it correspondence and we know that it's correspondence must be a conjugate of P
This is essentially how I would prove it aswell
Sylow not silo
I guess you should probably have proven at some point that any p-subgroup sits inside a sylow p-subgroup, so you don't even need to use the correspondence theorem
i know
hmm idk
correspondence is neat isn't it
It is indeed, but it's also neat that Sylow p-subgroups are exactly maximal p-subgroups
the p-core of a group is the intersection of all it's sylows so by maximality of the p-core you are done
wdym isn't that how they defined ?
A priori there could be a subgroup of order a smaller power of p that doesn't sit inside a Sylow p-subgroup.
idk what u mean but im trying to do the second part of this question which is proving that every normal p sub is contained in some max normal P subgroup
my dear is to use correspondence again
Because we know every normal P sub group is contained in big P, which is our silo group
If you look at this group, then the centre has to be non-trivial. I can justify this later if you if you think it's important
Of course centre has to be divisible by p so contains an element of order p
let's call it a
We can look at P/<a>
we know this is order p^n-1 hmmmm
maybe dis da wrong approach
If that's how you define them then the correspondence theorem is completely unnecessary.
Then it's just automatic that K is contained in a sylow subgroup
The definition I assumed you were using was that if p^n is the largest power of p dividing |G|, then a p-sylow subgroup is a subgroup of order p^n
ohh u meant maximal in terms. of inclusion
Is there another sense of the word
i was interpreting it in terms of order size
Hmm, I think I originally learned it with "Sylow p-subgroup" defined as a subgroup of order the highest power of p that divides |G|, and one of the Sylow theorems was then that every p-subgroup sits within one of those; ergo they are the maximal p-subgroups.
But the presentation in Wikipedia does it the other way around; defines "Sylow p-subgroup" as a maximal p-subgroup and then proves that every such maximal p-subgoup has order the highest power of p that divides |G|.
The net result is the same, of course.
My group theory course took the former approach as well, same difference really
I guess an advantage of the maximal definition is that it also makes sense for infinite groups.
Though I guess sylow subgroups of infinite groups aren't particularly well behaved in general, so it's not a big win.
how do u have sylow group of infinite group?
"maximal p-subgroup"
(Which may or may not exist in the infinite case -- e.g. Q/Z has none).
They always exist, and Q/Z is in fact the direct sum of its p-sylow subgroups
But in general you can't talk about "the sylow p-subgroup" because they might not be conjugate in the infinite case
Really? Then I must have internalized a wrong definition of "p-subgroup".
Subgroup that is a p-group, i.e. ever element has order p^k for some k
Yeah, I thought of it as "subgroup whose order is some power of p"
That would be equivalent in the finite case yeah
Okay, with that definition Zorn's lemma applies.
what theorem is it for?
don't you need some profinite definition? like using supernatural numbers or something like that?
Maximal p-subgroups exist in every group.
i mean in general
I don't understand what you're asking.
Arent lemmas used to build up to a theorem ?
it's for a lot of different theorems
It's not an ironclad rule. Zorn's lemma can be used for a whole truckload of different purposes.
I supposed it's named like that because Zorn had some particular purpose in mind in his original publication. Perhaps it was the well-ordering theorem.
should be a theorem itself atp fr
It may upset you to learn that the first isomorphism theorem is really a definition
Something I learned after losing my mind trying to write lean for far too long
?
Hmm, looks like Zorn himself actually proposed it as an axiom, and it was only Tukey who several years later started calling it "lemma".
ig it is equivalent to aoc?
so it is kind of an axiom
Yes, given ZF.
Because we dont just care that its true. The actual content of the "theorem" is the definition of a specific isomorphism
Words are all meaningless
well its proving the homorphism is well defined and bijective no?
There are several different claims that are called "first isomorphism theorem" by different authors. Which one are we talking about here?
G/ker is iso to image of bla bla i think
Yeah this is what I still dont really get but im absolutley assured by the lean community that its a definition because it carries this computational aspect
Everything about doing this is making me realise how much I appriciate informal maths and do not want to do anything formal
I suppose "absolutley assured by the lean community" is a step up from "GPT told me".
Dont worry, Kevin Buzzard gave me a nice snippy response to my confusion about this, truly infailable
But I have also had some people also in type theory try to explain this to me and apparently there is some actual distincition.
Very much looking forward to going back to simply saying things and have people know what I mean
Do graph theory
Im trying to minimise my suffering
One problem is how you define the image lol
One is that the image of f: G -> H is the kernel of the cokernel
And with that it does not seem to be a definition
Ig the first iso theorem is saying cokernel of kernel is kernel of cokernel
I dunno if this is what Kevin Buzzard meant, but I think the point is that there isn't just an isomorphism between G/ker(f) and im(f), but there's a canonical map. And sometimes it matters what the exact map is from G/ker(f) to im(f) - like, you can't just prove that it's canonical, so you have to define it
Doesn’t this only work for abelian groups
do u mean abelian categories?
