#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 367 of 1
Yes but not this one
Ofc
Just aesthetically I would define it as the subgroup of Sym(X) which respects the equivalence relation
Lol
Lol wdym
IDK
For that matter it could be the group generated by all transpositions swapping equivalent elements.
(Which is not the same: it is the product of S_finite (identity on all but finitely many elements) of equivalence classes.)
Triangle jumpscare
why is do inversions define the odd and evenness of a permutation of $S_n$? whats the intuition behind it?
todben
I would say the intuition is which permutations are "orientation-reversing". E.g., you may have some intuition that 3-cycles permute elements "only cyclically" while transpositions "reverse parity"; the parity of a permutation captures this.
Alternatively, S_n acts on n-dimensional Euclidean space by isometries (permuting the coordinates/standard axes) and the parity literally captures whether a permutation is an orientation-reversing or orientation-preserving symmetry.
If I take a ring of real numbers R then I know R = (1), but according to this definition, it looks R is not finitely generated.
to add to the latter answer, an example: the group of orientation preserving (rotational) symmetries of the tetrahedron acts faithfully on its four vertices, so we want to think of it as a subgroup of S_4 (if you don't know group actions, try to make sense of the statement abstractly). now its clear that you can't get a permutation of the vertices where you swap two vertices just from rotating the tetrahedron. its (to me at least) interesting that every other "impossible" symmetry is odd (so this tetrahedral group is A_4). the interesting part is that the base case of swapping two vertices extends to the entire group of symmetries, but thats clear once you notice that an odd permutation is just an even permutation composed with a single transposition (just as an odd number is an even number + 1).
so you have this nice structure which is preserved by taking parity by inversions, and indeed the only nontrivial homomorphism into Z/2Z is given by the parity of inversions.
R has transcendental elements like e and pi which you can't write as a polynomial with rational integer coefficients
What other definitions are there?
In terms of ideals, finitely generated ideal, so R itself an ideal
I wouldn't say those are the same definition
Yes they are not
I think I get what youre trying to say with that example. The first time I heard someone use the term "parity" was when I was solving a 4x4x4 rubik's cube when i was 12 or something in a youtube video and swapping two vertices of a tetrahedron kinda makes sense. 😃
Like that's not a definition for finitely generated ring
Anyway the identity R = (1) is true for any unital ring
the parity from rubiks cubes is the same parity here (image of the homomorphism into Z/2Z)
what is meant by Z/2Z by the way?
So as ideal it is finitely generated but as ring it is not finitely generated
Yeah
have you seen cyclic groups?
sure
todben
yeah, although cyclic groups don't need to be subgroups of other groups
but abstractly yes
Z/nZ is just the cyclic group C_n
the point of saying Z/nZ is that Z is the integers so by taking a quotient you are really referring to the integers 0, 1, ..., n-1
I think my prof uses the notation Z_n
the operation is addition correct?
identity 0?
yes
But they can be? Also why would some think they would have to be?
I may have done this in a more complicated way than necessary
If N is the product of all the little n's then Z/NZ is isomorphic to the product of each Z/nZ
Via the mapping described in CRT
The isomorphism extends to polynomial rings and so the tuple (f1 mod n1, ..., fk mod nk) has a function f mod N in its preimage
That polynomial f can be easily lifted to a polynomial in Z and we have our result
But idk it feels really handwavy
Argument is good, and I don't think it's overly complicated.
I guess you're brushing through some details, but it's not like those details are hard to fill in.
Fair enough
Im not fully sure we've shown the whole ring isos extending to polynomial rings thing
So i might just do coefficientwise CRT
I mean, it isn't even necessary for it to extend to the polynomial ring. You just pick the coefficients individually.
The ring structure of the polynomial ring isn't really relevant
Yeah fair enough
For me, the actual intuition is that the parity counts whether the permutation is a product of an odd or an even number of transpositions. Counting inversions is just a technical trick for proving that it's impossible for the same permutation to be made both with an odd number of transpositions and an even number of transpositions.
Some textbooks elevate the inversion count to a definition of the parity just because it's the first time in the explanation where we can define it in a way that it's obvious that it at least defines something.
I'm pretty stuck on the first part of this exercise 2.15.
Am I meant to deduce and use some extra information about the am + bn = 1 identity from ex. 2.13? Like that a and b can be chosen to have some parity based on m and n?
I’ve got that there exist a,b with am + b(2k+1) = 1
and I want to show there exist integers x,y with x(2m + 2k + 1) + y(4k + 2) = 1
i.e. 2mx + 2kx + x + 4ky + 2y = am + 2bk + b
and that can happen if x = a/2, y = (b - x)/2
but I’m not sure how to ensure those are integers
Hmm, n being odd seems to be crucial -- otherwise m=1, n=2 would be a counterexample.
and it feels a little mean that the previous exercise has no hint about controlling a and b
but I’ve looked up that they do have the form a = a_0 + tn, b = b_0 - tm, where a_0, b_0 is any pair that works
this just feels kinda bleegggh 
because you dont really have to find any explicit forms of a and b to prove that
you could've done it with the well ordering principle for example
hmm I don’t see
as for this, start with the fact that (m,n)=1
I'm not sure how one would use 2.13 there either.
My first idea would be to prove separately for each odd prime p that if m and n are not both 0 modulo p, then 2m+n and 2n are also not both 0 modulo p, because the matrix (2, 0; 1, 2) over F_p is invertible.
what does that tell you? (from exercise 2.13)
that there exist integers a,b with am + b(2k+1) = 1
maybe its less complicated if you keep it as n
Tho I think you will reach the desired result anyway
So your goal is to show that there exist integers r,s such that?
Are you really saying anything that MC did not already say here?
Here, in particular.
😅
Well I was starting from the beginning but ok I will skip this
all good. I seem to have found conditions for x and y to work, but I have no reason to believe they’re integers
but I expect with the right choice of a and b this can be assured
lol I had an error
At least, if a is not already even, then you can add n to a and subtract m from b.
right.. that uses n being odd, that looks good
but then b - x needs to be even as well
and b is odd, so x must be odd
So we might need to add 2 mod 4 to a somehow.
But n is odd which means it is either 1 or 3 mod 4. So 2n is 2 mod 4.
Thus if a/2 is not already odd, you can continue by adding 2n to a and subtracting 2m from b.
ooh
very nice
most of Aluffi’s exercises so far have been quite easy, but that was a lot trickier
let’s see this next part…
This does feel easier to me, still.
that’s a very cool looking idea, no idea how you came up with it and I don’t really understand it. I’ve got little intuition for anything involving finite fields
Hmm, roughly what I thought was something like
I hope the matrix that takes (m,n) into (2m+n, 2n) turns out to be invertible over Z because then the two pairs will have the same common divisors, and in particular the same gcd.
Whoops, its determinant is 4, so not invertible over Z. But at least it will be invertible modulo anything where 4 is a unit, which is every odd number, so that would take care of all the odd primes. And then we just need an ad-hoc argument that 2 is not a common factor.
So it's not really about finite fields in particular, but the more general fact (from Cramer's rule) that a matrix over a ring is invertible iff its determinant is a unit in the ring.
(And I suspect there is probably some connection between the fact that the determinant is 4, and the key to your approach turned out to be to get a to have the right remainder modulo 4, but I can't quite see the details of that connection).
hmm very interesting stuff
My idea for using 2.13 would be
So there are a and b with
am + bn = 1
then
2am + 2bn = 2
as n is odd there is x and y with 2x + ny = 1, so
2axm + 2bxn + ny = 1
which you can rearrange to
ax(2m + n) + (2bx + y - ax)n = 1
But then you still need a clean argument for y-ax being even
I'm trying to prove this theorem. On this Wikipedia page: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minimal_polynomial_of_2cos(2pi%2Fn) it says that it can be derived using a product formula for n odd and a theorem using chebyshev polys. (Note that my \Psi_n(x) corresponds to \Xi_n(x) on the Wikipedia page)
Does someone maybe have a hint how it might work?
I know T_n(\cos \theta) = \cos(n\theta) so i kinda tried so approach using 2\cos(1/n*2\pi)
And then i tried T_n(x/2)=\cos(2\pi)=1, x=2\cos(2\pi/n), thus T_n(x/2)-1=0. Didnt really help though 🙂
For studying Abstract Algebra (or any math field for that matter), is it OK to read thru just the chapters of a book without doing any of the exercises and finish the book quick, then go thru the book a 2nd time—but this time—we do the exercises for sure sequentially?
Or no? Is it better to do exercises sequentially as you go thru the book the first time?
What book reading strategies do you guys personally use?
I'm starting out AA via self-study
It's fine to read through quickly first but I wouldn't go through the whole book
You can skim a section to see what the big ideas are and where things are headed
Also to get an idea of what examples you should have in mind
My opinion on the first strategy is that (a) the first pass won't teach you much (especially as at the AA level you're probably not interacting with the textbook in a way that would allow you to go without doing explict exercises), and (b) you're more likely to lose motivation
but if you want to actually learn you need to be active
that doesn't necessarily mean doing the exercises in the book, I often don't but I'll do other things to engage my brain in what I'm learning
so taking transformative notes (reorganizing information in a way that makes sense to you, rather than just copying), working out examples, etc...
