#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 362 of 1
oh lol, that's valid
Yeah that’s the standard construction of tensor products
And free objects generally
yeah this is how it's originally given
it's called like the chord construction or something?
proving that it's a group is very cool
Very elegant application of algebraic geometry
tangent-chord construction
mfw associativity is the hard part
there's a purely analytical proof in a book of Knapp and it's genuinely hell
tho if you use Riemann-Roch it's immediate
like messing around with Weierstrass elliptic functions?
That sounds scary
no I don't fully remember how it goes but you write out the formulas for the coordinates of both sides or something like that
it's like a 5 page calcualtion
very like elementary proof but it's annoying as fuck
Ohh yeah baby Silverman makes you do that too I think
using elliptic functions is actually quite nice
mfw the true redpill is using the fact that elliptic curves are isomorphic to their own jacobian
its the analogue of sine and cosine for the circle really
though I suppose it only works for C
You can also use Pappus theorem
Oh wait that's not what it's called
I forgot what the actual thing is called
Cayley-Bacharach
Showing this is the same as the geometric group law is still a bit of work no?
yea I believe so
Given a group action(say, on a set), say G on X, we can define the action groupoid to be the groupoid whose vertices are elements of X, s.t. a morphism from x to y is a pair (g, gx) where gx=y. The orbits of a group action are essentially the connected components of this groupoid.
Equivalently, it is the set of all gx for some specified x in X, for all g in G.
why would someone who doesnt know what an orbit is know what a groupoid is 
I learned about orbits from Topology & Groupoids 
Also I think it's a very neat perspective, so at least if they google that too they'll learn more about it. It's quite natural to think of orbits as like, vaguely connected components imo, and this is literally true when thinking of the orbit as a subgroupoid of the action groupoid
I feel like that is vastly overcomplicated
Idk maybe, that's why I included the "or equivalently [...]" in the next message
If you think of a group action as moving the elements of X around, then the orbit of x is... the orbit of x
groupoids are cool though
yeah its important that the orbits partition the space and break up the action into transitive actions
truth LMAO
We should experiment on an undergrad by starting them off with alg top
any abstract algebra book that skips over group actions is a bad book
Lmao
My bad we should experiment on 5th graders by starting them off with alg top
I started learning some alg top after pointset, with no actual abstract algebra knowledge, but quickly stopped
Not in HS though, cause I'm homeschooled 
"starting alg top in hs" aka learning a few terms to look smart but not actually knowing anything 
i agree with you that its natural but, like, thats not helpful
a lot of categorical things like adjunctions are perfectly natural but youre not gonna bombard a first year with those
Fair point
Strange
monitor the cognitive development
downwardslope.jpeg
high schooler: "whats the cartesian product of two sets"
category theory bro:
math enjoyer vs mathematician
ts 🔥
What's awful is that some people would react this way 💀
could u ask u what's in ur pfp? 
looks hella cool
,av blake
its a domain coloring plot of a weierstrass p function
or perhaps its derivative I forget
ya its the derivative
this is the p function
In mathematics, the Weierstrass elliptic functions are elliptic functions that take a particularly simple form. They are named for Karl Weierstrass. This class of functions is also referred to as ℘-functions and they are usually denoted by the symbol ℘, a uniquely fancy script p. They play an important role in the theory of elliptic function...
i suck so bad at group theory 😭
like i'm really bad with finding counterexamples or even having a maturity to prove something
the theorems are easy to understand and i'm able to understand proofs but doing the questions myself is so much harder
if you're bad at finding counterexamples and lack some of the intuition id recommend looking a lot of examples in more detail
also while you are following the proofs in the book, really try and pay specific attention to the common tricks that you see over and over
hmm yeah i'd like to say i do that
also finding isomorphisms are kinda hard
like yeah i know that you should look at mapping similar structures of the groups to each other
a lot of proofs in group theory also follow a pattern where every move you make is somewhat "forced" in that there's really not a lot you can do with the information you are given
but it's a lot harder than that 😭
ah
do you have any specific problems you are struggling with
many 😭
i've been looking at problem sheet after problem sheet
like i did (i) and most of (ii) with showing that they are subgroups and only the first subset is normal
but i got stuck at showing that the quotient is isomorphic to some well known group
from an intuitive perspective, when you quotient out by something you are essentially treating everything in that subgroup as equal to zero
so if you take the transformations of the form ax+b, and you imagine that b is equal to zero
or you treat b as being zero
what do you get?
yeah so you get the group of transformations of the form ax
but that group is pretty well known
the best way to do this is with the first isomorphism theorem
which I assume you have probably seen
yeah so do i want to construct a homomorphism where the image of the quotient set maps to the identity?
this group btw has a pretty simple structure, since if you compose the function x -> ax with x -> a'x you just get the map x -> (aa')x
so its just the multiplicative group of real numbers
yeah
what you would then want to do is construct a homomorphism from this ax+b group into the nonzero reals
show its a homomorphism that is surjective with kernel equal to the translation subgroup
or just f(ax+b) = a
f(x) = x-b works
careful though, because ax+b is not the group element
wait no
the group element is the function that takes x to ax+b
maybe write the functions as $f_{a,b}$ where $f_{a,b}(x)=ax+b$
ali yassine
woah it's ali again
so the elements of the group G are f_{a,b}
yooo how are you pentium, is everything alright
same here, reached home at something like 5 pm i think
alright so we want ker(phi) = H so phi(f) = 0 when f = x+b
oh that's not bad tbf
i get home like 6 or 7 some days 😭
6 or 7...
six seveennnn
also gker(phi) -> phi(g)
what is phi?
ah okay
i actually remember this notation from lang, i saw it not too long ago (he uses T instead of f but it doesnt matter)
so the map takes $f_{a,b}$ to$ f_{a,0}$
pentium
that would probably work but its easier to think about a map from the group just directly to the positive reals
instead of a map into a subgroup
or I guess nonzero reals
this is confusing
can you explain it more?
right so you are trying to construct a map from the group into the nonzero reals with quotient equal to the translations
the nonzero reals are a different group
yep
Just a side note, is G itself isomorphic to a semidirect product of R* and R (where R* acts on R)?