I like to view this as the distinction between knowing that two things are iso, and knowing how two things are iso
Yes
and another point is that in Lean, you can't look into the proof and see what map did I actually use to prove the isomorphism, since Lean is proof irrelevant
lol kevin can uh
be a handful
he's probably very knowledgable
but talking to him usually makes me want to kill myself
anyways
"Such and such map is an isomorphism" still sounds like a theorem to me, rather than a definition.
For example, there is a bijection between the set of continuous solutions to Cauchy’s functional equation and the real numbers
well you can define the map as the definition of an isomorphism perhaps
But it’s helpful to know that this iso takes the form “evaluate at 1”
I'm resonably happy with the definition of "isomorphism" I already have.
but the issue is that when you do formal computations that definition can be very difficult to work with
Wait which def of iso are you working with
like you can say "finite sets are very easy to work with" but in lean they're some of the most difficult objects to grasp
I complained about the way Yoneda is presented like this a couple months ago
The type 1 statement says how two things are iso, whereas the type 2 statement says that two things are iso
Tbh I didn't think of groups and thought of modules but good point
modules are groups tho
Yes but the definition of kernel/cokernel will give you different results
well modules are also abelian groups with extra structure
ewwwww
maybe ur way is correct but how is this way wrong ?
technically it's not wrong because like irony said it's an abelian group with more structure
but that's a gross way of thinking about it 🤢
I genuinely don't know why that's weird to think about because that is quite literally the definition
oh wait yea under addition lol
i'm thinking about multiplication
oopsie
i thought the underlying abelian group we were talking about was that of the underlying ring
cokernel =
there is no underlying ring to a module
?
unless you mean the ring of coefficients
yeah
i think they mean in the case where we define the module to be 'the ring'
idk what this means
a module that's also a ring is called an algebra
Like if R is our ring, we can define the module to be all the elements of R, with addition of R, since R can also be seen as a group
you don't need R to be abelian
yeah just realized
do we ever look at 'rings' where addition is not abelian
?
is that even possible
codomain mod image
yeah
In mathematics, a near-ring (also near ring or nearring) is an algebraic structure similar to a ring but satisfying fewer axioms. Near-rings arise naturally from functions on groups.
Fun exercise. Take the usual definition of a ring and drop the word abelian from its additive group. Prove that addition is commutative
it's from distribution law ig ?
Yuh
I’ve only just heard of them, but from a very brief skim of the Wikipedia yeah it looks like you just define it to be one sided
Point is you need to drop more than the assumption that the additive ring is abelian
quick question about number 5, is this just asking to find n when (26 + <12>)^n = <12>?
sorry if im interrupting!
yes
sick
I don't know of such a definition, but "maximal p-subgroup" works fine
yeah exactly :]
i thiiiiiink the order is 30
err that's a bit too high
rats
Z_60/<12> has order what
yes indeed
oh does it have order 6 maybe? bc i think o(<12>) = 10?
wait what
what's 60/5
12
and we conclude from this that
but i thought you meant that o(<12>) was 12
<12> is {12, 24, 36, 48, 60=0}
oh no
I mean 5*12 = 60, so it's 0 mod 60
lol nothing to apologize for
anyways
so then 26 + <12> has to divide the order of 12
yes so it has order a divisor of 12
so its order must be of order 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12
if you divide you just get 2 or smth idk?
a hint would be that 26+<12> = 2+<12> :3
these are cosets ye
bc 26 = 24 + 2 + <12> = 2 + <12>
yessir
yes exactly
so then the order must be 6(?)
Why are there finitely many minimal primes over I an ideal if R is noetherian?
for gcd to make sense you need some ordering
uh
well okay this is a kind of subtle question
i guess you kinda could just looking at the definition ? idk
Spec R is noetherian, minimal primes correspond to irreducible components, and noetherian topological spaces have finitely many irreducible components

you can prove this with prime avoidance I think
in the ring R/I
Ok. I was hoping using a theorem about Ass(M) when M is fg R mod
because it's still noetherian
this is exercise 1.2 right?
It was actually just from the intro discussion in the chapter about associated primes
m is gcd of a,b if:
mk = a for some k in G
mv = b for some v in G
(this is defined as dividing a,b)
and for any z that divides a,b
zl = m for some l in G
let me think for a sec
I wouldve liked to say ann(R/I) = I but thats not true if I is not prime
that is still true
even if I isn't prime
ann(R/I) isn't the set of zero divisors
It's the elements that annihilate the whole ring
This is why i mentioned it
Ha
I said something the other day that made me think thats true but maybe i interpreted it wrong
The proof in my noncom class showed did it by showing first there’s primes P_1,…,P_n containing I such that P_1\cdotsP_n id contained in I, and then some argument with that
the easiest argument is via a contradiction
and this is spelled out in exercise 1.2 in eisenbud
so the proof can go something like this
let R be noetherian
Oh so anything in ann(R/I) has to be in I because it needs to kill 1
You have to use the primary decomposition here I think
but the idea is that like
minimal primes in Ass(R/I) are the minimal primes lying over I because these are the isolated primes in the primary decomposition
so if you can prove R/I is a f.g. R-modules you're done because Ass(R/I) is finite
but to prove R/I is f.g. you only have to prove every submodule is f.g. but this is easy
am i silly or isnt R/I just generated by 1 ?