In fairness, I typically do this and I think it works. Not the full book usually, but the chapter at least
I also like to try and work out proofs myself, maybe after reading a bit to see the main idea
but doing exercises is also just a good litmus test to see if you really understand the material (and of course helps you learn)
I like the first pass just to let it wash over me and get the broad strokes, then I go back over it with a fine tooth comb and make sure I get it
Yeah so the reason I mentioned this is because sometimes when I do exercises, I just get completely stuck
And this is where I actually do most of the learning
if you get stuck on exercises it's a good sign you need to review more or perhaps look at other sources
And sometimes, I insist on finishing the exercises, but then many days get.. wasted?
They aren't wasted is the thing
It feels that way
But that's where the learning happens
You shouldn't expect to get through math books very quickly if you are actually absorbing the material
it's pretty easy to get a surface level understanding of math without actually knowing the details
Personally there are a lot of fields where I know a lot of the broad strokes but if you asked me to do exercises I would fail spectacularly, and it's because I haven't actually worked at problems/exercises/examples
Knowing the big picture is certainly important though, as it gives you motivation to understand the details
Ayy, I see, I see
Well, thanks so much guys! I'll probably take a hybrid approach then, yeah; I'll see a chapter thru just to quickly get an idea of where I'm headed, then make sure to perform their exercises at the end of it 👍
I'll also add that for self study I think it's really important to look at different sources, maybe not always but whenever something doesn't make sense
often I find something is confusing but then a different book or a blog post or a YouTube video explains it in a way that makes it click
Tbh this is true even when not self studying
Yeah, I totally agree with that sentiment; some time back, there was this explanation of a topic in a certain book which I was super confused by
Decided to look at another book and the topic couldn't have been any clearer 😄
It was 2 different perspectives of the same problem, so that was cool
I wss struggling with a question and would appreciate some help, the question is "every finite field has order p^n for some prime", I can see why it must be p and can't be a composite with distinct primes bcz of cauchy's theorem and prime char of an integral domain, but can't generalise it to p^n or make sense of it.
If a positve integer has only one prime factor p, it must be a power of p.
That's all fine and good but a finite field must be abelian with respect to addition and multiplication, right so it must be isomorphic to (Z(p^n), +), doesn't that imply that it must have an element of order p^n - 1?
What is Z(p^n)?
Integers mod p^n
That doesn't make a field unless n=1.
Ah. Well, it's not true that the finite field's additive group must be Z(p^n). There are other abelian groups of order p^n.
Wait, seriously? I read in aes that it uses GF(2^8) as its underlying finite field
The additive group of the field of order p^n is the product of n copies of Z/pZ.
(The multiplicative structure is more complicated).
Yes, but its additive group is not cyclic.
Oh makes sense but don't they have nonzero divisors?
Ohhh
All the F_{p^n} additive groups are elementary abelian iirc
Finite fields are generally described as having n copies of the C_p that are entwined with each other using an irreducible polynomial of degree n.
hint: think about vector space dimension
GF(2^8) is just the name of the unique field with 2^8 elements
That's something I don't wanna do😭, but even in that sense it considers it as a direct product of n (Zp) right
It might help to just stare at the structure of the finite field with 9 elements for a while to get what is and isn't cyclic.
Yeah so any finite field is going to contain a copy of Zp, and hence is going to be a vector space over Zp
Or maybe not direct product bcz then it would have zero divisors
so it will have p^n elements
essentially, you can imagine a root of this polynomial a, and the number (for instance) 20 is 16 + 4 so 00010100 in GF(2^8) which is a^4 + a^2.
Yes (additively), which is different from Z(p^n), although both have p^n elements.
It sounds like we may need to start by seeing that a finite field must have a subfield isomorphic to one of the Z/pZ for some prime p.
it will be a direct product as a vector space, but it also has a product
between elements
I am trying to proof Cauchy theorem that say every prime dividing the order of a group G, there exist an element in G such that it's order is that prime, but what I proved it just for cyclic groups, am I getting closer to the proof?
not quite if I remember the usual proof of Cauchys theorem
The issue is you can't really reduce the general case to the cyclic case
So additively, it is like an n-tuple coordinate vectors, but multiplication isn't pointwise?
Is it hard or long?
The proof
With elements from Zp?
Multiplication definitely isn't pointwise.
Yeah exactly, just how the complex numbers are basically tuples of real numbers but the multiplication isn't pointwise
Oh, yeah that's what I was struggling with. Thanks guys
And we define multiplication in terms of irreducible polynomial or smt? Haven't gotten there yet
I don't believe so, but there's a bit of a trick that might not be obvious depending what material you've covered
unfortunately there isn't really one construction of a field with a given number of elements
but polynomials are generally the easiest
In fact the fields of size 9, 49, 121, 361, ... can be constructed in direct analogy to how you make C from R.
but essentially it's similar to the construction of the complex numbers as being polynomials where x^2+1 is considered to be equivalent to zero
You sort of can actually. But that might not be the most common proof
Okay, thanks guys. It will be some time before I get to constructing fields
If you read rust, I have an example implementation of this in rust.
it might help with understanding.
At least medium difficulty I'd say. Not necessarily super long, but depends on the proof I guess
Programming lang? If so, nahh
Something that shouldn't be particularly hard, but may or may not be insightful is to try to construct the field with 4 elements yourself.
The elements will look something like
0, 1, x, x+1
so you just need to figure out how they can multiply to give a field
Yes, rather (really exactly) like the complex numbers.
if multiplication was pointwise youd have many many zero divisors
Okay, sounds like a neat excercise. Will work on it
Sounds interesting, can you share?
Sure thing
Let me throw it on github
Just a small implementation of GF(256) in rust. Contribute to OmnipotentEntity/gf256 development by creating an account on GitHub.
The code was originally intended to obfuscate a secret in a reverse engineering challenge.
@glad osprey
Cool, thanks! 
(The person I wrote it for never got around to implementing it, and I similarly didn't bother.)
(But the gf(256) part works)
Neat how an element fits exactly inside a u8, and addition just becomes xor 
What are the const generics N and G for btw?
N is for the polynomial, G is for the generator used.
Specifically, I am implementing the obfuscation like a RAID6.
in a RAID6 you multiply through by a power of G for each disk beyond the first.
it's explained in detail starting from line 147
I see, interesting 
got my groups exam tmrw
lets hope i do good
ty guys for the advice along my group theory learning journey
i'll definitely be back for more groups
(and rings)
May I interest you in a geometric group theory
Gromov's theorem is pretty cool
geometric group theory when it meets algebraic group theory
the idea that we can distribute powers
as in
(ab)^2 = a^2b^2
only works if we assume commutativity right ?
its an iff, even
Or odd
(ab) = ab iff we assume commutiavity
You have to commute the left bracket to the right and use the fact that () =
No, not an iff for any odd exponent.
i remember proving that if (ab)^k = a^kb^k for three consecutive k then G is abelian
this immediately proces the k=2 and k=-1 case cuz it trivially holds for k=0,1
hmmmmmm
suppose (ab)^2 = a^2b^2 then G is abelian this is true because
abab = a^2b^2
ba = ab
ta
Nonabelian group of order n for n odd lol and take exponent n
ababab = a^3b^3
baba = a^2b^2
a^9b^9 = (a^3b^3)^3
hmmmmmmmmmmmm
no
baba = abab
by this logic groups of order 2 are always abelian!! surely that cannot be true
Lol
1 + 0 = 1 but 0 + 1 = 0
what are the typically used generators of Sn
and how could i prove that they generate Sn
maybe if it could be explained for a small case?
(12), (23), (34), ..., (n-1,n) is a usual set
so is (12), (123...n)
There's also supersets of those sets (eg all the transpositions)
how could i prove they generate the group?
(formally)
First I'll prove that this generates a group which contains the group generated by (12), (23), ...
well (123...n) can be broken into two cycles right?
so let s = (123...n)
Then s(12)s^{-1} = (23)
and also s(k,k+1)s^{-1} = (k+1,k+2)
So this is done
yeah
The proof that (12), ..., (n-1,n) work is essentially the same proof that the bubble sort algorithm works lol
wait really?
Which you can do by induction, where if the n is mapped to the kth place, we apply (k,k+1), (k+1,k+2), ..., (n-1, n) sequentially to move it to the nth place
Then apply induction
thats so cool though
What swaps does bubble sort use?
It's only adjacent elements
yeah
but how does that represent any given permutation
am i being stupid
wait
no
i am
given a permutation
just apply the bubble sort
boom u get it in terms of the two cycles
i guess this is just how you can write it in two cycles
Take the inverse of the permutation
Sort it
That gives you the original permutation
(As you're just asking "what do I need to do to the permutation to get it back to the identity")
That’s just kinda permutations work
I was just thinking "ok how do I prove this nicely" and somehow it came up
It is very cool though
oh yeah i guess it is how you can prove bubble sort
Could you perhaps stop pressing enter several times in the middle of sentences? It's very annoying to read.
sorry 😭 idk why i do that. my bad for it being annoying
Anyone have any idea how to show that the ideal { f \in C[0,1] | f(c) = 0 } is not finitely generated?
I’ve thought about taking |f_1| + |f_2| + …. + |f_n| and deriving a contradiction but can’t quite make it work
Let me know if anyone has any hints
Consider the ideal J = (f_1, \dots, f_n)
Consider the subset {g \in J | g(1/n) = a_1, \dots, g(k/n) = a_k, \dots, g(1) = a_n} (where we assume wlog c =/= i/n for any i, because otherwise just take some other n element set)
Hmm, that doesn't really sound like a promising direction to me ... it feels like we'll need to consider behavior arbitrarily close to c just in order to conclude the ideal is not principal.
