#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 356 of 1
Ah nice thank you, seems to be quite a clever proof
It's just 4 elements in the matrix. With u and t on the diagonal
I also want to know how do i write any matrix in Smith normal form, if you understand then let me know
Getting the elements along the diagonal is the most important part yes.
Pretty similar to row-echolon form from linalg indeed
So in Smith normal form, are we making the matrix into row-echelon form and column echelon form?
Yes, and also you have a relationship between the diagonal entries where they divide each other
Source?
I guess in this specific case d can just be a11, as you just take the first column and subtract a multiple of it from the second.
Yes
No a11 just stays a11.
But you subtract away a12 in the second column leaving you with 0
Presumably they go on do/ have done some general trick where having a row on that form is helpful
Otherwise a12 would not be a multiple of a11
(so then you wouldn't get 0)
Thank you
So this theorem 8.8 is equivalent to fundamental theorem of finitely generated module over PID, right?
How? What do you mean subtract directly?
Multiplying a column by 0 is not invertible, so would not be great
If that was allowed then I guess every normal form would just be the zero-matrix after multiplying every column by 0
i just learned the concept of an automorphism of a group
do they always map generators to generators?
In the sense that if you have some set that generates the group, its image under an automorphism will also generate the group, yes.
yes
If H is any subgroup of G, then is [G, H ] \normal in G?
Yes
How do I show it, I am thinking of characteristic property
Is this subgroup a characteristic subgroup?
No, take any normal non-characteristic H
Then [G, H] = H is not characteristic
Oh wait
Why tf did I think H was normal in your assumption
I can't fucking read

If H is normal then [G : H ] \subset H, how do I show the reverse one?
Actually I don’t think the reverse holds
But like that sort of reasoning (ie, consider a normal non-characteristic H) should give you what you want fairly quickly
oh if i take G = A5 then H = G\times {1} is normal but not characteristic in K = G \times G. Also, [K, H] = H , because A_5 is perfect i.e., [ A_5, A_5 ] = A_5.
Hence, H is normal in K, but not characterisitic so [K, H] is not characteritic in K
is it correct?
now question is, [G, H] is normal in G for any subgroup H?
and if H is normal why [G, H] is normal in G?
Yeah that works
x[g, h]x^{-1} = [xgx^{-1}. xhx^{-1}] \in [G, H] if H is normal
I have been thinking more about the structure Zariski Topology, and how it seems very similar to a topology you might put on a general poset (the closed sets are the upwards closed sets). Although I understand this gives perhaps a slightly diferent topology. For example in Spec(Z) (regarded in this moment as just a set), the set containing all nonzero primes is upwards closed, but I believe is not closed in the zariski topology (an integer is only divisible by finitely many primes). But it seems like there is still som sense in which the zariski topology is a more general phenomeon. Like maybe given some Poset (P, <) you could take the smallest topology generated by the closed sets V(x)={y\in P: x < y}.
Appologies if this doesn't make sense. Thinking about closed sets in the zariski topology as upwards closed has helped me understand it more, and I am wondering if it generalizes more.
No
Consider the wreath product Z wreath C_3 where the latter acts by cyclic permutations. Then if we let H = <((1, 0, 0), e)>, [G, H] = <((1, 0, 0), e), ((0, 1, 0), e)> is not normal
I don't know about wreath product
Do you know about semidirect products?
If so, my example is Z^3 semidirect C_3, where the latter acts by cyclic permutations on the 3 factors
Not much
well if you can't understand this then it's the group <a,b,c,u | [a,b] = [a,c] = [b,c] = u^3 = 1, a^u = b, b^u = c, c^u = a> and they're taking the subgroup generated by a, the only non-trivial commutator is [a,u] = ba^-1 so (as claimed) [G,H] = <a, b> which isn't normal as b^u = c
There is a statement that if S is any subset of a group G, the mapping property defines a homomorphism \phi: F -> G from the free group on S to G.
A family S of elements is said to generate a group G if the map \phi from the free group on S to G is surjective.
And if phi is isomorphism then G is called a free group.
My doubt is what if I take S = G?
I got it
It is interesting that a free group on two elements contains a free group on three elements
can i get more examples where G embedding in K and K is embedding in G, but are they not isomorphic?
Well it also contains the free group on countably many elements by the same construction
How do you do this? I’m imaging some sort of like covering space argument or something like that
I think it's a lot simpler to embed, say F(N) into F_2 by sending n in N to y^nxy^{-n}
Oh yeah that’ll do lol
G = (Z/4)^N and K = G x Z/2
Classic infinite swindle
[
A = \prod_{i=1}^{\infty} \mathbb{Z}, \quad A \cong A \times A
]
[
G = A, \quad K = A \times \mathbb{Z}
]
There are injective homomorphisms:
[
G \hookrightarrow K, \quad g \mapsto (g, 0)
]
and
[
K = A \times \mathbb{Z} \hookrightarrow A \times A \cong A = G
]
(using the embedding $\mathbb{Z} \hookrightarrow A$).
Thus,
[
G \hookrightarrow K \hookrightarrow G, \quad \text{but } G \not\cong K
]
Yuxuan Wang
G is isomorphic to K here though
They are both just infinite products of Zs
ts pmo to a level never before seen
if we assume for contradiction, that
G = \prod{i=1}^\infty \mathbb{Z} \cong G \times \mathbb{Z} = K.
then there exists a group isomorphism ( f: G \to K ). Composing ( f ) with the natural projection ( \pi: K \to \mathbb{Z} ) onto the second factor, we obtain a group homomorphism
\pi \circ f: G \to \mathbb{Z}.
this would be a surjective homomorphism from ( G ) onto ( mathbb{Z} ). however if i remember correctly a result that states that any group homomorphism from G = \prod{i=1}^\infty \mathbb{Z} to \mathbb{Z} depends only on finitely many coordinates. in particular, such a homomorphism has image contained in a proper subgroup of ( \mathbb{Z} ), specifically of the form ( n\mathbb{Z} ) for some ( n \geq 0 ). Therefore, no such homomorphism can be surjective.
on the other hand obviously the projection ( \pi: K \to \mathbb{Z} ) is clearly surjective contradiction shows that our initial assumption must be false?
"pmo"?
piss me off
The isomorphism is simply f: Z^N -> Z^N × Z : f(a1,a2,a3,a4,...) = ((a2,a3,a4,...), a1).
pi o f maps (a1,a2,a3,...) to a1, which indeed depends on only finitely many coordinates, but its image is the entire Z.