yes
nonzero reals
ah
don't worry about what a semidirect product is you'll learn that later
but its basically a way of combining two groups in a more complicated way than just a direct product
ahhh
a direct product is like combining two groups but they don't really interact with each other at all (explicitly, the two groups commute with each other)
yea a direct product is the cartesian product with coordinatewise product as the operation of the group
in a semidirect product you allow the two groups to interact basically and as a result they don't commute (meaning (x,1)(1,y) is not in general equal to (1,y)(x,1) in a semidirect product)
i don't really understand semidirect products eitehr :(
they are often presented in a very confusing way
are there any good concrete examples
but a lot of the examples are quite simple to understand
the best is just the example of the group of affine transformations
a semidirect product is a way to define conjugation in a group "externally"
of say R^n
affine transformations, like linear automorphisms?
is equal to the semidirect product $\mathbb{R}^n\rtimes GL_n(\mathbb{R})$
ah so i would want the kernel of my map to be the subgroup H
Blake
so phi(f_{0,b}) =0
an affine transformation is a transformation of the form $v\mapsto Av+b$ where $A$ is an invertible matrix and $b$ is a vector
Blake
GL_n(R) is linear automorphisms right
yeah or equal to 1
yea
so what does the R^n bit contribute
because the nonzero reals have identity equal to 1
the R^n bit contributes the translations
but then how do i know what to do from there?
oh wait
ohhh
so if you think about it, every affine transformation consists of a pair (A,b) where A is a matrix and b is a vector
but iits not isomorphic to the direct product
So what is the difference between $\mathbb{R}^n\rtimes GL_n(\mathbb{R})$ and $GL_n(\mathbb{R})\rtimes \mathbb{R}^n $
qiu
because if you take two transformations say $v\mapsto Av+a$ and $v\mapsto Bv+b$ and then compose them, you get $v\mapsto B(Av+a)+b = (BA)v+Ba+b$
the other thing you wrote doesn't really exist
or you need to be more specific
for a semidirect product you need to specify two groups as well as an action of one group on the other
so in this case, you have an action of GLn on R^n
so just a note that this does work, and from here you would need to somehow obtain an isomorphism with the multiplicative group of non-zero real numbers
the thing is, i did group theory in my first year but didn't really grasp the technique but i decided to pick the extension module so that i can get better at it
but im getting worse and worse
and that is encoded in the group structure of the semidirect product
okay so there's an implicit action group
but you can get to an isomorphism directly instead of going this way
you have to be a bit careful though, because its not just any action it has to be an action that preserves the group structure
you only have to modify the homomorphism you got slightly so that it gives output in the non-zero reals
so in this case, what that means is that A(v+w) = Av+Aw
and because all cosets are of the form {ax+b where a is fixed and b can vary}, we map each coset to it's corresponding a?
(remember that a neq 0)
you shouldn't need to think about cosets here
because the first iso theorem takes care of that
instead you should just think about a map from your group G to the nonzero reals
Blake
if we abstract from this example of GLn and R^n by the way
it makes it very easy to remember the group law for semidirect products
lets denote the transformation v -> Av+a by the pair (a,A)
This means the action has to be a group hom H -> Aut_Grp(N), not just H -> Sym(N)? ie. a group action in Grp?
yeah
yes precisely
so here the homomorphism you found maps from G to the set
{ax |a in R, a neq 0}. Think about a way to slightly change this homomorphism so that it maps from G to R* instead of {ax |a in R, a neq 0}
then the group law is given by (b,B)(a,A) = (Ba+b,BA)
yeahhh
i mean im pretty decent at everything other than groups
i guess groups has a bigger learning curve
what yr u in?
so abstractly: If we have two groups $G,H$ together with an action $\rho:G\to\text{Aut}(H)$, then the semidirect product $H\rtimes G$ consists of the pairs $(h,g)$ with the group law $(h_1,g_1)(h_2,g_2) = (h_1\rho(g_1)(h_1),g_1g_2)$
Blake
it looks confusing because (a) both groups are written multiplicatively and (b) the notation for group actions is a bit clunky
such that all translations map to 0
hmmm
(to 1)
right so, if you have a transformation $f_{a,b}(x)=ax+b$ and you want to pick out a nonzero real number, what's the simplest thing you could pick?
Blake
well ok, besides 1
2
we also want it to be a homomorphism
joke im just ragebaiting
you want something like $\Phi(f_{a,b}) = ?$
Blake
yep
but why does a work
why does mapping to ax work?
so you would need to check its a homomorphism, but that isn't too bad
you did this earlier right?
and more importantly lets look at the kernel
oh yeah
that's fine then
here
If $\Phi(f_{a,b})=a$, then we have $\Phi(f_{a,b})=1$ if and only if $a=1$
Blake
yeah 😭
but $f_{1,b}(x)=x+b$
Blake
yea, you basically were more or less done when you chose that map 
yeah
but the thing was that its easier if you map to a instead of ax
easier as in you would have to do less work
well only slightly less
so ker phi = f_{1,b}
more precisely, its the set of these functions which is the kernel
hmmm so if i was to write this formally:
By the first iso thm, there is a bijective homomorphism G/H -> phi(G) where phi: G -> R* where H is the kernel of phi.
let phi(f{1,b}) = 1
phi(f{a,b})
= phi(f{1,b} f{a,0})
= phi(f{1,b}) phi(f{a,0})
= phi(f{a,0})
So it would make sense to define phi(f{a,b}) = a and we have an isomorphism from G to R*
Finding the right homomorphism from G is mostly just guesswork, but there is some intuition that should lead you to the right guess: first of all, the elements of G are described by a pair of reals a and b, so a homomorphism from G is probably gonna be some (arithmetic) expression in a and b. Secondly, you know that the kernel should be the elements x + b, so they should map to the identity; this is a sign that the homomorphism should not involve b at all. And finally, the homomorphism you're looking for needs to be surjective, so just mapping to ax + b to 1 isn't good enough. In fact, since you know the elements are described by real numbers a and b, it's likely that the image the homomorphism should be R or some subgroup of it
yeahhh
thanks!
if you want to write a formal answer then i think you should just say let φ:G->R* be a map defined by φ(f_{a,b})=a, then φ is a surjective homomorphism (you prove that it is) whose kernel is H={f_{1,b}| b in R} (you may want to write some steps to show this too). Hence H is normal in G and by the first isomorphism theorem, G/H \cong R*
something like this
you dont need to show your thought process that led you to this particular homomorphism
(you should probably verify this with the prof but i think this will probably be the case)
also define the notation f_{a,b} beforehand since its not defined in the original (given) question
it also depends on how detailed does the prof wants the proof to be
Anyone know of ways to preserve a degree function (in the Euclidean domain sense) of a field inside the ring of polynomials generated by the field?