yeah ig this is true lol
welllll
okay this is a bit subtle maybe hm
I think when R isn't noetherian R/I can be pretty weird
but maybe I'm missign something here
oh right yeah
it has to be a f.g. module over a noetherian ring
so yeah you're right it doesn't matter
If M fg R-mod then Ass(M) is finite and includes all minimal primes over ann(M). so since you said ann(R/I) = I then thats it
R/I is always f.g.
yeah you just need the ring to be noetherian for these lemmas about Ass(M) to work
okay so the ordering is divisibility, I guess my only concern is uniqueness
in the intro eisenbud mentioned that theorem and then just said there are finitely many minimal primes over I as a corollary
the only thing i missed is that ann(R/I) really is I
do u need uniqueness ? for example even in standard numbers isn't both -2 and 2 gcd of 4 ?
?????
4 and what
More like amanono
bro had to sneak it in
it must be unique up to unit
chmonkey i hope we can bury the hatchet and i hope you have a wonderful holiday season
there was drama??????????
There’s no hatchet
well chmonkey wont admit it because they dont wanna lose honorable
I just think amanono is fun to say
ive seen this same interaction like 4 times now
yea im just kidding
More like kiand67
Street fighter
i see
it looks like it
well my pfp is my cat JJ and he is 16 years old
He’s old
indeed
damn
i also have two younger cats they're both 2 or 3 i can't remember i think 2
and they're twin sisters
Twinsies
well actually originally it was 3 but someone adopted 1 so we adopted the other two
yea
i'm trying to prove every normal p group is contained in a maximal normal p group i've proven that every normal p group belongs to the sylow p group P. How do i start ?
more like nochmoney
Apparently my cat is 16
do we have the same cat
Shut up shut up shut up
Maybe
conjugate up to pattern change
Wow
Hi so this might be something simple but I can't work it idk so i have $G=H\times K$ and let $\overline{H}={(h,1):h\in H}$ and $\overline{K}={(1,k):k\in K}$ So apparently $\overline{K}$ centralizes $\overline{H}$, so I know this means $C_G(\overline{H})=\overline{K}$, but i can't really show this idk.. Ik
$$C_G(\overline{H})={(g_1,g_2)\in G:(g_1,g_2)(h,1)=(h,1)(g_1,g_2) \text{ for all } h\in H}$$
I got $g_1h=hg_1$ and $g_2=g_2$ which... idk how does $\overline{K}$ appear here...
bluepianist
does H here have trivial center?
H and K can be any subgroup
then this isn't true I think
You can take g_2 to be any element of K and g_1 to be any element of the center of H and get that C_G(H-bar) = C(H) x K so the claim isn't correct
the statement that K centralizes H doesn’t mean K is the entire centralizer
(g1, g2)(h,1)(g1,g2)^(-1) = (g1hg1^-1, 1)
Yeah it just means K-bar is a subset of the centralizer of H-bar
If H is abelian, then C(H bar) = G
have you verified by computation that K bar lies in the centralizer? since that’s all you need to show
ohhh so it's not the entire centralizer i see. yeah i can see why Kbar now is in the centralizer of Hbar, because (1,k)(h,1)=(h,k)=(h,1)(1,k)
thanks for clearing that up yall
no
yeah
i had a similar proof idea to them cn u verify if mine achieves same result?
if 1 = a + m
then (1-m)b belongs to AB belongs to M
b -mb belongs to M
b belongs to M
im a bit lost on how im supposed to get an element of G from this :/
like im so close to proving it
(ab)^(-1) is b^(-1)a^(-1). The order changes.
ayo bro is trying to fight pseudo

Pseudo and Moldi might just be equivalent up to unique isomorphism
i feel like this is just a dumb computation problem bc theres no theorem that helps us
ye
You can do it in liek 30 secs
so im gonna need to compute ;wil
im lazy :(
(i dont want to)
but sigh.. i suppose i shall
its not even a subgroup
unless \iota is the identity
it is
and then its weird notation
There’s only 5 elements you actually need to care about 🥀
ew no
I guess being #1 fan is not a universal property after all
i did this so damn wrong ignore this LMFAOOOO
As it's the index of the normalizer it must be something that divides 6/2 = 3.
So you just need to rule out 1
Said ew lol
?
Pseudo in the chat
ohh
where are you stuck?