You can, if you wish, write the image as 1Z, (which is indeed nZ for some n>=0) but that's still not a proper subgroup.
yea u r right i was misinterpreting theorem to mean that no homomorphism from G to Z could be surjective
should i delete the example ?
Just leave it up; otherwise the subsequent conversation becomes confusing.
okk cool thanks for clearing it up
hi new to groups and geometry but how would translations be a bijection onto the same set?
surely some points would fall "outside" the set
The set in question is all of R^2.
No matter how far you slide a point that was in R^2 to begin with, it's not going to fall off.
but arent we considering a finite subset X of R^2?
we go on to talk about the example of a square and how it has 8 symmetries; but none of them involve translations, how would a translatoin produce a symmetry on a subset of R^2?
It doesn't say X is finite.
oh so would translations only work on infinite/unbounded sets?
Oh, I see how the screenshot could be confusing.
In the first paragraph which defines "isometry of X", X is an arbitrary subset of R^2.
But starting from the line saying "Example 1.1.2" it says "isometries of R^2", which means that in that paragraph X has been chosen to be R^2 in particular.
oH im blind tyty
so in general translations wont produce isometries for finite sets?
Correct.
thanksss
(This is also the case if you consider bounded sets rather than just finite ones -- which I suspect is what you were actually thinking of).
how would a set be bounded but not finite?
For example, the unit circle is a bounded subset of R^2 -- every point on it is within a distance of 42 of the point (0,0).
But it is not a finite set -- there are infinitely many different points that lie on the circle.
got it
got it
why?
i have to prove, if p is a prime number and if N is the number of words of length p in a finite set S, then N is divisible by p.
if S = {1,2,3} and p = 2, then N is 9, right?
Assuming your first statement is true then the second one can’t be. I think the number of words is 6 but counting in my head is hard
So N is |S|^p?
This sounds like a "please show the entire problem as it was given to you" situation.
it is in artin
Yeah I only assumed 6 because I guessed we were excluding repeats and I think that makes it work? It does in that case if not in general
Weird.
Well yeah unless there’s something in how he defines words you’ve just shown that isn’t true
Are they defining "word" in an unusual way perchance?
"words of length p in a finite set S" is a weird wording in the first place.
they define word as finite string of elements of S
Can't we just choose S to be a set consisting of a single "word of length p", whatever that would mean in the context?
Hmm, but the heading "Generators and Relations" kinda suggests that "word" is not a matter of formal language theory, but instead the special kind of words considered when constructing free groups.
not that section is later, after this exercise
Yes, but it still gives some information about the general kind of context the exercise is found in.
Well if you take words of length k without repeats, then the total number of such words will be (|S| choose k)•k! Which is always divisible by k even if k isn't prime so you don't need the hypothesis that p is prime, which suggests that it's something else
If the sections are the same as in my copy of Artin (which must be 1st edition since it doesn't seem to state a number), then the section immediately before "8. Generators and Relations" is indeed "The Free Group".
Oh, and the exercise is there verbatim in my copy too.
yes
So I agree your example here shows that the claim cannot be true as stated.
The text doesn't seem to give "word" any special meaning that could salvage it.
(I had wondered whether it could mean "reduced words that may contain inverses of the generators", but that doesn't match how the actual chapter speaks about reduced words anyway).
yes
maybe that's a typo, i have to see new edition
oh this problem is missing in new edition
Probably confirms that is just irreparably wrong then
Thinking about stuff in the kernel being about “relations” , is that only a correct perspective in the case S->>M with S a free module on the set M?
Probably not right but right now i feel comfortable in that case but not sure how it generalizes yet i guess?
kernels are always relations of some kind
be it as an equivalence relation or not
If you want the kernel to keep track of all relations in M, then you need the free module right?
With the surjection too
sure, yeah
given some subset S ⊆ A then theres a unique homomorphism f : F(S) → A where F(S) is the respective free object generated by S such that f(s) = s. The kernel of this homomorphism is exactly the set of algebraic relations between elements of S
Ok yea cause my supervisor i think does things with “syzygies” and this is related
Hilbert syzygy theorem or something
Free resolutions
yeah, the nice thing about modules is that kernels are faithfully represented as subobjects
Which is what allows us to do the free resolution of any module yeah?
Can I expect something from free groups and free modules, are there any relation between them?
Hardest thing about these is remembering how to spell them
its what makes the consept of an exact sequence have any meaning in the first place
They both satisfy the universal property of being free.
Namely, the free group on X is a group F(X) generated by X such that any function from X to a group G extends to a homomorphism from F(X).
The free R-module is exactly the same, but replacing the group G with an R-module. (And replacing homomorphism of groups with homomorphism of R-modules)
a free abelian group is a canonical quotient of a free group too
Composition of adjoints is adjoint
reducts and subvarieties induce adjoint functors 🔥
I see
Artin does state the universal property of the free group, but only in the next section (ostensibly about generators and relations) and under the name "mapping property of the free group"...
Yes
I want to learn more about free groups
Okay G itself generated G, how do I sure about relations here?
{"gh=k" | g,h,k in G}
What I mean is the relations are the different results of the group operation
Is there any element in A5 which has order than 1,2,3,5?
don't believe so
the only element of order 4 in S5 is a 4 cycle (since you can't get 4 as the lcm of two numbers smaller than 5)
which isn't in A5
Or 6, which is also not possible
But not in A5
but you need a transposition yeah
great username
ya im surprised it wasn't taken
A5 is simple, so has no non-trivial normals
there is an easy way to say whether a subgroup of A_5 is normal
Yes
So can I expect a group such that for any three distinct primes I can get group G such that any element in G has order 1,p,q,r only
I mean for all three distinct primes there exists such group
cite the classification of finite simple groups
?
i dont believe this
Counterexample?
it just seems like there would really need to be an element of another order
If [ G : H ] is finite then [ G : N_G(H) ] finite yes, because we can map [ G: N_G(H) ] -> [G: H] by r N_G(H) -> rH, which is injective
This paper classifies groups where every element has order a prime power
https://projecteuclid.org/journalArticle/Download?urlid=10.1215%2Fijm%2F1258130990
I agree
all sylows would be cyclic so it would have to be metacyclic and solvable
that's all I can tell you in general
ahhh not true. Just exponent p or q or r or whatever
Thank you jagr ❤️
I don't think I need much for reading this paper, do I need?
you'll need to know what the suzuki groups are I guess
oh this is really cool
What is the Suzuki group?