I think that ||1 not being in the ideal is the necessary condition for the resulting matrix to be non-singular, and say that set has size at most 1||
Can someone explain the significance of stabilisers of points in the same orbit being conjugate in the group? I know conjugation relates to normal subgroups but what normal subgroup is at play here?
If you have some g in your set, then you can add ((x-1/n)(x-2/n)···(x-n/n))·f_1 to make a different function also in your set, as long as f_1 is not identically zero.
What are the ways Z/qZ can act on (Z/QZ)^N as a set?
One immediate consequence that feels not useless is that the stabilizers of elements in the same orbit are isomorphic subgroups.
Sorry that I interfered..
was this for me?
No, it was my own question
oh 😭
too many
isomorphic with the map being conjugation?
It looks weird to write "(Z/qZ)^N as a set" rather than just specify some random set with q^N elements.
I feel like i haven't grasped the idea of orbits and stabilisers
You need to do a fair amount of exercises before it starts making real intuitive sense.
Yeah examples are quite illuminating here
For instance if you take the group of rotations of say an icosahedron
The stabilizer of any point is just a cyclic group of order 5
they're different subgroups but are all sort of the same (conjugate)
Yeah, there is details that I decided to leave out at first
and a similar thing happens in general where the stabilizers along an orbit all kinda "look the same"
tbh it's a good exercise to just think of random actions and compute or think about the stabilizers of various points
In reality, I might be looking for Z_q-representations, but I am not sure
q-adic
Is q a prime? Prime power?
Prime
So like
One way might be: Consider the finitely generated ideal J = <f1,...,fn>, and set g(x) = max(|f1(x)|,|f2(x)|,...,|fn(x)|).
Then every function f in J is O(g(x)) as x->c, but sqrt(g(x)) is not, and should be in the ideal you're trying to generate.
Orbit-stabiliser will tell you this
Details are left to the reader
But this is indeed a cute application thereof
Calling the ideal I it's not too hard to see that I^2 = I. By for example Nakayama if I was finitely generated it would be generated by a single idempotent. But the only idempotent in the ideal is 0
I can't believe I forgot orbit-stabilizer 
Nice argument
But anyway, I guess there are going to be quite many
Trying to think of a nice like way to write down lots of elements in there lol.
Not actually too many really
Well as in the point is you can just write down all of them up to iso
Is Z_q here Z/qZ or the q-adic integers? Whoops, it said Z/qZ originally.
Z/qZ, sorry
Cryptographers be like this, lol
Yeah because it was Z/q^n and then Z_q was said, it made me assume that that Z_q actually meant the q-adics
So what is the question? How many ways Z/q acts on a set with q^n elements? Or was there more to it?
But what I have said is all for Z/q ofc
The only way Z/qZ can act on anything if is the generator maps to a permutation consisting of some q-cycles and some stationary elements.
Indeed orbit stabiliser
Yeah there is more to it but I have to find how to ask properly
Basically I want
a . (m + e) - a . m to be small, for small e
That's why I was thinking of (Z/QZ)^N
I think I'm more confused than before
What are a, m, e there? You need to give more context, I think.
Yeah finding Z/qZ acting on set of Q^N elements is at least a bit standard
And there is this one I am trying to tackle, damn
”a set of Q^N elements” is a bit of a weird phrase, “a set in bijection with R” or “a set with the cardinality of the continuum” are both much more common
They meant q, not Q.
ohhh
why using q for a prime not a prime power 😭
Real
And there is no p already
Ah.
So suppose Z/q acts on (Z/p)^N.
For any a in Z/q and m in (Z/p)^N,
I want a (m + e) - a m to be small when e in (Z/p)^N is small.
Ah wait, the Q I meant is not the rational duh
What does "small" mean here?
How many ways can Z/ℓ act on (Z/ℓ)^n
Close to 0 when you take infinite norm of the representative.
Wdym by norm
Huh.
You can "put" (Z/p)^N in Z^N, and take infinite norm
Ah so is this indeed crypto
lol
(I would say the sup/infinity norm, rather than infinite)
Yeah like that. Details are more involved, like it can be negative, but I don't think that changes much
That sounds important tbh
That was a typo 
Ah dw
Yeah it is. LWE problem is about erroneous encryption in Z/pZ, so I am thinking of erroneous case.
Idk why they use q for primes, welp
Anyway I guess the details are all over the place, need to sort them out carefully.
What does LWE sorry
Oh "learning with errors"
Yeah "learning with errors"
ah never mind, what I thought doesn't work
it seems hard
Yes.
We get thhat x -> x³ is a homomorphism (and then quickly that it must be an automorphism), but then everything seems to dry up.
its not too hard to see that it must be a central automorphism, so G must have some center
if its an inner automorphism, then I believe it has to have order 2, which I think leads to a contradiction since then you have x^9=1 for all x in the group which means the group has an element of order 3 or 9
actually wait, if x -> x^3 is an automorphism then the automorphism has finite order so there must be an n with x^{3^n}=1 for all x in the group, and doesn't that imply 3 divides the order of the group
nvm that has to be wrong since it would apply to the abelian case as well
It shows x^(3^n) = x
oh yes of course
anyway if its inner, then you would still get x^8=1 for all x which I guess narrows the search for a potentiial counterexample
group with exponent 8 that has a nontrivial center
Yeah my hope was D_8 but it doesn't work because like rs = (rs)^3 but r^3 s^3 = r^3 s
and the automorphism group needs to have a nontrivial center with an element of order 2 in it ig
I wonder if you can just check the (infinite) "universal case"
(if its inner)
oh wait I think I have a potential sol
nvm I misread a paper
Ngl I googled it as it is late here but will let others have fun lol
lmao I also thought about this
is there some weird commutator stuff you can do
||aabb = baba so bbaaa = ababa = aaabb. Now play around with b^2 = a^3n b^2 a^-3n (by that I mean choose something nice for n)||
why should sqrt(g(x)) be in the ideal?
i don't see how taking the max of the generating elements gives us a continuous element
i think we can argue similarly with |f_1(x)|+|f_2(x)|+... though?
I see what you're saying generally tough that
$f(x) =\sum_{i=1}^n h_i(x)f_i(x) \leq \sum_{i=1}^n M_i f_i(x) \leq Mg(x)$.
So we have that
[
\sqrt{g(x)} \leq Mg(x) \quad \implies \quad 1 \leq M\sqrt{g(x)}
]
so $\sqrt{g(x)} \geq \frac{1}{M}$ for all x, so $g(x) \geq \frac{1}{M^2}$ for all x where g(x) != 0, which is not the case since by continuity, there is some point where $|f_1|+|f_2|+...|f_n| <= 1/M^2$ (Intermediate Value Theorem)
sudo
honestly tho i would never have thought to look at $\sqrt{g(x)$
sudo
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
could you give some insight how u came up with it? @tribal moss
Taking max is continuous.
Absolute value, maximum, and square root are all continuous functions, so composing them with the (assumed continuous) f_i again gives a continuous function. And sqrt(g(c)) is obviously 0, so it is in the ideal.
You could add the absolute values instead of taking their max, that would also work.
I had a lot of false starts, but what eventually worked was thinking something like: Intuitively I suspect the obstacle to being finitely generated is that the choice of generators limit how fast the functions in the ideal they generate can move away from 0. I know from having worked with asymptotic growth rates before that there's always a function that grows faster than a given finite collection -- to be sure most of that experience is for growth as n->infty, but asymptotics at a finite limit have enough similarities that it feels promising. Now "how fast they grow" cannot simply be a matter of constant factors, since you can just multiply the generators by a large constant (which are all in the ring). However, that's the best one can do since [0,1] is compact and so every function in C([0,1]) is bounded. So intuitively we want to multiply the upper bound with a factor that gets larger the closer that bound gets to 0 -- and that is what the square root does.
Jagr's argument using Nakayama's lemma is much slicker, except I'm an ignoramus who doesn't actively remember such general tools. If you have it available in your context, definitely use it instead of the square root argument.
Ah, but then we're done, because ||that means x^-1·x³ is always in Z(G), i.e. x² commutes with everything. And then a³b³ = (ab)³ implies abbaab = ababab; cancel ab at each end and you get ba=ab.||
How do you see that it is central, though? It seems to be a not widely described property -- https://math.stackexchange.com/a/436261 states without proof that an automorphism is central iff it commutes with every inner automorphism, and the latter is clearly the case here, but the connection doesn't seem to be immediate to me.
Oh wait, it is fairly immediate anyway.
Yeah if f is an automorphism then f(x^3)=f(x)^3
If f is an automorphism that commutes with any inner automorphism, then b f(a) b^-1 = f(bab^-1) = f(b) f(a) f(b)^-1, and because a was arbitrary that also gets us bab^-1 = f(b)af(b)^-1, which rearranges to ab^-1f(b) = b^-1f(b)a. So b^-1f(b) is in the center.
That looks like the central trick of the problem is to notice how "group order not a multiple of 3" means that x->x³ must be injective so every element is a cube. The rest seems to reduce to elementary symbolic manipulations.
So the orbits of P either has size 1 or p. If it's 1 you're done.
If it has size p and y is an element of the orbit then gy is different for the different values of g in P.
Now pick y and g such that x fixes both y and gy, and conjugate g by x
why every element of the commutator sub group is a product of commutators
that is by definition
Because the commutator subgroup is the subgroup generated by all the commutators
i move the discussion to advanced algebra
is there anything interesting that arises from dividing a ring of matrices by a prime ideal?
every ring of matrices is a finite dimensional k-algebra and every finite-dimensional k-algebra is a ring of matrices so the best answer you're gonna get is a finite-dimensional integral domain k-algebra
which, granted, have plenty of nice properties
What do you mean exactly?