To be specific, if you have a field $F$ with degree function $\delta: F\setminus{0} \to \mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0}$ and I realise this question… is easy if you you are looking at $\delta(u) = 0$ lol. Then the degree of anything in the imbedding of $F$ in $F[x]$ is the degree of its corresponding element in $F$
Elizabeth
(Where degree is defined of course)
wdym by a degree function on a field?
All fields are Euclidean domains and I am meaning that sort of function used with Euclidean domains
I think they also have the name norm function? I learnt it as degree function in my course
For a field you can just take the function |0| = 0, |x| = 1 otherwise.
Yeag
Are we using the same definition?
Maybe.
Is your question: you have a norm on the field (which may not be so trivial), you want to extend it to a norm on the polynomial ring?
I wanted a way to do this, but I realised you can do it in a sort of trivial way as I was writing it out. But I am curious on this question you posed
Actually checking the definition on Wikipedia, the only norm function on a field in the Euclidean domain sense is (scalings of) the trivial one:
For all nonzero a and b in R, f (a) ≤ f (ab).
Because of this.
Ah yeah. I wonder if you omit this?
I'm not sure one should want to do that.
I’ll need to practice more problems to understand ur wisdom
I mean, it just seems like the kind of property that would probably be used in a lot of places.
I know some nice properties don’t require it (Euclidean domains are principal ideal domains for example) but it seems useful so idk
Besides it is induced by the existence of a norm without the property right?
A norm is defined without this property
The point of the norm is to control the remainder when doing euclidean division.
In fields you can always divide, so there's no remainder and the norm becomes sort of pointless.
Though yes you can pick whatever as your norm if you like I suppose.
And whether you can extend this to a norm on F[x] would highly depend on what you pick.
Yes makes sense
Because fields are commutative division rings by definition right?
But our notion of division becomes messy with skew fields because you have left and right divisibility?
Let phi: A to B be a homeomorphism of rings and let J be an ideal of B.
I can see why phi(phi^{-1}(J)) should be inside of J, but it seems to me that the two should actually be equal, which the book doesn't seem to imply
am i correct?
From set theory this holds only when we have a surjection
whoops i see what i did there mb
Consider the zero ring homomorphism
thanks
It happens
i'm resuming serious maths after maybe a couple months, so my gears are rusty
Less time for oiling gears if you're busy doing math
This isn't usually a ring map
(Unless you have a non-unital convention)
Or unless by 0 map you mean the map to the 0 ring, in which case your example doesn't work
Presumably this question also has a typo and should have J instead of B
that's indeed the typo that happened, thank you, i'll fix it
Anyway I think it is nice just to take the example J = B and any nonsurjective map of rings (as Elizabeth suggests originally). Then this is a counterexample working independent of any conventions
lol yes i'm not sure how i ever missed that
but ty :)
Np
Hello!
hii
I mean $f: R \to S$ s.t. r |-> 0. This is a ring homomorphism. I am reading the question again now and seeing that it mentioned homeomorphism instead of homomorphism but aren’t those topology isomorphisms?
Elizabeth
(Assuming S is non-trivial this mapping isnt surjective)
Only with nonunital conventions I mean
Usually ring maps are required to send q to 1
Oh yes cause you need it to be a multiplicative monoid hom right? Yeah I was meaning a rng hom
Do you know about the structure theorem for fg modules over PIDs? It’s used in the proof iirc
Let H be a non-normal subgroup of a group G. Is there a description of intermediate subgroups in terms of the coset space G/H?
They correspond to quotients of the G-set G/H at least
And it preserves the notion of normality
lebron caught assuming his PID is a ED
he didn't memorize the chain fr
ED --> PID --> UFD --> ID
right ? did i miss smth
UFD -> GCD -> ID :3
All gcd domains are ufds (real)
Un-noetherians your principal ideal poset
artinian > noetherian
Please
PID => Dedekind => Prufer => integrally closed domain => integral domain
100 years of noncomm jacobson ideal spam effective immediately
Bro hasn’t heard of Hopkins-Levisky
Nah noetherian > artinian
Because wth is finitely cogenerated
Finiteky generated as an equivalence actually makes sense
Finitely generated = every sum reduces to a finite sum.
Finitely cogenerated = every intersection reduces to a finite intersection. Makes sense to me
Hmm
What it even mean for infinite sum
Man i hate infinity
I believe you have failed to account for your mother when performing this calculation
Nah she doesnt like field with one element lovers
Who up alg-ing they bra
In the category of modules.
Is there a way to define a ring being Noetherian in the category of rings?
What is a category
do I have brainrot for thinking about category theory when I see "cogenerated" rather than ring theory or something
Probably. Will stew upon it
In commutative rings you can probably just use quotients (as regular epimorphisms)
all rings are commutative so that's ok
congruence poset being Noetherian
congruences of R are precisely the fiber products of homomorphisms from R as subobjects of R × R (i.e. fiber product of f : R → S with itself)
same thing
lol
Non-Noetherian simple rings would like a word
but then the regular epimorphisms wouldnt work either
Yeah, I'm assuming nothing works
isnt there an adjunction between Ring and Rng? may be useful
There is, but I'm not sure how it would help
I mean taking a ring to its opposite is an autoequivalence, so best case would be determining rings that are both left and right Noetherian
yeah i was about to say
R being left noetherian doesn't imply being right noetherian right
It does not
What a world that would be
[R, R; 0, Q]
being an example that is left artinian (and Noetherian), but not right Noetherian
What is that? I don’t think I’ve see that notation before
Matrix where the corresponding elements are taken from R, Q or 0 respectively
R real numbers, Q rational numbers
Basically the left ideals behave like real subspaces of R^2, while the right ideals behave like rational subspaces of R.
Very cool, I think I only knew like quotients of k<x,y> and the twisted polynomial ring
Fun fact: if F/K is a field extension then [F, F; 0, K] is representation finite iff the degree [F:K] is less than or equal to 3.
What does representation finite mean?
Can somebody please explain to me why this is the goal? If $\overline{\mathfrak{q}2}$ is a prime ideal of $B{\mathfrak{q}_1}$, then its contraction in $B$ is a prime ideal which doesn't meet $\mathfrak{q}_1$. But we want this prime ideal to be contained in $\mathfrak{q}_1$, no?
okeyokay
Has finitely many indecomposable representations
That sounds like a pretty cool result though, I always like a “this holds for all less than [small number]” theorem
Ah ok, very nice
The real result is Gabriel's theorem: a hereditary finite dimensional algebra is representation finite iff it's Gabriel species is a Dynkin diagram.