I don't know what is locally finite group
I think I have to learn more things
they're a family of 2-groups with weirdo properties
this paper seems better, notknow
If I'm parsing the results correctly, then either just two primes divide the order of G or there are only finitely many examples.
Thus it should not be possible for all triplets of primes
But it used graph theory, i don't know graph theory too
you dont need to know graph theory
Vertices and edges 
I can
you're good to go!
this is sufficient
xdd
Thanks hk
ok this result is really cool, trivially it works for 1 and 2 primes, but for 3 and 4 you need either sporadic or familes of finite simple groups and then it just stops working??? wtf????
am I understanding this right cause that seems surprising
im continually shocked that there are just people in the world that can do and like doing this sort of group theory
I just checked PSL(3, 4) and yup it works
I kind of do this type of group theory lol
xd
this is such a weird thing lol
any monster group enjoyers?
it's pretty standard for these sorts of things to have a random bunch of bullshit and some infinite families
It’s such a random bunch of bullshit though, finite group theory is weird
Super cool, not for me
i adore classification results
honestly i want to publish some cool and deep UA classification result in my life
something like the classification of minimal algebras or of abelian algebras
Oh same, I’m pretty sure the opening line to my UG diss was me saying they’re the best thing in maths or something to that effect
I drew it
what is 29 doing
WHAT is going on
LOCK TF IN
he has one friend
47 too
they need to get together fr
so me fr
oh cool lol
what was it about
https://arxiv.org/pdf/1103.2047 Theorem A goes crazy
prime graph? what group is this?
It was titled betti numbers in algebra and topology, did some combi comalg, ch2 of Hatcher, some TDA, and some homalg
But I kinda used the opening to be like, we don’t have a classification for topological spaces, even making invariants is hard type thing
the monster
from this table
oops i should have scrolled up thanks
dawg
I actually use this result in my thesis
How the fuck do you even come up with that
what the FUCK
there's big theorems which let you eliminate a shit ton of groups really quickly
crazy stuff o.o
dawg what is group theory even about 💔
it’s just a competition to come up with the most insane looking theorems that you can
what are the primitive relations' intuition / used for?
primitive relations, and I'll explain
mm i see thats cool!
ive gotta lock in
“So all groups are either the trivial ones of order 2 and 3, in one of these 5 sensible infinite categories, or the fucked group of order 518,151,846”
Theorem Z: New NONCYCLIC group of order 3 found
consider the rational representation ring R_Q(G) of a finite group, let B(G) be the burnside ring of G (isomorphism classes of G-sets, addition given by disjoint union, product is given by direct product). Then there is a linearisation map B(G) -> R_Q(G) sending a G-set X to the G-module Q[X] (Q-vector space with X as it's basis set equipped with the inherited action of G). This map has a kernel K(G) of the "Brauer relations" of G. Due to biset functor bullshit, you can induce/inflate between these kernels. The primitive relations are precisely those which do NOT arise as a series of inductions and inflations of relations of subquotients
might want to double check the associaitivity on that one, zunc
rock paper scissors ahh
yes because it's either C_3 or ROCK PAPER SCISSORS
thats not a quasigroup lil bro
“Yeah this is just a virtually semi polycyclic bifinite group that’s naturally the fundamental group of this physics manifold, it disproves the reimann hypothesis”
that's my POINT
the field with one element actually PROVES the riemann hypothesis yunc
•
look i stole it
So they say
nice point, where'd you get it? The contractible spaces shop?
But I was more getting at the unit conjecture, it’s a polycyclic bifinite (complete intersection? Something like those words) group that’s the fundamental group of some weird but known manifold and it was the first counterexample found
the contractible spaces shop sounds horrible, they only sell one single product
is this how I sound to u mfs
I also know that because it’s the fundamental group of that manifold, apparently K theory would never have worked to disprove the conjecture and I’ve got no fucking clue what that really means
Yes. This is what group theory is.
I guess K-theory of manifolds is easy because they're just R^n
i see, so primitive relations are anything that's really "the group's own", cool
wouldnt know how to use that in any way but im sure its useful
it just basically solves how this kernel behaves completely
see Theorem B
which means you can use group actions to essentially deduce almost all of the rational representation theory of G
This is true, but I never worked out what that means really, Giles Gardham said it though and I trust the man
I say almost all cause unless G is a p-group there's a tiny cokernel
But hey maybe I’m becoming a K theorist this year, maybe it’ll all become clear
excellent. Then I can vomit spectra bullshit at you
I did see spectra and Mackay functors in some of the papers I skimmed and I thought of you
paper SOLVES representation theory, leaves group theorists BAFFLED
over positive characteristic it was solved in the 1950s

No clue, a potential advisor said he had something in mind with some nonsense using Milnor K theory, he drew a horrible diagram and wanted me to find when something was an isomorphism or something like that
I am no where near actually understanding K theory yet
good project. Do it.
The other option I have is to do rep theory in monoidal categories which also seems very cool
better project. Do that
I’m kinda between those but I’ve got another person to talk to
how would this go?
Yeah I’m leaning more towards that, but like, shit sounds fucked, professor is scary
I forget the exact specifics of it, but it’s to do with Tannakian reconstruction in Verlinde categories, and the prof has some conjecture that’s been shown up to like char 5 and he wants me to try to generalise it
But honestly right now I can only almost understand the definitions of the category
I thought you said "shown in char 5 [only]" and I nearly fell out of my chair
And my rep theory is borderline nonexistent
It possibly is, he did say it’s pretty fucked and like it’s not that clear how to move it on from where it is
He kinda just roasted me for 30 minutes prior to this so I wasn’t the most focused
I only really know Tannakian duality for G-sets icl
hmm not the best vibes
how hard can the more general case be
I think it’s just a Russian prof diff tbh, I don’t know that it was intentional but yes that is the concern in my mind that’s pushing me towards the K theory stuff
Russian profs are crazy
weve got one here and im nervous just being around him that ill do something stupid lmao
I feel like even if its not intentional it'd still make u feel uneasy when u got to meet him every week
which probably wont be too fun
Yeah that’s kinda where I’m at
the russians are built different I concur
if you go with that guy you will learn LOADS
I’ve heard he’s lovely but the project sounds really hard and I’m concerned that I’ll just disappoint him
though he did put a convo with him and chatgpt in the recent lecture notes showing him getting increasingly annoyed that chatgpt couldnt write a proper poem about math
but if I pull through I’ll be cracked
3 months to prove a conjecture in full generality that experts have managed 3 cases of? Easy stuff
i think even one extra case is great
Yeah I think honestly even understanding the existing cases is plenty for a masters thesis, like there’s not even any courses at this uni that would theoretically prepare you to even do this project
It’s only because of the ring theory and quantum programming I did in my UG that I’m vaguely aware of what he’s on about
you will not do ts in 3 months
I hate to be a hater
No im well aware
I thought this was a PhD level project when you said it
No this is my masters thesis
Bros just cracked and seemed to be disappointed I’m not too
thats fucking crazy for a masters thesis 💀
I mean even the K theory one the guy wants me to work on some conjecture that was made like 5 years ago, bro this uni doesn’t even cover Hatcher ch4
your uni has hatcher?