Like if R is a commutative ring and p is a prime ideal are you asking about
Mn(R)/(p)? If so that's equal to Mn(R/p)
Matrices over Z be like
rahhh assuming matrices in field coefficients
else you can see a ring as the ring of 1x1 matrices with coefficients in itself
smh
Ok ig it's just that makes the original q much more boring
I think in how many ways you wanna twist it you're just gonna end up with something along the lines of "finite type R-algebra integral domains"
Matrices over Z are are ring of matrices with real coefficients.
You can't assert that a subring of the matrix ring is an algebra over the field unless you know something extra that makes it an algebra.
right that is true
lol
I'm confused what you mean by the first bit
I mean M_{n×n}(Z) is a perfectly good subring of M_{n×n}(R), so saying "assuming matrices in field coefficients" won't ensure we're talking about an R-algebra.
I mean, if someone gave Mn(Z) as an example of a ring of matrices with field coefficients I would say they have some weird choice of terminology
I would say matrices with field coefficients like surely must mean M_n(F) for a field F
Trying to prove some equivalent definitions for DVRs, If R is an integrally closed 1 dimensional Noetherian local domain how do I show it's maximal ideal is principal?
Let m be the unique maximal ideal. Pick any element x in m \ m^2 (exists by Nakayama) and like show this is prime iirc
Then (x) is a nonzero prime ideal contained in m, hence = m by assumption
Yeah not sure what to do after that, (x) has to be m-primary so I can get an n such that m^n \subset (x) but is this useful?
Yeah i dont think this is useful nvm, cause the n you get "should be" 1 because we took x in m \ m^2
It should be useful for reaching a contradiction.
Like take n minimal with m^n in (x) pick y in m^n-1 not in (x). Then y/x is not in R hence not integral over R.
(y/x)m is in R. If you can show it's all of R, then x is a multiple of y and you can get a contradiction.
To finish it off ||the only way it can not be all of R is if it's contained in m.||
||But then if a1, ..., ak is a generating set for m, you can embed R[y/x] into Prod^k m by f maping to (f ai). So R[y/x] is a fg R-module||
Actually, that's overcomplicating it
||you can just embed R[y/x] into m by mapping f to f times whatever||
thanks!
Field theory is so cool
How does this show that x bar is algebraic over k
Is it because k' is a finite extension of k and thus all of its elements are algebraic over k (including xbar)
Wait nvm that's a priori
Or is it just because $\overline{x} \in k' = k[\overline{x}]$ so that $\overline{x} = b_n \overline{x}^n+ b_{n - 1} \overline{x}^{n - 1} + \dots + b_0$ for $b_i \in k$. But then $\overline{x}$ is the root of the polynomial $b_n x^{n} + b_{n - 1} x^{n - 1} + \dots + b_0 - x$
okeyokay
How is Sigma defined here exactly?
It's just that k' = k[xbar] is a quotient of the polynomial ring k[x], so isomorphic to k[x]/(f(x)) I guess
And hence xbar is algebraic with minimal polynomial f
Mm okay
i dont know if it"s just me but my ring theory class has felt a little political lately?
we were talking about how to radicalize our ideals and like the power of people in radical ideals
What do simple modules and conservatives have in common?
They're both annihilated by radical left ideals
Quadruple pun
Let V4 = {1, a, b, ab}, G a group, and
B = {(g, h) ∈ G × G | g^2 = 1 = h^2, hg = gh}.
Show that the function
ψ : Hom(V4, G) → B : f → (f(a), f(b)) is a bijection (first show that the function is well-defined).
can someone help w showing this is surjective
Is the maximal ideal the ideal with the maximum number of elements or an ideal such that there is no proper ideal that contains it properly?
The latter
Any progress?
No
Why does Max have two different meanings in a sense?
Max with respect to containment is generally more interesting
Can you state what surjectivity of ψ means in this case?
Because maximal with respect to set inclusion is generally the interesting concept. I don’t even really know how I’d formalise the “maximum number of elements”
At least not in a capacity that’s at all interesting
Its clear why max with respect to cardinality would be completely uninteresting when it comes to ideals
I meant maximal text speech isn't very good today
In every such case the max ideal would just be the entire ring
I mean, you could define it as the maximal proper ideal
I mean you'd still restrict to proper ideals. If your ring was finite an ideal with maximal cardinality would also be maximal
Not that it's particularly interesting anyway
I see
Even still, what would this really mean? How would you compare them? Ideals are generally infinite
You could look at the finite case, I guess
So you're given (g, h) with g^2=1=h^2 and you want to construct f such that
f(a) = g and f(b) = h.
Do you have a guess for what f(1) and f(ab) should be? Can you verify that this is a homomorphism?
i think i got it
Maximal usually means this sorta ting
Eventually
Ig this is relatively rare and it's not clear smth would be unique
let a be the positive 4th root of 2. find all intermediate fields between Q(a) and Q.
here is what i tried:
so clearly any (nontrivial) intermediate field has degree 2, as [Q(a) : Q] = 4. I can only think of Q(a^2), but im having trouble proving it is the only one.
If F is another intermediate field, then F = Q[x]/(x^2+bx+c) and the roots of x^2+bx+c must be in Q(a). This happens iff (-b +- sqrt{b^2 - 4ac})/2 in Q(a) iff sqrt(b^2 - 4ac) in Q(a). Now we can multiply sqrt(b^2 - 4ac) by some integer suitably to get that there is sqrt(m) \in Q(a) for some integer m.
Now if we characterise all possible elements of the form sqrt(m) \in Q(a) (namely if we get sqrt(m) in Q(a) iff m is a multiple of 2), then we are done, as then m must be a power of 2 (otherwise we get sqrt(m')\in Q(a) with m' odd contradicting the characterisation) and thus sqrt(b^2-4ac)\in Q(sqrt(2)) giving us F = Q(sqrt(b^2 - 4ac)) = Q(sqrt(2)) as desired.
should i continue with this? i tried but it became very messy. if anyone wants to help, please join
#1438661116308885524 message if you dont mind
Can I use the Galois correspondence?
(ie, are you expected to know it?)
At which point I'd just say "yeah I could do the messy calculation to show there are no other square roots in this field, but it's not worth my time"
(Essentially the proof this way would be "D_8 = Gal(Q(i, qtrt(2)/Q)", and that extension is the splitting field of x^4 - 2, and D_8 has 3 subgroups of order 4, hence Q(i, qtrt(2) has 3 subfields of degree 2 over Q, and these are Q(i sqrt(2)), Q(i), Q(sqrt 2) and only the latter is contained in Q(qtrt(2)))
hmm that is very odd because this is given as an exercise in the field theory chapter, which is just before the galois theory chapter. im hoping there is an elementary method to do it
I mean the elementary method is just "manually square an element of the field, multiply by squares to remove denominators, and check when the resulting diophantine equations have a simultaneous solution"
yeah so it looks like il have to do the messy calculation i was trying to avoid
It's not hard, but it's also not worth your time if you did similar for smaller examples
Maybe the exercise is meant as a motivation for Galois theory.
I.e. at the end of the Galois theory chapter you'll be given the exercise again with a "see how much easier this was"
"Remember how we tortured you? Yeah we didn't have to." /lh
Guys if I have an ideal I in a ring R, does R/I \cong R imply that I = 0?
doesnt seem like it, in Z^{\mathbb N}, consider the ideal generated by (1,0,0,...)
No, take Z^\infty
mmh okay, this makes me sad 🙁
I think it depends if you’re thinking about an isomorphism of rings or modules though
It fails in the same way for modules, doesn't it?
yes, because R is an R-module and I is a submodule
It may do, I feel like I remeber there being something different about the two cases but maybe I just needed a different example or something
for any nontrivial algebraic structure you have the same argument
van anyone help
It would need to be an algebraic structure that has a meaning concept of quotients, so fields are out.
i was talking about take any nontrivial A, then A^∞ ≈ A^∞ / θ for some nontrivial θ (infinitely many, in fact)
If you explain what you're doing instead of just posting an image of some formulas without further explanation, there would be a higher probability that someone can find something helpful to say.
use the definition of the semidirect product operation. you know the automorphism, so compute the product (1,x) (y,1) by definitions. that should be equal to the product (y,1)^{-1} (1,x) where <y> = C_7, <x> = C_8
Depends what exactly the statement for modules is.
R and R/I is only isomorphic as R-modules if I=0. But in general M and M/N can be isomorphic yes.
The natural map R -> R/I is an isomorphism if and only if though.
How does x^{-1} mapping to zero show that x is not in B
Is it because if it were, then if $g: B \to k'$ is this extension, we would have $1 = g(1) = g(x x^{-1}) = g(x) g(x^{-1}) = 0$ so that $1 \in \mathfrak{m}'$, a contradiction?
okeyokay
Yeah
Is there any way this can be justified more precisely?
Finite fields cannot be algebraically closed
Suppose that a1, … , an are all the elements of F.
Then the polynomial (x-a1)(x-a2) … (x-an) + 1 evaluates to 1 on every element of F
I would say rather that like
A non-zero polynomial has only finitely many roots
That seems to be what they are using, right?
I guess the question is what okey was asking about.