Then these have species A2, B2 and G2 for degree 1, 2, 3 respectively.
Never mind I got it mixed up
The prime ideals of B_{q_1} are in correspondence with the prime ideals of B which don't meet B/q_1
Ahhh I see, I came across that like a year ago when I was doing my non com project. I do really want to learn about quivers
Yeah species is like quivers, but for non-algebraically closed fields
Quivers are nice, but I’ve probably forgotten most of what I learned about them now
Oh interesting, I hadn’t realised the definition of them required algebraic closure
The definition doesn't, but if the point is to capture the behavior of finite dimensional algebras they don't work
Like given a finite dimensional algebra you think of the vertecies as representing projectives and arrows as (a basis for) irreducible maps.
But if you're not over an algebraically closed field, then the endomorphism rings of your projectives can have different residue fields (some finite dimensional division algebras over your base field) and then just counting irreducible maps doesn't work cuz you get a different answer of you consider them going out of the domain or into the codomain.
Very interesting, I really wish I could’ve taken some amount of rep theory
grahhhh amazing theorem
gotta be up there as a 10/10
Erdmann has a very good book on algebras and representation theory, in particular building up to Gabriel's theorem
it's an undergrad book so doesn't go particularly deep but still very well written
it also gives a nice bigger picture for e.g. group representations that Serre doesn't give
if w is a primitive cube root of unity, and i want to find unit of Z[w], how do i find?
i can say 1, -1, w,-w, w^2, -w^2, w + w^2, -w-w^2, they are units
units elements
surely a norm argument proves that these are the only ones, although w+w^2 is -1
ah i thought about norms, but then i got lost, can you tell me how do i define norms on that ring?
it's a subring of C
Tbf norm doesn't always agree with the norm from C tho. Tho stuff is still good here
yeah but it's trivial to check it still works
Ig I mean like you need to know the norm is an integer
you are right, I more meant it as a hint to "maybe see if the obvious norm works"
Ah ok
is this even true? norms are R^+-valued
I mean the norm in the sense for number fuelds lol
As in in the algebraic / number theory sense
no clue what that means
Like product of conjugates of your element
ah I see
If you start with an algebraic integer then this gives you an integer
Here fortunately all is good
yeah cause potentially we could've had rational norms which is ew
Just thought may be worth amplifying
but i think if norms take value in Z, then we can comment about inverse of an element, if a is unit then N(a) should be 1 or -1, right? i think norm usually takes value in N, but as complex entries it can take in R^+
i don't see how norm on Z[w] will be help me here
you can't have -1 cause norms are positive valued, otherwise yes
you listed exactly every single element with norm 1
although 1 and -1 were listed twice
Norm in the number theory sense can be negative valued
considering I didn't know the definition of that until 5 minutes ago, it's kind of obvious that's not the sense I'm using "norm" in
I can't read my bad
A normed ring. A ring with a norm.
a norm with a ring? maybe
science cannot yet answer these questions
if a + bw + cw^2 is an unit then | a + bw + cw^2 |^2 = 1, right? but | a + bw + cw^2 |^2 = a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + ab + ac - bc
am I missing something here? The only complex numbers with norm 1 lie on the unit circle. You have 1, w, w^2 in the intersection of the unit circle with Z[w] and nothing else
1 = |1| = |aa^-1| = |a||a^-1| <=> |a| = |a^-1| = 1 as |x| >= 0 for all x
|a||a^-1| = 1 doesn't imply |a| = 1
The last step is sus
because |a| can be any positive real number
Example: In Z[root2] (1+root2)^n is a unit for all n and it can have arbitrarily large euclidean norm
am I losing my mind? this is the absolute value of a complex number
this is $\sqrt{Re(z)^2+Im(z)^2}$ how on earth is that ever negative
FIELD WITH ONE ELEMENT LOVER
but in case of Z[w], i verified that the norm takes only non negative integer, therefore we can say N(a)N(b) = 1 implies N(a) = 1
it's the length of a line
ok cool
a times 1/ a = 1 for every positive real number a
these are integer multiples of roots of unity
Yeah I meant you have to specify the norm takes integer values
it's a lattice in C who's intersection with R is Z like
I don't understand where I'm going wrong here
I mean you have to prove those are the only ones
Ig clear from a picture though
Lol
how do i find the all integers solution of a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + ab + ac - bc = 1?
Find an explicit basis in which that quadratic form has form x^2 + y^2 + z^2 (which you can do by like Gram Schmidt using that as your form) then it’s easy
i don't know about quadratic form
So you can rewrite your equation as like x A x^t = 1 where x = (a, b, c) and A has 1s on the diagonal, and every other place is +-1/2 and A is symmetric
Then you can orthogonally diagonalise A by a theorem of linear algebra
That then gives you a new basis in which your equation looks like yy^t = 1 for y = Bx, for some orthogonal matrix B
And that equation is trivial (and I suspect B ends up having only integer coefs, or at least something nice to give a criterion when x is integer in terms of y)
yo yo yo
a submodule of a free module is only a free module if it is finitely generated
?
Being free is essentially irrelevant to being finitely generated
E.g. over a PID A, every submodule of a free A-module is free
Or e.g. over a field every module is free
Submodules of free modules are usually not free (finitely generated or not), but the result is true for PIDs
Subgroups of free groups are free
I = ( x ), right? So K[x]/I is just isomorphic to K( as a field isomorphism)
I = (x) seems a little too big
I = (x) as an ideal
I mean K[x] is PID so ( x^3 + x^2, x^6 ) = ( GCD(x^3 + x^2, x^6) ).
And i found that GCD is x
Oh x^2
ohh i see
yes i meant pids
of an arbitrary number field?
of Z
so you mean Qbar?
Z bar
its def a UFD tho rifht
basically that means every ideal is either principle or infinityl generated right
Well, you can't necessarily factor things into irreducibles.
Like 2 = sqrt(2)^2, but also cuberoot(2)^3, etc
Is there a finite group G with a Hall subgroup H and a subgroup N such that H ∩ N is not a Hall subgroup of N?
Note that HN must not be a subgroup of G, and in particular N must not be normal, or the conclusion does hold.
This is with respect to D_10 (or D_20) on a dodecagon.
I am doing the reflections for "bead-to-bead" I'll call it. 10 beads with 3 colors, trying to find how many colorings are possible with burnsides lemma.