I never did alg top lol
Which uni are you in?
How is this possible?
We cover up to ch3, which is nice at least
Warwick
i think our uni uses Bredon for algtop courses if they even exist
it's very possible
which yeah they prolly do ig
i never did alg top either :P
Is that topology and groupoids? I think that’s what our cat theory course uses
pointset was a third year course and then they just didn't have any more
you have a cat theory course?
Topology & Geometry
But haven't you done in your graduation?
Yeah, somewhat disappointed I didn’t do it at Edi with Tom Leinster though, but also somewhat not disappointed…
Actually main reason would be that if I had I could’ve took Sheafs and Higher Cat theory with Clark Barwick
I didn't do alg top but I can tell you how to set up a grid based fluid simulator using Lax-Friedrich's
I mean, in my country, first we have to do undergraduate, then graduation then PhD, so in my graduation I have alg top in semester III
yes I also did that, I went to an applied focused uni
I belive wew does now know algtop yes
wtf is a nerve 💔
The preimage of uhhhh
simplicial set smt smt
Something like that
Is it not? Thought it was something about coverings and like preimages of the projection
I was just wondering how to do that how could you tell
(this gives a description of Cech homology in terms of the homology of some simplicial object)
Genuinely don’t remember, not something I’ve needed
Ah, for Cech homology you just plug into Pegasus
It is true, yes
(inner) direct sum is about uniqueness
its not yeah
if A1=A2=A3...
then the sum is just A1 while the (outer) direct sum will be A1^n
mq
no mistake
what are you confused about
what is the first step and what is the second step
also what are you proving?
an infinite sum might be different then all of the finite sums
what're some good tips to doing well in group theory questions
and like finding counterexamples to certain statements
or trying to prove certain statements that don't seem that straightforward
i've never heard of these 😭
well i've heard of them
but
never came across them
my course doesn't mention them tbh
like right now i've done up to the first isomorphism theorem and i know the proofs and stuff but when it comes to doing questions it's a lot different
not yet
not yet
went through that today acc
if you have a specific question, you are welcome to ask here or in the help channels
map from an image of a homomorphism to G/Ker(f)
i think i struggle more with coming up with counterexamples
its fun
like don't spoil it but with a question like this, I don't know whether i'm right or wrong 😭
yeah I was typing too fast
and i don't know if im being stupid and the answer is right there
real
they're abelian groups with a ring acting on them
you wouldn't call group actions sets, would you?
could i have a hint for this?
not a bait one
exactly
do you know that every subgroup of index 2 is normal?
what does index mean 😭
the index of a subgroup H < G is the amount of left-cosets of H in G
Also if someone told me to describe a group would that mean just state properties like cyclic, abelian etc
denoted [G : H]
ohhh yeah where lagranges theorem comes from
i did not know ever group of index 2 is normal 😭
describe the entire structure of the group, using known groups and ways to combine them
give the Jordan-Holder decomposition of the group
or using generators and relations
actually there are a lot of things this could mean 
do you have a picture?
yeah 😭
yep
don't spoil though i want to try ofc
gxg^-1?
i've been staring at that for time 😭
yeah probably give an explicit description of the elements
really?
They might mean, which group we have introduced a notation for are these isomorphic to
ohhh okkk
otherwise it's quite trivial i think
That would at least count for a good description in my book
They could also mean list out the elements and they're combinations...
Both are doable
for a group of homomorphisms? 😭
sounds long
Not really very long in these cases
aren't minimal ideals defined to be non-zero
you mean the fact that any set of ideals has a minimal element?
well, if your set contains the zero ideal then that's automatically the minimal element
well yeah obviously, the definition would be useless otherwise lol
yeah so then this is true just by definition, dont need artinian or anything
anyone able to give a hint to this?
hmm yeah ive been trying that
no
you can also use \in instead of E, everyone will know what you're saying :>
pentium
I think it's quicker to just write out the latex for this kinda stuff
like in text
looks ugly
and is way less readable
btw, if you know H is normal iff G/H is a group then you can solve this easily
@balmy python
I don't see how tbh
||G/H will be a group... really inverses are the only thing preventing that. And every coset will be its own inverse||
i got that gh^2g^-1 \in H and g(gh^2g^-1)g^-1 \in H which might be able to lead somewhere
hmmm
i need to memorise definitions properly 😭
||no the thing preventing it being a group is well-definedness of the operation||
Oh yeah xD
if you want to show ghg^-1 in H, look at (gh)^2
aw man that was easier than i thought itd be 😭
ghgh
then apply h^-1 on the right
then (g^-1)^2
boom its in H
oh that's clean
how did you even find that i was just staring for a while 😭
Tried random things and that works
Dont know how to make that easier
Except making it a puzzle for you
Which sounds annoying more then helping
Groups.
He’s right^
Me?
Finitely generated module M isn’t necessarily projective because you dont actually have complete control over where you can send generators of M right
Sorry btw, i forgot you use they/them pronouns
Indeed. But also just think of the fact projectives are summands of free things
No dw lol I was just unsure
So ljke
Z/2 as a Z-module for example
well usually potatoes can't talk
So a fg module that is not free cannot be a direct summand of a free module?
No this is not true
(Though happens to be true for Z)
PID ahh
Lol
My point was more like
(free modules cannot have torsion elements, so by the structure theorem every fg submodule of free module must be free)
The presence of torsion here
Well don't even need fg here
Just any submodule of a free module over a PID is free
Real
Every fg module that is not free has torsion element?