Showing I_0=I at every localisation at M maximal and why it means they are equal
what happens at the M_i and what happens at all the other M's?
also they're equal because I_0 \subseteq I and I/I_0 = 0 iff all the localizations of the quotients are 0
Follows from this
im thinking question 4 is just a counter example bc i cant possibly think it can be right
now comes the task of finding a counter example :(
why don't you think it's right?
oh I see why
well
why don't you think it's right actually :)
bc theres no way cosets are that well behaved
what's (aH)^-1
a^{-1} H
are you sure?
it's elements of the form ah
so (ah)^-1 = h^-1 a^-1
so it'd be H(a^-1)
hehe
im not good at algebra 💀
but i dont see how it can be right
like for all groups
equality is a very powerful thing
lol you literally just started so dw
truth nuke
you'll make it there sooner than later you'll see
would the counter example be in the dihedral group
unless you were hinting that its right
I mean there isn't a counter example because it's a true statement
do you want a proof or do you wanna think about it with the hint I gave
tbh I get why you think that because you're usually thinking about normal subgroups where (aH)^-1 = a^-1H but for non-normal subgroups that might not be true and you get that a^-1 goes on the RHS
i mean i think its going to be similar to
aH = bH
(aH)^{-1} = (bH)^{-1}? then go from there?
yessss
yeah im used to normal subgroups being well behaved :(
hehe yeah I get it
question 3 is kinda confusing me too
like we know ghg^-1 in G for all g in G and h in H
then consider the left coset gH = {gh : h in H}
and i want to say then do gHg^-1 but that doesnt seem right
they meant ghg^-1 is in H not in G
I think
did i write the question down wrong let me check
oh i did and thats not even the question i need to solve
lord have mercy
i think i need a nap
the question i actually need to solve is if aH = bH then Ha = Hb
proof/counter example
Can someone help me here gap is being stupid
gap> A := ElementaryAbelianGroup(8);
<pc group of size 8 with 3 generators>
gap> C2 := CyclicGroup(2);
<pc group of size 2 with 1 generator>
gap> AllHomomorphism
AllHomomorphismClasses AllHomomorphisms
gap> phi := AllHomomorphisms(C2, AutomorphismGroup(A));
[ [ f1 ] -> [ IdentityMapping( <pc group of size 8 with 3 generators> ) ], [ f1 ] -> [ Pcgs([ f1, f2, f3 ]) -> [ f1*f2*f3, f2, f3 ] ], [ f1 ] -> [ Pcgs([ f1, f2, f3 ]) -> [ f1, f1*f2*f3, f3 ] ],
.....
gap> B := SemidirectProduct(A, phi[2], C2);
Error, the families of the element or collection <elm> and Source(<map>) don't match, maybe <elm> is not contained in Source(<map>) or is not a homogeneous list or collection at /usr/share/gap/lib/mapping.gi:148 called from
Image( aut, pcgsG[i] ) at /usr/share/gap/lib/grppcext.gi:1220 called from
SplitExtension( G, aut, N ) at /usr/share/gap/lib/gprdpc.gi:140 called from
<function "SemidirectProduct generic method for pc groups">( <arguments> )
called from read-eval loop at stdin:4
type 'quit;' to quit to outer loop
brk>
nvm
$$\begin{array}{rl}
c * a &= c * b \
c^{-1} * (c * a) &= c^{-1} * (c * b) \
(c^{-1} * c) * a &= (c^{-1} * c) * b \
e * a &= e * b \
a &= b \
\end{array}
\quad\quad
\begin{array}{rl}
a * c &= b * c \
(a * c) * c^{-1} &= (b * c) * c^{-1} \
a * (c * c^{-1}) &= b * (c * c^{-1}) \
a * e &= b * e \
a &= b \
\end{array}$$
Abiria
is this right?
seems like i need to use associativity axiom as well to prove that every group is cancellable...
here is the one line proof version:
a = 1 a = (c^-1 c) a = c^-1 (c a) = c^-1 (c b) = (c^-1 c) b = 1 b = b
i like this style of proof if i can use it
It’s a good proof to know for the “basic” proofs like that, the ideas similar to show the identity or inverses are unique or whatever
If I have a ring R and an idempotent e, can I form a “subring” with identity element e, consisting of all elements r such that er = r?
Say the ring is commutative for now
Its got a working multiplication and addition, an identity, a 0
I’m trying to understand in what sense you can decompose rings using idempotents
Hm I see
key bit there is orthogonality, i.e. ef = 0 for idempotent e, f
So idempotents allow you to write a ring as a direct sum?
its a projection to a subspace basically
just imagine things like orthogonal projections
Mhm
then check your intuition works
I don’t see how this’d work for non-commutative rings though..
once again, consider orthogonal projections
what works there?
B(H) is non commutative after all
how about block decompositions e.g.