With respect to the reflecting line 0,5 (yellow) - my thoughts are that this is a 3^6 option as 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 can be any of the three colors, but 6,7,8,9 are only given no choice (3^0).
Does that sound right? (this is a homework problem)
So
If I want to find the SNF of a mxn matrix
I first begin by trying to find RREF of V with respect to M
And then with this RREF I transpose it and try and find RREF with respect N or smth
and then i transpose back and i got it
idk
As a sanity check, this is true because if we have an ascending sequence of subgroups then it stops at G and descending sequence stops at {e}?
well it's because its finite
there are finitely many submodules so every chains has to stabilize
Finitely generated is equivalent to being noetherian
this follows from sylow + abelian
I forget the relevant sylow theorem
finitely generated module over noetherian ring implies noetherian as a module
Finitely generated ideals not finitely generated module
matter of fact I don't remember any of them just have to do with prime order groups
So there are 3 sylow theorems
The first one is that a group of order of the form p^n*m where p doesn't divide m must have at least one group of order p^n
bro needs anki
anki for theorems is crazy
y
Idk I just always viewed anki as a way to learn vocab lol
actually i'm too lazy to review it just for one example 😹
blackbox time!!!
u have to remember it lil bro
it's been two years since I've learned ts and I'm not reading allat just for one example
Here, what is G?
Oh it's from the previous example
😂😂😂
G is the p-sylow subgroup of Q/Z, but the fact the subgroup of order p^n is unique isn't really related to Sylow.
It follows pretty immediately from just describing what the elements of Q/Z are though.
does the last line use correspondence theorem ?
Sure. It's saying that a subgroup of G/C is a subgroup of G containing C yeah
What does finite theorem of abelian groups say succintly
That every finite abelian group is a product of cyclic groups.
Or even product of cyclic groups of order prime powers
Can someone give me a shit ton of group theory questions which use group actions / Sylow theorems / semidirect products
Looking up group theory quals would probably bring up a lot of stuff on that
If not, can’t go wrong with Dummit and Foote
Pick an integer, prove / disprove there's no simple group of that order.
Count the number of groups up to isomorphism.
The key contradiction idea here is that if there is non nilpotency than F is non empty ?
r u a prof in algebra ?
I'm a soon to be PhD in algebra
Give it a decade or two and I'll reach 45 soon enough
are you doing the phd at NTNU ?
Is your defence next week? I know you said it was pretty soon
It is yeah
Damn
Exciting times
Well, next next week I guess
Same 🫣
I’ve got an interview for a PhD scholarship that week, it’s like the passing of the guard
Except I’m much worse at maths
Next generation to carry the mantle
Someones got to pretend like noncom rings matter
The real noncommutative rings were the friends we made along the way.
I do actually need to brush up on all that stuff before my interview, also pray the 2 academics there don’t really know a lot of that stuff 
Someone I know did it last year, spoke about wanting to do Lean and got Kevin Buzzard as his interviewer
to prove that kernel --> normal
Is this the idea:
p(gkg^-1) = p(g)p(g^-1) = p(k_1)
so gKg^-1 is a subset of K
and I believe that should be enough to prove it is equal to K
i think its more clear to write p(gkg^-1) = p(g)p(g)^-1 = 1
but yea, then gKg^-1 = K
rhomomorphism is when ?
given unity in R
is when phi(ra + rb) = rphi(a) + rphi(b)
otherwise it is
phi(ra) = rphi(a)
and
phi(a+b) = phi(a) + phi(b) =
Ts whole time jagr not a phd but he knows more algebra than my professors
Yea that first one is like equivalent
if phi(ra+b) = rphi(a)+phi(b) ur good broski
only works if r has unity right ?
that is for equivalency
u better not give me that 'all rings have unity
'
Yeah
I havent really thought too much about non unital modules tho
aight second isomorophism theorem is AB/B is isomorphic A/B\cap A
let me try and remember the proof
i think it's some stupid composition map
a --> aB
ok the kernel is just a/a n b
right
A/B = AB/B
or
hm
wdym "rhomomorphism when"
this is just the definition of an R-module homomorphism?
that is what i'm asking
ph(ra+rb) = rphi(a) + rphi(b)
this is equivalent to the definition of rhomomorphism iff unity ?
uh, i guess
AB → A/A ∩ B given by ab ↦aA ∩ B is well-defined and has kernel B
idk what you said but
i'm using the method where apparently you do:
A --> AB --> AB/B
and you look at the kernel of this map apparently it's just A n B
i don't get what is AB/B
so that is just all aBB ?
the fuck is that 😭
do you know what AB is
okay bro are we doing rings modules or groups
groups
we know B is normal, right?
so how can one speak of "sums"
yes
oh um
all fininte multiples of ab ?
ig
i think

not even! because B is normal, AB is actuall just { ab ∣ a ∈ A, b ∈ B } as this will already by closed under multiplication
well they are equivalent
sure, but im telling you that its not needed to think of it as product of elements of the form ab
ok but the map A --> AB --> AB/B
it's a--> aB right
aB --> aBB
no
we just talked about this
AB doesnt have elements of the form aB
the total map is given by a ↦aB
wym total map ?
composition of A → AB → AB/B
inclusion, bro
cn u confirm this ?
wdym
yesah thars what inclusion means
a maps to a*1 if u want to make more sense of it ig
Actually idk the context so i might be wrong rn
nah ur right
happy halloween yall i have a spooky problem from a algebra prelim at my uni
If G is a group of order 504 containing an element of order 21, then there exists a subgroup in G of index 8
ive made good progress on it but i havent quite finished it
maybe i should explain my progress so far
is this not straight up the Sylow theorem? ||504 = 2^3 * 3^2 * 7, so there is a Sylow 2-subgroup of order 2^3 = 8||
Let g in G such that |g| = 21
The number of Sylow 7-subgroups is 1,8, or 36
so if theres 8 were done
as the normalizer of the group generated by g^3 has index 8 just by virtue of g^3 being a sylow 7-subgroup
or the normalizer of any of the sylow 7 subgroups i suppose
there cant be 36 sylow 7-subgroups as then the normalizer of the group generated by g^3 would have order 504/36 = 14
but <g> normalizes <g^3> and has order 21
if there is one sylow 7-subgroup then we can just semidirect product it with one of the sylow 3-subgroups to get a subgroup of order 63 and thus index 8
i think thats good enough but idk
ooh i realized i meant index 8
btw is my argument correct?
