#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 360 of 1
yeah passing 3 is usually the requirement, and often you can pick your 3 from a selection of a few more than that
I've heard of students who are exceptionally well prepared, entering a PhD program and taking quals right away. It's not common but yeah you can possibly skip some classes that way
if you arent prepared for any of them you likely have to do six courses
to prepare
I should also mention there are written quals, and then a separate oral qual, which is similar to a mini PhD thesis defense
man i feel like i dont understand nilpotent groups much at all
usually the oral qual is around the 3rd or 4th year
me either. I kinda remember them coming up somewhere around Jordan Holder series decomposition stuff
theres just a ton of problems i have to get done concerning them in the next two hours but i can barely do one
i shouldnt even say barely
strangely enough the math programs at top universities end up being kinda slowly paced
group actions are so cools icl
eh i just went close to home
i love math a lot but i love my friends and family more at the moment
though who knows maybe galois theory will surpass them next semester
just kidding
perfect reaction lol
im still pretty stumped about the G/Z(G) nilpotent implies G is nilpotent problem
oh, what do you have right now?
if you want to dip your feet in geometry, you can look at Humphrey's Linear Algebraic Groups
All nilpotent groups are solvable and solvable groups are awesome
oh, im curious, what is there to know?
honestly nothing
i thought itd be immediate from finding Z(G/Z(G)) somewhere in the upper central series of G but nope
i think i have to use like preimages of the projection map G to G/Z(G)
one result is that if G is a connected solvable algebraic group, then it's nilpotent if and only if G_s (the set of semisimple elements of G) is a subgroup
And then you can write G = G_s \times G_u, where G_s is the semisimple part and G_u is the nilpotent part
keep thinking about the upper central series
i have been for a while
is Z(G/Z(G)) isomorphic to anything perhaps
that seems kind of random, is there any bigger theory about why nilpotent groups are relevant
i think the importance is in the result that G = G_s \times G_u
Z_2(G)/Z(G) i guess
there's also this https://terrytao.wordpress.com/tag/nilpotent-groups/
im still stuck lowkey
ive not struggled with algebra this much until this weeks homework
not good
can you tell me what the upper central series of G/Z(G) looks like
0th step is just Z(G)
1st step is Z(G/Z(G))
then $Z_2(G/Z(G))/Z(G/Z(G)) = Z((G/Z(G))/Z(G/Z(G)))$
hiidostuff
i mean this is just so complicated
im guessing this isnt quite what u were looking for though
How do groups of Lie type relate to Lie groups?
I had to go through my notes, the proof was harder than I remember it being
but it boils down to proving that ||Z_i (G/Z(G)) = Z_i+1(G)/Z(G)||
i see
i imagine this is by induction
i was just expecting this to much more elegant
theres an alternate proof that is slightly more general
I can send you my notes after youve proven it
cool
I'm not aware of a nice proof lol
its so late where i am i might just have to not turn in the homework tomorrow honestly
mainly because nilpotentcy is a hard thing to pass down from a quotient
the only two normal subgroups that I know this actually works for is the center and the Frattini subgroup
Finite groups of Lie type come from reductive groups over finite fields, reductive groups are the algebraic notion of compact Lie groups
Groups like SL_n(F_q) or Sp_2n(F_q) are good examples
Oh neat, so the idea is that we take some finite field, and apply the same constructions to arrive at the lie group to that finite field, and now we have a finite group with a correspondence to the Lie group?
The correspondence is a bit more complicated but the classification of reductive groups over fields is very closely related to the classification of Lie groups/Lie algebras over the complex numbers for example
The classification is the same over algebraically closed fields and then you need a bit more to classify things over non algebraically closed fields
This is why for example the classification of Lie groups over the real numbers is a bit more complicated than it is over the complex numbers
It is likewise a bit more complicated over finite fields and this is where you see various twisted forms of reductive groups showing up among the finite groups of Lie type
oh wow, I didn't even think you could do such a thing as classifying all the lie groups you can embed in R or C. I will be looking into that.
Well you can classify semi simple Lie algebras over C for example
This is the main classification result that classical Lie theory gives you
Then there is a tight relationship between this classification result for semi simple Lie algebras and semi simple Lie groups for example
But the point is that the same classification results work out identically for semi simple reductive algebraic groups over any algebraically closed field
I'm quite new to this stuff, as a sanity check, every Lie group has a corresponding canonical lie algebra, and you can map between them using the exponential map yes?
Essentially yes, there are mild subtleties having to do with the center and with connected components but ignoring this yes that is the idea
Like several distinct Lie groups may have the same Lie algebra
like, a circle, and a slightly bigger circle?
No no those would be the same up to isomorphism
oh different lie groups not up to isomorphism having the same lie algebra
does this happen in cases much like chairality?
But for example R and S^1 have the same 1-dimensional Lie algebra
But these are clearly quite different as Lie groups
oh ok I understand
you're throwing away some information when you go to the lie algebra, namely the periodicity, and probably some other thing I can't think of as well
the lie algebra of R is just R as a field with the exponential map being the identity?
anyway, thanks for your patience and help it's been very helpful :)
So with this definition it is immediate right.
The central series for G will just take one extra step to terminate than G/Z(G), otherwise they're identical.
it does end up that they take one more step but it actually ends up being quite unclear
because the central series for G and G/Z(G) never actually meet
at first i also thought it was immediate but the proof was actually kinda horrible
I don't know that you mean by meet.
I mean usually you think of it as subgroups Zi < G, but the quotients G/Zi are identical, just shifted by 1
i dont think they are though
Zi+1 is by definition the preimage of Z(G/Zi)
the main thing to prove was that Z_i(G/Z(G)) = Z_i+1(G)/Z(G)
Which is just the definition of Zi+1, yes?
im not sure
Zi+1(G) is the group such that
Zi+1(G)/Z(G) = Z(G/Z(G))
i thought Z_i+1(G)/Z_i(G) = Z(G/Z_i(G)) was the definition
Yeah, that's what I meant to write
but isnt that not close to what im going for
I mean, say G/Z(G) = H for notation
G/Zi+1(G) = (G/Zi(G)/Z(G/Zi(G)) = (H/Zi-1(H)/Z(H/Zi-1(H)) = H/Zi(H)
So G/Zi+1(G) = H/Zi(H)
So it really use comes down to of
H/N = K/N, then H=K.
im having a hard time following these equalities
but i am like really inept with nilpotent groups so far
Like both Zi(H) and Zi+1(G) are just defined by a subgroup in
G/Zi(G) = H/Zi-1(H)
So if Zi(G) = Zi-1(H), then Zi+1(G) = Zi(H)
That's all the equations above are saying
oh i see
like just by the recursive definition of Zi+1(G) it has to be in G/Zi(G)
and same for Zi(H)
if you pull back Z(G/Z(G)) through the projection p : G -> G/Z(G) then you exactly get the second term in the upper central series of G
in general, if one has a normal subgroup N such that both N and G/N are nilpotent, then G is nilpotent. You do this by pulling back a central series of G/N through the projection p : G -> G/N, and combining that with a central series of N I was thinking of solvable groups
This is not true.