But yes, there can't be infinitely many \xi where it's zero
Yup
if M has a proper submodule it must map to an ideal of R/I SAY B/I by correspondence B is an ideal in G that contains contains I
I guess i have to show proper containment
Ah yes trivial
since they are isomorphic
any non zero submodule of of M must map to a non zero ideal of R
is this the idea ?
Yeah
I suppose many proofs where you could use correspondence you can force another proof
the proof above didn't actually use correspondence in the lecture notes
I just thought of correspondence as a shortcut
Yeah a lot of the proofs of that I’ve seen don’t use correspondence, but it’s easy enough to prove and useful enough that I don’t see any good reason not to use it
which one is correspondence again
i only know the isomorphism theorems by their numbers
is that the bijection between subalgebras of A containing ker phi and A/ker phi
Submodules etc
Subalgebra if by algebra you mean UA sense ig lol
yeah i mean in the UA sense my bad
i kinda use both the UA definition and the "vector space with some spice" definition depending on context
can anyone help me with this question "show that x^4 +1 is reducible over Zp for every prime p"
Continuing with this, If R is an integrally closed 1 dimensional Noetherian local domain with dim _k (m/m^2) = 1 how to show every non-zero ideal is a power of m? dim _k (m/m^2) = 1 implies there are no ideals between m and m^2, so if I can show dim _k (m^n/m^n+1) = 1 it should be enough (again using the fact that every* ideal is m primary and we can get maximal i such that m^i \subset (a)). It's easy to see they are isomorphic if m is principal but I don't see how to show it otherwise
Atiyah-Macdonald does it using some fact about Artin local rings, but I don't see why R/m^n is Artinian either
What have you tried?
ok wait it's dimension zero and Noetherian oops
im not able to think what concepts i can use in this
Try checking with p = 3,5,7 and see if you get any ideas. What does being a root of x^4 + 1 mean for an element of the group of units in Z/pZ? Then think about the case when it has two quadratic factors
Also you might need to know when -1 and 2 are squares mod p
there is no sense of "containing ker ϕ" for general algebras
the correspondence theorem is about congruences
i see
i frankly just made an assumption there that i thought would hold
because ker ϕ is a relation, not a subset of A
subalgebras just dont behave quite as nice
how
for a group homomorphism phi from G to H, ker phi is a subgroup of G
similar for ring homomorphism, linear transformation , etc
sure but not for general algebras
in fact, there may exist nonequal congruences which share most of their equivalence classes
only when A is so-called 0-regular can you faithfully represent a congruence as its equivalence class at 0 (which is some distinguished element from your algebra)
A good hint could be that if a and b don't have square roots mod p, then ab does
And just think about all the ways x^4 + 1 can factor
formally ker ϕ = { <a, b> ∈ A^2 | ϕ(a) = ϕ(b) }
ah i see
How can I prove this without using long division?
Try to take a factor of x - r out of p(x) - p(r) using difference of two ith powers
Ive been trying for a while. Just to make sure:
It wants me to prove $\exists v \in k : p(x) = p(r) + v(x-r)$ right?
adapt
No, they want you to show there is v(x) in k[x] with
p(x) = p(r) + v(x)*(x-r)
If v is in k then
p(r) + v(x-r)
is always degree 1, so can't be p(x) if it has larger degree
thank you
I’m working on an exercise in ring theory, and I need to use the euclidean algorithm for k[X_1,…,X_n], with respect to the last variable. So, euclidean division of the ring k[X_1,…,X_{n-1}][X_n]. However, I thought that euclidean division only really makes sense for polynomial rings over fields. What can be salvaged in this more general case of R[X] with R an integral domain?
In general you can do euclidean division by monic polynomials in R[X] for any commutative ring R.
What's nice about fields is that every polynomial is monic (up to unit)
yeah its all a facade. Basically the reason you can get away with this in groups/rings/modules is because you have inverses. Thus asking the question "is x equivalent to y" is the same as asking "is x-y equivalent to zero"
congruences are really the more natural objects, because the definition is the same no matter what object you are studying
A congruence is just an equivalence relation that obeys all of the structure
It just do happens that for groups, congruences can be identified with normal subgroups, for rings with ideals, etc
(For instance, given an ideal J if you define x equivalent to y if x-y is in J, that forms a congruence and given any congruence the set of elements equivalent to zero form an ideal)
So we'd define "obeys structure" as "each operation induces an operation on the equivalence classes too"?
kinda but its even easier than that I think, at least for say rings you would want x ~ y and a ~ b to imply xa ~ yb and x+a ~ y+b
and -x ~ -y and so on
for a universal algebra perspective basically just anything you can do too both sides should respect the equivalence relation
an even slicker way of saying this is that your equivalence relation should form a subring of the product R x R
(or a subgroup or sub-whatever)
Can somebody explain to me why this highlighted line is true
If x is algebraic, so is any polynomial in x
If v is algebraic, so is it’s inverse
Oh wait is it because the algebraic closure is a subring
it's a field
oh aight
(Continued from last ss) where do we use the definition of $u$? Since $a_0 x^m + a_1 x^{m - 1} + \dots + a_m = 0$, we have $x^m + a_0^{-1} a_1 x^{m - 1} + \dots + a_0^{-1} a_m = 0$. Since $a_0^{-1} a_i \in A$ for all $i$, $x$ is integral over $A$ and hence $A[u^{-1}]$.
okeyokay
Here you multiplied everything by $a_0^{-1}=a_0'u^{-1}$, and similarly for (2) you need to multiply everything by $(a_0')^{-1}=u^{-1}a_0$. The definition of $u$ ensures that both of these elements actually lie in $A[u^{-1}]$. This is necessary because they might not lie in $A$, as $A$ isn't assumed to be a field
harmacist
Ah okay, thanks!
this is where the internal equivalence relation definition of a congruence comes from
yeah
it is nice although it doesn't really translate to other mathematical structures, whereas "equivalence relation that preserves structure" can more or less be applied to anything in math
also it has been proven time and time again that consider all cosets of congruences is super useful
and it is a much less natural notion if you only know the ideal view
so I know modules can be thought of as generalized abelian groups (replacing Z with another ring). What about nonabelian groups? Are there non-commutative "modules"?
Much like how you don’t actually need to define the additive group of a ring to be abelian, it’s the same with modules. If you dropped the abelian requirement it still turns out to be abelian by the other axioms
I’m not aware of a similar notion which is truly non commutative, but it would need to look a bit different to modules, you need something more substantial than just dropping commutativity
Group actions?
I guess the question is, what structure do you want to preserve?
Do you want the “vector space like” structure, or do you want something where we can view all groups as “modules” over some ring?
Every group has a Z action by n•g = g^n
Not rly right lol
Action of what?
I mean like n.(gh) is not (n.g)(n.h)
If I remember correctly, it's having distributivity both to the left and to the right that forces addition to be commutative, so we'd need to discard at least one of them.
If we discard (a+b)m = am+bm, then there's no role for addition of scalars to play anymore, so it would just be "over" a multiplicative monoid.
If we discard a(m+n) = am+an, then multiplying by a fixed scalar is not an additive homomorphism anymore, which also sounds bad.
I guess this is a nontrivial action of Z on the set underlying G lol
It’s an action but not as automorphisms
Yeah I kinda had the feeling that anything you drop will give you a pretty uninteresting structure, but it’s late and I’m too tired to think about actual implications lol
@delicate orchid now’s your chance to speak on funny G-modules
okay yeah, the second one is what fails for Z and nonabelian groups, so probably dropping that
G -> Sym(X) not G -> Aut(X)
Alternatively, I suppose we could speak about modules over a rng, in which case it might be possible for addition to be non-commutative outside the range of scalar multiplication.
That wouldn't help with considering an arbitrary group to be "something" over Z, though.
At least, at the trivial end of the scale, if we can't require 1m=m, then scalar multiplication could produce the additive identity of the "module" no matter what, and addition of "module" elements could be whatever. It's not clear to me whether there are really nontrivial examples, though.
Torsion groups:
Wait, is this actually a group action? (a+b)•g = g^(a+b), but a•(b•g) = g^ab
No
it's a monoid action from (Z \ {0}, \times)
but not Z, the additive group
good point
The trouble with that is that it doesn't necessarily associate to the right: n·(g*h) might not be the same as (n·g) * (n·h).
What's (Z, x)?
I mean I'm not wrong
Oh lol, monoids. I see 
yeah it is the monoid of integers under multiplication
So idk for rings, but modules over groups are also common, and groups acting on other groups come up often.
Iirc group cohomology can be generalized to this setting (though I'm not sure it's practically useful).
In that setting I think one considers actions as G -> Out(H) such that extensions correspond to H^2(G; H)
When H is abelian Out(H) = Aut(H) and you recover ZG-modules
Sadly I don't know any group cohomology, but this does sound neat
Some references for further reading exists here
https://mathoverflow.net/a/129731/157483
Alright, I'll give that a look. Thanks.
Modules are almost of actions of monoids on abelian groups. Except they are Ab-enriched monoids. So something that comes close to it is monoid actions on groups, also called groups with operators
In abstract algebra, a branch of mathematics, a group with operators or Ω-group is an algebraic structure that can be viewed as a group together with a set Ω that operates on the elements of the group in a special way.
Groups with operators were extensively studied by Emmy Noether and her school in the 1920s. She employed the concept in her or...