im most skeptical about the semidirect product part
technically there's no need for the SDP
you can argue that: if there's 1 7-sylow, then it is necessarily normal. the quotient group has order 72, and thus has a 3-sylow of order 9.
the preimage of this subgroup under the projection map is a subgroup of order 63
oh interesting
yeah i suppose so
in general (as i understand) you can't just take two subgroups H, K in G and form a H sdp K type of subgroup
the underlying set would be HxK, but it's not obvious how you can identify that as a substructure of G
in some sense
well its because we know that the 7-subgroup is normal
or maybe thats still not enough
uh
also its disjoint from any sylow 3 subgroup besides identity
this is like a short exact sequence of groups i believe
and SDPs are a specific case of this
let N be the normal 7-sylow, and Q the quotient group
wait never mind
wait so does that mean im good
bc i thought the way SDPs work are what gives them the ability to be identified as a substructure of G
SDP is for two groups though
what's the plan for SDPing two subgroups
the multiplication law is already determined since there's already a larger group
i see
should be enough
If my ring R[X] is ED, then is that result valid?
Possibly not if it’s an ED by something other than the degree function
But I’m not sure that’s actually possible
Actually I think I vaguely remember a result that if R[X] is a PID, then R is a field, so it’s the same iirc?
Yeah that’s right
So the result for R[X] an ED (and in fact even a PID) is equivalent to the result for fields
Like suppose r isn’t a unit and consider (r, X)
Then this is generated by some a \in R[X]
As R is a domain (it’s a sub ring of a domain), we have r = ab, so a is of degree 0
Also X = ac, where c must have degree 1, and hence c = a’x + b’
So a is a unit, as aa’ = 1
But (r, X) \cap R = (r) as anything multiplied by X can’t contribute in degree 0
So (r) = (1), done
And I did this by repeatedly applying division algorithm
Yeah that’s how I’d do it
Now i want a hint for a question, if R is a commutative ring with unity, I have to prove R[X] has infinitely many maximal ideals.
Hint: ||quotient by a maximal ideal of R, showing that it suffices to prove it for a field||
So you mean first I have to show for F[X]
Yeah where F is a field
(You could also choose to work on the reduction to the field case first)
Okay so for a field, it is enough to show that F[X] has infinitely many irreducible elements, and if they have finitely many p1,..,pN then we can generate one more irreducible element distinct from p1,..,pN that is p1...pN + 1
Yeah
(Well technically the irred is something that divides p1…pN + 1)
But we can say p1 ..pN + 1 is irreducible right?
But what if it is a unit element?
The product of subgroups HK is called semidirect if H and K don't intersect and one of them is normal in HK
Consider the highest degree term
I am dumb
We can say it’s divisible by an irred not in our list (by UFD)
We must get an irreducible
Yup
Okay R has maximal ideal M, R/M is field
And R/M [X] is isomorphic to R[X]/ M[X]
(I’m about to disappear to walk to lectures for 30 mins)
Yeah
2 words and you’re done
I got it, thank you 
Correspondence theorem, right?
Yup

Im not actually sure how that argument works
Is it like p1..pN +1 has a factorization into irreducibles with factors that arent p1…pN
It has at least one factor that is distinct because F[x] is a ufd?
I think, for 1, it is not principal ideal
For 2, Z[X]/P is isomorphic to Z/3Z [X] /[ < ( X+1)^2(X+2) > ]
So it is not an integral domain, right?
It’s non-principal because any generator would have to divide 3, so would be 1 or 3
Neither works
And that argument works for “not integral”
(Assuming the factorisation is right)
Actually I don’t think that factorisation is right
-1 isn’t a root
Mod 3
I think it should be integral
The polynomial is irred mod 3
I forget why we can argue this sort of way, you sort of considered the quotient one at a time or something right?
Yeah
It’s essentially the “computational” half of the correspondence theorem
Ie (R/I)/(J/I) \cong R/J
Where J contains I
Just trying to understand what details matter here: so after using that then it comes down to checking if that polynomial is prime, (so that it generates a prime ideal). Since Z/3[x] is a ufd, then we can just check if its irreducible, bc irred -> prime?
(I think i just want to understand better ufds, prime elements etc)
yesh
Why? The polynomial is x^3 + x^2 + 2x +2 so 1 is one root
X^3 - X^2 + 2X + 2
Note the - before the X^2
Oh sorry i didn't see that
Alright I want to prove third isomorphism theorem:
Conditions necessary:
H,N are normal
N belongs to H
Define a functioon gN --> gH
Well defined?
suppose gN = g1N
gN --> gH =/= H or H
Suppose gN maps to H
then: g belongs to H
gn = g_1
gn belongs to H
so g_1 belongs to H
so g1H = H
Suppose now that gN maps to gH =/= H
g1N maps to g1H
pick element in g1H such as g1h1
we know gn_1 = g1
g1h1 = gn_1h_1 which is clearly in gH
Symmetrical argument to show that gH = g1H
So we have well defined.
We will now show homomorphism
p(gg1N) = gg1H = gHg1H = p(gH)p(g1H)
Done!
Kernel of this is clearly H/N
So using first isomorphism theorem and we are done!
Can someone evaluate the proof ?
Conditions necessary: $H, N$ are normal, $N \subseteq H$.
Define a function $gN \mapsto gH$.
Well-defined?
Suppose $gN = g_1N$.
$gN \mapsto gH \neq H$ or $H$.
Suppose $gN$ maps to $H$.
Then $g \in H$.
$gN = g_1N$ implies $g_1 \in gN$, so $g_1 \in H$.
Hence $g_1H = H$.
Suppose now that $gN$ maps to $gH \neq H$.
$g_1N \mapsto g_1H$. Pick an element in $g_1H$, such as $g_1 h_1$.
We know $g_1N = gN$, so $g_1 h_1 = g n_1 h_1$, which is clearly in $gH$.
Symmetrical argument shows $gH = g_1H$.
So we have well-defined.
We will now show homomorphism:
$$p(gg_1N) = gg_1H = gH g_1H = p(gN) p(g_1N)$$
Done!
Kernel of this is clearly $H/N$.
So using the first isomorphism theorem, we are done!
mq
Is this correct ?
I guess froma. first glance, I think we can remove the proof by cases that is simply look at gN --> gH
this is proof of third iso theorem
If R is a ring then what is the definition of R-algebras and sub algebra?