Take G = S3 for example
no? I was thinking of solvable groups then lol
It's true for solvable groups yeah
The problem is that even if
[G, G] = N, the fact that N is nilpotent tells you nothing about [G, N]
If course if N was the center of G, then [G, Z(G)] = 1 and all is well

I am looking at the last part of 11 which is asking for a map A^m—>A^n injective with m strictly larger than n.
One idea I had is to take sequences in the Integers indexed by the natural numbers. Then you can construct a map A^2–>A by defining the sequence in A to alternate between terms in the first and second component of A^2. The problem is that this looks like an isomorphism to me, but then 2 would equal 1 which is absurd. Is the function I defined not a homomorphism?
So I'm not sure I understand your description exactly, but not that the map is supposed to be a homomorphism, not just a function
A homomorphism from A^2 can be described by where each of the two basis vectors is mapped
So maybe you can describe where your map sends those
they are saying to send the pair
((x1,x2,…),(y1,y2,…)) to (x1,y1,x2,y2,…)
Okay, so A = Z^N
Then sending
((0, 1, 0, ..), (0, 0, ...)) to (0, 0, 1, ...) is not a homomorphism
Because of e = (0, 1, 0, ...)
then f(e* (e, 0)) = f(e, 0), but e*f(e, 0) = 0
right. this is a bijection, however
Hmmm well this shows it’s not a homomorphism of A-modules, but is it not a homomorphism of rings?
It is a homomorphism of rings, but that's not really the question
Oh of course haha. Thank you!
Could I have a hint for 8? The ideals are prime since quotienting by k[x_1, \dots, x_n] gives an integral domain. For the primary powers, I was thinking about proceeding by induction. Something like, assume that p = (x_1, ..., x_m)^k is primary for all k. Then p[x_{m + 1}^k] = (x_1, ..., x_{m + 1})^k is primary by Exercise 7 (I don't know if this equality holds and if it applies, but it's the first thing my mind went to).
I would again consider the quotient, using the criterion that "primary" = "in the quotient, every zero divisor is nilpotent"
I don't think there is any easier way to write it
In particular as it is different to just quotienting by the x_i^k
But you can explicitly describe the zero divisors
Show that every group G of order 12 can be written as a
semidirect product of Sylow subgroups (you will need an additional argument
to show that you cannot have ‘many’ 2- and 3-Sylow
subgroups at the same time).
how do you do this because if u want to use the 3rd sylow theorem you wouldnt get that the sylow group of order 2 nor 3 would be normal
and they need to be normal to split it up into a semidirect product
so what do i do
ping me if u can help
think about what might happen if there was no normal sylow subgroup
then you dont get the semidirect product
dont look so far ahead yet
I claim that that is actually impossible, a group of order 12 always has a normal sylow subgroup
but if you use the 3rd sylow theorem youd get that n2 | 3 and n2 = 1 mod 2
and for n3 | 4 and n3 = 1mod 3
so n2 is either 1 or 3
and n3 is either 1 or 4
and for it to be normal you want it to be 1
have you seen counting arguments before for proving that groups are not simple
because then its unique
so let's assume none of them are normal
so n2 = 3 and n3 = 4
is there anything you can do with this information?
distinct prime sized subgroups intersect trivially
since every element of one generates it
(Besides the identity)
so if there were 4 sylow 3 subgroups, how many distinct elements would there be
You have 8 elements of order 3. There are assumed to be 3 Sylow 2-subgroups of order 4, thus you have at least 6 elements of order 2 or 4
See if you can find a contradiction from here
so we cant form 12 elements if wed have 3 sylow 2 subgroups? unless it would be one sylow 2 subgroup
so wed have 8+3+1?
well isnt that the contradiction then, if wed have 3 subgroups it wouldnt be possible considering the elements that should sum up to 12
or is there something i overlooked
yeah that's what I'm saying, one sylow 2 would work but 3 wouldn't
https://discord.com/channels/268882317391429632/1430590936903192749
If anyone can help regarding fields I'd be really thankful! I didn't want to post here since it's maybe a bit too lengthy for this channel and would steer the needed attention away from users that also need help.
I'm kind of embarrassed I saw (C_2^2) \rtimes C_3 before C_12. Am I cooked?
If it makes you feel any better I was just typing up a whole question asking why a sequence splits only to realise C_n was a chain complex, not the nth cyclic group
the one downside to the C_n notation. I'm moving to just "n" now
(2+2):3 is way cleaner than C_2^2 \rtimes C_3 anyway
Z/nZ - {ring structure}
Not all of it, just the multiplicative monoid part
sets arent that useful
Turns out im still stuck even after learning to read. Ive proven the hint, thats fine, just first iso + exactness (I guess its all just exactness) so we know that C_n \cong K_n (+) Im delta. But now i feel like im just being dumb and I should basically be done, but im not seeing it
Are we just considering the kernel and image at each element of C_n? whats with the at most 2 non-zero terms part? Im guessing something to do with d^2=0? Also im not using that theyre free abelian which feels wrong
I might be stupid cause I don't know what this means either
How do I read this? ord(g) = lcm(ord(g1),ord(g2),ord(g3))??
order of element g is equal to lcm of orders of 3 other elements? it doesnt make sense
This is part of the Hatcher experience
I think the 2 non-zero terms part has to do with constructing a free resolution of the kernel as a subcomplex of the free complex (which you can always do with length 2 as it's coming from a chain complex of fere modules), then you interlace these to give the entire complex again (using the fact each term is free to ensure you do indeed get the same complex)?
I would ignore it but he uses it for the universal coeffcicent theorem stuff

this looks like a wrongly stated variant of the fact that a long exact sequence is just a bunch of SES woven together
but I'm not sure if that's related
this is what I'm getting at I think
that's the picture I had in my head when I said "interlace"
(wrongly stated because it would be a decomposition into SES, not 0 -> A -> B -> 0
this is where we'd use freeness I'd imagine
subgroup of free is free so the kernel is free
so 0 -> K -> K -> 0 is a free resolution
nah that doesn't seem like the right approach
Aha I forgot groups are nicer than rings
the hint here is helpful
I would hope so
because of freeness you can write each C_n = im d_n (+) ker d_n
so take the subcomplexes 0 -> im d_n-1 -> ker d_n -> 0
Why does this follow from freeness?
sequence 0 -> ker d_n -> C_n -> im d_n -> 0 splits
this is a subcomplex exactly because d_n d_n-1 = 0
wait no that's not right
Is that just like rank nullity?
trivial
it's Z^n yunc
yeah it's rank nullity nvm u got it
morgan freeman true
Ok maybe this is dumb but Z is a PID so free = projective, we know projective iff it splits as ker + im is kinda how I got there lmao
not equal
I was gonna say that for about 500 milliseconds
this is the gist ig
i wrote a cochain complex ignore that, doing some cohom shenanigans
FINGER REVEAL!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Okay this might be a bit of a low-level question for this channel, but is there any group-theoretic significance for row equivalence? Like if I were to take the space of matrices of a certain dimension and then quotient by row equivalence, what do I get?