Those are pretty interesting, I'd never heard of them before
I think the difficulty with trying to construct what I want to construct is that the action of R isn't by endomorphisms, in the same sense g |-> g^2 isn't always an endomorphism for nonabelian groups
This comes up in representation theory over cyclotomic fields. In particular the Galois group (which is a cyclic group) of your extension acts on the conjugacy classes in precisely this manner and the number of irreducible representations is in 1:1 correspondence with these orbits AND the characters of these representations are constant on these orbits. Serre covers this
Sure ye I just mean it isn't a group action
But this is cool heh
advertising my thread here:
https://discord.com/channels/268882317391429632/1438661116308885524
if anyone knows any field theory and has something to say / wants to answer some questions feel free to drop by!
;et G a group, if p a prime divides the order of G, then does |{x in G : x^p=e}| divisble by p?
Yes, by a slightly more careful look at the standard proof of Cauchy’s theorem
(The way you prove it’s not 1 is by proving it’s at least 1, and it’s divisible by p)
Hey sorry guys, is it true that if we have two isomorphic rings R1 and R2 by a mapping f, then let A1 be an ideal on R1, then R1/A1 is isomorphic to R2/f(A1)? If not, if we make R1 and R2 be fields, do we have the implication?
The first statement is true
Ok it was that I read something in my class notes that if I have a field isomorphism i between K and K', then we have that a polynomial f(X) in K[X] is irreducible iff i(f(X)) irreducible in K'[X], and I was wondering if what I stated was a valid way to justify it easily
(Due to K being a field, therefore being principal, therefore any irreducible polynomial being maximal, therefore K/(f) being a field, and isomorphic to K'/(i(f)), therefore K'/(i(f)) a field, therefore (i(f)) maximal, therefore irreducible)
It's easy to see that if f(X) is reducible, then if(X) is, as if f(x) = g(x)h(x), then if(x) = ig(x) ih(x)
The converse follows by symmetry
Is this valid too?
Yeah I get it
Thanks
I guess but I like these type of arguments a lot, but I get it
good examples of non commutative rings that don't involve matrices ?
Non-commutative polynomial rings, like k<x, y>
Endomorphisms of anything where adding endomorphisms makes sense (this generalises matrices though so like if you don’t count it)
Pretty much exactly what you think they are
Ie k-linear sums of strings of xs and ys
You can also get deformations of rings like k<x, y>/(xy - yx = 1)
You also have universal enveloping algebras of Lie algebras
(Essentially answering the question “ok but what if I really want my Lie bracket to literally be xy - yx” in the “best” way possible)
Tbh at this point I feel legally obligated to throw this at you /hj
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1212.0914
(it’s lecture notes from a series aimed at grad students)
Just read (the first bit of) section 1 🙃
bru i'm dying in algebra 2
how am i gon do grad algebra
It’s just examples so it’s relatively simple
But you’re unlikely to see much non-comm algebra if you’re not in an explicit course on it tbh
Or you go into like representation theory…
It’s just like the polynomial ring except that you can’t commute x and y. Think of a free group
Oh yeah group rings are another example
^allegedly a group theorist who would’ve done Rep theory in another world
Path algebra of quiver or tensor algebra of species
Group algabra or skew group algebra is good
The quantum plane is a good example, but I guess that’s just a quotient of the free algebra
I mean everything is
Yeah I didn’t say because it’s essentially a more complicated Weyl algebra
Yeah I mean fair lol
(This is the Weyl algebra, mq)
Less complicated weyl algabra*
(The first Weyl algebra if we’re getting pedantic)
misremembered which example was the quantum plane
(But I still think Weyl algebra is more “natural”)
bru why people just saying words i never heard of
Yeah quantum plane you just pick up some multiplicative factor
It’s kinda the sort of thing where most examples will come further into algebra
Weyl algebra you’ve got relations coming out your ass and they’re not even just multiplicative
Hence this
So basically the ring containing the polynomial ring of X and the polynomial ring of Y, x,y can't commute
You’re not quantum brained enough 🙃
Ye
I mean it’s just calculus right
damn idt i'm doing more algebra any time soon
Just a ring of differential operators, it’s the product rule
Up to a multiplicative factor, the first Weyl algebra over C is literally the algebra of the position and momentum operators
Like the 1 should be something like iħ
Yeah but subtraction is still less nice than just multiplication
Like picking up a factor of q may as well be commutative
why would x,y not commute ? hmm i guess you could let x,y be r,s from D_4 as an example
Because we say so
Because you don’t introduce any relations that say they do
You’re not quantum brained enough 🙃
This is what a free object is
Both of them are fairly natural though
Has someone mentioned quaternions?
You get fun things like twisted polynomial rings with derivations (also called Ore extensions irrc?) which are similar
Yeah iirc
operator algebras from QM
I already gave the basic example 🙃
But yeah
quarternions when they meet halfnions
Typo 😭
(And also sometimes these are just universal enveloping algebras, eg the algebra of angular momentum operators)
Ore extensions are cool because they let you define Gröbner bases for non com rings (apparently, someone was telling me about this in the ZX calculus server, idk how that possibly works but I’m assured it does )
How hard would this be to prove without f.g. assumptions (i.e. checking closure under addition and subtraction the old fashioned way)?
Iirc there’s a computational way to do it, but it essentially comes from a minor variant of how this proof works
Why the hell do we care about chain conditions
Where are they used and where are they necessary
They’re essentially “good” finiteness conditions for rings
Like they kinda feel like a form of compactness for rings
Are they often used in hypotheses in algebraic geometry
They’re used all over the place, not just AG. Being Noetherian or Artinian is massively powerful in terms of what you can say about a ring
As mico says they’re kinda like a finiteness condition, which makes life so much easier. They’re so nice in fact I took a course last year called non commutative Noetherian rings theres just kinda that much to say about them
Ah okay I guess I just have to wait and see
Is this what they mean by their proof? Let $N_0' \supset N_1' \supset \dots \supset N_{j}'$ be a composition series of $M'$ and $N_0'' \supset N_1'' \supset \dots \supset N_k''$ be a composition series of $M''$. We claim that
[\beta^{-1}(N_0'') \supset \beta^{-1}(N_1'') \supset \dots \supset \beta^{-1}(N_k'') \supset \alpha(N_0') \supset \alpha(N_1') \supset \dots \supset \alpha(N_j')] is a composition series of $M$. Now, $\alpha(N_0') \subset \beta^{-1}(N_k'')$, for $\beta \circ \alpha = 0$ (and submodules contain $0$). Suppose that we could an insert a submodule $S$. Then, depending on the placement of $S$, we could take the image of $\beta$ to obtain a larger chain of $M''$ or the preimage of $\alpha$ to obtain a larger chain of $M'$, contradicting maximality. Thus, this chain is a composition series of $M$.
okeyokay
Basically not having the noetherian hyphothesis makes everything a lot harder to prove. And in the case of algebraic geometry most rings of interest are quotients or localizations of polynomial rings over fields which are noetherian Hilbert's theorem.
Artinian rings are (perhaps tautologically) very important for some things like deformation theory – a local artinian ring with residue field k is an "infinitesimal thickening" of k
which book is best among herstein topics in algebra, abstract algebra dummit & foote & artin alegbra?
I like them all! 🙂 I only read parts about group theory though. D&F is a larger book, covering more material.
Ermmm it also needs to be a k-algebra. I think
It’s kind of unclear, this is often a thing but then randomly sometimes is excluded?
I think when it’s excluded that’s an error tho… but idk
ty
so far I've got the following impressions: Herstein is an older book, so it has this a little bit old-fashioned, quaint style. But it is still quite readable, Herstein is enthusiastic and sometimes provides illuminating insights along the way (not only a stream of definition/theorem/proof). Also I really like the exercises, they are mostly proof-based, relatively difficult but often reveal something important. Dummit and Foote feels quite encyclopaedic, I have a feeling that it covers everything that one might need for undergrad algebra. Some people consider it verbose, but I really like the explanations and the flow. It also doesn't feel dumbed down (despite being verbose), and I like the style. Also has tons of exrcises! Artin -- I have read less of that, one difference to other books is that he starts with linear algebra in the first chapter and often uses matrix examples for groups and in problems. Has less exercises for each section (maybe 5-10). There is a MIT course by Artin himself that uses this book as a reading text (probably the book was developed from his lecture notes, and he just started using the book as his lecture notes)
Other people noted that Herstein doesn't use group actions (D&F introduce them quite early and base some explanations on them, like looking at Cayley's theorem or conjugacy classes from groups actions' point of view). Artin uses them too but names them differently.
However, I personally don't see a problem with reading Herstein and reading about group actions separately
true
thank you
I mean definitely not
What if you want to lift from k to W(k)
I don't really get your point
Ok sure yeah
But I mean like uh
Wait I’m getting things backwards
Sometimes the category of Artinian local k-algebras is defined to have k map isomorphically to the residue field and sometimes not
Idk
Ghost ping
Ah ye OK
No I misread what u said sorry lol
I think though like
If k has char 0 then every artinian local ring w residue field k admits a unique map from k such that composite is identity
If k has char p and is perfect the analogue holds for W(k) as the base
Ok but this is just like
Okay “just” is a hard word to say here
I mean it is fairly easy yes lol
But the key is that you’re automatically equicharacteristic
And then apply theory
To lift up
I think a nice way to do this is work with square-zero extensions and stare at the cotangent complex
To avoid using Cohen structure theorem or smth ott lol
How?
Lmao
I was definitely appealing to Cohen theory stuff
But also I love that theorem so
Ok my embarrassing confession is that my proof goes via like simplicial commutative rings but I am sure there is an easier proof lol
I guess like use infinitesimal lifting property repeatedly
Does anybody have sources discussing the algebraic properties of higher order primes?