In this case Re wouldn’t be a ring I think..
like p1Ap1, p1Ap2, p2Ap1. p2Ap2
note that eAe = eA in commutative
Right right
This should form a subring
and e and (1-e) aren't the two pieces, since you have the diagonal elements
but you need ef = fe = 0
So is it like
I think amplifications are a keyword here?
eRe + eR(1-e) + (1-e)Re + (1-e)R(1-e)
but this is literally just block decompositions of matrices
prove it works
So any element can be written as a sum of elements in those
eRe and (1-e)R(1-e) are subrings
Not sure about eR(1-e) though
I can’t see what an identity element would be
Anything in the ring squares to 0 after all
But it might have nonzero elements
Mhm
but yes you have nonzero elements at time
I don’t think that’s allowed for rings
again, literally block decomposition of matrices
why would you be multiplying the off diagonal rectangles
but if you want a decomp of matrices you need those
so thats what you get
So what actually is eRe + eR(1-e) + (1-e)Re + (1-e)R(1-e) ring-theoretically
R
Does the decomposition mean anything
just look up keywords like orthogonal idempotents and such
i think the wiki page for idempotents has the e, 1-e thing even in the commutative case
and keywords around it are easier to look for
but its just block decomp of matrices
you have projections down so here you are
(I dunno, you can consider rings as nice functions on a space, interpret it in that light if you like that pov)
in which case the off diagonal disappears
it tells you about when you can fall apart into a product
so those idempotents are right where it happens
and general idempotents are where you get a product up to slapping on some rng bits
The ring eRe is called an idempotent subring, and has some pretty nice properties.
You get a functor Mod R -> Mod eRe given by M |-> eM
and this functor has adjoints on both sides and has as kernel the embedding of Mod R/ReR, which also has adjoints forming a recollement
oh dear
The appropriate response to being sent an nlab article lol
No usually I like them
This one is too algebraic for my tastes
Since I’m still not really a fan of algebra
I just meant it as a link to the definition
So I didn't have to type it all out
It's many functors that are adjoint to each other is the thing
yeah I’m sure algebraists would find that interesting
Yes, this decomposition is a matrix decomposition.
If you think of R as a right R module, then
R = eR (+) (1-e)R
Now R = End(R) can be written as a matrix ring
[ End(eR), Hom((1-e)R ]
[ Hom(eR, (1-e)R) , eR), End((1-e)R) ]
[ eRe, eR(1-e) ]
[ (1-e)Re, (1-e)R(1-e) ]
It's not really interesting just useful... Not sure why you're being so weirdly dismissal, but you don't have to learn about them if you don't want to.
Just got reminded how much I dislike algebra recently is all
I think I may have done an exercise along these lines before actually
I’m very much looking forward to next semester and having some actual algebra to do, Lie algebras should be fun
lie algebras when they meet truth algebras
Boolean moment
What you've written is also an inductive defintion but the one given in the image also fits the framework for an inductive definition I was given in my book
The general inductive framework is given by a triple (U, B, F).
In the subgroup case, it seems we can take:
U = G
B = X
F = { e (0-ary), inverse (1-ary), o (2-ary) }
Then the inductively generated set is:
C(B, F) = [X]_G
In this setup:
The first condition of the inductive framework (B is contained in C) corresponds to condition 2 of the subgroup definition (X is contained in [X]_G).
The second condition (C is closed under all operations in F) corresponds to subgroup conditions 1, 3, and 4:
• condition 1 holds because the 0-ary operation e guarantees e is in [X]_G
• condition 3 holds because of the unary inverse operation
• condition 4 holds because of the binary operation o
This seems highly convoluted unless you're doing like model theory
or something similar
I think im just being really dumb here, but why is cd=0?
I assume this is like immediate and I’m just being a fool
(The footnote just says “don’t expand c and d”)
"since {1,\alpha} is a basis for K(alpha)/K(beta)"
The lhs has no alpha component
It’s a - β
Not a fan of using a and α simultaneously
Ahh yeah obviously, I knew it was something silly lol
Yeah I think this is why I was getting confused
too much symbols to keep track of
It’s more that, at a glance, it’s very easy to confuse $\alpha, a$
micoi the group things (8/1/6)
-# cdeeznuts
am i overthinking this, so i have that an element is of order 6, and then im supposed to consider the cyclic group generated by that element of order 6, the cyclic group generated by that group also has order 6 right?
like it seems to me yes but i want to make sure im not going crazy
wdym cyclic group generated by that group?
sorry "by that element"
oh
i mistyped
yea it'll be order 6
SICK
i think that's one of the (equivalent) definitions of order of an element actually
that would make sense
so then the index of this would be |S_6|/|\mu| = 120?
since S_6 is finite
yeah, by lagrange's theorem
HECK yeah
Hell yeaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
why does torsion free module over a PID imply flat module
Block matrix decomposition strikes once again, I am vindicated
It’s talking about formulas so
Here's how I'd do it: firstly, note that for the finitely generated case, torsionfree modules are even free (in particular flat). Now any module is a filtered colimit of its finitely generated submodules, and hence your module is a filtered colimit of flat modules. You can now check that this implies it is still flat
I am sure there are other ways of doing this but this is a like "structural" way to do it I guess
You don't quite need PID for your statement (it is enough for each fg ideal to principal), which I guess is probably enough to prove that bit about torsionfree + fg => flat
Ok sure in general this statement holding for arbitrary modules is a characterisation of Prüfer domains
so true
Oh ok, huh more complicated than i expected
A different proof than potato suggested could be:
Tor(M, R/r) = the r-torsion of M as you can see from the projective resolution
R -r-> R -> R/r
So if M is torsion free Tor(M, N) = 0 for all fg modules N. Tor commutes with direct limits and every module is the direct limit of its fg submodules, so Tor(M, N) = 0.