I guess it's nothing more than the cosets of an action on the set of matrices
take the group of permutations on the set of matrices generated by elementary row operations, then the orbits partitition the set of matrices, and you take that quotient
what does row equivalence mean?
Equivalent up to row operations
Like row swaps, linear combinations of rows, and scalar multiplication of rows.
(equivalent to equal kernel when treated as a linear map apparently)
what is the root field and how do I find it? For example:
$a = \sqrt{2 + \sqrt{5}}$. $a^4 - 4a^2 - 1 = 0$, can't be reduced in $Q$ since all of the roots are in the form $2 +- \sqrt{5}$ and $\sqrt{5}\notin Q$.
HMD
two matrices A,B of dimension mxn are row equivalent iff A = MB for invertible M. so this is the "orbit space" of GLm acting on your matrices by left multiplication
Nothing particularly interesting, then.
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Gotcha
i mean there are mildly interesting consequences, like the grassmanian Gr(r, n) is isomorphic to these orbit spaces at each fixed rank r
well not really a consequence just an interesting fact
Ok yeah I had to rewrite this and think about it for a bit but I agree, thank you
ofc!!
are you asking what is $\bQ(\alpha)$?
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
I think that's just expansion of Q by alpha
Yeah, its the smallest field containing Q and alpha
my question is finding the 'root' field such that it contains the roots of polynomial which is a
so the splitting field of x^4-4x^2 - 1?
yes sorry I don't know the term in english
so that will have maximum of 4 solutions and we need to expand one field to fit them
you already know the roots, the splitting field will contain all of them
but I also need to find the degree of expansion [K : Q] where K is that splitting field
I already got that [Q(a) : Q] = 4
The tricky thing is I didn't study either Galois or Sylow so it's difficult
this course is very weird, it doesn't cover rings or fields completely but rather only does parts of them so I can't see the whole picture
so you know the roots are $\pm \sqrt{2 \pm \sqrt{5}}$, so the splitting field is $$K = \bQ(\sqrt{2 + \sqrt{5}}, \sqrt{2 - \sqrt{5}})$$
ExpertEsquieESQUIE
Hmmm.. so if f is a zero divisor in A = k[x_1, ..., x_n]/(x_1, ... x_m)^k, f belongs to r(Ann(g)) for some g in A, so f^n g in (x_1, ..., x_m)^k for some n...
by the result of question 7, it suffices to prove that (x1,...,xn)^k is primary in k[x1,...,xn]
but then that is straightforward
sorry what lol
isn't that the question itself
oh nvm I see the difference
yep
you're doing it for all the variables
(recall that ||powers of maximal ideals are always primary||)
7i, -7i ?
Yes that makes perfect sense
but what about [K : Q]? I am unfamiliar with this notation and don't know what happens, in case of [Q(a), Q] I was just looking at the highest degree of the minimal polynomial so that was straight forward
maybe [K : Q] = [K : Q(a)][Q(a) : Q] and we already know degree of expansion of Q(a) is 4 so we just need "how much K expands further in comparison to Q(a)"
and as you wrote K = Q(a, b) where a and b are the roots of minimal polynomial so maybe the answer is K expands by 2 in comparison to Q(a)? So the end result will be 2*4 = 8
If E/F is a field extension, then [E:F], called the degree of the extension, is the dimension of E as an F-vector space
[K:Q(a)] is indeed 2
Because K=Q(sqrt(2+sqrt(5)), i)
(it should remind you of the index)
Why? Both sides of the equation are numbers and that equality is possible. Take G = (Z/2Z)^3, then ord(1,1,1)=LCM(ord(1,0,0),ord(0,1,0),(0,0,1))
the amount of reacts to this comment is not justified
Fr it was a shitpost
lmao
U reacted the most tho
hehe
Definition of prime ideal is:
if AB, where A,B are ideals, belongs to P
A belongs to P
Or B belongs to P
?
(And P is proper,) sure.
Yes, and if your ring is commutative you can relax this to ab in P iff a is in P or b is in P, I.e. it holds at the level of elements
let me try and prove it
And just as a fun fact, if an ideal of a noncom ring satisfies the commutative definition, it’s said to be completely prime
Lets assume we have a ring $(R,+,0, * ,1)$\
Now lets assume that we have $c:R->R$ such that:\
$c(c(x))=x$ and $c(x * y)=c(y) * c(x)$. Can we prove that c(0)=0 or even that c(0) is 0 or 1?\
I assumed that was the case by using the cancellation law for multiplication but thats not true for rings so there probably is a ring with this kind of involution that disproves this. But can we construct a finite one where c(0) isnt 0 and isnt 1?
Pymamba
So completely prime doesn't imply prime? That's an interesting choice of terminology...
Let x=0 and y=c(0), then
c(0) = c(xy) = c(y) c(x) = 0 c(x) = 0
I think it does for two sided ideals, but yeah probably not the best overall
I guess more generally you can notice that c is an isomorphism of monoids (between R and R^op) and 0 is the unique absorbent element, so is preserved
Oh yeah generalizations of the complex conjugate to rings has smth to do with opposite. wikipedia did mention that
I mean, the relation
c(xy) = c(y) c(x)
reverses the order of multiplication
That's the relationship with the opposite ring
1 * x = x * 1 = x
c(x) = c(x) * 1 = c(x) * c(1) => c(x)[1-c(1)]=0
c(x)=0 or c(1)=1.
So if we have one x in R such that c(x)=\=0
I mean
1 = c(c(1)) = c( 1 * c(1)) = 1 * c(1) = c(1)
oh yeah lmao
how does one motivate intuitively why we look at F? (Artinian ring nil left ideal implies nilpotent
More generally c will be a bijection, so only 0 can have c(0) = 0
It feels like so many fo these proofs at the end of my 2nd course in algebra are just plucked from the sky
oh yeah cuz its an involution
sry im really tired
Well your goal is proving B is 0. And you want to create some chain of ideal related to that.
Now you know that BB = B and you also know that B annihilates simple modules. So B must be killing some parts of itself, but what is the smallest part that isn't killed. Well make a chain of the stuff that isn't killed and use the artinian property.
Annihalte means BX = 0 right
So I'm not saying this is something that would be easy to come up with for yourself, but it is a natural thing to consider
in my first course in algebra and beginning of my 2nd it felt like i could come up with the proofs for a lot of the theorems on my own, now it just feels impossible
Who knows how long it took whoever first made this proof to come up with it
Sometimes a lot of trial and error lies before the stroke of genius
Why does B annihilate simple modules
B is a subset of the Jacobson radical, which by definition is a subset of any maximal ideal
And simple modules are exactly the quotients of the ring by maximal ideals
idk what any of that means
So I don't know which definition you're working with, but a common definition for J is all z such that zS = 0 for all simple modules S
oh shit sorry I should clarify, J is just any nil left ideal
Allright, then notice if
zS is nonzero then
RzS = S
so for each s in S there is an r such that
rzs = s
But then
s = (rz)^n s = 0
contradiction
So a nil ideal annihilates all simple modules.