I've used the contangent complex a lot throughtout my life and I'm too ashamed to admit that I still have Ilusie theorem's as a black box (the one that says there is some obstruction in ext^2(something something) that is zero only if you can lift some algebra).
That's like a whole gap in my knowledge that I've been too lazy to fix.
That could refer to many theorems in obstruction theory aha
But yeah I think it is kinda just tricky. Though I do really like the approach to this via formal moduli problems if you know about those
I understand the main idea in the book by Hartshorne, but I really don't understand Ilusie argument. I know that somehow the naive and the simplicial contangent complex are related by some abstract stuff
can you elaborate?
I guess it depends a lot on your taste, but the idea is that often these deformation problems make sense much more generally, say for simplicial commutative rings instead of commutative rings, and have nice categorical properties as such. Then often these Ext group things have conceptual interpretations
Then, it is not that explicit to construct this obstruction, right?
Perhaps not lol but often makes it more straightforward to like compare obstruction classes between problems etc
I guess like, at least in my experience, obstruction classes are like often quite hard to get a hold on besides mapping obstruction classes to one another or smth
It’s interesting to me that lots of properties of group actions can be determined purely by their action groupoid(e.g. freeness, transitivity, having a fixed point), but some others such as faithfulness seem to require more information than just the action groupoid.
In general, what properties of group actions can and can’t be determined by their action groupoids?
is that really true that you can't spot faithfulness from the action groupoid? Like each morphism is labelled by an element of the group acting so can you not just check to see if every non-trivial element appears as a label on a morphism? Although I suppose this is slightly more structure than the standard action groupoid so I might've just answered my own question there
To be clear, I do mean just from the action groupoid yeah, so we don’t know if say two morphisms are the same group element or not in general. Idk any counterexamples, say isomorphic action groupoids where one is faithful and one isn’t, but I’d expect you’d at least need to know whether two morphisms are the same element from the group or not
yeah like you can tell if an action is free from the groupoid (all automorphism groups are 1) but faithful seems stranger
Yeah I’m not sure how to go about that
I’ll try to construct a counter example(e.g. two actions, one faithful, s.t. their action groupoids are isomorphic)
How about something like S_3×S_3 acting on {1,2,3} cup {a,b,c}, such that in one case each S3 factor acts on one of the sets, and in the other there's one factor acting simultaneously on both sets, and the other never does anything?
I think that works
Yeah both groupoids have 2 connected components with 3 objects each and every vertex group is the product of the cyclic group of order 2 and S^3 right? Cause for example take 1, the automorphisms of 1 are (123, _) and (132, _) for _ in S^3 acting on {a, b, c}. This should be true in either case right, e.g. the action ignoring the second S^3 or not?
Yeah -- the intuition I'm building on is that each orbit creates a separate component of the action groupoid, and that component can't "see" the other orbit and there's nothing to encode how the actions on the two orbits relate to each other.
So modifying the action on just one orbit by applying a group automorphism (here, interchanging the two factors) will produce an isomorphic action groupoid.
Yeah, that makes sense
The motivation I had for this question was mainly that I was wondering what would happen if, instead of caring about, say, group actions(on sets, or spaces, etc.) we just cared about arbitrary groupoids(or say topological groupoids for spaces) and treated them as if they were action groupoids of some action(even if they need not actually correspond to one); e.g. we can still make sense of a groupoid having a fixed point or being free or being transitive even if the groupoid doesn’t actually correspond to any group action, but in particular we can’t make sense of a groupoid being faithful. Do y’all know any other properties that are or aren’t reflected in the action groupoid that might be of interest?
This is not a formal principle, but I think in general you can at best determine the orbits and the stabiliser group and size of each orbit (and the stabiliser group is only "well-defined up to conjugacy"). For example, given a connected groupoid with object set S and stabiliser subgroup H of some point s0 in S, take any group structure on S with s0 the identity (use a cyclic group for S finite and a free group for S infinite); then H \trianglelefteq H⨯S and the action groupoid of H⨯S/H is your groupoid. So you can find a transitive group action with that groupoid where the stabiliser subgroup of every point is the same.
I suppose any semidirect product S \ltimes H would work equally well...
I do feel like an action groupoid might be a good way to take a quotient of a group by a non-normal subgroup.
interesting, thanks
im a bit lost about O(3) (real orthogonal group, so for the euclidean space)
im getting sources that O(3) is a (nontrivial) semidirect product of SO(3) and C_2
but also sources claiming that its a direct product out of those groups
chatbots seem to be on the side of semidirect product, some math exchange (like https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4357162/direct-product-representation-of-o-3-contradicting-the-fact-tht-it-is-not-abel) but in my head i had it as direct product, as well as some lecture scripts at uni
so my question is which is correct? and how come it seems like there are contradicting answers to be found
my guess is that maybe in general its a semidirect product but for the special case of O(3) being the real orthogonal group it becomes a direct product
i was writing up nicely the proof of goursats direct product lemma (about it forming a group isomorphism between specific quotientgroups (and thus the sumdirect product being a fiberproduct) and its application on finite subgroups of O(3) classification how it then inspires schönflies notation
and well i cant use that if O(3) is not a direct product :/
It should be both I think
Because {I, -I} commutes with SO(3)
But also I think you can get it as a non-trivial semidirect product via eg {I, diag(1, 1, -1)}
(And yeah my proof generalises to any odd n)
(For evens the first case runs into the problem that -I \in SO(2n))
For n = 2, one way to see this is impossible is that O(2) is nonabelian, but SO(2) x C_2 is abelian
In general I think looking at the centres of both groups works, but computing the centre of SO(2n) and O(2n) isn’t fun
i assume there isnt one unique group isomorphism from SO(3) x C_2 -> O(3) ?
using C_2 isom ZZ_2
till now i assumed i can just use (R,0) -> R , (R,1) -> I dot R
and for I using -idm_3
but i assume i can also use R dot I
or use a different I right? aslong as I^2 = idm_3 and I not in SO(3) ?
An isomorphism
SO(3) x C2 -> O(3)
would need to take C2 to the center, and there -I is the unique order 2 element.
The SO(3) component can map in different ways though, so therefore uniqueness fails
Yes exactly
The centre of O(n) always has two elements
Whereas the centre of SO(n) x C_2 has either 2 or 4 elements
Uh unless n = 2 in which case you have infinitely many
hi! this might be the wrong channel for me to ask this question so if so lmk
i have this very specific problem: suppose i have a map f : Z_12^12 -> Z_12^14 represented by a matrix that is a monomorphism. then 0 -> Z_12^12 -f-> Z_12^14 -?-> Z_12^2 -> 0 is a short exact sequence i believe. There can be many ? maps which i guess probably differ by a Z_12^2 automorphism, what i am looking for is an algorithm of some kind that can give a matrix representation of ? (any). does anyone know of anything or know where i should look?
I'm 99% sure this sequence splits (unless you're working with a short exact sequence of rings in which case you're on your own) so I think your map f is the canonical projection followed by any automorphism of Z_12^2
so matrix wise it should look like a 12 by 12 matrix of 0s direct sum something in GL_2(12)
Pretty sure you can do this in Macaulay2, and I guess similar computer algebra systems as well.
I know magma is pretty good for those kinda things
oo thank you i'll have a look
It would be the canonical projection up to automorphism of (Z/12)^14, but which automorphism would depend on f
ah good point
I forgot matrices can fix subspaces 🤪
No they can't
Once a subspace is broken, it stays broken.
Is there some topic or other source on useful examples of groups or rings?
It depends on what you are looking for.
I want some practical application (in mathematics)
Something like Heisenberg group or semidirect products of groups, groups with complex structure but with a easy way of doing computations
Quaternions
idk if this counts but permutation groups were super relevant in breaking enigma, especially conjugation group actions
the invariant factors are the same as the prime factors in this instance correct? maybe we dont use Z_16?
oh this is the pic before i added Z_4 x Z_4
they're all combinations of divisors
but a priori due to chinese residue theorem they'll be powers of primes
whats the chinese residue theorem and whats a priori
In (a) the invariant factors are all 2, in (b) they're 2, 2 and 4. Etc
In general there are two ways to make the product unique.
One is to use invariant factors, the other is to write a group as a product of cyclic groups with order powers of primes.
Since 16 is itself a power of a prime these give the same decomposition. But for example
Z/6 = Z/2 x Z/3
the invariant factor decomposition is simply Z/6, while the factorization into prime powers would be Z/2 x Z/3
it's perhaps more commonly known as the Chinese remainder theorem, but in modular arithmetic remainders are also known as residues, so the alternative name is reasonable.
"A priori" is a Latin expression meaning roughly "from what is earlier (before you know other things, using only starting information)"
so which would you say is the "correct" decomposition? i know it needs to be unique so my best guess would be the direct product with all Z_2's
wdym "correct"?
I don't understand the question. In this case the two decompositions are identical, so both are correct.