You can either define it as an R module that is a ring such that you have associativity between the R-action and the ring multiplication, or as a ring with a morphism from R
Subalgebra is just a subset that is a sub ring, and a submodule (by the first definition) or a sub ring and contains the image of R (by the second defn)
So when I said A is R-algebra if there is f : R -> A homomorphism, do I need that f(R) should be in the centre of A.
f: R -> A homomorphism gives me A as R -module structure
But i think there is some bilinear notion
Can you tell me in details?
yes, you want to have a bilinear map m : A (x) A -> A which is associative and a unit 1 : R -> A (i.e. an algebra of the monoid operad)
The diagram/ theorem it references only shows id = phi o i, but dont you need to also justify id = i o phi?
I believe proof is essentially the same
Isn’t the definition of an isomorphism commutative?
Yeah i thought something with if left inv exists the right one does too
Thats true in Set right
$r\alpha(1)(m) = \alpha(r)(m)$ and $r\alpha(m)(r) = \alpha(m)(r)$
Pyramid
what do you mean
it's entirely possible to have a left inverse without a right inverse
The idea is that $r \in R$ is essentially just a 1 in R, so it's no better than just action of r
and vice-versa
Pyramid
In R-mod do they imply each orher
Idk thats why i asked
Oh
unless i am misunderstanding your statement
I don't know what theorem 8 says, but it's not hard to prove that R(x)N = N
So using this bilinear map I can define multiplication operation on A and then I can make A as a ring?
Yeah ik u can show it directly easily, this was just instead showing it using universal property of S(x)RM with the map id: M->M
yes
a x b will then just be m(a (x) b)
Using universal property would be what I had in mind. But I guess it can be shown directly from the relations too
Yeah I worded this incredibly poorly lol, I was just meaning that the statement about it being the id is the definition of being an isomorphism no?
N satisfies the universal property of R(x)N, hence N = R(x)N
can you clarify what precisely you are stating
A morphism $f:X\to Y$ is said to be an isomorphism if there exists another morphism $f^{-1}:Y \to X$ such that $f^{-1}\circ f = \text{id}_X$ and $f\circ f^{-1} = \text{id}_Y$. Im saying the fact its the identity either way around is just what it means to be an isomorphism
Nope
And what is the morphism notion between two R-algebras?
A ring morphism such that the obvious triangle (with vertices R, and your two algebras) commutes
And if I have R \subset S, then I can say S is R-algebra, right?
In the commutative case, yes
In the non-commutative case you may require R is in the centre
Yes
tbh the definition involving ring homomorphisms I think is just confusing even though it's useful
you should just think of it like an algebra over a field, which is a vector space with a compatible multiplication
It’s kinda more like
The definition you get by asking “well what does it mean for R to be a subring”
in the same way an algebra is a module with a compatible multiplication
Is r algebra like r rated algebra

Algebra is algebra
so A is an R-module together with a bilinear product A x A -> A such that r(ab) = (ra)b = a(rb) for all r in R and a,b in A
if A is unital then you get a homomorphism from R into the center but not always
by mapping r to r1
you don't require your algebras to be associative?
oh yeah that too
Technically you don't have to
If you want lie algebras to be algebras
I will call that a magma over a field tyvm /s
but nobody got time to write "associative algebra"
I'd call that a nonassociative algebra
You have algebras and not-necessarily-associative algebras
So R -> R[ab^-1] gives natural morphism similar for R -> R[X]/(bX-a).
So I think if I define h : R[X]/(bX-a) -> R[ab^-1] by f(x) -> f(ab^-1), which is well-defined.
And it commutes the triangle
Is it correct?
Yes, but the thing to prove here is that h is an isomorphism.
Morphism is clear, surjective is also, I have to show injective
If for f, f(ab^-1) = 0 it implies f is divisible by (bx-a), right?
Over K at least
Actually this isn't true. If a and b have a common factor it doesn't work. And if R isn't integrally closed like R = k[t^2, t^3] with a/b = t it doesn't work
So you mean this question is not correct?
Yeah
Meaning R is a UFD? Then it should be true yes
Yes
I proved 1 =>2 =>3
So for 3 => 1, we can write f(x,y) = f(a,b) + ( x-a, y-b).
Now, if f(a,b) is not zero then it is an unit element then - f(a,b) is an unit element in R, but -f(a,b) belongs to (x-a, y-b)R in R, so (x-a, y-b)R cannot be maximal in R
Is there any mistake?
Here ring required 1 ≠ 0, therefore f cannot be any constant polynomial
I’m trying to prove that every ring R has contains exactly one subring isomorphic to Z/nZ with n being the characteristic.
I’ve written:
Let f be the unique homomorphism from Z to R defined by f(k) = k(1_R). Then it follows by the definition of the characteristic that ker f = nZ.
By the First Isomorphism Theorem, Z/nZ is isomorphic to the image of f and the image of a homormorphism is a subring.
How do I argue that f being unique makes the subring unique?
If there's any homomorphism Z/mZ -> R, you can compose it with the canonical map Z -> Z/mZ, and the composition must be what you have just shown is unique.
What is this worksheet from?
(And since Z -> Z/mZ, the image Z/mZ -> R is the same as the image of the composed morphism.
Do you want, I can share with you
Ya sure
So if S is a subring of R isomorphic to Z/nZ, then compose it with the canonical maps Z -> S and S -> R. Then since f is unique S is the image of f?
Yeah.
The implications also work when f is constant, but I guess they're not so interesting.
Your proof looks correct, though you probably want to justify why f(a, b) is in (x-a, ...
Because we already saw that f(x,y) = f(a,b) + (x-a, y-b) so it implies -f(a,b) = (x-a,y-b)R + ( f(x,y) ).
Maybe I am making some notation abuse here
(x-a, y-b)R = (x-a, y-b) + (f(x,y))
So -f(a,b) +( f(x,y) ) in (x-a, y-b)R
Yeah, if you've already shown it that's fine I guess
How do I check K[x,y] / ( x^3 - y^2 ) is PID or not?
is it correct to say that for groups commutativity is equivalent to * being a homomorphism from G^2 to G?
Its isomorphic to k[t^2, t^3]
Should be easier to work with I think
S = K[x, y]/(x^3 - y^2, y^2) = K[x, y]/(x^3, y^2) is not a principal ideal ring as (x, y) is not generated by a single element
If (x, y) in R = K[x, y]/(x^3 - y^2) were generated by a single element f, then (f)R = (x, y)R, so applying the projection map, φ(f)S = (x, y)S by surjectivity, contradiction
I think that should work
If the multiplication map $m:G^2\to G$ is a homomorphism, then $xy=m(x,y) = m((1,y)(x,1)) = m(1,y)m(x,1) = yx$
Blake
Sorry I don't get it what do you mean by projection?