Anyway, the point was mainly that nil ideals annihilate a lot of stuff, but clearly if B^2 = B and B is nonzero then there's also stuff that isn't annihilated, so focus on that
hm so z is the nil ideal and S is the simple module
@wraith cargo The proof I've seen (for Sylow 1) goes like this (I'm writing this from memory to make it exceptionally clear where I might be making mistakes). Also, I'm writing it out step-by-step to more clearly explain where my confusion comes from.
Let $G$ be a group, and let $p^n | |G|$ for prime $p$ and positive integer $n$. Then there exists a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$, defined as a subgroup of $|G|$ with order $p^m$, with $m$ being the maximal integer such that $p^m | |G|$.
- Let $X$ be the set of subsets of $G$ with size $p^m$. Then we define a group action on $X$ by $g \cdot A = gA$ for $A \in X$. Note that the size of $X$ is ${|G| \choose p^m}$.
- Note that $p^m$ therefore does not divide $|X|$. This is because all factors of $p^m$ are factored out of $|G|$ during this "n choose k" operation, and the unique prime factorization of $|G|$ prevents $p^m$ from being a factor of the size of this new set.
- Since the orbits of members of $X$ partition $X$ and $p^m \nmid |X|$, there must be at least one member of $X$ with an orbit whose size is not divisible by $p^m$. Let us denote this set by $A$.
- The stabilizer of $A$ is a subgroup whose order is $\frac{|G|}{|O(A)|}$, where $O(A)$ is the orbit of $A$. Since $p^m \nmid |O(A)|$ but $p^m | |G|$, it is clear that $p^m | |stab(A)|$. But $|stab(A)| \leq p^m$ because $|stab(A)| \subseteq A$, so $|stab(A)|=p^m$, and thus $stab(A)$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$.
Off the top of my head, I don't know where the idea to focus on divisibility comes from. I know this will vaguely classify the size of different orbits, but I don't know why a subgroup would come out of this process, or why that subgroup would specifically be the stabilizer of a member of $X$. In other words, the jump from 1 to 2 and then 3 to 4 is confusing (though I understand how to get from 2 to 3).
muffin hamster
this is the unhinged proof
its simultaneously genius and awful
the idea of acting on all subsets of size p^m is just so crazy
Upon further reflection, the jump from 3 to 4 makes more sense to me now
But caring about divisibility feels like it comes out of left field
And to some extent the idea of using a group action here feels mysterious to me
I think divisibility is actually very natural, though I'll admit at first it seems weird
because basically the defining feature of a p-group is the divisibility of its order
acting on subsets is definitely a bit mysterious
but all proofs of sylow (to my knowledge) rely on the fundamental fact that a p-group acting on a set with number of elements not divisible by p must have a fixed point
which is imo the really important takeaway
Group actions are how you prove a lot of stuff in group theory
The specific group action is definitely an interesting choice though
Although it kinda makes sense that a “sufficiently nice” p^m size subset should have orbit of size |G|/p^m (and so stabiliser of size p^m)
So you check one exists
mathematicians love redundancy
don't know what to pick? just pick all of them!
to prove first first sylow, using induction is my fav proof
axiom of choice moment
If we're just taking about the first theorem you can prove it using the class equation and induction:
|G| = |Z(G)| + sum [G:C(x)]
If |Z(G)| is a multiple of p, then it has an element x of order p (use for example classification of finite abelian groups). Then G/(x) is a smaller group, so our induction applies.
If |Z(G)| is not divisible by p, then one of the [G:C(x)] must not be either, and then C(x) is a smaller group with the same power of p dividing it, so you can apply induction.
I might think more about this proof since it seems more intuitive to me
yesi think u can also go and use this method to prove that it has a group of all orders of powers of p iirc
Yeah this is nice, but also the proof of the class equation uses the p-group action result
I wouldn't say the proof of the class equation uses the p-group result, or anything about p-groups.
But both are just about counting sizes of orbits for a group action.
this is so clean!
Like the proof of the class equation is just, what are the orbit of G acting on itself by conjugation + orbit stabilizer
While the p-group result is: orbits of a p-group action is either trivial or a multiple of p
The proof you gave needs Cauchy, which is the same sort of “pick a random action that happens to work” bs
But I’m not sure you can avoid that so
Actually no isn’t there an easier proof in the abelian case (inb4 classification of fg abelian groups)
They proof only needs Cauchy for abelian groups, which you can prove without any group actions
Through for example the classification of finite abelian groups
Though that result is more complicated to prove
yes that's what I mean
Called it
I’m not sure this is that much more satisfying than Cauchy
I guess it's not specific to p-groups but it's morally the same
You can prove it much easier actually.
Say A is abelian, pick an element x. If the order of x is a multiple of p you can make an element of order p. Otherwise A/(x) is smaller, so induction
I guess u teach algebra course at ntnu
shadow wizard finite group gang
we love casting induction
I have done so, I'm not currently doing it
So anyway, no random group action, though the class equation itself is sort of a "random" group action (not that random though)
Class equation is conjugation which is like
Arguably the most natural action
hv u taught sheddow ?
Acting on cosets >>
Well I don't know sheddows irl identity, so idk
I'm guessing no just from the time frame...
But hard to say
Damn you guys have probably seen each other irl without talking but spoken many times here
the conjugation action has more interesting orbits
Yeah ik i was just playing devils advocate
My teacher thinks its so important that after teaching orbit stabilizer and stuff she reproves the exact same stuff for conjugation action
Death penalty
Proving Sylow 2nd and 3rd will definitely require some group action stuff, but I guess here the actions are quite natural.
Acting on G/P and acting on the conjugates of P by conjugation
Ccl(K) and u pick any other group of same order and have that act on ccl(k)
Very neat because u can use this proof to trivially get third sylow
What's ccl?
So
The idea is you pick 2 group of order p^m
And show they must be conjugate
First group is K
Next is H
You have H act on ccl(K)
And then u can use orbit stabilizer
And idea is you show H is in ccl(K)
Well, I'm still not sure I follow
Yeah that seems right
Yeah u r right im skipping some details which i typically remember as i reach this stage
so one detail is of course ccl(K) not divisible by p
To see this just reuse orbit stabilizer
I see, so you get a conjugate of K such that HP = PH, which must mean H is in P by maximality
Nice.
The proof I know for the 2nd goes like
If H acts on G/K by left multiplication, then the fixed points of the action are exactly gK such that
g^-1 H g is a subgroup of K.
Now if H is a p-group and G/K is relatively prime to p, the action must have a fixed point.
Fixed point is Gx = x right
Neat
Hi, im trying to use the distinct conjugacy class sizes to show that they cannot add up to a specific number in S4, but im having difficulty proving that the conjugacy classes are restricted by the order of the permutations? could anybody possibly help?