Ah okay so similar proof but using the different sides of Tor lol
(I guess also then the remark that higher tor groups vanish as we are over a pid)
It's not really necessary. First tor group vanishing already implies flat
It sort of seems the natural way because the answer is "easy" in the fg case and you want to leverage that
True lol
I was just wondering where you explicitly used PID but I guess it is cause you are using the classification in the penultimate sentence
I'm using that finitely generated = product of R/r thingys
And to be honest i had in my mind the classification of flat modules as filtered colimits of finite free things (Lazard's theorem)
fg projective no? Or does it also work with free?
This is how i've always seen it stated
I guess an fg projective is the direct limit of
R^n -e-> R^n -e-> ...
for an idempotent e
This theorem is like the one I example I have of filtered colimits being useful instead of just direct limits.
In that M is flat iff the over category
(fg free)/M is filtered
Ah nice lol
kind of silly question but how can you technically say that (like, in k[a,b,c,d]), b+d not in (a+c)? Can you just argue by degree?
Multidegree, like in Z^4 or something
Yes by degree works well. Like note that the usual properties still work for multiple variables
You can also reduce to the one variable case by writing this as k[b,c,d][a]. Like you have a constant poly vs a nonconstant
b+d = f*(a+c) then deg f has some negative components which isnt possible i guess
Ye same argument as 1 var
I only recently started working with graded objects but didnt realize that actually is helpful
Graded objects r great
But actually does this make sense for Z^4 grading, because b+d wouldnt be homogenous in it so deg(b+d) doesnt make sense?
You can e.g. lexicographically order to get a Z^4 grading
Whats the degree of b+d in that?
Uhh maybe I am silly tbh lol
No I mean I think you can just lexicographically order monomials and then pick the biggest monomial
Ig this isn't quite a grading rip
I am silly
This makes sense to me but at first i tried doing something with Z^4
But ye this ordering is still all you need for your question
Lexicographic thing?
Ye
Going back to the PID flatness thing,
I think the lowest tech proof is as follows.
To show M is flat we only need to show it preserves the injections of ideals into R. This does not require Tor to prove (but it’s a pain in the ass).
Any ideal I is of the form (r) and so any tensor in M (x) (r) is of the form m (x) r, they’re all simple tensors.
The map M (x) (r) -> M (x) R is, after identifying M (x) R with M via multiplication, the map
m (x) r -> mr. If this is zero then m was zero to begin with as M is torsion free so m (x) r is zero.
There’s a lot of things that’s been said so far that’s more general, as other noted this proof (or the one with Tor) will show that if R is a domain such that every finitely generated ideal is principal, torsionfree and flat are the same. Just do a direct limit on the ideal to reduce to finitely generated ideals.
This says in particular that torsionfree modules over valuation rings are flat which is useful I guess
Tru
Formal definition of free abelian group?
Is that first statement something like Baer’s
In spirit yes
formally it's defined with a universal property
but in the case of finite rank it's just Z^n
You can take a few, here’s one.
Isomorphic to Z^kappa for some cardinal kappa
Where this is a direct sum

Because it’s a domain (I think) you can just say it has a basis as well
When there’s zero divisors the word “basis” is tough
This this is nice, I like this
I meant Z is a domain
Because if it wasn’t even the ring R itself has some “torsion”
But actually I think basis is fine even not over a domain
But whatever
S of cardinality k being a basis for an R-module M is equivalent to saying the corresponding map R^k -> M is an isomorphism regardless of R
Yeah
I worried about this too but it's just the fact you cannot kill 1 in R by any nonzero element ig
wdym cardinal so k is like any real number as well as like different kinds of infinities
Which prompted this
Yes
But lik
Not a real number
oh ye i mesn pos ints
It just means it is of the form R^(S) for some set S
Where this is the S-fold direct sum
Except that isn’t right lol
You need finite support
Now it’s right
Ye me being dumb there dw
By redefining what notation means
Ig your original thing had slightly off notation too lol
Idk how to do that shit
Do you know if there is any funny trick for this like with the Kähler differentials etc
Valid
fight fight fight
The thing I know is like you can compute torsion by using various SES and stuff but eh
Well also I have seen it for curves but lol
Idk why do you think this would come in play?