Quotient map
Quotient with?
but I don't see what's a contradiction here
Is S something nice ring?
Do we have to show (x,y) is not principal ideal in S?
Yes
(Not that hard)
Guys
If I know that a subgroup H of G contains all p-Sylow subgroups for p!=2
How can I show that H is normal
Or is that not true
Let me specify H has odd order
so H contains all p-sylow subgroups
Yeah
then H would be all of G, hence normal
Why H needs to be G?
I don't think it needs to be
Yes
it doesn't contain 2-sylow subgroups...
assumption is p != 2
I think, containing all p-sylow subgroups, maybe for particular p
you can just show it contains all sylow subgroups then its actually generated by all of them, which is straightforward
C3 inside A4 isn't normal
oops
I guess it doesn't contain "all p-sylow subgroups"
In that it contains only one of the 3-sylow subgroups
lol yeah nvm'
For v, i think generators are { x1-a1,.., x_n -a_n }, right?
But I'm guessing you mean it contains a p-sylow subgroup for all p
Nah what I mean is
It contains every p Sylow subgroup for all p except for p = 2
Where it contains none of them
there are other 3-subgroups though
Yeah
anyway this should work i think

I was thinking of something along this line yeah
Anyway, your group will just be the product of all the Sylow subgroups and they're closed under conjugation
So normal
How do I show that it’s the product of all the sylow subgroups?
Well, it contains the product as it contains all of them, and it's contained in the product as every element has odd order.
Got it
I guess I'm assuming the group is finite
But sylow subgroups don't behave so well in the infinite case
Wait so
Oh yeah the second part is the important one
Why is every element with odd order inside the product
Take an element g of order n, then (g) = Z/n = prod Z/p^k for primes dividing n.
p is not equal to 2, so you don't need to take anything from the 2-sylow subgroup
I get this now
In my words i would say that <g> has its own Sylow p subgroups which are all normal in <g> which implies <g> = P1 x P2 x … and all of those are inside some P Sylow subgroup of G so we have that every g of odd order is inside the product
I think 💀
I want to show that if take the union of one of every p Sylow subgroup in a group, it generates the group
I’m still thinking how to do this though
Think about what the order of the generated subgroup can be
Oh it has full order
Because there’s trivial intersection
Like |HK| = |H|*|K| / | h intersection K|
So the order of the product of the Sylow subgroups is |G|
Wait this feels fallacious
So the thing I was thinking about is that H is a subgroup of the group generated by H and K
This is only for subgroups but we’re not guaranteed P_1 P_2 is a subgroup
Yeah
We know <P_1 P_2> is a subgroup but then we’re not guaranteed trivial intersection
Trivial intersection of what?
With P_3
And why do you want that?
So I can do |HK| = |H||K|
But that only works when HK is a group anyway
Oh
This is smart
I just got what you were pointing at
By lagranges we have that p^r | <the generated group>
For every prime p
So it must have full order
Damn it’s cool how you immediately saw that
Took me about 16-14 = 2 minutes
I need to do way more algebra problems to prepare for my midterm
My mind didn’t even go to that
sudo vs pseudo
Lol
quick maffs
i have to prove if R is infinite comm. ring with unity and it has finitely many units then R has infinitely many maximal ideals, any hint?
Minus 1 that's 3 quick maffs
Iirc: adapt Euclid's proof that there are infinitely many primes
Chinese remainder theorem can be useful.
i can just hear the british accent in my head
wait we can prove there are infinite primes 
Show TFAE:
- Every p-Sylow subgroup is normal in G
- for x,y \in G, if x and y have relatively prime orders, xy = yx.
=> consider <x> which is the product of the p-Sylow subgroups in <x> of the primes dividing |X| and the same for y. There is no intersection (since they have no shared prime divisors) and they are commute since x = p_1 p_2 ... p_n and y = p_1' p_2' ... p_n' for different n. We know every p-subgroup is contained in a p-Sylow subgroup (which are normal) and we know normal subgroups with trivial intersection commute, so xy=yx.
any tips on the <= direction?
i know that if x isn't in a P-sylow subgroup, then xPx^-1 = P
but if x has order p^k then im at a loss
its not generally true that if x has order p^k then xPx^-1 = P
WTF
You already proved that the group is generated by its sylow subgroups, so you can assume x is in P if it has order p^k
Black magic bro
bro did the clever -a + a = 0
Brilliant… simply brilliant…
why...
A Brilliant Mind I’d say…
master of analysis
Like you pick one p-sylow subgroup for each p (and you can let P be one of them). Then every element of your group is a product of elements from those subgroups
oh
genius
yeah that makes it immediate
damn theres too many possible moves to make in math 💀
Oh, this is equivalent to G being nilpotent, right?
Yeah
I never really understood nilpotency for groups, like the significance of it. It was kinda just a thing in my group theory class
nilpotency in Rings as modules > nilpotency in groups
I guess from that second point it’s that these groups are reasonably “almost abelian”?
But tbh, my general feeling is that often stuff in group theory are just “things”…
(finite) solvable at least has a nice interpretation as being those groups built out of cyclic/abelian groups
nilpotent algebras and congruences appear to have pretty nice descriptions in universal algebra though (a group is nilpotent iff it is nilpotent in the sense of universal algebra)
these are nice properties
Ah ok I also didn’t know property c), that is a nice thing to know I guess
Idk, I just have this feeling that so much of group theory is just here’s an adjective, what groups fit under it. And I’m just not sure I care that much about that lol
I’m sure that’s not at all a fair assessment, and likely just very indicative of what I’ve seen
no that's fair
it's how a lot of pure algebra seems sometimes
I'll see papers about all these cool algebraic structures with cool properties but motivation to care about them feels lacking
When tensoring an R-mod hom with M(x)R - and M is also an (S,R)bimod, the result can also be viewed as an S-module hom? S-scalars should pass thru cause its just the identity map on the M part
Maybe theres already an answer but it measures how abelian the group is
Also the equivalences for it are nice
G is nilpotent iff every sylow subgroup of G is normal
And G is the direct product of those sylow subgroups
Yes, indeed the construction can be viewed as a functor from left R modules to left S-modules