Well-ordering jumpscare
(over PID)
Not generally no
Again like good to just have any basic examples of projective non free stuff
A nice example is k^n as a left M_n(k)-module
Yea earlier today actually this started with me thinking that i dont even really know examples of projective modules that arent free
Ah fair
Ig issue is that stuff is usually good over PIDs or local rings lol
can you blame me for preferring to think over PIDs and local rings ;w;
Lol why
at least noncomm rings have nice properties
well tbf I basically work with monoid-like objects
Like rings
clones; monoids where the multiplication is "elongated" like n-ary compositions rather than binary composition
So then back here this logic is only relevant if the ring is a PID or w/e right
Tbh that was just to generate examples of non-projective fg stuff but being a PID isn't really needed. For example if you consider a module over a domain and you start getting torsion then things have gone wrong
And similar things in non-domain settings
Ok so to summarize this is what I'm going with:
In general, I can think of a module with a generating set doesn't imply projective bc u cant always control where generators go. If R is a domain, you can also think of how M might have torsion so then it cannot be a direct summand a free R-module
Is there any useful(or at least somewhat interesting) generalization of a ring in a groupoid-like direction? Say, the underlying additive or multiplicative(or both) structure is a groupoid, not in general a group, but still works as expected with addition when defined, e.g. a•(b+c)=a•b+a•c and so on?
thats basically an additive category right?
a ring is an Ab-enriched monoid, so the oidification is an Ab-enriched category
ah, a preadditive category
I guess a categorical definition is probably the best I can hope for, but is there any purely algebraic definition(e.g. defining it as a set with two potentially partial operations such that […]) like a groupoid has?
How is possible that theres a non normal subgroup of Q8 x Z4
Apparently there is one but I have no clue how
If they have a common subgroup H (up to isomorphism) which is not central in Q8, you could consider the diagonal copy of H in the product. Conjugation by an element of Q8 will preserve the fact that the left components of the elements of the subgroup form H but will shuffle them around, resulting in a different subgroup of the product.
Oh I got u
Explicitly, H = {1, i, -1, -i} \cong Z4 will do. We can take as a subgroup {(1, 0), (i, 1), (-1, 2), (-i, 3)} and conjugation by (j, 0) will turn it into {(1, 0), (-i, 1), (-1, 2), (i, 3)} (since jij^{-1} = -jij = -i).
Fun problem BTW; thanks for it.
S -> R is a ring morphism (not necessarily commutative), M a left R-module, then i see some places (like nlab https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/coextension+of+scalars) define the left S-action on Hom_R(S,M) to be
(sf)(s') = f(s's) , but i dont see why the associativity holds. are the definition just wrong ? i personally think (sf)(s') = f(s's^{-1}) works but a book Im refering to also use the above definition and it makes me confused
So s^-1 doesn't necessarily exist, but also your suggestion would fail associativity.
As for why it holds in the correct formula
(t(sf))(x) = (sf)(xt) = f(xts) = ((ts)f)(x)
Some good examples can be for a product ring RxS, the factors, e.g. Rx{0} are projective.
More generally a left ideal generated by an idempotent is projective, so
Mn(k)E11 = k^n is projective over the matrix ring.
Another example is that over Dedekind domains, all ideals are projective, so for example
(2, 1+sqrt(-5)) is a projective Z[sqrt(-5)] module.
I have to show if F1 and F2 are free groups of finite rank. Prove that F1 isomorphic to F2 if and only if they have the same rank.
One direction is easy, how do I show F1 isomorphic to F2 then they have the same rank?
Give me an hint
A hint could be to exploit the universal property of each, i.e. compare Hom(F1, G) and Hom(F2, G)
I think you can also argue via their abelianisations which could be nice
How?
I don't get it, how do I compare Hom(F1, G) and Hom(F2, G) i think I can say Hon(F1, G) is bijective to Hom(F2, G)
Yes, if they where isomorphic there would be a bijection between those homsets. Now pick a group G and compute the homsets, are they in bijection?
Oh, say G is finite set then hom(F1, G) and Hom(F2, G) has different cardinality if there rank is not same
Right?
Yeah
Thanks @rocky cloak 
And what can I say when free groups on infinite set?
If you assume the generalized continuum hypothesis, then the same argument works without change.
Otherwise it's possible to beef up the argument with some more category theory, or you can follow Nopes suggestion of looking at the abelianization.
Do you actually need cat theory for this part
Abelianzation refers to considering the quotient group of G by its commutator?
Mhm
I think it’s not too hard to show that, if X is infinite, the free group on X has the same cardinality as X? So long as you have choice
Do we really need choice?
thanks, thought it would be a stupid miss but cannot work it out for some while 🙏
Yes, this would also be a viable argument
It appears you do
https://mathoverflow.net/a/450084/157483
How?
I am not good at infinite cardinality stuffs
How do I think F[X], it is larger than a family of finite subsets of X, but when I am saying larger maybe that's not the correct phrase to say
So it is safe to say, F[X] is a family of all finite list of X
So it is a countable union of finite Cartesian products of X, right?
Why the commutator of a free group on {a,b} is not finitely generated, hint?
Yep
Yeah it turns out that A being isomorphic to A^2 for infinite A is equivalent to choice lol
Let alone finite families
Cardinality is a significantly less useful notion without choice
Ok
Do you guys have any examples of very interesting comm rings?
There are plenty
Power series rings, rings of integers
Yeah but like, weirder rings
Not more "unknown" but not as basic (in the sense of introductory to an algebraic structures class)
Rings of integers are not that introductory, and I do not mean Z, I mean the algebraic integers in some number field
You have also I-adic completions
Like Z[sqrt[(d)] where d is a non square complex?
Thats one example yes. But d would be an integer
Oh yeah sorry that's what I meant
What is that? I've heard p-adic for primes but I'm not sure about which rings are those?
I guess you also need d not 1 mod 4 if you want it to be a ring of integers
Yeah, ofc
Same concept, a bit more general
Yeah yeah
Why is that so obvious to everyone
Is it for prime ideals?
Well I can search
The d not 1 mod 4? It is a kind of basic exercise
At least how I did it
Yeah it is an exercise involved there right
Works for any ideal.
The vauge idea is kinda "power series evaluated at elements of I".
And indeed the power series ring is exactly the (x)-adic completion of k[x]
Interesting
Seen it in class and used it countless times
R = k[x, y, z]/(xy - z^2) has a prime ideal p = (x, z) such that p^2 isn't primary. That's pretty interesting I think.