Wdym "restricted by the order of the permutation"?
Do you mean like bounded by the order of the permutation?
yeah
like 3 cycles all being a conjugacy class
Do i have to use the class equation or smth?
conjugacy classes in Sn are all permutations with the same cycle-structure
so all 3-cycles form a conjugacy class
There are two distinct conjugacy classes of elements of order 2 though
Two permutations in Sn are conjugates if and only if they have
the same cycle type.
this is the proof i found in the notes
So, the way to remember is to know that conjugating a permutation is just permuting the numbers
Like it's easy to see in notation
Does anyone have any good books / yt playlists to learn group rings and fields my lecturer is really bad
sigma = (2 3 4 1)
tau = (3 4 1 2)
so look at tau sigma tau^{-1}
where does 1 go? to 4. where does 2 go? etc. you will get (4 1 2 3)
The point is like
It's a basis transformation
(i'm assuming you know linear algebra)
thanks i'll have a look at them
gathmann's commutative algebra notes are nice https://agag-gathmann.math.rptu.de/class/commalg-2013/commalg-2013.pdf
it has a more geometric flavor
Actually you can be more precise about this I think. You have a homomorphism from S_n to GL(R^{n})
given by permuting the axes
So now, we literally have basis transformation
HMM... INDEED....
Yeah I noticed even when I first learned it that it was like it, but now I realize it's literally it
wew have you heard of F_1 geometry
changed my name for ts joke I hope it's appreciated
aka "absolute algebraic geometry"
I have but I like F_1 from the combinatorial standpoint
Schur-Weyl duality on steroids
This exists?????
take any formula you want for GL(n, q) and put q = 1 in and it'll be the formula for S_n
the future is now
specifically I like that the Sylow structures of GL(n, p^k) at p are just S_{p^k}
This is really cool
I'm trying to find the source I used to have that made it really clear one sec
I remember you told me about this a while ago
ts is crazy
can't find it :(
did you have fun getting my hopes up
the Hall-Senior genus is such a random condition lmao
I can remember the $S_n$ side, the Sylow $p$-subgroup of $S_n$ is given by $\prod_{k=1}^{\nu_p(n)} C_p^{\wr a_k}$ where $n = \sum_{k=1}^{\nu_p(n)} a_kp^k$. The $GL(n, q)$ looks similar but with $S_n$s in the wreaths
FIELD WITH ONE ELEMENT LOVER
I recommend just trying 2-3 books reading a subchapter each and going on what u like
and some random bullshit at the start of the product . Point is that it all vanishes when q = 1
and you're left with just the big product of wreath powers
What field has one element
i guess just zero
i have no idea what a wreath is tbh ive seen it before and got kinda scared
seen it in passing
en passant
wew do you know about this / have worked with this?
too many damn products to keep track of these days
wreath is interesting cuz apparently every extension of G by H is contained in some wreath product involving G and H
wreath powers of C_p have a nice interpretation as the automorphisms of a rooted p-ary tree that preserves the height of each node
see the second answer for a case where p = 3
oh interesting
can't say I have 💔
but Hall's name has activated my neurons
i wonder if wreath products show up in geometry
I'm reading ts now lol
wikipedia doesn't even have a page
well i guess there's my answer
the whole isoclinic thing has never really made sense to me
like the lattice isomorphism thing I can, like, see somewhat
wreath products are easy if you know semidirects - do you know semidirects?
yeah
the lion concerns himself with lattices of normal subgroups
I mean the lattice of normal subgroups is probably the most intuitive graph I've heard associated to a group
they show up in levi decompositions
well actually i guess they show up everywhere
the borel is the semidirect of the unipotent and the maximal torus
the wreath product $G \wr H$ of two finite groups (along with the data of a map $H \rightarrow S_n$ for some $n$) is simply $G^n \rtimes H$ with $H$ permuting the factors of $G$ in $G^n$
No one has ever seen the field with one element, but it leaves traces of its existence.
FIELD WITH ONE ELEMENT LOVER
for example, D_8 is isomorphic to C_2 \wr C_2 (or S_2 \wr S_2 if you prefer)
wreath products are honestly some of the most intuitive examples of semidirect products
also the greatest group https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lamplighter_group is a wreath product
In group theory, the lamplighter group
L
{\displaystyle L}
is the restricted wreath product
Z
2
…
does the S_n here come from, say, Cayley's theorem
like you've got the involution graph, the Brown lattice etc. etc. all really weird things
it can do but it doesn't have to. Your map doesn't even have to be injective
if you pick the trivial map H -> 1 -> S_n you just get G^n x H
I see
within the last hour i learned two new things then
wreath product and that the ppl who light streetlamps are called lamplighters
In the category of groups, straight up lightin' it... and by "it" lets just say.... my lamps...
BOOOOOO 🍅
BOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO
virgin "-1" vs chad +18 answer
where's this even used? It seems cool though
struggling to see how that isn't a research question
like it could very well come up in research to want the sylow-3 subgroups of S_n
yeah
I think it's moreso that it's not too hard to figure out the structure in general
but why do the work if you can see if the work's been done for you
real shit. that's why i google the solutions to every exercise after 5 seconds of thinking
just kidding
people who use LLMs for their homework:
I went insaneballs on the combinatorics of this Sylow subgroup back in my first year phd
good times
why would you ever want to touch combinatorics 💔
algebra is combinatorics you coward
category theory sometimes has a combinatorics-y flavor which I enjoy ig
it's..... yummerss......

This is just… 
didn't richard feynman say something like "if you can't explain something to a ≤10 year old, then you dont understand it"
≤10 because i dont know the exact number
Your index is like half the length of the equation
do you think he would change his mind if he saw this kind of shit
I worked on that formula for 14 hours straight from 1pm to 3am and started violently shaking when it worked
good times
richard feynman is famous for his wise words and takes
true. i also hear einstein treated his wife with grace and love
I could explain this. It follows directly from the structure of iterated wreaths along with Mackey's irreducibility criterion (which is taught in all good first schools I presume)
oh well duh
i mean you dont have to explain it to me i mean it's right there i could see it clear as day
You know I don’t think you could explain QM to a <= 10 year old (barring very extreme exceptions)
Like you can give a vibe which is pseudoaccurate
But that’s not explaining
The trick is knowing the right 10yos
thisis a stupid fuckign quote anyways lol
read it and weep
It’s possibly true in physics where you can, if you dumb shit down sufficiently far, relate it to something the kid can picture
But like, how are you going to explain natural transformations to a 10 year old
draw a homotopy
tbh sometimes i have to look up the definition of natural transformation
it's a square yunc 💔
for abstract math I would say if you can explain it to a curious first year undergrad
the quote is bad because a different notion of "explain" and "understand" is used than the one most people would use
that's the hack for boosting your understanding btw
oh yeah it is a square i forgot it's a square
find some undergrads and start yapping
I can explain groups to a 5 year old if you let me say symmetry enough /hj
SIKE! It's actually a 2-disk
I think I could explain groups to anyone who understands multiplication
So maybe not 5 year olds but like 7 year olds
I honestly don’t really know what kids know when
No its /nat\alpha FGfAB
I can explain most things to a 5 year old, just some of the things might take me around 20 years to explain
qwertyuiop to you too!