In general it depends what you need them for
i see'
*!
sorry i didnt quite know what i was asking as i thought the invariant factorization was unique so i thought only 1 decomposition of invariant factors was the "correct" one
But your picture only talks about invariant factors, so I guess that would default to "correct"
I only brought up the other decomposition because you talked about prime factors
so this is a good question
but it's important to understand that none of these represent the same group
an invariant factor decomposition is unique up to isomorphism
like the point is that these are different (isomorphism classes) of groups of order 16
:)
ty yall :] i really appreciate yalls help
is there a slick way to prove Hom_Ring(ZG, End(A)) = Hom_Grp(G, Aut(A)) or equivalently something with Hom_ZG(ZG (x)_Z A, A)?
without being explicit at some point?
like using e.g. tensor hom and yoneda or smth
So the functor taking G to ZG is adjoint to taking unit group. So from there it follows just from Aut(A) being the unit group of End(A)
well the group ring functor is left adjoint to the unit group functor although that's basically a restating
thats something i want to avoid i guess
To prove that I believe it's not too hard
yeah
Idk why you would want to prove it another way though
idk, i was just wondering
any map from ZG to A restricts to a homomorphism on G so there's at most one extension, then showing there is at least one follows from the fact that ZG is free
I guess the question then is how you're defining ZG?
Because if not as an adjoint I don't know how you can avoid an explicit definition
yeah, ur right, i cant avoid it
I'm reading this thing and it says that a chain complex (C*, d) is filtered if there is a filtration {F_p C_i} such that the differential preserves filtration, ie d(F_pC_i) ⊂ F_pC_{i-1}. Does this mean every filtration of C_i has to have the same indexing set?
Or can I have something like this (if each has a finite filtration)
They should have the same set. A better way to phrase the definition imo is that it should just be an increasing sequence {F_p C}_p of sub-chain complexes
Okay ty
Often tbh it is convenient not to even force the maps to be injective but less standard lol
Hmmm i see
That's a bit difficult but how about this: HomRing = {f : f is linear and f respects multiplication} = {f: G -> A (by free module) and f respects (1 and) multiplication on the basis G (⨯) G of ZG ⨯ ZG} = {f : G -> A and f(1) = 1 and f(mul(g (⨯) h) = mul(f(g) (⨯) f(h)) <=> f(gh) = f(g) f(h)}
OK let's be more explicit
There is an adjunction between Set and Z-Mod given by free and forgetful. These are both monoidal categories.
The free functor carries (unit and) products in Set to tensors in Z-Mod (I think you can say it is monoidal) and the forgetful has a map (1 -> Forget(1), i.e., {*} -> Z and) Forget(A) ⨯ Forget(B) -> Forget(A (⨯) B) (it's probably lax or op-lax monoidal).
It follows that both functors map monoid objects to monoid objects. You can now show that the maps of monoid objects are adjoint (this is what my original argument did).
Finally the inclusion Grp -> Monoid has a right adjoint X -> Units(X), and if you compose both adjunctions you get the group algebra-group of units adjunction.
Gawd Damn
Hom_{Z-Mod-Mon}(Free(M), A) = {f in Hom_{Z-Mod}(Free(M), A) : f ∘ Free(mul_M) = mul_A ∘ (f (⨯) f) : Free(M) (⨯) Free(M) = Free(M ⨯ M) -> A} = {f in Hom_{Set}(M, Forget(A)) : mul_M ∘ f = Forget(mul_A) ∘ (Forget(A) ⨯ Forget(A) -> Forget(A (⨯) A)) ∘ (f ⨯ f)} = Hom_{Mon}(M, Forget(A))}
How’d you do all that
The notation is terrible but it's too annoying and time-consuming to make good notation
so 🤷
Possibly the left adjoint can be just lax or oplax monoidal as well, but I couldn't tell.
Its just unfamiliar math to me
given a group G such that Aut(G) is cyclic. Prove that G is abelian
any hint for this?
I am thinking about the homomorphism f:G->Inn(G)
x\mapsto i_x where i_x is the inner automorphism given by i_x(y)=xyx^{-1}. f is clearly surjective whose kernel is Z(G), the center of G. So G/Z(G)\cong Inn(G)
but Inn(G) is cyclic (since Aut(G) is cylic), hence G/Z(G) is cyclic
so now i have to show that G/Z(G) is cylic implies G is abelian ig
let me see if i can cook from here
but first is everything correct until now?
btw by Inn(G) I mean the group of inner automorphisms (conjugation maps) of G if thats not a standard notation
yes
I see tysm, now I will try to continue from there and then I will write what I come up with here
(or I ask for a hint if I am stuck)
well there exists x in G such that G/Z(G)=<xZ(G)> and
G=\sqcup x_i Z(G)=\sqcup x^k Z(G) where \sqcup denotes the disjoint union. So any element of y of G can be written in the form of y=x^k z for some natural number k and some z in Z(G)
so given 2 elements g,y in G such that g=x^k z and y=x^a z_1,
gy=x^k zx^a z_1=x^a z_1 x^k z=yg
the manipulation done is valid since the powers of x commute with each other and z,z_1 are in Z(G) so they commute with any element of G
hence G is abelian
is this correct?
Yes
ohhh nice
tysm for taking the time to check my work
is there some other way to do this that you have in my mind?
ali is cooking 🔥 (except when letting g and y be elements in G, there's a letter literally right next to g you haven't used!)
Not anything simpler. though the proof can be written a bit more clearly.
hahaha thanks. Yea h is probably sad rn 🥀
for some reason whenever i use x my mind tells me to use y and then z 
I see. If you have another way and dont mind sharing it then that would be interesting (even if its more complicated).
Also can you please tell me more about how I couldve written the proof more clearly in order to improve that for the future exercises etc..
I don't think there's another way of proving it, at least if you relaxed the conditions by saying something like "aut(G) is abelian" then it is no longer true that G is abelian. Idk.
But let me give it some thought.
and also, the proof is good, i'd give it a 10/10, just be a tiny be careful with the choice of variables.
ohhh i see. I will keep that in mind
I just made a quick search on google and I didnt find an alternative proof
so maybe its a waste of your time to try and think about an alternative proof
anyways tysm for your feedback
have a great day/night!
What is meant by (a: x) ?
I got it
Any hint? How do I find such finitely generated ideal a_0 \subset a ?
I want a finitely generated ideal a_0 such that a \subset a_0 + (x)
I see
a \subset a + (x), a +(x) strictly contains a, therefore a + (x) is finitely generated, implies a + (x) can be generated by { s_i + r_ix | 1 ≤ i ≤ k}
Hence, take a_0 be the ideal generated by s_i's, s_i \in a
Similar exercise: If R is an integral domain such that every prime ideal of R is principal, show R is a PID
not sure what to do for the infinite case
the finite case is handled by induction by the first condition
i just dont see why i cant have an ideal thats minimally generated by an infinite list of elements that dont divide each other
i guess if i have some ideal I i can always find a sequence of elements that do divide each other by the gcd condition
so pick some a1 in I then b1 in I \ (a1)
then a2 is a gcd of a1 and b1
keep doing that recursively
then (a1) is properly contained in (a2) et cetera up until some (aN)
wait i might have it
let bN be in I \ (aN)
then a(N+1) is a gcd of aN and bN so that (bN) is a subset of (a(N+1))
but since (a(N+1)) = (aN) that implies bN is in (aN), a contradiction
so I = (aN)
shit no that just implies that I is a subset of (aN)
but aN is a subset of I by construction so equality
I will remark that the key point in the proof is that we can choose a set of representatives for the cosets of Z(G) (i.e., a section of the quotient map from G to G/Z(G) if you're familiar with that language) which commute with each other.
Hmm can this be analysed in general using group cohomolgy ideas 👀
Extensions are classified by H^2(G/Z(G), Z(G)) where Z(G) is a trivial G/Z(G)-module. A section is a group hom iff the cocycle is 0 and one exists iff the cohomology class is 0. A section commutes iff the cocyle is symmetric, and this doesn't depend on the cocycle (because coboundaries are symmetric, because the quotient group is abelian and the action is trivial). So central extensions of an abelian group are given by the subgroup of symmetric classes in H^2.
So this result can be formulated as: for Q cyclic, the symmetric subgroup of H^2(Q, N) for any trivial Q-module N is everything. (In other words every cocyle is symmetric.)
It would be interesting to see what happens for other groups.
right. Also from what I know a section of a morphism f:A->B is a morphism g:B->A such that gof=id where id is the identity map, ie a section of f is a left inverse of f. I assume this is what you meant by section here too since your statement makes sense if section is taken to be like this
from here onwards you lose me
(since i am not familiar with most of the words)
tho i will check the definitions of these and try to understand what i can from this
wait i thought a section was a right inverse
ok from the example right below the definition and the definition of wikipedia they are adopting different definitions
since wikipedia calls the dual notion of a section to be a retraction while lang says that topologists use retraction to mean section ?
"section" for me comes from "cross-section"
like how functions X -> Y are equivalently sections of the projection X x Y -> X
yeah that was for me 😅
f∘g but yes
just so that i understand this, here you mean a sequence X x Y->X->Y->X x Y where the first arrow is the projection, the second is the function X->Y and the last is inclusion?
ah well i thought it was gof because of the definition by lang which i sent above
yea ik but well i want to understand this interesting stuff too lmaooo
how do you include Y into X x Y?
what i mean is that if you unravel the definition of a section of the projection X x Y -> X, you obtain exactly the notion of a morphism X -> Y
I was thinking about something like fix x_0 in X, and then include Y into X x Y by y\mapsto (x_0,y). Something like this
Does Lang perhaps happen to have the convention that gof means "first g then f"?
that does work, but doesn't let you get a section
no, for example here foλ_j means first λ_j then f
(here λ_j is the canonical injection λ_j: A_j->A)
the thing is that i was trying to identify Y in X x Y since the section of the projection X x Y->X is a morphism X->X x Y right?
well it doesnt matter if the image of the section is Y ig
it's a morphism X -> X x Y that's a right inverse of the projection
right
it'll help if you unfold what that means