If you have an idea I can think about it
Also do u mean étale coho?
Ye
Valid
What’s ur variety defined over
Lmfao
étale the type of word to make me suffer 200 hours of studying just so i can say it
How deep in the dumpster did you have to dig to get this variety?
What makes it dumpster lol
Basically it is an interesting variety in a paper which seems to warrant more study
Like provides some counterexamples to conjectures
I think basically the analogues at bigger primes cease to be interesting
isn't H^2 like the brauer group
I feel like for a general projective variety getting a concrete description of it is fucked
Its torsion at least yes
Yeah that sounds reasonable lol
you can get a description but it seems hard
mfw in a meeting with my advisor and he doesn't know how to prove something so he asks chatGPT
Lol
shouldve used gemini
$\mathbf{Proposition:}$
Let $G$ be a group with $H \leq G$ and suppose $a,b \in G$, then either $aH=bH$ or $aH \cap bH= \emptyset$.
$\mathbf{Proof:}$
Suppose $aH \cap bH \neq \emptyset$.
...
Then, $aH=bH$, which completes the proof. Q.E.D.
Brandon
Question
This proposition require that only one statement is true and cannot be both true.
WLOG, if A is true, then B is false. By contraposition, if B is true, then A is false.
The proof has shown only one direction. Is it true that we should also prove if A is false, then B is true? Then by contraposition, we have if B is false, then A is true.
i think they are just omitting the other direction, since it is clear that if aH \cap bH = \emptyset then we cannot have aH = bH
I guess ignoring the other direction makes sense, since its obvious.... I guess I'm just frustrated that the lecture notes didn't point that out.
b+c not in I = (a+d, e+f). can I show this by having a map k[a,b,c,d,e,f]->k[b,c,d,f] where I is in kernel but b+c is not
Sure
Do you mean modules on the same underlying abelian group, or?
Suppose we have a left R module M
Does this guarantee right R module M?
There always exists some left and right R module (namely, R)
No I mean like
if we have a certain module
M
it is a left R module
can we also have M as a right R module ?
U can have it as a right R^op-module
nice
in tensor product
wait
what is the lateX for tensor product ?
$\cross$
mq
mq
\otimes
It’s otimes
$M \otimes N$
mq
So is this another instance of not asking what you actually want to ask lol
I think one of them needs to be a bimodule
bimodule ?
what if i want to ask both ?
What does it mean to "have M as a right module"?
That M satisfies the axioms of being a right module of R
Can you not just always impose the trivial module structure then
I thought you wanted something more canonical than that
So a right R-module is an abelian group M together with a map MxR -> M.
You haven't mentioned any map, so it doesn't make sense to fulfill the axioms
when you say R^op that just means r_1 * r_2 = r_2 * r_1 right or..
hm yea
Yes
can we define rm = mr
You cannot in general
y
But
rm = mr
defines a right R^op-module structure on M
oh yea that's what i meant
So if R is commutative R=R^op and this would work
why we call it R^op ?
isn't R^op just for elements of R
opposite category
Because it’s the opposite ring
i.e. arrows reversed
Because it's R with the opposite multiplication
but m isn't necessarily an element in R
(multiplication happens in the opposite order)
i agree here
but i thought R^op is multiplication happens in opposite order only for elements in R
m very much is not in R, it's in M
So?
That is correct yes
It does
Notice
if rm = mr then
(st)m = s(tm) = s(mt) = mts = m(ts)
The multiplication of s and t has been reversed
pmo(ts)
pmots ?
Is there any interesting stuff or work in chain complexes and homology with groupoids instead of groups?
There is a lot of theory on the cohomology of categories. Not sure about groupoids specifically cause each connected component should be homotopic to a group iirc
Maybe it’s a Kan complex thing actually I take that back
stomp backwards
ohh
Sure
any element a, there is n such that na = 0
n being in the integers
take some element in Q \otimes A, say q \otimes a
q = q/n * n
q otimes a
n(q/n otimes a)
q/n otimes an)
That isn’t a generic element of Q \otimes A
= 0
Your proof is basically right, but you need more justification here (ie why elements of the form q \otimes a being zero implies all elements are)
a generic element is the sum ig of those elements right
and since each one is 0
0 + 0 + 0 = 0
let's gooo i got the catyes emoji
ok but i'm not done yet
since i have part b
i use associativity property
so we got Q otimes Q/Z
any generic element is a sum of elements of the form
a/b \otimes n/d (n/d notably being in between 0 and 1)
d(a/bd otimes n/d(
a/bd otimes n
= 0
is this good ?
Yes
thank you micoi
do you means katseye
wym
Dw lol
what 😭
yo can someone check my work ?
My idea is to use orbit stabilizer theorem
if we take x from each orbit and sum up from the above equation
we must have things adding up to 11
As in
Orb(x_1) + Orb(x_2) ... = 11
where each x are in distinct orbits
Orb(x_1) must be either 1,7,5 by the above
So we must partition 11 with 1s,7s,5s
there is no partition without 1
So Orb(x) = 1
so the stabilizer of x is G
we are done!