I can explain anything I know to a 5 year old, provided they’re not required to understand it
azerty layout users won't get this joke
it actually pmo that people do higher categories simplically when the cubic and globular interpretations are much easier
pmo...
azerty layout users don't get many things, like "invited to parties"
maybe what feynman should've added was that the ≤10 year old should engage in a discourse with you relevant to what you're explaining
i thought a lot of the nordic countries use azerty
the <= 10 year old should not wish to be able to use the information and reason with it in a meaningful way
maybe what feynman should've done instead is not be a HACK FRAUD
u ever been to a party in Reykjavik? didn't think so
just got back from one last night actually
have YOU?
no further questions at this time
bro is closing his office
(Ignore the claimed error, editor doesn’t realise \nat induces displaymode because my commutative diagram shortcuts are all designed to be auto-displaymode, it compiles fine)
anyway back to the field with one element, specific representation theory over it
can you send the macro please
^
Me and all my homies hate quiver
Yeah so do I but if I’m livetexing, really common stuff like SESs and naturality squares get inline shortcuts
really common stuff like SESs
I wish I was a topologist 💔
what's wrong with quiver quiver is awesome
TeX me right now the LES in cellular homology
the thing is that even if i set up all these things i end up just forgetting about them
It’s a bloated rip off hack version of the one I linked
It takes longer than a 5 or 6 argument command
I don't even know cellular homology
And oh yeah I forgot about \doublefunc which I have in my cat theory notes for writing parallel pairs
I mostly just type them directly too, feels like a hazzle opening up some secondary program, and then suddenly I want the arrows to bend in some way then I would need to read the unreadable thing quiver produces.
What are they even teaching these students in their first sem of UG anymore
:(
I have a macro \marhrm that just replaces it with \mathrm automatically because I make that typo so often
W
I’ve considered doing this for \codt (\cdot)
i have a macro \cat that's just \mathrm
this mogs quiver cause the curved arrows just work
in case i ever decide to change how i want my categories to look
I'm switching
programming 1 💔
I don't use mathrm for categories lol
I use "whatever I damn well please". A little mathfrak here a little textbf here...
wew the kinda guy to use sans serif...
I genuinely don’t like quiver, I’m 99% sure the one I linked came out first and quiver copied, but it’s just more bloated and shit
If I had my way the use of mathfrak would be punishable by death
i think every other day i change my mind between whether i want sheaves to be mathcal or mathscr
$\mathfrak{S}$wag
but i always leave O to be mathscr O
FIELD WITH ONE ELEMENT LOVER
NO IT DOESN'T
yes it does
unhinged take
it looks so stupid
it's like a loser version of mathscr O
Die.
I'm crashing out rn kicking and stomping my feet
My friend genuinely messaged me the other day tweaking wondering wtf the group \mathfrak{S}_n is because it’s literally not an S
You should be happy you're not saying this in #algebraic-geometry
most recent thesis draft has FIFTY \mathcal{O}s and I love them all equally
$\mathcal O$ looks so dumb. $\mathscr O$ looks so awesome
anamono
wait
wait til you see the oh no no no no look at the top of his $\mathfrak{A}_n$
wrong one
nonono sorry i got them wrong \mathcal O is better
FIELD WITH ONE ELEMENT LOVER
But $\mathfrak{sl}_2$ how else do I do my Lie algebras
mico
issuing a public apology soon
lowercase frak is alright
Lie(SL_2)
yeah mathcal O is pretty awesome
that's actually crazy
$\mathscr{F}$
.𝖊𝖓𝖕𝖊𝖆𝖈𝖊_𝖒𝖚𝖘𝖎𝖈
... it has 1829 \mathcal{F}s....
classic as well
yea that one is awesome
Death penalty
what is your ass needing all those \mathcal{F}'s for
I would rather we used hiragana than mathfrak
I switched to the less slanted mathscr and I think I like it more
check my discord status
type shit
except for mathscr M which looks like a droopy dog
I’d rather just fucking guess what you mean than mathfrak, because that’s already what I’m doing with that dumbass font
$\mathcal M$
anamono
writing Beck-modules over an algebra using \mathcal{F}
couldn't be happier, it looks like I'm doing something important like sheaves
i have my files set up with a very nice font i like
\usepackage{mathpazo}
\usepackage[libertine,cmintegrals,cmbraces,vvarbb]{newtxmath}
\DeclareMathAlphabet{\mathcal}{OMS}{cmsy}{m}{n}
so awesome
that last line is specifically so that i can have the nice \mathcal O
because the one that comes with libertine doens't have a curl it just looks like an O which is stupid
wait maybe it does i forgot
anyway it looks stupid
The only thing I do to my latex is make the margins not awful, computer modern is a great font and doesn’t need to be changed
Tbh if you make me read maths with thinner margins now it feels claustrophobic
Especially in pdf form
tbh i prefer thinner margins
you should see commutator theory by Ralph Meckenzie
okay i guess for casual things like if im typing up solutions to a book im reading i'll use wide margins
I'd say about half of the page is white space
but for papers i like thin margins
😭
wait does thin margins mean more space from the sides or the opposite
damn im stupid as hell today
There’s a prof from my UG who doesn’t use like a header gap
I assume the former?
The body of the text literally just continues from the very very top of the page
oh okay yeah that's what i thought too
huh??
LMFAO
psychopathy
The margins are the spaces, so thin margins mean text close to edge
oh okay
Her documents look awful, I always assumed it was just her lecture notes but nope her actual published papers do it too
I think she just gets away with it because she’s unbelievably cracked
but Nope
i like text further from the edge if im reading a paper or something, closer to the edge if im typing up solutions
that's crazy
lmfao
Our number theory notes had the exact same pages defining a ring interspersed in them randomly like 3 or 4 times
Lovely woman, amazing mathematician, cannot use a computer at all
well i mean you gotta go out of your way to do that right?
i thought by default latex has some margins
maybe this is why we're getting programming classes...