It is also isomorphic to the fixed ring of C2 acting on k[u, v] by multiplying u and v by -1
Then there's Nagatas example of a Noetherian ring with infinite Krull dimension
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1837164/306319
The ring of algebraic integers is a Bezout domain, meaning every finitely generated ideal is principal, but it also has infinitely generated ideals
Yeah as I was searching I found that one example of nagata
Hm
The endomorphism ring of Q/Z is the profinite integers, which is equal to the product of the p-adic integers for all p
Learned about this recently from neukirch
The prime ideals of R^N correspond to ultrafilters on N. The quotient is R for principal ultrafilters and a model of the hyperreal numbers otherwise.
(R real numbers, N natural numbers)
well i wouldnt say groupoids are algebraically defined either :P
That's really cool lol
You can define them quite algebraically(see e.g. https://www.matem.unam.mx/~omar/groupoids/day1.html), in fact they were defined as Brandt groupoids in like 1927, which afaik was before “category” was even defined, so I was wondering if there was a similar purely algebraic definition of a ringoid. I guess you could just unravel the definition in very high detail of an Ab-enriched category, but this feels somehow different? Idk. Maybe just cause it is more complicated.
I mean, once you allow partial operations you can do:
There is a set of elements 1_x such that 1_x * 1_x = 1_x and whenever the products are defined a * 1_x = a and 1_x * b = b.
For each a there exists a 1 on either side, and + is defined only between elements for which 1_x * a * 1_y is defined.
yeah sure but i believe its more fruitful to think of it as a category than as a partial algebra
mainly because partial algebras arent that nice imo
idk maybe im just a purist, they are used in a nice proof of some theorem
I guess the fact that the image of a groupoid isn't necessarily a subgroupoid of the codomain is kinda wack
yeah, it sucks
and partial algebras dont have a nice interpretation as the representation theory of certain objects either
I see, thanks!
How do you mean?
universal algebra is the representation theory of clones (generalised monoids; they are to small Lawvere theories what monoids are to categories with one object)
and Mal'cev conditions essentially give the existence of certain elements in a clone in terms of their representation theory (for example how the congruence lattice behaves of the algebras)
but partial algebras dont have this
its precisely because of this that algebras are so nice (all the isomorphism theorems and such come from the fact that they hold in Set)
Does the usage of representation theory here relate to like, representing a group as automorphisms of a vector space? Or do you mean representation theory differently?
thats related!

a G-set is exactly the special case when your clone consists of only invertible unary operations and projections (they model the natural projection maps A^n → A)
and so you might want to ask "what if we want to represent in more general categories" and thats totally fine! topological algebraic structures are precisely clone representations in Top, but you can also go in reps of schemes, manifolds, whatever
That’s pretty neat!
though if we want something like rings as a representation in Ab of the monoid clone, then we run into a problem being that we cannot turn the product into any monoidal product of a monoidal category
because, as discussed in #category-theory they might not have a diagonal map Δ : X → X ⊗ X that acts the way youd want it to
this is, however, remedied using operads, where such a thing isnt necessary. (you can think of it as being defined by equations where each side uses a variable at most once)
I was gonna ask if your clones aren't just multicategories
Rx{0} is projective as an R^2-module right, and (Rx{0})x({0}xR) is a free R2-module? (So its a direct summand of one)
theyre Lawvere theories
just seen as some generalised monoid rather than a category
hmm, well no, clones are not multicategories
the reason they look similar is because operads are a restricted form of clones (although the restriction allows for a much richer representation theory), and multicategories are the oidification of operads
wait huh
wait yeah nvm this is correct
clones are different in that they require duplication maps x → x × x to exist, so identities like f(x, ..., x) = x can be formed
this is not possible in multicategories with a single object. You have to do this in the way that just gives you back an algebraic theory
okay heres the difference: in algebraic theory, if youve got terms t1(x1, ..., xn), ..., tm(x1, ..., xn) and an m-ary operation f, then we have the composition f(t1, ..., tm)(x1, ..., xn), i.e. the variables are in that sense "duplicated". However, in multicategories / operads, one would necessarily have f(t1, ..., tm)(x11, ..., x1n, ..., xm1, ..., xmn), i.e. each variable automatically is a new instance
ah I see
this is, for example, why there is no group operad
Free implies torsion free only over a domain right
But even over a non domain, if everything in the module is a torsion element then it cannot be free right
yes, because 1 cannot have torsion
1 in ring?
and, in particular, contains a copy of R
I think usually the definition of "torsion-free" for modules over general rings is that 0 is the only thing annihilated by a non-zero divisor. So with that definition, then actually free always implies torsion-free
so because R cannot be a torsion module (containing 1), no free module can be a torsion module
Hmm, that doesn't sound right. Shouldn't any R be free as a module over itself (since {1} is a basis)?
thats what i said
Ah, sorry, looks like I thought of the wrong kind of torsion.
oh lol
Erm basic question but every unital ring has units right? I think yes and the way i thought of it was cause u always have a Z->R map
Yes
Ty
But more elementarily it's because 1 is always unit (since 1·1=1 by definition).
Wait yeah how do you even define units in a non unital ring
Yea i guess units besides 1
Then no, consider Z/2Z
(or any boolean ring for that matter)
In a local ring R-m are all units. In other settings do we know where units are “located”?
Oh yeah
R \ U m where m runs over all maximal or equivalently prime or equivalently non-trivial ideals
that works lol
Is it just take away jacobson radical
If a group G acts simply transitively on a set X then the orbits of X ⨯ X are in bijection with G: for any x in X, {(x, gx) : g in G} is a transversal. But the bijection ψ_x: G → G\(X ⨯ X) depends on the choice of an element x in X (we have ψ_{gx}(h) = ψ_x(g^{-1}hg). Is there an object (whose expression may involve G and X but not quotients by G-actions) which is canonically in bijection with G\(X ⨯ X)?
Ok ya if an element is not in any maximal ideal it has to be a unit yeah
No: J(ℤ) = 0 but ℤ^⨯ is not ℤ{0}. J = intersection of all maximal ideals, while {non-units} = union of all maximal ideals.
No that’s taking away the intersection of the m
This was the point tho right
Maybe Hom(Hom(X, G), X)? (If this is actually the answer I will give up on caring about this.)
what are we taking the Hom of? homomorphisms of G-sets?
does Hom(X, G) come equipped with the action f |-> (x -> f(x)g^-1) ?