Or, in 2 lines:
All orbits are of size 1, 5, 7 by O-S
There’s no way to make 11 without a 1.
ye but i want to justify my work
wait
aren't they just telling you to assume what you want to prove ?
ah hah
168 = 7*3*8
i see
i got it because the normal group can be 2 for instance
but the p sylow group would be 8
Alright
this is trivial if the group is order 3 or 7 we are done
so we assume it is of order 2
so i would assume, maybe it's not the path forward, that we want to show p_8 is our sylow normal group
we know the number of p_8 sylow groups must be 1,3,7
if 1 we are done
we know the normal group is contained in the center
I don't know if you want a hint, but ||I would think about how many 7-sylow subgroups there can be||
i think i got Z(P_8) = 2
8
i don't see why that's helpful
8 or 1.
And what would you need for it to be 8?
I'm not sure what you mean
So you know that G acts transitively on the sylow 7-subgroups by conjugation right?
this is just a fancy way of stating every sylow 7 group is conjugate
Right, so you want your sylow 7 subgroup to have 8 conjugates
Correct I don't see what the path is from here
So by orbit stabilizer what's the size of the normalizer of the sylow 7 subgroup?
Indeed. So as 21 is odd this group can't have any element of order 2
But then I ask you. Does it have an element of order 2?
Are you trying to say that if assume a normal group of order 2, it has an element of order 2 and the normal property must put in normalizer
Well, is that true?
i think so
quickly checking
take any element in this group of order 7
suppose n is in N that is order 2
gng^-1 = n
g = ngn^-1
but this property that normal group must. be in normalizer only holds in this very specific case since the orde ris 2 right ?
that is so hyper specific
I am so destroyed in the exam, how do you think of like 10 unique ideas
Yeah. The key idea is really that a normal subgroup of order 2 is in the center
I guess maybe it's good to have some familiarity with examples. Like if you cooked up
C7 x C2 x C2 x S3
you would see that the 2-sylow subgroup need not be normal
Like that's an example of a group of order 168 with a normal subgroup of order 2 where the 2-sylow subgroup is not normal.
So that tells you you should not try to prove the 2-sylow subgroup is normal
Then once you're onto 7 you just need to exclude there being 8 of them, and in such situations it's always good to think about the normalizer
But yeah it's hard. Just gotta practice a lot of old exams and hope there are some recurring ideas you can remember
i have one day to do exams 
Then my tip to you is to get enough sleep
if i'm asking you for help at 1 am, you can guess i probably won't sleep well
anyway for this question, can someone check my work!
For part a) trivial or so i thought nvm
let's show it is a group, ofc it has 0
suppose x-y are in Iso_M(N)
rx-ry
N_1 - N_2 = N_3 done!
now to show it is closed suppose m is in Iso. but rm isn't, so rm isn't in N but we have r_1m is in iso and therefore in N. then simply look at r_1rm
we have commutativity so r_1rm = rr_1m = rN = n_4 so clearly it is closed
b)
suppose an element in that group isn't torsion free then we can just show it has to be in iso_M(N) so then it is zero
for non trivial submodule that is equal to its isolator just choose a submodule over a field
so just standard vector base ig
R^n
where R is Q the field
For x-y note that a priori it might be a different r that takes x and y into N
ah hah so first have to show closed under multiplication in R
is everything else correct ?
As far as I can tell
Let Q be a finite acyclic quiver and k a field. The "vertexwise dual" contravariant functor D maps Rep(Q) (finite-dimensional representations of Q over k) to Rep(Q^op) by mapping each vector space of a representation to its dual and each map of the representation to its transpose. In terms of A-Mod and A^op-Mod = Mod-A, where A is the path algebra of Q, that D is representable as Hom_A(-, X) for some (A,A)-bimodule X?
Yes, X = DA
The same works for any finite dimensional algebra
You can see this just from Hom-tensor adjunction.
Hom_A( - , DA) = Hom_A( - , Hom_k(A, k)) = Hom_k( A(x)- , k) = D(-)
Is it true in general that DA is the direct product of injective envelopes of all simple modules (which exist for an Artinian ring IIRC)?
In particular, is this why Hom(-, DA) is the well-behaved functor rather than Hom(-, A) (while Hom(A, -) (which of course is just the identity) is well-behaved rather than Hom(DA, -) as A is the direct sum of all projective covers)?
Yes
And injective envelopes exists for arbitrary rings.
So the nice thing here is really that End(DA) = A
I guess another way to think about this is if F is any left exact contravariant functor left-mod R -> right-mod S. Then F(R) is an R-S-bimodule and F is equal to Hom(-, F(R))
So if you have a duality D it must be off the form Hom(-,DA)
did you pull an allnighter 