I think we should have lines be 1 character wide as standard
w
t
f
All margin, no content
default side margins are way too large I find
imagine commutative diagrams like this
do equations have to be one symbol per line too
Of course
awesome
aren't certain specific margins required sometimes?
i remember seeing some paper a year ago or so where the equations were left-aligned, they had an indent but were left-aligned
I heard you like the align environment so I aligned everything
tbh i lowkey liked it
I remember that I used to write word documents with everything centered
They actually are, there’s like genuine typographical reasons why to do with the optimum amount of text on a line and how computers do stuff smaller and so they picked that tradeoff
I hate it though I’d rather have more text per line and reasonable margins
it looks too much like the typewriter font of old math textbooks / articles
giving me ptsd trauma flashbacks
yeah my issue is that it's hard to distinguish from normal text
like this font?
i've gotten used to it
oh man, I did not think how much difference a font and better margins would make
Woke paper
I just set the l and r margins to 2cm
p sure my notes would be like twice as long with default margins
let me actually check
lol +25 pages
in my solutions document it's just 1in on each side
this is the way to go forward
too much space above
zero margins
I just want some way to make continuous page latex documents
but it doesn't work with pdf apparently
without doing jank solutions
yummy
Perfect
looks good
actually when i print out papers i usually scale it smaller a bit so i have more room in the margins to write stuff
I love how it just cuts off the proposition at the bottom
it's a sign that it's probably not important
no def not
What is a good way to see this highlighted line? Since (-1)^a 5^b raised to the 2^{l - 2} power is equal to 5^{b 2^{l - 2}}, it suffices to show that 2^l divides 5^{b 2^{l - 2}} - 1. I was thinking about writing 5^{b 2^{l - 2}} - 1 = (2^2 + 1)^{b 2^{l - 2}} - 1 and using the binomial formula, but I don't know if this is going too crazy
oh right this is an algebra channel
bruh moment
Lol I would post this in elementary number theory but that place is crickets
got aired in #elementary-number-theory 😭
lol
I'm gonna crash out
overleaf won't compile my paper anymore
it's not even a big paper
overleaf 
💔 its convenient usually
seems like some fermats little theorem stuff
omg I've written a paper with 150 pages
The preceeding paragraph claims 5 has order 2^l-2
It says "from (2)", but idk what (2) is.
Edit: actually it's just the line directly above
this ONE trick turns a 25 page paper into a 150 page paper
you just want to be able to hold the down arrow
one character per page
you're writing a paper on universal algebraic geometry? are you going to share it here once it's finished? 👀
well its basically already finished, I just have to gather the courage to go to a prof at my uni to ask for endorsement 🙏
bro is trying to speedrun fields medal
did u solve a new theorem or smth ?
no but you need endorsement to post on arXiv
vixra
I’ll endorse you….. for a price!… Your soul!!!!
For me it was enough to have a university email. But I guess it depends on your affiliation
I think in specific categories endorsement is needed and a university email is insufficient.
From ArXiV
arXiv may give some people automatic endorsements based on subject area, topic, previous submissions, and academic affiliation. In most cases, automatic endorsement is given to authors from known academic institutions and research facilities. arXiv submitters are therefore encouraged to associate an institutional email address
Yes, but there was someone on the advanced number theory channel not too long ago who required endorsement despite having an institutional affiliation (in particular one that I know has been given automatic endorsement by arxiv in other instances).
I'm guessing number theory is a particularly fruitful place for crankery
Probably, yeah
i wanna see vixra postings that are legit!
Inb4 RH is solved for 15 years before anyone notices the proof on vixra
Im reading some rep theory notes, and they write in an example that given a transitive group action of $G$ on $X$, and $x_0\in X$, then $G/\mathrm{Stab}_G(x_0)\cong X$ naturally as $G$-sets.
The isomorphism comes from the orbit-stabilizer theorem, yet I don't understand where the naturality comes in: in particular this is a natural isomorphism between what two functors?
Specifically what is the functor on the left, where there seems to be a choice of $x_0\in X$?
Poopoopeepeepants
I'm assuming they just mean naturally in a more informal sense.
G-sets can be realized as functors, but then of course saying "naturally" and "as G-sets" would mean the same thing, so probably not what was meant.
Actually, I suppose you could make a category of pointed transitive G-sets. Where the objects are transitive G-sets with a chosen point and the morphisms are homomorphisms that preserve the base point.
Then you get to functors to the category of G-sets, taking (X, x0) to X or G/stab(x0) respectively
It is a natural isomorphism between these, so probably that's what they meant
I do not forgive them because that is silly
The main takeaway no matter the interpretation should just be that this isomorphism isn't some weird add hoc thing, but just the obvious map g |-> gx0
Youre silly
Youre just jealous that i finally know what a character is
Turns out learning rep theory really builds character, ey?
This is the naturality statement for orbit-stabiliiser that I'm familiar with
you view these as functors on the action groupoid associated to the action
now THIS is what I'm talkin about
lets get some kinda uhhh elmendorf reconstruction in ts jawn
there are further ways you could define this naturality as well
since the act of turning a group action into its action groupoid is essentially a grothendieck construction
so you get naturality that way
It's generated by t1, ..., tn and 1/f
Oh, yea i think im getting confused on fg as a module vs fg as an algebra
ig i forgot u can multiply generators together in the ring sense there too
unless the book specifically is using and mentioning category theory you shouldn't take the term naturally too seriously
It may or may not actually be a natural transformation, and usually its not the point the author is trying to make
i think it depends on the primary category, lol
maybe the secundary ones too
IDK what you're talking about.
To my beloved Evaggelia Leleki for all the good memories.
dangit.. i sold it for like two money just a couple days ago
interesting! Thanks.
Higher categorical money
Hm, is it something like, assume that (x_1, ..., x_m)^k is primary for all k, then we want to show that (x_1, ... x_m)^k[x_{m + 1}^k] is primary in (x_1, .... x_n)^k or something
I'm just thinking about why it suffices to show that (x_1, ..., x_n)^k is primary
If p = (x_1, \dots, x_m) is primary, then p[x_{m + 1}] is primary...
But we need powers of these ideals
Is $(x_1, \dots, x_m)^k [x_1] [x_2] \dots [x_m] = (x_1, \dots, x_m)^{k + 1}$?
okeyokay
No I guess not since that would imply (x_1, \dots, x_m)^k is contained in (x_1 \dots, x_m)^{k + 1}
I dont know much rep theory but I have seen SU(2) representations on polynomials in 2 variables before. Does anyone know the motivation behind this? It seems quite arbitrary to look there (at least from the outside)
what else we gonna act on? monomials? 😹
Can anyone suggest me a book on GROUP THEORY?
well the finite subgroups of SU(2) have been well understood for quite sometime, since there is a double cover of it onto SO(3). so you get cyclic, binary dihedral, and binary symmetry groups of the platonic solids (tetrahedral, octahedral, icosahedral).
in the late 1800s invariant theory was considered a very important field, essentially asking questions about the polynomials (the symmetric algebra) on a space invariant to a certain linear transformation (better put, a group representation).
felix klein studied this in the case of SU(2,C) and C^2. what he noted was that for the polynomial ring C[u,v] (the symmetric algebra over C^2) and a subgroup G, the invariant ring could be generated by three polynomials x(u,v), y(u,v), and z(u,v) subject to a single relation f(x,y,z)=0. you can graph this, and there is a singularity at the origin – these are called the kleinian singularities, associated to these subgroups.
with algebraic geometry came tools to resolve (or smooth out) singularities, and patrick du val studied these minimal resolutions (so they are also called du val singularities). i believe he was the person who discovered that the minimal resolution for these singularities replaces the origin with a bunch of P^1's which intersect in a pattern corresponding to the ADE dynkin diagrams.
there is much more interesting stuff where this comes from (the mckay correspondence)
So SU(2) canonically acts on C^2 (that's just how SU(2) is defined), so then you also get an action on functions defined in C^2. And polynomials are nice functions
Yep
Oh I see, and since polynomials have just been studied forever its the natural thing to gravitate to?