OK, maybe what I actuallly want is the decompositon X ⨯ X = ∪_g {(x, gx) : x in X} even though this is different from the orbit decomposition when G is not abelian. So it's OK. (I think this is the orbit decomposition (X ⨯ X)/H, where H = Hom(X, X) is non-canonically isomorphic to G.)
Actually I have no idea what I meant, but this is probably the only correct way to do it.
i see, yeah
and because X is free this will give every orbit
(i.e. Hom(X, X) ≈ Hom(G, G) ≈ G)
and the non-canonical nature of the isomorphism of G\(X × X) with G is because the isomorphism X ≈ G is not canonical
funny how that works
not funny at all, sets with a G-action are basically modules
except the union of invariant subsets is invariant
O(sum) 🤷
I would say one of three things are true
free always implies torsion free,
You only define "torsion free" for domains,
You have a bad definition of torsionfree
that's a quotient of the coproduct I don't get ur point
that's literally the (non-direct) sum of two modules
it's kind of cool how close they are, you can tensor them and as a functor it's adjoint to an internal hom
thought this was gonna be a limerick
Honestly, i remember not fully understanding this before, which is why its coming up again. I think a module over any ring is torsion free if for any nonzero m in M, rm = 0 implies r = 0
just like modules wooaaahh
Kinda reads like one lol
I think torsion-free should be defined wrt a given multiplicative set.
That would be option 3: bad definition
Torsion-free over a domain = wrt the multiplicative set of non-zero elements.
wow no way the join of two subalgebras is their pushout over A ∩ B
thjis should at least be zerodivisor, not 0
you mean tensor the G-sets?
that is kinda awesome
yus, write down the definition you'd expect and it's right
ok I should say, only a right G-set with a left G-set
they're kind of woke in how they're one sided
so the set of (x,y) quotiented out by (xg, y) = (x, gy)?
The definition usually used in my field is that a module T is torsion if
Hom(T, R) = 0
and torsionfree if
Hom(T, F) = 0 for all torsion T.
Because otherwise the set of torsion elements (those m with rm = 0 imply r = 0) would not be a submodule ?
Is that why its a bad defn if u leave out the zero divisor part
yur
typically you'd do this with bisets but you can do it with just G-sets
Thank u random dummit and foote exercise
bisets are with relation to a pair of groups (G, H) right?
left-rep of G and right-rep of H
"rep" is a stretch
they're like bimodules but it's sets and groups not modules and rings
a rep is a rep
"any group homomorphism is a rep" ahh
any homomorphism is an interpretation or generalised element depending on what youre doing 
(dw its just copium so i can call universal algebra a form of rep theory)
no it's an arrow I draw between two letters
some guy wrote a book on general rep theory for UA and it explored like a single interesting concept right at the end and didnt even do anything cool with it
my thesis
its a published book 
Youre probably swimming with possibilities in ua
i once watched a twitch streamer who was an universal algebra professor
they'd just do math on stream
sure but its hard to motivate why you should care about certain stuff, even in universal algebra
do you do algebraic K-theory or youtube K-theory
no way there still exist UA professors
thats crazy
SO WHATSUP GUYS I JUST PROVED THAT THIS NEW K-L-M-N-O-P THEORY ACTUALLY SOLVES THE UNIVERSE, so stay watching because YOU WONT BELIEVE WHAT HAPPENS NEXT
what are we doing here 💔
an attempt at comedy
1$ MATHMATICIAN VS $1000000 MATHMATICIAN
student vs phd vs professor
K-theory thats about me right 😎
k for kiand123
your name is kiand123
i know
I feel like there's a pickup line in here somewhere
teehee
take my kiand in marriage
you've gotta kiand it to the guy, he knows how to write a post
Someone had to put that d in there
i kiand handle your shit anymore
what can we say about Hom(A \times B, C) in relation to Hom(A,C) and Hom(B,C)?
for algebras A,B,C
there's hom tensor adjunction if you want that
Chat got the giggles today
booooo change it back
ts is the cuh cuh classic big matrix of hom spaces
actually crazy I love it
wait are these modules or algebras
there is NO toothfairy, NO santa claus, and NO DIRECT SUM OF ALGEBRAS
YES
bullshit explain the $5 left under my pillow last night
fixed ❤️
modules: coproducts are biproducts, Hom(-, C) sends it to a product
thank you ❤️
from the local crackhead
algebras big matrix YEAahhhHH
hmm
this is just stand universal property of products, Hom(-, C) commutes with products
(let's say first that everything is commutative)
If C is connected, then it's then
Hom(AxB, C) is the disjoint union of Hom(A, C) and Hom(B, C)
connected?
Only idempotents are 0 and 1
it means that it has only a single connected component guys, cmon
ZAMN!
Or C not the product of two rings
I think in my case that is true
but why do we care?
lets bring AG into this ofc
about connecteness
your new name 
this always has been about AG
rich coming from u mr "one can explain [basic concept] with universal algebra..."
If C is not connected then you can first split C into a product of rings and use
Hom(X, CxC') = Hom(X, C)xHom(X, C')
wait i got my stuff the wrong way around lol
And if C cannot be written as a product of connected rings, then I will throw in the towel
it works cause ts a biproduct yunc
Because it gives you the answer to your question I guess...
hm, if C is finite dimensional then products will always reduce the dimension, so this method works
Can I ask what is the connected ring?
I asked like why is connectedness is related to this
A, B, C are algebras
but you answered it already
we're cooked
we are
so whats wrong with this?
Hom(-, C) commutes with coproducts in the sense that Hom(X ∐ Y, Z) ≈ Hom(X, Z) × Hom(Y, Z)
not with products, thats the job of the second variable
coproducts are tensor products?
for commutative algebras yes
yes thats the context
then ye Hom(A ⊗_k B, C) ≈ Hom(A, C) × Hom(B, C)
OMG he said the name
but I am working with \times
ah classical AG huh
yes
how do products of algebras pop up there?
the coordinate ring of a product of affine varieties is the tensor product of each coordinate ring
I need to prove the tangent space of VxW for two varieties is the direct sum of tangent spaces of V,W
i know im talking about products of algebras
tangent spaces form an algebra?
no but how they are defined is based on the coordinate ring
how're they defined then?
yes yes okay
well Hom(k[V × W], k[e]) = Hom(k[V], k[e]) × Hom(k[W], k[e]) so its a good place to start there
should still be the same for affine varieties
^
k[VxW] = k[V] (x) k[W] though
taking tensor product over k
duality
I am thinking of SpmA \times SpmB
affine sets are dual to finitely generated algebras
and dualities turn products into coproducts, and vice versa
by duel you mean what?
milne didn't cover that?
probably did
there's an equivalence of categories between affine varieties and the opposite category of fg reduced k-algebras
how have you been doing AG without the duality between affine sets and coordinate rings, like its basically the only reason why things work out nicely :P
I just have the memory of a peanut
anyways yes you have an equivalence of categories that sends an affine variety X to k[X] and a morphism X -> Y to k[Y] -> k[X]
yes
that's what enpeace means by duality
shouldn't it be reduced instead of integral?
yes
yeah
if k is algebraically closed and your varieties are irreducible then you get integral
i wonder- is there a geometric characterisation of V(k[e])?
What kind of characterization are you thinking of?
It's a point that's a little fat in one direction
Does UA deal with geometric characterizations?
i am working in universal algebraic geometry
I see, do you have an example of what a geometric characterization is? I'm still not clear on that
I still don't understand why how is SpmA \times SpmB is the same as Spm(A \otimes B)
or the whole product turn into coproducts things
fiber product
maybe geometric isnt the right word, but like any characterisation that isnt "the quotient by the ideal (x^2 - x)"
well this is just category theory
You might think about prime ideals as kernels of maps to fields.
So then Hom(A(x)B, k) = Hom(A, k)xHom(B, k)
This is not a full proof, but is like the rough idea
I would like to keep this a bit more concrete xD
does "a fattened point in an arbitrary direction" not count
that seems less a characterisation but more of an intuition
2d connected algebra (assuming k alg closed)
Or 2d local alg with residue field k
you won't believe this but today someone ask me same question which i did exactly one year ago😀
#algebraic-geometry message and #algebraic-geometry message relevant maybe
Do you see why an algebra homomorphism from A(x)B is the same data as one from A and one from B?
yes that is just the universal property
the result follows
hmm
also vakil has a good section on how nilpotents feel geometrically
took the words out of my mouth
this is what I would like to understand
lmao
And you understand that prime ideals are kernels of maps to fields?
thank you two
no
like Hom(A, k) is related to Spec(A)?
Okay, then exercise for you: prove that the quotient of a ring by a prime ideal is an integral domain
i would surprise me if i could carry of this into UA (tangent vectors and, hell, the concept of a direction is inherently something about abelian groups), but one can try :P
So this at least gives a natural way to take a prime of A(x)B and make a pair of primes from A and B
And I guess you really only want it for closed points anyway.
In which case it's just maps to k
sorry I am not following
like are you saying Hom(A (x) B, k) has kernel some prime ideal
I'm just guessing what definitions you're working with
A -> A (x) B -> D where D is the quotient of A (x) B gives you a prime ideal of A
By taking kernel
Similar for B
oh ok
Like are your spectrums subsets of k^n?
Okay, well if you're also doing generic points then VxW shouldn't be interpreted as the product of the topological spaces
But if that's the case I'm not sure why you would only be doing fg k-algebras
then what it would be
Let me ask you this, what are the elements of Spec(k[x])
So as I expected you do define it as subset of k^n
In which case points are exactly homomorphisms k[V] -> k
So there's no subtleties to deal with
k is alg closed right?
yes
Are there other types of fields
Okay
Well over non-perfect fields you can have issues with tensor product
Non-reduced 🙁
And I think F_p(t) is a field
Some people care about

Non-perfect field. Blasphemy
can't believe milne is so gracious to work over algebraically closed fields in those notes
in his algebraic group notes he works in full generality
At that point best to just go to affine schemes I feel
wait so how should I interpret VxW
In your case, as a set it's just the product. However, The topology is not the product topology, but the Zariski topology.
In a more general setting where you also have generic points you'll get new generic points as well
do you understand generally how points "correspond" to fields
ok so you are not including nonclosed points
wdym?
every prime ideal is a point
This would be affine schemes as opposed to affine algebraic sets I guess
oh
Maybe definitions vary for the latter, idk
why do we consider that
Kinda necessary if you want non fg stuff, or want k not alg closed
but also its nice to have generic points. if you have the closed set V(y-x^2), then you have your closed points (x-a^2, y-a) sitting along the parabola but you also have the parabola itself, with the property that its closure is the entire set. algebraic geometers have talked about things "generically" long before the modern AG language existed
but why would we call the parabola itself a point
ig the dumb answer is like, you are free to call anything anything – Spec A is at its core an abstract topological space where the points are prime ideals.
another answer is, if we really want to see this as a single point, we want a way to extract a field from the prime ideal, since Spec k is a point. well, there are two ways to do this. you can localize, and take the quotient by the maximal ideal of the local ring. you can also take the quotient and then take the field of fractions of the integral domain.
these processes should feel opposite to one another – one turns the prime ideal into a thing with a unique maximal ideal, and then a thing with a unique prime ideal; and the other turns the prime ideal into a thing with a unique minimal ideal, and then a thing with a unique prime ideal.
in any case, if youre a fg k-algebra over an algebraically closed field, you just get k back. and in this case Spec(R) is really isomorphic Hom(R,k)
for the geometric picture, you can imagine the parabola as a line of glue, and the closed points on the parabola as glitter which gets stuck to the glue (i.e. in the closure). maybe to expand the picture, the parabola is sitting on a sheet of glass (some surface), the surface is sitting atop globules (higher dimensional things)...
if your bridge between geometry and algebra is good enough, its a good exercise to convince yourself what happens sequentially in those two processes of getting the residue field at the parabola – interpret the glitter above and glass and globules below as some containment/chain of prime ideals, and the primes which pass through quotienting and localizing are easily described in this way
relevant
are there situations where Spec A → Spec B is a covering? lol
no idea, haven't gotten that far
but i'm sure there is
wait im being self contradictory let me rephrase
i'm sure there are, but i don't know what situations
ah it appears the correct notion of this for schemes is etale morphisms (with the accent placed on one kf the e's)
i shouldve known
Yea there is the notion of étale covers which in many ways are the "correct" analogue of covering spaces
i can imagine the Zariski topology being way too "ungeometric" for a topological covering map to behave well
How do we come to the conclusion that Z[i]/<2+2i> has 8 elements? I get the norm thing, but when trying to prove it through elementary proofs, I'm getting stuck. I can move beyond 2 is congruent modulo (2+2i) to -2i, I don't get the reasoning behind using division algorithms
Can't move beyond*