Is there any specfic reason for polynomials? It seems also algebraically motivated since polynomials are pretty algebraic from what I know
Essentially the motivation of algebraic geometry: polynomials can be reasoned with purely algebraically and work over arbitrary fields, and still contain a lot of geometric information about their domain
I see, thank you
not sure if this is related but the canonical way of viewing the nth symmetric power of the standard representation of a subgroup of GL(m, k) is via an action on the nth degree symmetric polynomials over k in m variables
no clue if this works for infinite fields but it does for finite
This is similar to the case of vector spaces it seems
I just got the question, are there non trivial field extensions of C? And yes, you can take like the embedding of C into its field of rational functions, but are there any other “more interesting” examples?
I think if you are looking for finite dimension reps (which you are since SU(2) is compact) then it's somewhat natural to look at polynomials since they are kinda the most natural form of finite dimensional function spaces
together with using the action on C^2
idk if there's like a deeper reason though
I see, its just "we could"
That's how it seems to me but perhaps there's some better way to think about it
Ok, thank you
only transcendental extensions since C is already algebraically closed
is this done using field extension
The algebraic closure of C(t) is isomorphic to C. So you can have fun embedding from C into itself, making it an infinite degree extension of itself
Any field that contains another field is called an extension of the other field
this is an absolutely schizophrenic way to think about \bar{C(t)} lmao
well historically it would have been natural. hilbert showed that these invariant polynomial rings are finitely generated k-algebras which is quite nice and perhaps justifies it after the fact
How does one prove this first fact?
Oh god lmao that makes sense to me but is equally upsetting
They have the same cardinality, so I think they have to be isomorphic
worth mentioning that the algebraic closure of C((t)) is something quite explicit
probably same cardinality basis over Q or some nonsense like that
So you can prove that an algebraically closed field is determined by characteristic and transcendence degree.
And for uncountable cardinality transcendence degree is just equal to the cardinality of the field
$\overline{\mathbb{C}((t))}=\mathbb{C}{{t}}=\bigcup_{n>0}\mathbb{C}((t^{1/n}))$
nGroupoid
No, ℝ and ℂ are not isomorphic as fields.
R isn’t algebraically closed
mama mia...
First you pick a transcendence basis, then use that embeddings into algebraically closed fields can be extended along algebraic extensions
That middle notation is making me froth at the mouth
it's pretty standard notation
Hmm I get it now
in a good way or bad way
Im aware
Yeah
Thanks
Take one look at the texit post and let me know what you think
with you i can't tell
i've never seen it before so i rely on others opinions to tell me how i should feel about it
To be clear btw, I was meaning what jagr said, I’m not completely dumb lmao
And I guess a big family of interesting example is take any irreducible variety and take the field of fractions of its coordinate ring
Ah
Ah yeah I see that, but yeah they all vaguely look like just taking a field of fractions
I kinda expected that I suppose, I wasn’t sure what else it could be but maybe there’s something weird and whacky out there
these are the "global" examples, there are loads of "local" examples that generalize the usual definitions of local fields also, just as every (1-)local field in the usual sense is either a finite extension of R or Q_p or F_p((t)), you get examples of (2-)local fields by considering finite extensions of e.g. R((t)) or Q_p((t)) or F_p((t_1))((t_2)) and so on
I mean everything is some algebraic extension of some field of rational functions
I don’t really know anything about those, I know they’re a number theory thing but that’s about it
This is true
They can still be pretty wacky I think
local fields are what you get from completions of global fields at places (absolute values)
global fields are finite extensions of either Q or F_p(t), so local fields are finite extensions of either R or Q_p or F_p((t))
there is a more abstract definition of both local and global fields in terms of valuations but also this really short list suffices
(global fields are fields of fractions of Dedekind domains for which every nonzero ideal has finite index, and these have the property that all of the corresponding local fields arising from completion are locally compact for the topology induced by the absolute value)
I see, my lack of algebra knowledge is gate keeping me as usual
I guess this kind of nonsense is why we should think about field extensions and not just fields
Either that or stay in the more sane world of number fields, and not this weird analytic beast that is C
number fields my beloved
If its not in z its not a number
what is a number type shi 😝
Wdym shi
Number 2 without the t
wo
type shi
I havent done much fields
I did a philosophy course and we learnt what the pythagoreans conception of numbers was, lowkey they were straight up insane. either that or the text we followed was really bad
maybe u could learn Galois theory now
Wanted to be only offered even years here
its so annoying when its like that
Fr i got infinite groups instead which i am not taking
sad
Next year im mainly taking applied courses, this might be last terms of pure math for me ever
wow
why?
Cant end up like canadian youth fr
the fact thats not even a joke
From westernU which i think is solid uni
yup same with my friend rn. Masters in eng from Uoft
SWE is particularly fucked tbf
yeah
swe?
i never really wanted to do swe. took some comp sci in undergrad but wasnt really a fan
After the massive hiring crazy during the pandemic there’s just not that many positions
i took like 4 comp sci courses
I enjoy it enough, I’d take a SWE role probably
me robot beep boop
This is also true, but honestly for SWE it’s just how heavily they hired through Covid
But it’s certainly part of it
i enjoy software engineering but not the uni course
Yeah quantum programming (which was like 50% monoidal category theory) is the only CS course I took
I kinda wish I took DSA though
Crazy uoft is top in the world
Yeah
he has been applying to stuff in toronto
all rejections so far
not even like interview
Oversaturation, if people didnt rush into it it probably would have ordinary opps
Are u sure there is no like cv issues or smth ?
I think Canada is also just generally fucked jobs wise
i dont think so man, he's like one of the most well rounded ppl i know
experience at amazon as swe too
and other jobs

yeah Canada feels especially cooked rn
but i know its pretty bad everywhere too
i mean canada just doesnt have an economy so like
something like huge percentage of canada economy is real estate lol
Canadian engineers dream of working for american companies
He’s having issues too of being hesitant to move cause he’s in a good relationship and the girl is in toronto
He was considering a Phd at ubc in vancouver
Gotta hope carney fixes it
U seem like a carney fan
Canada went from being the envy of the world to horrid so quickly
Lol real
When was Canada the envy was the world lol
2016
Hm
half my family moved to canada just for it to get screwed 
well tbf one of the alternatives was the UK, at least they now live in a first world country
Lol
Canada was always just that country nobody cares about
Its kinda nice that way
nah it's the place everyone wanted to move to until a few years ago
Yeah
?
apparently they make it easy to naturalize etc. if you speak french and english? i thought of moving a while back
Not too sure of the specifics but we had too much immigration recently so the govt is trying to cut down from what im aware
I think for student visas specifically
damn we be hated

